Gulfstream G500 Aircraft Limitations and Flashcards

Limitations
Gulfstream GVII
Eddie sez:
There are a lot of published limitations but most of them apply more to getting
the airplane certified, authorized, or maintained. Quite a few apply to us pilots.
The thing is you have to know which are important to you and which are not. I've
made my choice, you can see them (and study them if you like) here: G500
Flashcards.
Everything here is from the references shown below, with a few comments in an
alternate color.
Photo: "The limit" sketch
Click photo for a larger image
Here are the limits as given in §1 of the AFM, in the section number order.
 02 Runway, Slope and Wind Conditions

 02 High Elevation Airport Operations
 03 Types of Airplane Operations Permitted
 03 Operating Temperature Envelope
 03 Maximum Operating Altitudes
 03 Airspeed Limitations
 03 Flight Load Acceleration
 03 Weight
 03 Center of Gravity
 03 Maximum Fuel Imbalance
 03 Takeoff / Landing Distance
 21 Cabin Pressure Control
 22 Autothrottle
 22 Autopilot
 23 VHF and HF Communications
 24 Ram Air Turbine
 27 Control Laws
 28 Fuel
 29 Hydraulic
 30 Icing
 34 Weather Radar
 34 Flight Management System
 34 Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System
 Enhanced Flight Vision System
 34 HUD
 34 RVSM
 34 VOR
 34 SFD
 35 Oxygen
 36 Pneumatics
 45 Warning Inhibit
 49 APU
 52 Doors
 71 Engine Operation
 71 Airstart Envelope
 78 Thrust Reversers
Note: These are the limits we as pilots care about. The G500 AFM also includes
information about hydraulic fluids (§01-12-10), APU fuel grades and
temperatures (§01-12-20), engine fuel grades (§01-12-30), engine fuel additives
(§01-12-40), engine and apu oil grades (§01-12-50),
Last revision:
20191015
Runway, Slope and Wind Conditions
Runway Conditions
1. A runway is wet when more than 25 percent of the runway surface area
(within the reported length and the width being used) is covered by any
visible dampness or water that is ⅛ inch (3 mm) or less in depth. A damp
runway that meets this definition is considered wet, regardless of
whether or not the surface appears reflective.
2. A runway is considered contaminated when more than 25 percent of the
runway surface area (within the reported length and the width being
used) is covered by any frost, ice, snow, slush, or greater than 3mm of
standing water.
A runway is wet when more than 1/4 of it is damp or has up to 1/8" water,
but it is contaminated when there is more than 1/8". Maximum slope is 2%
up or down. Max tailwind is 10 knots unless landing with 0° or 10° flaps, in
which case it is zero. Max crosswind is 30 knots unless not in normal
flight control law mode, in which case is it 10 knots.
[G500 AFM, §01-02-10]
Maximum Slopes Approved for Takeoff and Landing Operations
1. +2% (uphill)
2. -2% (downhill)
Wind Conditions
1. Maximum tailwind component approved for takeoff and landing: 10 knots

2. When operating in a flight control law mode other than normal (i.e.,
alternate, direct or backup), maximum crosswind component for landing:
10 knots
3. Maximum tailwind component for landing with flaps 10° or less is zero
knots.
Takeoff Croswwind Limits:
1. Static Takeoff - 30 knots.
NOTE
For crosswinds above 30 knots, refer to 02-08-130, High Crosswind

Takeoff Procedure
This procedure has you apply brakes, set 57% N1 maximum, release the
brakes slowly, and set throttles to MTO once you have at least 20 knots
of groundspeed. This procedure adds 500 feet to the required field
length. Note that the maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and
landing for FAA certification was 33 knots.
High Elevation Airport Operations
[G500 AFM, §01-02-20]
Maximum approved airport pressure altitude for takeoff or landing: 15,000

feet.
Types of Airplane Operations Permitted
[G500 AFM, §01-03-10]
1. Transport category - Land.

2. Day and Night, Visual and Instrument Flight Rules.
3. Category 1 approach operations.
4. Flight into known icing.
5. /I and /G special FMS procedures operations.
6. Extended over water flight.
7. Polar navigation.
8. ADS-B Out, Version 2 (DO-260B)
The installed ADS-B Out system complies with 14 CFR 91.225 and 91.227,
AC 20-165B, and EASA Approved Means of Compliance (AMC) 20-24.
1. The extended squitter transmission system does not take into

account the system’s uncompensated latency into its transmitted
horizontal quality indicator value
2. The extended squitter transmission system does not base the
transmitted horizontal quality indicator solely on the integrity
information from the horizontal position source
3. The installed ADS-B out system complies with EASA CS ACNS
Subpart D section 4 (ADS-B out).
ADS-B operations require capability to communicate via VHF radio or

CPDLC, and an operable SBAS-enabled GPS receiver.
9. ADS-B In.
10. Data Link Recording
11. Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) Airspace Operations
Limitations and exceptions defined in 01-34-90, RVSM.
12. Data Link Communication (see Table 1. Data Link Communication)
1. The FAA has approved the aircraft data link system to the criteria
contained in AC 20-140C for the following data link capabilities.
This design approval does not constitute operational authorization.
2. CPDLC, in conjunction with ADS-C, enables the use of FANS 1/A+
over oceanic airspace. FANS 1/A+ uses the Airport Facilities
Notification (AFN) protocol over existing ACARS network via VHF
and SATCOM. CPDLC provides route uplink push-to-load
functionality (e.g., UM79, UM80, UM83 uplink messages) and meets
the requirements of AC 90-117.
13. Navigation Operational Capabilities (see Table 2. Navigation Operational
Capabilities)
1. Airplane complies with RNP RNAV as defined in RTCA / DO-236( )
and DO-283( ), with the limitations and exceptions defined in 01-
34-30, Flight Management System.
2. The navigation equipment as installed has been found to comply
with the requirements established for the following navigation
specifications:
Photo: Data Link Communication Limitations, G500 AFM, §01-03-00, Table

1
Photo: Navigation Operational Capabilities, G500 AFM, §01-03-00, Table
2, p. 2
2, p. 3

2, p. 4
2, p. 5
2, p. 6

2, p. 7
2, p. 8

2, p. 9
2, p. 10
2, p. 11
Operating Temperature Envelope
[G500 AFM, §01-03-10]
1. Engine start below an ambient temperature of -20°C is prohibited.

