IDIA ASSESSMENT MOCK- 2

JUNE 2020

SECTION 1 OF 5: ENGLISH LANGUAGE Question No. 1 - 30 ............................ 2

SECTION 2 OF 5: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Question No. 31 - 72 ................... 13

SECTION 3 OF 5: LOGICAL REASONING Question No. 72 - 104 .................... 27

SECTION 4 OF 5: LEGAL REASONING Question No. 105 - 137 ....................... 38

SECTION 5 OF 5: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES Question No. 138 - 150 .... 54

150 questions: 2 hours

1 mark per right answer, negative marking of 0.25 per incorrect answer

Name: ___________________

Date: __________________

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 SECTION 1 OF 5: ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Questions 1 - 30

Questions 1- 10: Answer based on the following passage.

Does smoking really help a person think more clearly? From recent scientific studies, the answer
is a clear ‘No’. In one of these studies, psychologist George Spilich used three test groups of
people. The first group consisted of “nicotine-free” people, that is non-smokers. The second group
consisted of “nicotine-saturated” people, that is, smokers who were actively smoking at the time
of the tests. The third group consisted of “nicotine-deprived” people, that is, smokers who were
not allowed to smoke for a period before and during the tests, and were perhaps suffering from
nicotine-withdrawal symptoms.

The tests were all based on the subjects’ response to stimuli flashed on computer screens. In the
first one, the subjects had to pick out a target letter among an array of letters which were flashed
on the computer screen. All they had to do was press the space bar when they spotted the target
letter. In this simple test, it was found that the three groups performed equally well.

The second test was more complex. The subjects had to scan sequences of 20 identical letters and
respond the instant any of the letters transformed into a different one. In this test, the non-smokers
were the quickest way to react. Under the stimulation of nicotine, the active smokers were quicker
to react than the deprived smokers.

The tests got more complex. The third one involved short-term memory. For this test, the subjects
had to remember a particular sequence of letters and numbers and respond when that sequence
appeared amidst an array of sequences on the screen. In this test, non-smokers performed the best.
The interesting result was that the deprived smokers committed fewer errors than the active
smokers in this test.

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The fourth experiment involved analytical thinking as well as memory. the subjects had to
read passage and then answer questions on it. Non-smokers were able to remember 19 percent
more of the information than active smokers. Again, the deprived smokers performed better than
the active smokers.

The final test got the subjects performing in a driving simulator on the computers, like the ones in
video arcades. Subjects had to operate a steering wheel, the accelerator, brake and gear shift.
Obstacles would appear on the screen, such as oil slicks and sharp corners. Again, the non-smokers
performed the best, being involved in the most collisions, more than the deprived smokers. And
the deprived smokers performed better than the active smokers.

From the results of these tests, Spilich also concluded that a “smoker might perform adequately at
many jobs – until they got complicated”. He could drive a car satisfactorily so long as everything
remained routine, but if a tyre blew out at high speed he might not handle the emergency as well
as a non-smoker. A smoking airline pilot could fly adequately if no problem arose, but if something
went wrong, smoking might impair his mental capacity. It can also be seen from these tests that,
for the more complicated tasks, deprived smokers were able to think more clearly than active
smokers.

Questions

1. What do recent scientific studies say about smoking?

a. Smoking is bad for the health.
b. Smoking is good for the health.
c. Smoking doesn’t help a person think more clearly.
d. Smoking helps a person think more clearly.

2. What is the true about nicotine-saturated people?

a. Non-smokers.
b. Smokers who were actively smoking at the time of the tests.

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 c. Smokers who were not allowed to smoke for a period before and during the tests,
and were suffering from nicotine-withdrawal symptoms.
d. All of the above.

3. What is the common elements that all 5 tests are based on?
a. The subjects’ response to stimuli flashed on computer screens.
b. Picking out a target letter amongst an array of letters.
c. Remembering a particular sequence of letters and numbers.
d. Both b and c.

4. What did the subjects have to do in the first test?

a. Read a passage and answer questions on it.
b. Picking out a target letter amongst an array of letters.
c. Remembering a particular sequence of letters and numbers.
d. Operating a steering wheel, accelerator, brake and gear shift to overcome obstacles.

5. What did the subjects have to do in the fourth test?

a. Scanning sequences of identical letters and identifying if any of the letters
transformed into a different one.
b. Remembering a particular sequence of letters and numbers.
c. Operating a steering wheel, accelerator, brake and gear shift to overcome obstacles.
d. None of the above.

6. In which tests did deprived smokers perform better than active smokers?
a. Test 3.
b. Test 4.
c. Test 5.
d. All of the above.

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7. How did the fourth test involve analytical thinking and memory?
a. Subjects had to read a passage and answer questions on it.
b. Subjects had to pick out a target letter amongst an array of letters.
c. Subjects had to remember a particular sequence of letters and numbers.
d. Subjects had to operate a steering wheel, accelerator, brake and gear shift to
overcome obstacles.

8. In which test did subjects perform in a driving simulator.

a. Test 1.
b. Test 2.
c. Test 3.
d. None of the above.

9. How were the results of Test 1 different from the results of Test 2, 3, 4 and 5?
a. Non-smokers performed better than active smokers.
b. Non-smokers performed better than deprived smokers.
c. All three groups performed equally well.
d. Deprives smokers performed better than active smokers.

10. What did George Spilich conclude from the five tests?
a. A smoker might perform adequately at many jobs, until they got complicated.
b. A smoker could drive a car satisfactorily so long as everything remained routine.
c. For the more complicated tasks, deprived smokers were able to think more clearly
than active smokers.
d. All of the above.

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 Questions 11- 20: Answer based on the following passage.

Opening up economic production from a lockdown, even partially, when the COVID-19 pandemic
has not peaked in the country poses an extraordinary challenge. Countries around the world are
focusing on making the workplace safe, and issuing guidelines to help workers return to their jobs.
Reducing the number of people present at any given time is a universal principle, either through
resort to shifts, or arrangements to enable employees to work from home. The Union Health
Ministry has addressed the issue through a manual of preventive measures that covers all types of
workplaces and depends heavily on behavioural change, with some additional requirements for
confined spaces such as offices.

Fortunately, the first line of defence against the novel coronavirus is a set of simple measures that
involves little expenditure: physical distancing of at least one metre, mandatory use of face masks
or cover, frequent hand washing with soap, respiratory etiquette, sanitising contact surfaces and
self-monitoring of health. These requirements have by now become familiar to everyone, and
employees need only be nudged into adopting them through persistent communication, free
provisioning of masks and sanitising materials, and organising office space suitably. Physical
distancing of even one metre, if not the ‘do gaz’ or six feet that Prime Minister Narendra Modi
advocated, does pose difficulties because of the lack of space and density of workers in many
places. But employers should see the value of keeping staff attendance at safe level within the
legally permitted ceiling, which now extends to 50% in specified sectors and even in some
government offices. Failure to maintain distancing, more so in poorly-ventilated close
environment, gives the virus a free run, as Chennai’s wholesale vegetable market showed starkly.