2. Operating Temperature Envelope is displayed in Figure 1. GVII
Temperature Operating Envelope.
Photo: GVII Temperature operating envelope, G500 AFM, §01-03-00, Figure 1
Maximum Operating Altitudes
[G500 AFM, §01-03-30]
1. Maximum Operating Altitude — 51,000 feet

2. Maximum Operating Altitude with a Single Air Conditioning Pack
Operating — 48,000 feet
3. Maximum Operating Altitude with Interior Baggage Compartment Door
Open — 40,000 feet
4. Maximum Operating Altitude with Jammed Rudder, Rudder Failure, or
Yaw Damper Failure — 35,000 feet
5. Maximum Operating Altitude For Extension/Flight with Flaps 10° or 20°
— 25,000 feet
6. Maximum Operating Altitude for For Extension/Flight Landing Gear
Extended — 20,000 feet
7. Maximum Operating Altitude For Extension/Flight with Flaps 39° —
20,000 feet
Airspeed Limitations
[G500 AFM, §01-03-30]
1. Minimum Control Speed Air (VMCA)

1. Flaps 10° – 120 KCAS
2. Flaps 20° – 112 KCAS
3. VMCL – 109 KCAS
2. Minimum Control Speed Ground (VMCG)
1. 111 KCAS
3. Maneuvering Speed (VA)
1. Full application of pitch, roll or yaw controls should be confined to
speeds below 206 KCAS.
NOTE: Rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in

combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw, and full
control inputs in more than one axis at the same time, should be
avoided as they may result in structural failures at any speed,
including below the maneuvering speed.
4. Flaps Extended Speed (VFE)

1. 10° – 250 KCAS
2. 20° – 220 KCAS
3. 39° – 180 KCAS
5. Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed (VLE)
1. Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed (VLE) is the maximum
speed at which the airplane can be safely flown with the landing
gear extended.
2. Do not exceed 250 KCAS with landing gear extended.
6. Maximum Landing Gear Operation Speeds (VLO)
1. Maximum Landing Gear Operating Speed (VLO) is the maximum
speed at which it is safe to extend or retract the landing gear.
2. Do not extend or retract the landing gear above 225 KCAS.
7. Emergency Landing Gear Extension
1. Emergency Landing Gear Extension utilizes alternate means to
extend to the landing gear. Do not lower landing gear using the
alternate system above 175 KCAS.
2. With the landing gear extended utilizing the alternate system, do
not exceed 225 KCAS.
8. Maximum Operating Limit Speed (VMO / MMO)
1. Maximum operating limit speed shall not be deliberately exceeded
in any regime of flight (climb, cruise or descent). See Figure 2.
Altitude/Mach Flight Envelope.
Photo: GVII Altitude/Mach Flight Envelope, G500 AFM, §01-03-00,
Figure 2
9. Maximum Airspeed with Yaw Damper Failure

1. 285 KCAS / 0.90M
10. Turbulence Penetration Speed
1. At or above 10,000 feet: 270 KCAS / 0.85M, whichever is less.
2. Less than 10,000 feet: 240 KCAS.
11. Maximum Tire Groundspeed:
1. 195 knots
12. Degraded Flight Control Law Mode
1. When operating in a flight control law mode other than normal (i.e.,
alternate, direct or backup), do not exceed 285 KCAS / 0.90M
maximum.
13. Flight Control Surface Failure or Jammed Condition
1. If any primary flight control surface or spoiler panel is failed,
caused by either a component malfunction(s) or a hydraulic system
failure, do not exceed 285 KCAS / 0.90M maximum.
14. The Guidance Panel SPEED selector must be set to IAS mode (not Mach)
with the flaps or landing gear extended.
Flight Load Acceleration
[G500 AFM, §01-03-50]
1. Flaps Up: -1 – 2.5 G

2. Flaps 10° and Flaps 20°: 0 – 2.0 G
3. Flaps 39°:
1. Below Maximum Landing Weight: 0 – 2.0 G
2. Above Maximum Landing Weight: 0 – 1.5 G
Weight
[G500 AFM, §01-03-56]
 Maximum Zero Fuel Weight: 52,100 lb

 Maximum Ramp Weight: 80,000 lb
 Maximum Takeoff Weight: 79,600 lb
 Maximum Landing Weight: 64,350 lb
 Minimum Flight Weight: 48.300 lb
 Maximum approved weight in baggage compartment: 2,250 lb
Center of Gravity
Photo: Zero Fuel Weight CG Envelope, G500 AFM, §01-03-00, Figure 3
Maximum Fuel Imbalance

[G500 AFM, §01-03-80]
1. The Maximum Fuel Imbalance Limits

1. Takeoff: 1,000 lb (453 kg)
2. In Flight: 2,000 lb (907 kg)
[G500 AFMS 2019-05, §01-28-40] Fuel Balancing is prohibited in flight unless

the displayed fuel imbalance is greater than 1,000 lbs and a Fuel Imbalance CAS
message is displayed.
The reason for this is given in Maintenance and Operations Letter G500-MOL-
19-003:
Recently, Gulfstream discovered a condition where a failure in the Fuel

Quantity Measuring/Indicating System (FQMS) was not reported to the flight
crew with an expected “FQMS Degrade” Crew Alerting System (CAS) message.
It was determined that when a particular failure mode of a fuel probe or
harness exists, the FQMS can miscalculate fuel quantity and an erroneous fuel
quantity will be displayed to the crew. This may result in either a false “Fuel
Imbalance” CAS message or conversely the absence of the “Fuel Imbalance”
CAS message when a true imbalance condition may exist. In these situations, a
cyan or amber FQMS Degrade CAS message should display, but it does not. If
this failure condition is present, the following may occur:
 Ground refueling may be inaccurate by up to 3,200 lbs.