The Centre’s protocol for symptomatic cases at the workplace, requiring testing, and, where
warranted, quarantining of both the worker and close contacts, and a two-day closure of offices
experiencing an outbreak should underscore to employers the importance of prevention.
Responsibility, however, does not devolve entirely on offices and establishments, and it is
imperative for other activities, such as public transport used by many workers, to meet COVID-19

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requirements. Some institutions are mandating installation of the Aarogya Setu app by employees
returning to work, when the legal basis of this monitoring mechanism remains shaky and there are
no assured benefits in terms of health care. At this stage of the pandemic, when a gradual
resumption of economic activity in multiple sectors ranging from construction to food takeaways
is a necessity, the most feasible intervention at the workplace are voluntary and those that cost the
least. There may still be occasion to resort to intermittent lockdowns if opening up leads to
mounting cases. A prudent course would be to navigate the present with a minimalist approach, as
the quest for a medical breakthrough makes progress.

Questions

11. Which activity poses a challenge to the country during the COVID-19 pandemic?
a. Opening up railway services.
b. Opening up economic production.
c. Opening up schools and colleges.
d. Opening up essential services.

12. How has the government addressed the issue of making the workplace safe?
a. Through a manual of preventive measures that covers all types of workplaces and
depends heavily on behavioural change.
b. Through a manual of preventive measures which includes additional requirements
for confined spaces such as offices.
c. Both the above.
d. None of the above.

13. What is the advantage of measures that are required to be adopted against the novel
coronavirus?
a. Readily available.
b. Inexpensive.
c. Easy implementation.

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 d. All of the above.

14. What measures are required to be adopted against the novel coronavirus?
a. Physical distancing of at least three metres.
b. Occasional hand washing with soap.
c. Sanitising contact surfaces.
d. All of the above.

15. How can employees be encouraged to comply with requirements necessary to defend
oneself against the novel coronavirus?
a. Persistent communication.
b. Free provisioning of masks and sanitising materials.
c. Organising office space suitably.
d. All of the above.

16. Why is physical distancing a difficult task to implement at the workplace?

a. lack of space
b. density of workers in many places
c. Both of the above.
d. None of the above.

17. What protocol is the Centre implementing to prevent spread of the novel coronavirus?
a. Testing.
b. Quarantining of both the worker and close contacts, where required.
c. Two-day closure of offices experiencing an outbreak.
d. All of the above.

18. What is the disadvantage of the Aarogya Setu app?

a. Does not help government accurately track coronavirus infected patients.
b. Legal basis of this monitoring mechanism remains shaky.

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 c. There are no assured benefits in terms of health care.
d. Both b and c.

19. Why did the condition in Chennai’s wholesale vegetable market get worse?
a. Poor ventilation in the area
b. Failure to maintain physical distancing.
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

20. What form of intervention at workplace is the most feasible?

a. Mandatory.
b. Most cost effective.
c. Voluntary and most cost effective.
d. None of the above.

Questions 21 - 30: Answer based on the following passage.

The Government is taking seriously the issue of road safety and is committed to reducing the
number of people killed in accidents. Forums are being conducted regularly to bring law-makers,
law enforcement officers and road users together to discuss ways to tackle the rise in road
accidents. Everyone agrees that more needs to be done on road safety in its determination to curb
the rate of road accidents in the country. The Government, with the cooperation of relevant
agencies, is making serious efforts to instil proper road culture in children, young adults and the
public in general.

There are approximately 14 million cars on the road with the figure on the rise and the traffic police
have been taking a tough stance on traffic offenders. During the first 10 months of the year, the
traffic police issued 143,077 summonses to motorists for traffic light related offences. Statistics
reveal that traffic light related offences are on the rise, especially in the urban areas. The traffic
police, however, have taken a tough stance against traffic light defaulters by slapping hefty fines
and ‘awarding’ demerit points to the offenders. Typical reasons cited for beating traffic lights

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include rushing to an urgent appointment or even worse to be completely oblivious of the changing
of the lights.

If an accident results from the violation of the traffic regulations, the driver could very well find
himself in court charged with dangerous driving. Usual punishments include a fine, a ban on
driving for a specified time and may even be a prison sentence. Sometimes, the court may even
order to pay out compensation if death occurs as a result of the accident.

Sometimes, motorists are flagged down by the police because they could have committed one
traffic offence or another. The most common are speeding, using the hand phone without a hands-
free kit, using the emergency lane or reckless driving. If flagged down, indicate your intention by
using your indicator and pull over to the side and at night switch on your cabin lights. This will
allow the police officer to look into your car easily. Also, voluntarily turning on the light will show
that you have nothing to hide.

Usually at road blocks, for every 10 plain-clothes police officers, there would be two uniformed
police personnel manning the operation. If you are stopped by uniformed police officers while
driving, stop the car and wind down your window. If the police officers ask for your documents,
request to see their identifications first. You have the right to know the offence you have committed
by asking the police officers. Produce your identity card and driver’s license and wait to collect
your summons.

If you are flagged down by persons claiming to be plain-clothes police officers, do not stop. Plain-
clothes police officers do not have the authority to stop you. Drive to the nearest police station and
lodge a report.

Questions

21. Why is the government taking the issue of road safety seriously?
a. To tackle the rise in road accidents.
b. To reduce the number of people killed in road accidents.
c. Both of the above.

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 d. None of the above.

22. What is the government doing to address the issues of road safety?
a. Ensuring stricter enforcement of traffic rules.
b. Making efforts to instil proper road culture in children, young adults and the public.
c. Placing a cap on the number of cars owned per household.
d. Increasing the fines for violation of traffic rules.

23. How has the police dealt with traffic light defaulters?
a. Imposing hefty fines and awarding demerit points to the offenders.
b. Letting off on first two warnings only.
c. Issuing a ticket and fine on third warning.
d. Seizing the license of offender.

24. What is the reason people cite for breaking the traffic regulations?
a. Rushing to urgent appointments.
b. Oblivious of the changing of lights.
c. Both of the above.
d. None of the above.

25. What is the penalty for violation of traffic regulation?

a. A fine or a prison sentence.
b. A ban on driving for a specified time.
c. Compensation, if death occurs as a result of the accident.
d. All of the above.

26. What are the most common traffic offences?

a. Speeding or reckless driving.
b. Using the hand phone without a hands-free kit.
c. Using the emergency lane.

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 d. All of the above.

27. What must a motorist do upon being flagged for traffic offence by police?
a. Use your indicator and pull over to the side.
b. At night, switch on your cabin lights.
c. In the day, hand over your licence first.
d. Both a and b.

28. What must a motorist do upon being stopped by a uniformed police officer?
a. Stop the car and put down your window.
b. Hand over your documents immediately.
c. Pull over to the side.
d. Step out of the car.

29. What rights does a motorist have upon being stopped by a police officer?
a. A motorist has no rights.
b. A motorist can request to see a police officer’s identification before handing over
their documents to the them.
c. A motorist has a right to know the offence committed by asking the police officers.
d. Both b and c.
30. What must a motorist do upon being stopped by a Non-uniformed police officer?
a. Do not stop.
b. Drive to the nearest police station and lodge a report.
c. Both the above.
d. Only b.

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 SECTION 2 OF 5: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Questions 31 - 72

Questions 31 - 34: Answer based on the following passage.

The 50th Annual Meeting of the World Economic Forum, a congregation of rich and
powerful from across the world, opens in [1] today. Besides, over 100 CEOs, political
leaders including Union Ministers and Chief Ministers will take part in the 50th edition of
the annual event. WEF founder and executive chairman said in his welcome message that
he is proud to have created a community of some great people, including young leaders,
through this platform.