 Fuel quantity indications may be incorrect in flight by up to 5,400 lbs.
 Aircrew may induce an actual fuel imbalance based on erroneous fuel
imbalance indications.
The MOL gives interim procedures to verify all fuel quantity indications,
specifically between the OHPTS and TSC Ground Services tab. After refueling
the actual uplift should be compared to FQMS indications. When the AFMS was
issued, these procedures were not specified but are understood to be a "good
idea." Other restrictions were implemented, such as having to remove all
electrical power and then restoring it prior to refueling, but these were deleted
in the latest revision to AFMS 209-05.
Takeoff / Landing Distance
[G500 AFM, §01-03-90]
1. Takeoff
1. Takeoff performance calculations may be conducted in either 05-
02-10, Takeoff Performance, Appendix A, or Appendix E (ASC
022).
2. Landing
1. A minimum operational safety factor of 1.15 must be applied to
thew unfactored landing distance calculated in 05-11-30, Landing
Distance.
NOTE
The 1.15 minimum landing distance operational safety factor is

consistent with FAA guidance contained in SAFO 19001 and AC 91-
79A. AFM chapter 05-11-30, Landing Distance, Section 1.3 provides
information for operational landing distance factors to be applied
for dispatch planning.
Cabin Pressure Control
[G500 AFM, §01-21-10]
1. Landing Field Elevation (LFE)

1. Limited to less than 10,000 MSL with the CPCS in Semi
Mode except during an emergency.
2. Maximum Cabin Differential Pressures
1. In Flight: 10.69 PSI
2. Taxi, Takeoff, Landing: 0.3 PSI
This allows the cabin doors to open for a ground evacuation.
3. ECS Duct Temperatures

1. Duct temperatures above 200°F (93°C) are prohibited during
manual zone control.
4. ECS Pack Operation
1. During ground operations with SAT greater than 98°F
(37°C), a minimum of one ECS pack must be operating with
APU or Engines operating.
5. Single Pack Operation
1. Must comply with 03-01-10, Pack Failure - Single.
Autothrottle
[G500 AFM, §01-22-10]

1. Use of the Autothrottle is prohibited during:
1. Single engine approaches.
2. Approach and landing with flaps 10° or flaps 0°.
Autopilot
[G500 AFM, §01-22-20]
1. Single Engine autopilot coupled go-around is prohibited.

2. Minimum Autopilot Engage Height
1. 200 feet AGL
3. Minimum Autopilot Disengage Height from an ILS or LPV Approach
1. Flaps 39: 90 feet AGL
2. Flaps 0/10/20: 130 feet AGL
We are told that you can go lower with Flaps 39° because you will
be at approach idle and not flight idle. I'm not so sure, according
to the PAS, pp. 14-16 to 17, flight idle occurs with the gear up and
flaps <22° while approach idle requires the gear down or flaps >22°.
More about this: GVII Powerplant.
4. Minimum Autopilot Disengage Height AGL for All Other Operations

1. 200 feet AGL
5. Maximum Demonstrated Altitude Loss for Coupled Go-Around
1. 50 feet
NOTE: The takeoff vertical mode (TO) only provides flap overspeed
speed protection when autopilot is engaged.
VHF and HF Communications
[G500 AFM, §01-23-10] The Honeywell VHF radios comply with the 8.33 kHz
spacing requirements and all applicable standards of relevant FAA Technical
Standard Orders, Radio Technical Commission for Aeronautics and International
Civil Aviation Organization Annex 10 specifications for Frequency Modulation
Immunity.
[G500 AFM, §01-23-20] Avoid HF transmission when utilizing ADF for

navigation.
Ram Air Turbine
[G500 AFM, §01-24-10]

1. Deployment of the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) is prohibited when normal ac
power is available except during emergency conditions and as directed by
abnormal or emergency procedure checklists.
2. Minimum airspeed for effective RAT operation is 200 KCAS.
Control Laws
[G500 AFM, §01-27-10]
1. Continued flight at or below stick shaker activation speed is prohibited.

2. Speed brake extension with flaps Down or with landing gear extended is
prohibited.
[G500 AFM, §01-27-20]
1. Flight into known icing conditions is prohibited when operating in a flight

control law mode other than normal (Alternate, Direct or Backup). If the
flight control law mode degrades from normal while in icing conditions,
exit icing conditions as soon as possible.
NOTE: The AOA limiting / stall protection system is only available in the
normal flight control mode. Stick shaker/stall warning is provided in
Alternate mode at 0.85 AOA .
2. Intentional degradation from normal mode or disabling of any flight

control system is prohibited.
3. Takeoff is prohibited when operating in a flight control law mode other
than Normal (Alternate, Direct, or Backup).
Fuel
[G500 AFM, §01-28-10] Usable Fuel Capacities
 When gravity fueling, the total usable fuel capacity for this airplane is
approximately 22,500 lb (10,206 KG).
 If either fuel tank quantity exceeds 15,125 lb (6,861 KG), the fuel
quantity digital readout on the engine instruments and synoptics displayed
on the DUs will have white dashes on the affected side(s) and the total
fuel quantities.
 When pressure refueling, the usable fuel capacities for this airplane are:
o Right Tank: 15,125 LB / 2257 GAL
o Left Tank: 15,125 LB / 2257 GAL
o Total: 30.250 LB / 4515 GAL
[G500 AFM, §01-28-20] Fuel Pumps
 Operable fuel pumps must be ON for all phases of flight unless fuel
balancing is in progress.
[G500 AFMS 2019-05, §01-28-40] Fuel Balancing is prohibited in flight unless

the displayed fuel imbalance is greater than 1,000 lbs and a Fuel Imbalance CAS
message is displayed.
[G500 AFM, §01-28-50] Fuel Tank Temperature
 Maximum: The maximum allowable fuel temp supplied to the engine is