31. Who is to lead the Indian delegation to the 50th World Economic Forum meeting?

a) Narendra Modi
b) Nirmila Sitaraman
c) Rajnath Singh
d) Piyush Goel

32. What is the theme of 50th World Economic Forum meeting?

a) Globalization 4.0: Shaping a Global Architecture in the Age of the Fourth Industrial
Revolution
b) Responsive and Responsible Leadership
c) Stakeholders for a Cohesive and Sustainable World
d) Creating a Shared Future in a Fractured World

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 33. Who is the founder and executive chairman of World Economic Forum?
a) Klaus Schwab
b) David Malpass
c) Roberto Azevedo
d) Kim Jong Yang

34. Where was the 50th World Economic Forum Annual Meeting [1] held this year?
a) Paris, France
b) New York, USA
c) Davos, Switzerland
d) Geneva, Switzerland

Questions 35 - 38: Answer based on the following passage.

While no rate cut was announced today by the RBI, the LTRO proposed to be conducted by the
central bank may lead to banks reducing lending rates (MCLR) and thereby bringing good news
for borrowers with loans linked to this benchmark. RBI intends to conduct these LTROs to improve
transmission of earlier rate cuts within the economy. LTRO is a tool in which central bank offers
money to banks for a period of one to three years at the prevailing repo rate (currently at 5.15 per
cent). The banks in turn offer government securities with same or higher tenure as collateral to the
central bank.

35. What does LTRO stand for?

a) Long Term Reverse operation

b) Liquidity Term Repo operation
c) Liquidity Term Reverse operation
d) Long-term Repo operation

36. Who is the current Governor of RBI?

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a) C. Rangarajan

b) D. Subbarao

c) Shaktikanta Das

d) Urjit Patel

37. Who was the first Indian to be appointed as the Governor of the RBI?

a) A.G. Ambegaonkar

b) H.V.R. Iyengar

c) C.D. Deshmukh

d) Benegal Rama Rau

38. When was the Reserve Bank of India established?

a) 1929

b) 1930

c) 1935

d) 1933

Questions 39 - 40: Answer based on the following passage.

Government has directed Food Corporation of India to provide food grains to NGOs and
charitable organizations providing cooked meals to the needy at OMSS.
During the period of nationwide lockdown, the organisations can buy wheat and rice from FCI
godowns without going through the e-auction. OMSS reserve price for rice is ₹2,250 per

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quintal and price of wheat is ₹2,135 per quintal. Earlier, only State governments and registered
bulk users were allowed to buy from FCI under OMSS rates.

39. Government has directed Food Corporation of India to provide food grains to NGOs
at OMSS rates. What does OMSS stand for?

a) Open Market Sale Scheme

b) Out Market Sale Scheme
c) Open Market State Scheme
d) Out Market Sale Scheme

40. Which of the following legislations deal with the distribution of food grains through Fair
price shops?

a) The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006

b) National Food Security Act, 2013
c) NREGA Act, 2005
d) None of the above.

Questions 41 - 45: Answer based on the following passage.

The third Khelo India Youth Games were held from 10 January 2020 and 22 January 2020
in Guwahati, Assam, India. The event had witnessed 20 national level multidisciplinary
grassroots games to get played among the age groups of under-17 and under-21 categories.
The Khelo India was launched to boost sports culture in India. The scheme is being
implemented by Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The scheme also aims to make India a
great sporting nation. Under the Scheme, the ministry of sports conducts school level, college
level and university level programmes.

41. Which are the two new games that were inducted in 2020 Khelo India Youth Games?
a) Cricket and Football

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b) Vollyball and Kabaddi
c) Cycling and Lawn Tennis
d) Cycling and Lawn Bowls

42. Which State/UT topped the Khelo India Youth Games 2020?
a) Haryana
b) Maharashtra
c) Tamil Nadu
d) New Delhi

43. Who acted as the Torch Lighter in the 3rd Khelo India Youth Games 2020.
a) Duti Chandra
b) Hima Das
c) Mithali Raj
d) PV Sindhu

44. Every year top one thousand excellent players in Khelo India Youth Games are eligible
for financial aid by the government. How much aid is given to the eligible players?
a) 3 Lakh Rupees
b) 5 Lakh Rupees
c) 7 Lakh Rupees
d) 10 Lakh Rupees

45. 1st Khelo India Youth Games were organized in which city?
a) Pune
b) Lucknow
c) Gurugram
d) New Delhi

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 Questions 46 - 50: Answer based on the following passage.

The 2020 ICC Under-19 Cricket World Cup was an international limited-overs cricket tournament
that was held in South Africa from 17 January to 9 February 2020. It was the thirteenth edition of
the Under-19 Cricket World Cup, and the second to be held in South Africa. Sixteen teams took
part in the tournament, split into four groups of four. The top two teams from each group advanced
to the Super League, with the bottom two teams in each group progressing to the Plate
League. India were the defending champions.

46. Which country won the ICC U-19 World Cup 2020 by defeating India?

a) England

b) South Africa

c) Bangladesh

d) Australia

47. In which year was the first ICC U-19 World Cup organized?

a) 1985

b) 1988

c) 1992

d) 1996

48. Who had won the ‘Player of the tournament award’ in the ICC U-19 World Cup 2020?

a) Yashasvi Jaiswal

b) Mehrob Hasan

c) Akbar Ali

d) Priyam Garg

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 49. Who was the captain of the Indian team during the tournament?

a) Yashasvi Jaiswal

b) Abhishek Das

c) Priyam Garg

d) Dhruv Judal

50. Which country will be hosting ICC U-19 2022 World Cup?

a) West Indies

b) India

c) South Africa

d) New Zealand

Questions 51 - 55: Answer based on the following passage.

The powerful Military Commander, General Qassim Soleimani was killed in the air strike
conducted by the United States. The President of the US is said to have ordered a drone attack on
the vehicles, in which the military personnel were travelling near the airport. Another
commander and adviser to Soleimani, Abu Mahdi al-Muhandis was also killed in the attack. This
attack created an atmosphere of tension around the middle-east region.

51. Qassim Soleimani, who was killed in the US air strike was the Military Commander of
which country?

a) Iraq

b) Iran

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c) Israel

d) Syria

52. Iran has recently changed the name of its currency to?

a) Riyal

b) Dinar

c) Toman

d) Dirham

53. Who is the current President of Iran?

a) Ali Khamenei

b) Hassan Rouhani

c) Barham Salih

d) Bashar al-Assad

54. Which Middle East country recently legalized cannabis farming for medicinal use?

a) Saudi Arabia
b) Lebanon
c) Oman
d) Yemen

55. Adnan al-Zurfi was appointed as the new Prime minister of which country by its
President Barham Salih?

a) Iran
b) Iraq
c) Israel
d) Oman

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 Questions 56 - 60: Answer based on the following passage.

Recently, four men from India have been identified for Gaganyaan, India’s first manned mission
to space. They will undertake astronauts’ training in Russia. Gaganyaan is a crewed orbital
spacecraft intended to send astronauts into space for a minimum of 7 days by 2022 as a part of the
Indian Human Spaceflight Programme.