55°C (131°F) up to 40,000 feet decreasing linearly to 34°C (93°F) at
51,000 feet.
 Minimum
o -37°C (-35°F) with greater than 5000 lbs (2268 KG) total fuel.
o -30°C (-22°F) with less than 5000 lbs (2268 KG) total fuel.
 When fuel tank temperature is less than or equal to -30°C in flight with
less than 5000 lbs (2268 kg.) of total fuel remaining, the aircraft shall be
descended to an altitude where SAT is greater than or equal to -60°C.
Maintain a minimum speed of 0.80M.
Hydraulic
[G500 AFM, §01-29-10] Hydraulic Servicing
 Full Reservoir Quantities

o Left Hydraulic System: 2.4 gallons
o Right Hydraulic System: 2.3 gallons
 Left and Right Hydraulic System Accumulator Pre-charge: 1200 PSI at
70°F / 21°C, ±25
[G500 AFM, §01-29-20] Flight Time Limitation Hydraulic Failure
 Land within 4 hours of a hydraulic system failure if the failure occurred

within 2 hours of takeoff.
NOTE: If a hydraulic system failure occurs after 2 hours after takeoff,

the hydraulic fluid temperature has stabilized and there are no flight
time restrictions.
I am told that this is because the hydraulic fluid gets hot during takeoff
and takes four hours to cool. If it has less than that and is just sitting
stagnant in the lines, it is apt to rupture a seam or fitting and leak.
Icing
[G500 AFM, §01-30-10] Icing General
1. Icing conditions exist on the ground when SAT is between 10°C (50°F)
and -40°C (-40°F) with visible moisture present. Icing conditions exist in
flight when TAT is below 10°C (50°F) and SAT is above -40°C (-40°F) with
visible moisture present. Visible moisture is defined as clouds, rain, snow,
sleet, ice crystals, or fog with visibility of 1 mile or less.
2. The wing and cowl anti-ice systems must be selected ON when entry into
icing conditions is imminent, or immediately upon detection of ice
formation on wings, winglets or windshield edges.
3. Icing conditions exist when the SAT on the ground and for takeoff is
10°C (50°F) or below when operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where
surface snow, ice, standing water or slush can be ingested by the engines
or freeze on the engines or nacelles. Icing conditions may also exist after
landing with fuel cold-soaked from prolonged flights at high altitudes,
even if ambient temperatures are significantly above freezing. Loading
additional fuel can bring the cold mixture in contact with the upper wing
surface, permitting formation of frost or ice.
4. Engine Operations - On Ground
1. Ground operations in icing conditions require periodic engine
accelerations be performed to shed ice from the fan blades. The
engine accelerations must be conducted to a minimum of 60% N1
for a two second dwell and should be performed at 10 minute
intervals during all ground operations. The first engine acceleration
should be done as soon as practical during taxi, but not more than
10 minutes after engine start.
2. Ground operations, in freezing fog are permitted provided Cowl
Anti-Ice is ON and the following limits are observed:
(1) Maximum of 60 minutes of engine operation down to -9°C
(2) Maximum of 30 minutes of engine operation below -9°C
CAUTION
IF THE TIME LIMITS FOR ENGINE OPERATION IN FREEZING
FOG IS REACHED, THE AIRCRAFT MUST BE MOVED WITH
IDLE POWER SETTING TO AN ENVIRONMENT WITH AMBIENT
TEMPERATURES ABOVE 0°C TO ALLOW ICE BUILD-UP ON THE
ENGINE COMPONENTS TO MELT. ONCE THE ICE HAS
COMPLETELY MELTED THE TIME LIMITATION IS RESET.
5. Engine Operations - In Flight

1. During in-flight operations in icing conditions, the engine(s) may
experience vibration levels and elevated EVM indications which can
result in transients that rise and fall as a result of ice accumulation
and periodic ice shedding, which is considered normal. This periodic
ice shedding is automatic and the associated engine vibration EVM
levels typically remain below a steady-state threshold of 2.0 EVMs,
however transients above 3.0 might be expected during ice
shedding events dependent upon power setting. Manual ice shedding
may result in transient vibration levels greater than those
observed during automatic shedding. Automatic ice shedding is the
recommended technique.
2. Engine Ice shedding may be accompanied by a momentary, odor
typically lasting only a few seconds. If odor persists or is
accompanied by smoke, don oxygen masks and refer to 04-10-60,
Airplane Interior Fire / Smoke / Fumes.
3. The airframe may vibrate when the fan blades shed ice
asymmetrically. This vibration is expected, and can be felt in the
rudder pedals. If the vibrations are objectionable, they may be
reduced by continuing the descent into warmer air, or by climbing
above icing conditions.
6. Takeoff is prohibited with frost, ice, snow, or slush adhering to the
wings, control surfaces, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces.
7. A visual and tactile (hand on surface) check of the wing leading edge and
the wing upper surface must be performed to ensure the wing is free
from frost, ice, snow or slush when the outside air temperature is less
than 10°C (50°F), or it cannot be ascertained that the wing fuel
temperature is above 0°C (32°F); and.
1. There is visible moisture (rain, drizzle, sleet, snow, fog, etc.)
present; or
2. Water is present on the wing; or
3. The difference between the dew point and the outside air
temperature is less than or equal to 3°C (5°F); or
4. The atmospheric conditions have been conducive to frost
formation.
8. Automatic anti-ice is provided as a backup to the crew for activation of
the anti-icing systems. The automatic anti-ice features are inhibited
below 400 feet AGL and above 35,000 feet.
9. Operation in forecast or reported severe icing is prohibited. If severe
icing is inadvertently encountered, verify wing anti-ice and cowl anti-ice
operation and exit icing conditions as soon as possible.
1. Visual cues of severe icing conditions include ice accretion on the
cockpit side windows or accumulation of ice aft of the protected
wing leading edge with all De-Ice / Anti-Ice systems operating
normally.
[G500 AFM, §01-30-20] Wing Anti-Ice
1. General
1. Wing anti-ice operation in-flight, with TAT less than -7°C (0°C with
ASC 022), will result in automatic higher engine idle settings
(~47% N1) with an associated increase in thrust. Flight crew should
anticipate the possible use of speed brakes and higher airspeeds in
order to achieve desired profiles throughout the descent and
arrival phase of flight. Normal engine idle settings will be restored
with TAT greater than -5°C or landing gear down. Normal engine
idle settings will be available with landing gear down.
2. The minimum airspeed with wing anti-ice operational in the flaps up
configuration is 200 KCAS.
2. Takeoff
1. Wing anti-ice shall be selected on at least 4 minutes prior to
setting takeoff power.
2. Normal system operation, wing temperature stabilized at 130°F ±
10°F, must verified prior to takeoff.
3. Single Bleed Air System Operating
NOTE
With autothrottles engaged during single bleed wing anti-ice operations,

the throttle with the operating bleed system will be set at a higher power
setting due to wing anti-ice bleed air requirements.
1. Wing anti-ice operation with a single bleed air source is restricted

to single ECS pack operations.
2. The maximum altitude for wing anti-ice operations with a single
bleed air source is 32,000 feet.
3. Wing anti-ice operation in the automatic mode is prohibited with a
single bleed air source.
4. Wing anti-ice operation with a single bleed air source requires
system activation and wing temperature greater than 100°F prior
to entry into icing conditions.
4. Approach and Landing
1. Flight with flaps or landing gear extended in icing conditions is
restricted to takeoff, approach and landing only.
NOTE
The use of speed brakes is approved in icing conditions and will

assist energy management during descents, especially during
ambient conditions resulting in elevated engine idle.
2. If icing conditions exist or may exist during approach and landing,

wing anti-ice must be selected on and confirmed to be operating in
the normal temperature range prior to flap extension.
3. Extended operations in icing conditions is limited to the flaps up
configuration.
4. If flight in icing conditions with flaps extended has occurred for
more than 10 minutes during takeoff or approach and landing, do
not retract flaps below 10 degrees until it is verified that the flap
leading edge is clear of ice by one of the following means:
(1) Visual inspection of the flap on the ground after landing.
(2) Visual inspection of the winglet leading edges while in flight.
NOTE
Large ice build-up on the flap leading edge may interfere with flap
retraction and cause damage to the systems and structure. If the
winglets are visually clear of ice, it can be expected that the flap leading
edge is also clear.
[G500 AFM, §01-30-30] Cowl Anti-Ice
1. 1. Cowl anti-ice is required for taxi and takeoff when SAT is 10°C (50°F)
or below and visible moisture, precipitation, or wet runway are present.
NOTE
Cowl anti-ice operation is automatically inhibited in flight if TAT is above

15°C. During ground operations above 15°C, cowl anti-ice operation is
inhibited with an engine operating above 72% N1
Deicing Fluids
[AFM, §01-30-50] Deicing Fluids
1. Approved Deicing Fluids

1. Type I. The use of other fluid tuypes is prohibited.
Weather Radar
[AFM, §01-34-20]
1. Weather Radar operation is prohibited during refueling or when within 50

feet (15.3 meters) of other refueling operations.
2. Weather Radar Operation is prohibited within 11 feet (3.4 meters) of

ground personnel.
Flight Management System
[AFM, §01-34-30]
1. General
1. Verify that the database is current. If the database is out of date,
flight can be continued providing the latitude / longitude of each
waypoint is verified by the crew. A current database is required in
order to fly any approach procedure using the FMS.
4. Approaches Permitted
FMS is approved for conducting instrument approaches, including lateral

and vertical Flight Director / Autopilot coupled approaches, under the
following conditions:
1. Conditions for Approval

(1) One of the following published approach procedures is used:
(a) RNAV (GPS)
(b) VOR
(c) VOR / DME
(d) VOR / DME RNAV
(e) NDB
(f) GPS
(2) RNAV (GPS) approaches can be executed to LPV minima. When

loading a RNAV (GPS) approach with LPV minima into the FMS,
either graphically or using the TSC, the FMS defaults to LPV
minima. Change minima type in the FMS in order to perform the
approach using LNAV or LNAV / VNAV minima. With the LPV mode
captured, if the LPV Unavailable (caution) CAS message illuminates,
it is recommended that transition to LNAV minima or a go-around
be performed. EGPWS Mode 6 must be operable and the
associated audio callouts not inhibited, when performing RNAV
(GPS) approaches to LPV minima.
(3) DR or DEGRADE annunciators are not displayed.
(4) APPROACH annunciator displays prior to passing final approach

fix. To prevent FMS Flight Plan anomalies, do not modify the active
Flight Plan while the FMS is transitioned to APPROACH mode.
(5) Disable GPS updating for operations when operating in countries

whose national airspace are not referenced to WGS-84 reference
datum in accordance with the criteria of AC 20-138C, unless other
appropriate procedures are used. When performing a non-precision
approach using FMS navigation and GPS updating is disabled,
monitoring of the applicable NAVAID facility azimuth / bearing
information is required. Because the GPSs have been deselected,
the amber DEGRADE annunciation appears on the PFD when the
FMS transitions to Approach mode. If the EPU value exceeds the
RNP, the LDI / CDI symbols and the EPU annunciations change to
amber. If the EPU exceeds the RNP, discontinue use of the FMS as
the navigation source and perform the approach with reference to
the applicable NAVAIDs.
5. Aircraft is approved for RNP RNAV Operations as defined in RTCA / DO-