56. From which Indian organization, the four personnel have been selected for training in
Russia for the Gaganyaan Mission?

a) ISRO
b) IAF
c) MARCOS
d) Indian Navy

57. What are Indian Space Travelers called?

a) Astronauts

b) Cosmonauts

c) Vyomanauts

d) Taikonauts

58. Who was the first Indian Origin Women to travel in space?
a) Sunita Williams

b) Kalpana Chawla

c) Reshma Khan

d) Kasturba Kohli

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 59. Who was the First Human to travel into space?
a) Rakesh Sharma

b) Yuri Gagarin

c) Neil Armstrong

d) Buzz Aldrin

60. Which country is the first to launch a satellite in space?

a) USA

b) China

c) USSR

d) Germany

Questions 61 - 62: Answer based on the following passage.

Recently a veteran Indian historian (1), who co-authored several popular NCERT books, passed
away in Noida. He served as a historian at NCERT for many years. He wrote many famous NCERT
books on Modern and Contemporary India and the World, along with his wife Indira Dev. In the
later part of his life, he was associated with the ‘Towards Freedom Project’ of the Indian Council
of Historical Research.

61. What was the name of this famous Historian?

a) Ram Shankar

b) Vikram Dev

c) Arjun Dev

d) Sumit Nandan

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 62. What is the full form of ‘NCERT’?

a) National Council of Educational Research and Training

b) National Council of Educational Reach and Training

c) National Center of Educational Research and Training

d) National Center of Educational Reach and Training

Questions 63 – 65: Answer based on the following passage.

The innovation cell of Ministry of HRD and AICTE have recently launched an online challenge
for students called [1], in collaboration with Forge and InnovatioCuris. This challenge calls for
students to search and develop quick solutions to the Coronavirus pandemic, that will assist the
government agencies and health services. Under the programme, the students and teachers of the
country will be motivated for conducting new experiments.

63. What is the name of the online challenge for students, launched by the innovation cell of
MHRD and AICTE, for developing solutions to the Coronavirus pandemic?
a) Samriddhi
b) Samadhan
c) Soochna
d) Chunauti

64. Who is the current Union Minister of HRD?

a) Nirmila Sitaraman
b) Piyush Goel
c) Nitin Gadkari
d) Ramesh Pokhriyal

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 65. Which Union Ministry has launched the revised version of Swachhata App to handle
queries specific to COVID 19?
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
d) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Questions 66 – 68: Answer based on the following passage.

The National Bravery awards for the year 2019 were presented in New Delhi. Children including
10 girls were selected for the National Bravery awards. Among them, one award was given
posthumously. The highest award called Bharat award was conferred on a 15-year-old Kerala
boy [1] , for saving more than 40 lives after a bus accident.

66. The National Bravery Awards for children are presented by which ministry/ organisation
annually?

a) Ministry of Woman and Child Development

b) Ministry of Defense

c) UNICEF

d) Indian Council of Child Welfare

67. In which year the first National Bravery Award was presented?

a) 1962

b) 1987

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 c) 1978

d) 1958

68. Who won the 2019 Bharat Award for Bravery [1]?

a) Adithya K

b) Geeta Mani

c) Dhruva

d) Sumit Gaur

Questions 69 – 72: Answer based on the following passage.

At a time when the World Health Organisation has been seeking at least $675 million additional
funding for critical response efforts in countries most in need during the pandemic, U.S. President
Trump has done the unthinkable — halting funding to WHO while a review is conducted to assess
its “role in severely mismanaging and covering up the spread of coronavirus” and for “failing to
adequately obtain, vet, and share information in a timely and transparent fashion”. The decision
comes a week after he first threatened to put funding on hold for the global health body.

69. WHO current director Tedros Adhanom hails from which country?

a) Eritrea

b) Ethopia

c) Egypt

d) Portugal

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70. Where is the headquarter of WHO situated in?

a) New York, USA

b) Hague, Netherlands

c) Davos, Switzerland

d) Geneva, Switzerland

71. Who is the current chief scientist at WHO?

a) Dr. Soumya Swaminathan

b) Dr. Samira Asma

c) Dr. Neelam Kler

d) Dr. Uma Saren

72. Select the odd one out.

a) HIV

b) SARS-Cov-2

c) H1N1 Flu

d) Ebola

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 SECTION 3 OF 5: LOGICAL REASONING

Questions 73 - 104

73. Showing a photo of a man, Geeta says,” His mother’s only daughter is my mother”. How
is Geeta related to the man in the photo?
a. Niece
b. Daughter
c. Uncle
d. Granddaughter.
74. In a family of P, Q, R and T, P and Q are brothers; while R and T are sisters. How are Q
and T related if P’s son is T’s brother?
a. Sister-Brother
b. Uncle-Niece
c. Father-Daughter
d. Father-Son

Questions 75 - 79: Answer based on the following passage.

There are two grandfathers and two grandmothers in a family of 21. There are six couples each
having at least one child. The grandparents have 9 grandchildren altogether, among them three are
Anne, Jerry and Ravi. Their father and mother are a doctorand teacher respectively. The Doctor
has a sister who is an Electrician. The Teacher has two brothers, one Lawyer and a singer. Among
the 9 grandchildren there are 5 granddaughters and 4 grandsons. The mother of two granddaughters
among the five is the Electrician whose husband is not in the party. The father of two grandsons
among the four is a Lawyer, whose wife is a dentist.

75. How many children does the singer have?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

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76. How many grandchildren do the parents of the Electrician have?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

77. The singer has

a. Two sons
b. Two daughters
c. One daughter and a son
d. No children

78. How many children do the parents of doctor have?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

79. How many fathers are there in the family?

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

80. In a family of seven people engineer is married to a doctor and has three sons, one singer,
one dancer and one mechanic. The mechanic’s wife is a lawyer and aunt of Riya. Riya,
the daughter of singer learns guitar with her brother karan. How is dancer related to
karan?
a. Son

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 b. brother
c. nephew
d. uncle

81. That man is Damodar’s sister’s mother’s brother. How is that man related to Damodar?
a. Uncle
b. Nephew
c. Father
d. None of the above.
82. Reena is the sister of Surender and Surender is the brother of manoj. Then how is Manoj
related to Reena?
a. Brother
b. Sister
c. Father
d. Cannot be determined
83. That girl is Shyamu’s sister’s uncle’s wife’s daughter. How is that girl related to
Shyamu?
a. Sister
b. Cousin
c. Niece
d. None of the above.

84. (i) No cow is sheep.

(ii) All the sheep are bat.

A. No cow is cat.
B. No cat is cow.
C. Some bat are sheep.
D. All the bat are sheep.

a. Only (B) and (D)

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 b. Only (A) and (C)
c. Only (C) and (D)
d. Only (C)
e. All the four

85. If A + B means A is the mother of B;

A – B means A is the brother B;
A % B means A is the father of B and
A x B means A is the sister of B,
which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?
a. Q – N + M x P
b. B. P + S x N – Q
c. C. P – M + N x Q
d. D. Q – S % P

86. If A + B means A is the brother of B;

A – B means A is the sister of B and
A x B means A is the father of B.
Which of the following means that C is the son of M?

a. M – N x C + F
b. F – C + N x M
c. N + M – F x C
d. M x N – C + F

Questions 87- 90: Answer based on the following passage.

In a family, there are six members- A, B, C, D, E and F. A and B are a married couple, A being a
male member. D is the only son of C, who is the brother of A. E is the sister of D. B is the
daughter-in-law of F, whose husband has died.

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 87. How F has related to A?

a. Mother
b. Sister-in-law
c. Sister
d. Mother-in-law

88. How is E related to C?

a. Daughter
b. Aunt
c. Cousin
d. Sister

89. Who is C to B?

a. Brother
b. Brother-in-law
c. Son-in-law
d. Nephew

90. How many male members are there in the family?

a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five

Questions 92- 95: Answer based on the following passage.