236B and DO-283, having been demonstrated with the following
limitations and exceptions:
12. Minimum RNP (1) The minimum demonstrated RNP capability is 0.1
nm for RNAV (RNP) approaches and 0.3 nm for RNAV (GPS)
approaches. The aircraft meets the required navigational accuracy
for RNAV (RNP) and RNAV (GPS) approaches with autopilot coupled
and with the pilot following Flight Director commands.
6. Complies with the interoperability requirements of RTCA D0-258A for
CPDLC, AFN and ADS-C operations
12. Interoperability requirements for ATS applications using ARINC
622 Data Communications (FANS 1/A Interoperability Standard)
comply with RTCA DO-258A.
13. AFN, ADS-C and CPDLC are approved for oceanic and remote
operation within the NAT and in areas outside of the NAT. The
proper datalink capability must be noted on the filed ICAO flight
plan: - block 10 should include “J” and “/D” and block 18 should
include “DAT / SV”.
14. For operations using the NAT Strategic Lateral Offset Procedures
(SLOP), the entry of a right 1 or 2 NM offset has a negligible
effect on the FMS predictions at the next and next +1 waypoint.
For larger than 2 NM offset, e.g. for a weather deviation, the FMS
prediction assumes that the airplane will return to the original
flight plan prior to the next waypoint. If this is not the case, the
crew should advise ATC that the FMS predictions are to the
original path and not to the offset path.
Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System
[AFM, §01-34-30] Single Engine Inoperative and TCAS. The use of TA/RA mode
is prohibited with a single engine inoperative. Select TA Only as operating mode.
Enhanced Flight Vision System
[AFM, §01-34-60]
1. EFVS General
1. The demonstrated performance of the installed EFVS Approach
System meets the criteria of AC 20-167A for EFVS operations
conducted in accordance with 14 CFR 91.176 (a) and 91.176 (b).
2. For EFVS operations to touchdown and rollout, descending below
DA/DH requires that visual references be distinctly visible and
identifiable to the pilot using an EFVS. Visual references are
specified in 14 CFR Part 91.176(a)(3).
2. Qualifications for Use
1. EFVS can be used only by qualified pilots who have been trained
and maintain currency in accordance with requirements listed in the
FAA GVII Flight Standardization Board (FSB) report and 14 CFR
61.66. Appropriate operational approval in accordance with AC 90-
106a, Enhanced Flight Vision Systems, is required prior to
performing EFVS operations to touchdown and rollout.
3. Requirements for EFVS Operations to 100 Feet Above Touchdown Zone
Elevation
1. Flight director or autopilot with vertical guidance is required.
2. Straight-in approaches to an MDA (using FMS vertical path) or
DA/DH are authorized.
3. At 100 feet HAT, visual cues must be seen without the aid of EVS
to continue descent to landing.
4. Requirements for EFVS Operations to Touchdown and Rollout
1. Rad Alt and Flare Cue.
2. Flight Director or autopilot with vertical guidance from an ILS or
LPV approach is required.
3. Approved for operations down to 1000 feet RVR. If touchdown
zone RVR is not available, approved for operations down to ¼ sm
(400m) visibility.
4. The maximum final approach offset angle is 3°.
5. Descending below 100 feet above touchdown zone elevation
requires the EFVS image to be sufficient for the visual references,
specified in 14 CFR Part 91.176(a)(3), to be distinctly visible and
identifiable to the pilot.
HUD
[AFM, §01-34-70]
1. Category I HUD operations are approved.

2. The HUD does not provide a NDB approach capability. NDB approaches
can be set up and flown through the FMS, using the HUD for guidance.
3. The use of Caged FPV is prohibited above 1500 ft AAL.
I am told this is because the TCAS RA display is unable to provide a

proper "fly into" display if the HUD FPV is caged.
RVSM
[AFM, §01-34-70]
1. The aircraft is authorized for RVSM operations as defined in 14 CFR Part

91, Appendix G.
2. Maximum RVSM airspeed is 0.925M.
3. The following minimum equipment must be operational to comply with
RVSM limitations:
1. A single Flight Guidance Computer (FGC) with operable altitude
hold function.
2. A single transponder with altitude reporting (ATC).
3. Altitude Alerting System.
4. Three valid Air Data Systems (ADS).
5. Voted Altitude selected.
4. If operating with one ADS failure or Voted Altitude deselected,
maximum RVSM airspeed is 0.91M.
VOR
[AFM, §01-34-150]
1. Monitor the Flight Director VOR lateral navigation Over Station (OS)
mode for 30 seconds following station passage to ensure that the lateral
navigation mode automatically returns to Enroute (VOR). If the automatic
transition does not occur, maneuver the airplane to recapture the
appropriate lateral navigation mode.
2. Use of VOR Approach (VORAP) mode is prohibited if VOR station
overflight is required during any portion of the intermediate
SFD
[AFM, §01-34-170]
1. The use of the SFD declutter mode is prohibited.
They say this is because the declutter mode locks the intensity and if the
lighting decreases the SFD display can become difficult to see.
Oxygen Systems
[AFM, §01-35-20]
WARNING
PASSENGER MASKS ARE INTENDED FOR USE DURING AN

EMERGENCY DESCENT TO AN ALTITUDE NOT REQUIRING
SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN.
1. Crew Masks
1. Above Flight Level 250, crew masks must be in the quick-donning
position which allows donning within 5 seconds.
2. Maximum Cabin Altitude for Use
1. Crew and passenger oxygen masks are not approved for use at
greater than 40,000 feet cabin altitude.
2. The passenger oxygen system shall not be used for periods
exceeding 15 minutes above 25,000 feet cabin altitudes.
Pneumatics
[AFM, §01-36-10]
1. Single Bleed Air System Operating