There are six person P, Q, R, S, T, and U in a family. They are a psychologist, Manager, Lawyer,
Jeweler, Doctor, and Engineer. The doctor is the grandfather of U who is a psychologist. The

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manager S is married to P. R, the jeweler is married to the Lawyer. Q is the mother of T and U.
There are two married couples in the family.

91. What is the profession of T?

a. Doctor
b. Jeweler
c. Psychologist
d. None of these

92. How’s P related to T?

a. Brother
b. Uncle
c. Grandfather
d. Father

93. How many male members are there in the family?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

94. What is the profession of P?

a. Doctor
b. Lawyer
c. Jeweler
d. Manager
e. None of these

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 95. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my
mother." How is Suresh related to that boy?
a. Brother
b. Father
c. Cousin
d. Uncle

Questions 96- 99: Answer based on the following passage.

The family with two kids came just before the family with no kids. Kanta who does not have any
kids reached just before Sonal’s family. Rajan and his wife reached last with their only kid. Arjun
is not the husband of Suhana. Arjun and Rajan are fathers. Sonal’s and Anita’s daughters go to the
same school. Suhana came before Kanta and met Anita when she reached the venue.
Shani stays the farthest from the venue. Rajan said his son could not come because of his exams.

96. Which woman arrived third?

a. Kanta
b. Sonal
c. Anita
d. Suhana

97. Name the correct pair of Husband and Wife?

a. Rajan and Kanta
b. Rajan and Sonal
c. Arjun and Sonal
d. Rajan and Anita

98. Of the following pairs, whose daughters go to the same school?

a. Arjun and Shani
b. Rajan and Shani

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c. Rajan and Arjun
d. None of the above

99. Whose family is known to have more than one kid for certain?
a. Shani’s
b. Rajan’s
c. Arjun’s
d. Rajan’s

100. Statement:

I. All CD are STs

II. Some STs are EFs

III. All EFs are WXs

Conclusions:

I. Some CDs are EFs

II. Some WXs are STs

III. No CD is EF

IV. All STs are CDs

a. Only I follows
b. I and II but III follows
c. II and I or III follows
d. All of them follow
101. Statement:

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I. All Oranges are yellows

II. Some yellows are yellows

Conclusions:

I. Some yellows are Oranges

II. All Oranges are yellows

a. Only I follows
b. Only II follows
c. Either I or II follows
d. Neither follows

102. Statement:

Some bridges are lamps. Some cars are bridges. All skirts are door. All cups are bridge. No
sugar is cup. Some sugars are lamps.

Conclusions:

I. No sugar is bridge.

II. No skirt is bridge.

III. All lamps are sugar is a possibility.

IV. Some skirts are cup.

a. Either I or II follows
b. Only II follows
c. Either I or III follows
d. II and III follows.

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 103. Statement
Statement I: All coats are red.
Statement II : Some red are yellow.
Statement III : All yellow are pants.
Statement IV : Some pants are clothes.

Conclusion I : Some clothes are coats.

Conclusion II : Some pants are coats.
Conclusion III : Some pants are red.
Conclusion IV : All pants are yellow.

a. None follow
b. Only II follow
c. Only III follow
d. Both II and III follow

104. Statement
Statement I : Some pens are bats.
Statement II : Some bats are boxes.
Statement III : All boxes are pencils.
Statement IV : No pencil is notebooks.
Conclusion I : No pens are notebooks.
Conclusion II : Some pencils are pens.
Conclusion III : Some pencils are bats.
Conclusion IV : No boxes are notebooks.
a. None follow
b. II and III follow
c. Either I or III follow
d. Both III and IV follow

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37 | P a g e
 SECTION 4 OF 5: LEGAL REASONING

Questions 105 - 137

Questions 105-108: Answer based on the following passage.

"Whoever intending to take any moveable property out of the possession of any person without that person's
consent, moves that property out of his or her possession, is said to commit theft.”

A person who, without lawful excuse, damages any property belonging to another, intending to damage
any such property shall be guilty of causing criminal damage. Damage means any impairment of the value of a
property.

Here's an excerpt that is to be studied after understanding the above statement;

Sushma, an old lady of 85 years, used to live with her granddaughter Naina. Sushma was ill and therefore
bedridden for several months. In those months, she could not tolerate any noise and it became quite
difficult to clean her room. After she died, Naina hired a cleaner, Rajesh, to clean the room and throw
away any rubbish that may be there. There was a pile of old newspapers which Sushma had stacked
in a corner of her room. Rajesh asked Naina if he should clear away the pile of old newspapers, to
which she said yes. Rajesh took the pile to the municipality rubbish dump. While Rajesh was sorting
and throwing away the newspapers, he was very surprised to find a beautiful painting in between two
sheets of paper. He thought that Naina probably wouldn't want this old painting back, especially because it
was torn in several places and the colour was fading. He took the painting home, mounted it on a
wooden frame and hung it on the wall of his bedroom. Unknown to him, the painting was an old masterpiece
and worth twenty thousand rupees. Before mounting the painting, Rajesh pasted it on a plain sheet of paper
so that it does not tear anymore. By doing so, he made its professional restoration very difficult and
thereby reduced its value by half. Rajesh's neighbour Reena, discovered that the painting belonged to
Naina. With the motive of returning the painting to Naina, Reena climbed through an open window
into Rajesh’s room when he was away one afternoon and removed the painting.

38 | P a g e
105. Has Rajesh committed theft?
a. Yes, Rajesh has committed theft of the newspapers and the painting.
b. No, Rajesh has not committed theft because he had Naina's consent.
c. Yes, Rajesh has committed theft of the painting, but not of the newspapers.
d. No, Rajesh has not committed theft because he has not moved the painting out of Sushma’s
possession.

106. Is Rajesh guilty of criminal damage?

a. No, Rajesh is riot guilty of criminal damage as he did not intentionally impair the value of the
painting.
b. Yes, Rajesh is guilty of criminal damage as he intentionally stuck the paper on to the painting.
c. No Rajesh is not guilty of criminal damage as he does not have the painting in his possession
anymore.
d. No, Rajesh is not guilty as he has not destroyed the painting.

107. In pari delicto means:

a. Where the petitioner is at fault
b. Where both parties to a dispute are equally at fault
c. Where the judge is at fault
d. Where the lawyer is at fault

108. Lex loci means:

a. Law of the place
b. Italian laws
c. Domestic laws
d. Latin regulations

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 109. Everyone has the right of private defence to defend his body and property by use
of reasonable force unless that person had time to have recourse to protection of public
authorities. Facts: X receives information at 5.00 pm that Y along with few friends is
planning to burn his crop at midnight which is ready to be harvested. He does not inform
the village Police Station which was just one kilometer away. He gathers his family
members and directs them to collect some weapons in the form of swords and lathis to
protect his field/crop. At around 11.00 pm, Y and his aides attack the crop and a severe
fight ensues wherein Y is seriously injured.
a. X is not liable as he was exercising his right of private defence
b. X and his family are not liable for the injuries caused as they were exercising the right of
private defence
c. X is liable
d. X and his family are liable as they have not informed the police

Questions 110-113: Answer based on the following passage.

A minor is not permitted by law to enter into a contract. Hence, where a minor enters into a contract
with a major person, the contract is not enforceable. This effectively means that neither the minor
nor the other party can make any claim on the basis of the contract, In a contract with a minor, if
the other party hands over any money or confers any other benefit on the minor, the same shall not
be recoverable from the minor unless the other party was deceived by the minor to hand over
money or any other benefit. The other party will have to show that the minor misrepresented her
age, he was ignorant about the age of the minor and that he handed over the benefit on the basis of
such representation.

However, in the case of a minor for whom, a guardian has been appointed or declared before
the age of 18 years, the age of majority will be 21 years, not 18

Here's an excerpt that is to be studied after understanding the above statements.

Rahul convinces Gunjan, a girl aged 18 that she would sell her land to him. Gunjan's mother Priya
is her guardian. Nonetheless Gunjan, without the permission of Priya, sells the land to Rahul for

40 | P a g e
total sum of rupees fifty lakh, paid in full and final settlement of the price, Priya challenges this
transaction claiming the Gunjan is a minor and hence the possession of the land shall not be given
to Rahul. Rahul is in a difficult situation and has no idea how to recover his money from Gunjan.

110. Which of the following is the most reasonable justification for Priya to challenge
the sale transaction?
a. Gunjan is of unsound mind and is not in a position to make rational decisions.
b. Though Gunjan is eighteen year old, she will be treated as a minor, as Priya is her guardian.
c. Though Gunjan is eighteen year old, she cannot sell the land without the permission of her
mother.
d. Though Gunjan is eighteen year old she should not be treated like a person who has attained
the age.

111. Rahul can be allowed to recover the money only if he can show:
a. Gunjan has attained the age of majority.
b. Gunjan is mature enough to make rational decisions regarding her own affairs
c. The sale transaction was beneficial to her interest and will enhance her financial status.
d. None of the above.

112. Which of the following is correct?

a. Rahul should be allowed to recover the money because even though there is no contract,
Gunjan and Priya should not be allowed to unjustly benefit from Rahul’s money
b. Rahul should be allowed the possession of the land because Priya can always decide to
approve the transaction between Rahul and Gunjan.
c. Rahul should not be allowed to recover because he induced Gunjan, a minor, to sell the
land.
d. None of the above.

113. Which of the following is correct?

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 a. If Rahul is allowed to recover the money, that will defeat the law framed for protecting the
minors against fraudulent persons.
b. If Rahul is not allowed to recover that will cause him injustice as he has not paid off the
entire sale price.
c. If Rahul is allowed to recover, Priya will benefit from both the money and the land.
d. None of the above.

Questions 114-116: Answer based on the following passage.

It is stated that: A person is said to have committed an offence if he has committed any act towards
the completion of his objective for the offence.

A person is said to not have committed any offence till the time he possesses an opportunity to
take back the consequences of his actions. An attempt to commit an offence is an offence in itself.

Here's an excerpt that is to be studied after understanding the above statement:

Pranjal and Riya had been dating for two years till Riya decided to break up with him because of
his behavior. When she told Pranjal, he was devastated. Later in the day, he hung out with friends
and had a couple of drinks. His friends teased him for getting dumped, which angered him. He
immediately went to Riya's home with a pistol to shoot her. He reached and rang the doorbell,
waiting for her to open the door. While he was waiting, he happened to notice the wind chime
hanging in the balcony outside her room. It was the wind chime that he had gifted her, and he
travelled down the memory lane and thought of the happy' times he and Riya had spent together.
Meanwhile, Riya opened the door. Ashamed at himself and guilt-ridden, he tried to hide his gun
in his pocket. However, it slipped from his hand and fell down- Riya Saw this and raised a hue and
cry.

114. Will she succeed in holding a charge of attempting to murder against Pranjal?
a. yes, since he intended to kill Riya
b. No, because he did not commit the offence ultimately
c. No, as he was drunk and unaware of his actions

42 | P a g e
d. Yes, because he wanted to take revenge on her

115. In another scenario: Shantanu and Geeta were happily married and lived in a duplex
flat in Pune- They decided to rent a part of the apartment in older to get another source of
income. They found a tenant called Ajay, and things went on pretty well, till one daywhen
Shantanu started suspecting that there was something going on between Geeta and Ajay.
He decided to kill Ajay by throwing a heavy iron trunk on his head when he is passing
from below the balcony. When he finally executes his plan, he missed Ajay and the trunk
fell on the pavement instead. Can Ajay hold him for attempt to murder?
a. Yes, since he did throw the trunk with the intention of killing Ajay
b. No, because Ajay escaped
c. Yes, because one should not act on mere suspicion
d. No, Ajay should have stayed away from Geeta

116. In another scenario; Mannat is the topper of her batch in Law school, and her
roommate, Rupali is jealous of all the attention Mannat gets. One night, when Mannat is
sleeping, Rupali decides to finish her off. She takes her pillow and covers Mannat’s face
with it, in an attempt to suffocate her to death. However, Mannat, being a light sleeper,
wakes up as soon as she senses some pressure on her face, interfering with her breathing.
She manages to overpower Rupali and pushes her away. Does Rupali's act constitute
attempt to murder?
a. Yes, because her motive was disproportionate to her act
b. No, since Mannat overpowered Rupali
c. No, Rupali was under the influence of alcohol
d. Yes even though she failed she had clearly tried to murder Mannat

Questions 117-121: Answer based on the following passage.

43 | P a g e
In many countries the legal systems are very complex. This is because they have been developed
over very long times. Every time that a new case is decided, it can have an effect on future cases.
This means that the people who work in legal situations have to be clever. They have to know and
understand all the rules and precedents. A precedent is when a previous decision will have an effect
on future cases as it was related to an important point. There are many people who work with the
law such as the lawyers, solicitors, judges. A solicitor is a lawyer who spends most of their time
advising their clients and preparing legal documents, such as wills or contracts for buying and
selling houses. They need to be very careful and make sure that all the details are Correct.
Otherwise their clients might lose a lot of money. A barrister is a type of lawyer who works in
court rooms. They will either work for the prosecution or defense sides. If they are a prosecution
lawyer they are trying to prove that the defendant (the person on trial) committed a crime. They
have to present evidence to show that the defendant is guilty. If they are a defense lawyer then they
work for the defendant and have to show that the evidence presented is not enough to prove that
their client is guilty and he should be judged to be not guilty. Then there are judges and magistrates-
A magistrate will hear trials about less serious crimes, while a judge’s will be about more serious
crimes. These are the people who have to decide what punishment will be given to someone who
is guilty. The punishment could range from a small fine up to a long prison sentence, and even a
death sentence in some countries. The trial happens in the judge's courtroom. The judge is
responsible for making sure the trial is run fairly and follows the law. If a Lawyer believes that a
trial was not fair or there was a mistake of law, they can ask for another trial that will generally be
heard by an appeal court where an appeal judge will be in charge. Often appeal judges are the most
experienced judges in a country, so they know a lot about the law and how to apply it.

117. What do lawyers have to be?

a. Nice
b. Clever
c. Greedy
d. Fast workers

44 | P a g e
 118. What would happen if a solicitor makes a mistake?
a. Someone who is innocent could go to prison.
b. Someone could lose their job.
c. The client could lose a lot of money.
d. The client could learn something new.

119. What does a defense lawyer have to do?

a. Show that the prosecution's evidence is not enough.
b. Prove that the defendant is guilty.
c. Show that the defendant was someone else.
d. Prove that the judge has made a mistake.