1. Takeoff with a single bleed air source requires isolation valve
closed until 1500 feet AGL or until clear of takeoff obstacles
(whichever is higher).
2. Wing anti-ice operation with a single bleed air source is restricted
to single ECS pack operations.
3. The maximum altitude for wing anti-ice operations with a single
bleed air source is 32,000 feet.
Warning Inhibit
[AFM, §01-45-60]
1. Selection of the Warning Inhibit button during takeoff, approach, and
landing is prohibited.
I am told that the only reason we have the Warn Inhibit button is that
the CAS filtering logic wasn't completed in time for initial certification.
In other words, the plan was for that button to not exist so there
shouldn't be a reason to press it.
APU
[AFM, §01-49-10]
1. General
1. Maximum guaranteed APU start altitude is 37,000 feet.
2. Maximum Operating Altitude for APU is 45,000 feet.
3. Maximum Altitude for an APU assisted engine airstart is 30,000
feet.
4. Maximum TAT, for inflight operation is 47°C.
5. The APU cannot be used to supply pressurization airflow in flight.
6. Takeoff with the APU operating is prohibited with OAT above
45°C.
2. Use of an external DC power source to start the APU is prohibited.
3. Maximum Permissible EGT
1. Start: 1050°C
2. Running: 732°C
4. APU Starting Limits
1. The APU is limited to a maximum of three consecutive start
attempts with a 1 minute cool down period between attempts.
After three start attempts, observe a 1-hour cool down period
before subsequent starts are attempted.
2. The minimum ambient temperature for ground start is -40°C. FAA
APPROVED
Doors
[AFM, §01-52-10]
1. The Main Entry Acoustic Door, Vestibule Pocket Door (if installed), and
Mid- Cabin Pocket Door (if installed) must remain fully open during taxi,
takeoff, and landing.
NOTE
Only mid-cabin pocket door(s) within the passenger seating area located
between passenger seats and an emergency exit are required to be open.
2. Internal Baggage Door: FAA Aircraft - Internal Baggage Door must

remain closed at altitudes greater than 40,000 feet.
3. The forward ground service panel access door and Main Door emergency
open button must remain unlocked during all ground and flight operations,
allowing ground crews the ability to open the Main Door during an
emergency.
Engine Operation
[AFM, §01-71-10]
1. Acceleration Limits: Engine operation below zero G is limited to 7

seconds.
2. Alternate Mode Operation
1. Takeoff in alternate control mode is prohibited.
2. Operation in icing conditions in alternate control mode is
prohibited.
Airstart Envelope
[AFM, §01-71-30]
1. Assisted airstart envelope: 30,000 feet maximum, VREF to VMO

2. Windmill: 16,5000 feet maximum, 250 KCAS to VMO, 9% N2 minimum
Thrust Reversers
[AFM, §01-78-10]
1. Cancellation of reverse thrust should be initiated to reach the reverse

idle position by 60 KCAS.
2. The thrust reversers shall be deployed and stowed at least once every
100 hours.
3. If in an emergency, reverse thrust is used to bring the airplane to a halt,
record and report such an operation for maintenance action.
4. Use of thrust reversers for backing the airplane is not approved.
5. The use of both thrust reversers simultaneously is prohibited below 10
KGS.
Starter Duty
[AFM, §01-80-10]
1. Three start attempts of up to 3 minutes, with 15 seconds between start

cycles, followed by a 10 minute cooling period.
2. One start attempt of up to 5 minutes, followed by a 10 minute cooling
period.
NOTE
A 10 minute cooling period is required if a start attempt exceeds 3

minutes.
Performance
Gulfstream GVII
Eddie sez:
I'm just getting started with this airplane and there is much to be learned. So,
as they say, this page is a work in progress.
alternate color.
Last revision:
20191125
Mach Slow / Medium / High
What is the cost of going fast in this jet? What does that speed get you in
terms of minutes? This is just an annecdotal example showing how much gas and
time it takes to go from San Francisco, California (KSFO) to Bedford,
Massachusetts (KBED). But it could give us something to start with.
At Mach 0.80 it takes 12,017 lbs. to get there in 4:56.
Speed up to Mach 0.85 it will take an extra 323 lbs (not much) but gets you
there 15 minutes faster (considerable).
Speed up to Mach 0.90 it will take an extra 1,618 lbs (enough to think about) but
gets shaves off another 13 minutes.
Photo: Example flight plan, KSFO to KBED, M0.80 vs M0.85 vs M0.90
Note: Routing, winds, and altitude are the same.

PlanePerformance Wet Runway Bug
If you need to get off a wet runway you might want to think twice about using
the PlanePerformance application. The numbers appear to be overly pessimistic
and there is the strange problem that it seems to think it takes more runway
using Flaps 20° than 10° if the runway is wet. I've asked about this and am still
waiting for an answer.
Using the PlanePerformance App

Photo: PlanePerformance example, KHPN, 10° flaps on a wet runway
I was at White Plains the other day, on hot day in the rain and was wondering
the G500 would do using 10° flaps off of Runway 34. Not so good, it turned out.
The numbers were worse than what I had expected from my G450. So I thought
using 20° flaps would improve things.
Photo: PlanePerformance example, KHPN, 20° flaps on a wet runway
Far from it! In fact, the effective runway length increased using 20° flaps. How
could that be? I turned to the AFM for help.
Using the AFM charts
Photo: G500 Effective Runway Length Required Flaps 10 and Flaps 20, AFM,
§05-02-00, figures 2 and 3
Using the same conditions in the AFM results in shorter distances than
PlanePerformance. It also appears to result in a shorter distance using 20° flaps
until you consider the note on the 20° flap chart which says "When entering this
chart with a known weight, increase resulting effective runway length by 300
feet." With this correction, the ERL appears to be unchanged with a change
from 10° to 20° flaps.
Flashcards
Gulfstream GVII
Eddie sez:
I remember watching Gulfstream put a Gulfstream III together and thinking it

was like watching a few guys in someone's garage. It wasn't too impressive.
These days? It is pure beauty, like watching a very good opera. So if they are
going to go through all the trouble of putting this magnificent work of art
together, you might as well invest some time studying how to fly it.
Here are a few flash cards I've put together.
alternate color.
Photo: Flashcards sketch
You can access all of these flashcards for free from https://quizlet.com. If you
would like to review the contents of each or build your own collection:
Air Conditioning System
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
Electrical System
Fire Protection Systems
Flight Controls
Fuel System
Functional Checks
Hydraulic System
Ice and Rain Protection
Landing Gear and Brakes
Limitations
Oxygen System
Pneumatic System
Powerplant
You can also download an App for your iPhone or iPad to run these as well, just
go to the App Store and look for Quizlet.
Last revision:
2020-07-03
Air Conditioning System
The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: GVII Air Conditioning
System
If you want to put together your own set of paper cards, here are some
questions and answers to get you started.
You can get more about this topic here: GVII Air Conditioning System.
 Q. When do the packs switch on and off during engine start?