120. What is the most severe punishment a judge could give?

a. A long time in prison.
b. +6
c. A fine
d. A judge does not give punishment
e. Death sentence.

121. Why might an appeal be needed?

a. The first trial was not fair.
b. The first trial took too long to finish.
c. The first trial was done perfectly.
d. The first trial had too many people watching.

Questions 122-126: Answer based on the following passage.

A builder-buyer agreement is signed by the seller whenever a person invests in an immovable

property. This agreement stipulates a certain date on which the possession of the property shall be

45 | P a g e
handed over to its buyer. But every now and then, it has been observed that some cunning builders
do not give possession of the property on the mentioned time because of malpractices related to
shortage, funds or finances. Builders sometimes even alter the plans/ designs of the property
without the consent or knowledge of the buyer. If there are some genuine reasons for delay in
completion, the builder can ask for a limited time period extension. If the residential property is
not delivered to the buyer even after the extension period, it accounts to delay in possession of the
property. The liability is accounted only when the delay is caused due to his/her fault. In case of
natural calamity or any situation beyond human control, then builder isn't liable to act against the
buyer. With the introduction of the RERA, the Real Estate Regulatory Act, 2011, some stringent
provisions and laws have come up to assist property buyers and discipline real estate developers.
RERA ensures there is transparency in all the property transactions. The developers must provide
all the information concerning their projects from its foundation till its completion on the RERA
information portal. The RERA has also authorized the Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission
at different levels to address the complaints of property buyers on the basis of the value of property
or amount of damage or suffering, provided that the property is for the personal and not
commercial use. The District commission will handle disputes involving properties up to the value
of 20 lakh Indian rupees. The State Commission will handle properties valued more than twenty
lakhs of Indian rupees while the National Commission will handle properties with estimated value
of more than one crore Indian rupees. To prevent buyers from the exploitation of real estate
developers, RERA mandates them to register on their website and share all the pertinent
information in relation to the work-in-progress of the project. This empowers the lawyer to claim
the interest on payment made to developer till last date in case of any delay. Through this, the
buyer is also entitled to claim compensation for damages suffered by him due to deficiency in
service. In some states according to RERA, the builder is liable to refund the funds invested by the
property buyer along with interest if in case he couldn't justify the delay in transfer of possession
of the housing project. Under the Domestic Building Contracts Act, 1955, the property buyer is
legally entitled to take strict action against the builder or developers for delays caused by them if
they have included any warranties pertaining to completion of projects in the signed contract. Also,
as per the Consumer Protection Act 1986, a buyer can file a complaint against the builder stating
"deficiency in service" in case of delayed possession. The buyer can also file a regular suit before

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a court of competent jurisdiction, for damages or Specific performance, under the Indian Contract
Act, 1872. In case there is a chance of fraud or cheating involved where the builder knew from the
commencement that he would not be able to deliver possession within the stipulated time, Civil
and criminal proceedings can be initiated.

122. Which or the following is an advantage of Real Estate Regulatory Act, 2016?
a. Transparency in all the property transactions
b. More than 30% of advance payment to the builder
c. Risk reduction of builder insolvency/bankruptcy
d. Right to information

123. Who will handle the disputes involving properties up to the value of 20 laths INR?
a. State Commission
b. National Commission
c. District commission
d. Mandal Commission

124. National Commission will handle the disputes involving properties with estimated
value of:
a. 50 Lakhs to 1 crore
b. 20 laths to 50 lakhs
c. 1 acct to 5 crores
d. More than 1 crores

125. Why RERA mandates builders to register on their website and share all the
pertinent information in relation to the work-in-progress of the project?
a. To prevent buyers from the exploitation of real estate developers
b. To prevent real estate developers from the exploitation of buyers

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 c. To prevent buyers from the exploitation of government bodies
d. To prevent real estate developers from the exploitation or government bodies

126. Under which Act a buyer can file a complaint against the builder stating "deficiency
in service" in case of delayed possession?
a. Consumer Protection Act, 1988
b. Consumer Property Act, 1986
c. Consumer Property Act, 1988
d. Consumer Protection Act, 1986

Questions 127-131: Answer based on the following passage.

The Sabarimala temple is one of Kerala's most famous temples and it is dedicated to the worship
of Lord Ayyappa, who is also referred to as “Dharmashastra” or Lord of Dharma and is worshipped
as a "Naishtika Brahmachari” or a celibate for life. Therefore, as per a notification by the
Dewaswom Board that manages the temple, women belonging to the menstruating age are not
permitted to enter the temple. The Sabarimala temple is managed by the Travancore Devaswom
Board. The centuries-old restriction that restricts women of menstruating age from temple entry
had been challenged now and then. The exclusion of (a class of) women from the Sabarimala
Temple was justified on the basis of ancient custom which was sanctioned by Rule 3(b), framed
by the Government under the authority of the 1965 Kerala Hindu Places of Worship (Authorisation
of Entry Act). Section 3 of the Act required that places of public worship be open to all sections
and classes of Hindus, subject to special rules for religious denominations. Rule 3(b), however,
provided for the exclusion of 'women at such time during which they are not by custom and usage
allowed to enter a place of public worship.' These pieces of legislation, were Juxtaposed against
constitutional provisions such as Article 25(1) on freedom of worship, Article 26 (freedom of
religious denominations to regulate their own practices), and Articles 14 and 15 (equality and non-
discrimination). In response to a PIL filed in 1991, the Kerala High Court had judged that the
restriction of entry of women ages 10-50 to the temple was in accordance with the usage prevalent
from time immemorial, and it directed the Devasworn Board to uphold the customary traditions of

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the temple. However, on 28 September 2010, the Supreme Court of India overturned the restriction
on the entry of women, declaring it unconstitutional and discriminatory. The Supreme Court ruled
that the women of all age groups can enter the Sabarimala temple in Kerala. The apex court in a
4:1 majority said that the temple practice violates the rights of Hindu women and that banning
entry of women to shrine is discriminatory. On 2 January, 2019, two women under the age of 50
finally entered the shrine for the first time after attempts by many others failed due to protests by
devotees.

127. What was sanctioned by Rule 3(4) framed by the Government under the authority
of the 1965 Kerala Hindu Places of Worship (Authorisation of Entry Act)?
a. Exclusion of all women from entering the temple
b. Exclusion of an age-group of women From entering the temple
c. Both a and b
d. None or the above

128. Why did the Supreme Court overturn the Kerala High Court decision of 1991?
a. It was deemed unconstitutional and discriminatory
b. It violated Article 24
c. It was derogatory towards the below poverty line population
d. None of the above

129. What articles were cited by the Supreme Court as being violating
a. Article 25(1)
b. Article 14
c. Article 15(1)
d. All of the above

130. Which Article gives the provision for freedom of worship?

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 a. Article 25(1)
b. Article 14
c. Article 15(1)
d. All of the above

131. Which Article gives provision against discrimination?

a. Article 13
b. Article 15(1)
c. Article 16
d. Article 17

Questions 132-137: Answer based on the following passage.

In 2007, the Ministry of Defence issued letters for the purchase of 125 fighter aircrafts in line with
the procedure set out in the Defence Procurement Procedure [DPP]. In particular, the Union would
purchase 18 from abroad in 'fly-away' condition, while 106 would be manufactured in India by
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) via a 'transfer or technology' from a foreign company. After
an extensive selection process, the Union selected the French company Dassault. Dassault
manufactures the Rafale twin-engine fighter aircraft. By 2015, price negotiations were in their
final stage. However. In March 2015. Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the President of France
announced a new deal for the purchase of only 36 Rafale fighter aircraft. The Ministry of Defence
subsequently announced that the tender for 126 aircraft had been withdrawn. The new deal
included a 50% offset clause, which required Dassault (and other foreign companies involved such
as Thales and Safran) to invest 50% of the contract value back into India via the purchase of Indian
goods and services. In October 2016, Dassault and Anil Ambani’s Relainace Group announced a
joint venture - Dassault Reliance Aerospace Ltd (DRAL) - with Dassault specifying that it intends
to invest $115 million to partially fulfill its offset obligations. In 2018, multiple litigants --advocate
ML Sharma, lawyer Vineet Dhanda, AAP MP Sanjay Singh and politician Yashwant Sinha filed
petitions in the Supreme Court, claiming that the Rafale Fighter Jet Deal suffers from serious
procedural irregularities.

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They brought forward such concerns as:

• Did Prime Minister Modi make a decision to go ahead with the deal without the approval
of the Cabinet Committee on Security?
• Was Reliance Defence made Dassault Aviation's Indian Offset Partner without the
approval of Minister of Defence, as required by the Defence Offset Guidelines? Further,
was Hindustan Aeronautic Limited (HAL), the previously proposed Offset partner,
improperly removed?
• Is the deal in fact an inter-governmental deal between India and France? And if it is, does
this allow the Central government to forego disclosing the details of the deal, in violation
of the Comptroller and Auditor General's (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act?
• Does the deal suffer from pricing irregularities? The price per aircraft from the first deal to
the second deal, approximately doubled.

On 14 November 2018, the court reserved judgment. One month later on 14 December, the
court dismissed the plea for a court monitored investigation. The court observed that it found no
irregularity in the decision-making process, pricing or selection of an off-set partner. The court
reached its conclusion on the basis of evidence produced by the State in sealed covers.

On 21 Feburary 2019, the court agreed to hear a review petition challenging the judgment, filed
by Yashwant Sinha, Arun Shourie and Prashant Bhushan. These review petitioners allege that the
judgment rests on incorrect factual claims made by the government. On 14 March, 2019, the court
reserved the order on the review petitions with regards to the limited question of whether leaked
documents could be placed on the record. On 10 April, 2019, the court held that the classified
documents could be placed on the record, dismissing the Union's objection. On 10 May, 2019, the
court reserved judgment in the review petitions. On 14 November, it dismissed the review
petitions, emphasising that it had limited scrutiny of defence contracts under its Article 32
jurisdiction.

132. How many jets were initially purchased by the UPA Government?
a. 108

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 b. 126
c. 36
d. 18

133. Why was a petition filed by the multiple litigants in the Supreme Court regarding
the Rafale Deal?
a. Due to jets not being of good quality
b. Due to France being an enemy nation
c. Due to Prime Minister not being popular
d. Due to procedural irregularities

134. Why did the court dismiss the plea of court monitored investigation?
a. It found no irregularities in the decision-making process, pricing or selection of an off-
set partner.
b. It found the petitions submitted to be unsubstantiated.
c. The litigants held malice and were held in contempt of court
d. All of the above.

135. The power to issue writs by the High Courts has been envisaged under which of the
following articles?
a. Article 32
b. Article 226
c. Article 227
d. Article 31

136. Who is the legal advisor to the Government of a state in India?

a. The Solicitor General
b. The Advocate General
c. The High Court

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 d. The State Chief Legal Officer
137. What does the term Caveat Emptor refer to?
a. As per the value
b. Ultra Vires
c. Let the buyer beware
d. Let the seller beware

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 SECTION 5 OF 5: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

Questions 137 – 150

138. All black face cards are removed from a pack of playing cards. The remaining cards
are well shuffled. What is the probability of randomly drawing a face card?
a. 12/46
b. 3/23
c. 6/23
d. 10/23

139. Pipe A can fill the tank in 5 hours, pipe B can fill the tank in 12 hours and pipe C
can empty the tank in 6 hours. The first two pipes are kept open for 3 hours in the beginning
and then the third pipe is also opened. In what time is the tank full?
a. 25/8 hours
b. 29/8 hours
c. 33/8 hours
d. 30/8 hours

140. At what rate percentage per annum will the simple interest on a sum of money be
3/4 of the amount in 3 years?
a. 30%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 33.3%

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141. On selling a tea set at 5% loss and a bowl set at 15% gain, a crockery seller gains
Rs 7. If he sells the tea set at 5% gain and the bowl set at 10% gain he gains Rs 13. Find
the price of each set respectively
a. Rs 80, Rs 100
b. Rs 100, Rs 80
c. Rs 120, Rs 60
d. Rs 60, Rs 120

142. A solid cylinder of radius 6cm and height 15 cm is melted and recasted into 12
metal right circular cones mounted on a hemisphere. Find the height of the hemisphere and
total height of the toy if the height of the cone is 3 times the radius.
a. 3cm, 12cm
b. 4cm, 3 cm
c. 4cm, 12, cm
d. 18 cm, 6cm

143. Find the sum of all 3 digit natural numbers which are multiples of 11.
a. 44550
b. 33440
c. 55660
d. 66770

144. A earns Rs 50 every day and loses Rs 40 the next day, earns Rs 50 on the third day
and loses Rs 40 on the fourth. By when would he have collected Rs 200?
a. 30th day
b. 31st day
c. 29th day
d. 32nd day

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 145. In a class, 2/5th of the students are boys. On Wednesday, 2/3rd of the girls wore their
sports uniform and 4/7th of the boys wore the sports uniform. If 12 boys didn’t wear their
sports uniforms, calculate the number of girls in the class?
a. 54
b. 60
c. 70
d. 66

Read the following and answer the questions: 146-149

AMOUNT IN LAKHS
Misc
13%
Marketing
Salaries
4%
Bills Salaries CSR
5% 41% Stationaries
Rent
Rent Bills
11%
Marketing
Misc

Stationaries CSR
19% 7%

ABC LEX is a growing law firm in Bangalore. Their revenue generated in the first year of their
business is Rs 12Cr. They have a work force of 12 associates and 2 office staff and the ratio if
male and female employees is 8:6. The office staff earns 45% less than the associates. Answer the
following:

146. How much would each male employee receive as an annual salary considering that
the women associates receive 5% more than the male associates as bonus?
a. 3346938
b. 3514285
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 c. 3321315
d. 4023128
147. Due to a sudden fire the office lost close to 70% of the stationaries. Further they
had to repair the damages caused, whose funding was done out of 60% the Misc expenses.
What was the total amount of damage caused (in %)?
a. 65%
b. 21.1%
c. 30%
d. 43%
148. If the earnings of the next year has decreased by 7%, what would be the difference
in the allocation of Marketing and CSR?
a. 12% and 16%
b. 7% and 7%
c. 10% and 8%
d. 4% and 2%
149. The Firm is planning to close on marketing and is going to distribute the amount
from marketing equally to all other groups. What would be the increase in the salary of the
office staff?
a. 3%
b. 1.6%
c. 10%
d. 2.5%
150. A person spends 1/3rd of his income on food, 1/4th part on house rent and the
remaining Rs. 630 on other items. The rent for his house is
a. Rs.504
b. Rs.1512
c. Rs.378
d. Rs.644

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