A. The left pack switches off when the engine start button is pressed,
back on 10 seconds after the starter air valve closes. The right pack
remains on.
Ref: [PAS, p. 1-12]
 Q. How do the packs handle main entrance door closing?

A. When MED closing, both packs switch off, once closed left pack turns
on, right pack 5 seconds later.
Ref: [PAS, p. 1-12]
 Q. What is the desired temperature range available in auto mode?

A. 60 - 90°F
Ref: [PAS, p. 1-13]
 Q. What is the temperature adjustment range available to the
passengers?
A. +/- 6°F
Ref: [PAS, p. 1-13]
 Q. What is the temperature range using manual mode?

A. 35 - 230°F duct air.
Ref: [PAS, p. 1-13]
 Q. What is the altitude limit for single pack operation?

A. 48,000 feet
Ref: [PAS, p. 1-2]
 Q. What is the wing anti-ice restriction related to the air conditioning

system?
A. Wing anti-ice operations with a single bleed air source are limited to a
single pack.
Ref: [PAS, p. 1-21]
 Q. What is the ECS duct temperature limit during manual zone

temperature control?
A. Below 200°F
Ref: [PAS, p. 1-21]
 Q. When must at least 1 ECS pack be operating?

A. During ground operations above 98°F with APU or engines operating.
Ref: [PAS, p. 1-21]
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)

The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: GVII Auxiliary Power
Unit
You can get more about this topic here: GVII Auxiliary Power Unit.
 Q. What is the maximum guaranteed start altitude for the APU?

A. 37,000'
Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]
 Q. What is the maximum operating altitude of the APU?

A. 45,000'
Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]
 Q. What is the maximum altitude for an APU-assisted engine airstart?

A. 30,000'
Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]
 Q. What is the maximum TAT for inflight operation (except in an

emergency)?
A. 47°C
Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]
 Q. At what temperature is takeoff with the APU operating prohibited?

A. Above 45°C
Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]
 Q. What is the maximum EGT when starting the APU?

A. 1050°C
Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]
 Q. What is the maximum running EGT for the APU?
A. 732°C
Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]
 Q. What is the maximum rotor speed for the APU?

A. 106%
Ref: [PAS, p. 3-23]
 Q. What is the APU starter cycle limit with powered by the airplane
batteries?
A. Maximum of three consecutive start attempts with a one hour cool
down period before the next cycle.
Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]
 Q. At what altitude is APU generator electrical load limited and what

must be done?
A. The generator can deliver 100% up to 35,000 feet, if it exceeds 50%
you must descend to FL350 or below.
Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]
 Q. When is the APU in "essential mode?"

A. When started in flight or if started on the ground, when the aircraft
transitions to weight off wheels.
Ref: [FSI G500 MTM, ATA 49, pp. 41-42]
 Q. If the APU is running in "essential mode," when will it transition to

"non-essential" mode?
A. 15 minutes after landing
Ref: [FSI G500 MTM, ATA 49, pp. 41-42]
 Q. What is the APU cool-down period during a normal APU shutdown?
A. 60 seconds at 100% RPM shut down above 20,000 feet, or 1/2% per
second for 60 seconds when at or below 20,000 feet.
Ref: [FSI G500 MTM, ATA 49, p. 109]
 Q. What is the electrical source for the APU starter?

A. The primary source is the 28 VDC battery tie bus, but it can use any
28 VDC source.
Ref: [FSI G500 MTM, ATA 49, p. 83-87]
Electrical System
The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: GVII Electrical System
You can get more about this topic here: GVII Electrical System.
 Q. What are the cabin, lavatory, and baggage compartment amperage

limits of the 60Hz converter?
A. Cabin outlets are rated at 3 amps each, all others are 15 amps each.
Ref: [PAS, p. 4-4]
 Q. When can the APU generator be used in flight?

A. In the event of an IDG or engine failure.
Ref: [PAS, p. 4-7]
 Q. What are the in flight load limits on the APU generator?

A. Up to 100% up to FL350, up to 78.5% to FL450.
Ref: [PAS, p. 4-7]
 Q. What is the output of the EBHA battery, how long will it last?
A. 25 volts, 53 amp/hr, 30 minutes
Ref: [PAS, p. 4-12]
 Q. How long does it take to charge the Emergency Battery Packs, how
long will they last?
A. 1.5 hours to fully charge; last about 45 minutes.
Ref: [PAS, p. 4-10]
 Q. What do the Emergency Battery Packs power?

A. Emergency lighting, SFDs, IRUs, VHF 1, TSCs #2 and #3, opening
MED.
Ref: [PAS, p. 4-10]
 Q. What powers the ground service bus?

A. Normally the Right Main DC bus. On the ground it is the Right Main
Battery if external DC is not connected.
Ref: [PAS, p. 4-6]
 Q. When must the Main Ship Batteries be removed? Be disconnected?

A. Removed under cold soak (-20°C) conditions; disconnected if aircraft
shutdown 5 days or more.
Ref: [PAS, p. 4-11]
 Q. What does the RAT power?

A. Left Essential TRU, Right Essential TRU, Emergency AC Bus (EBHA
Charger, UPS Charger, Horizontal Stab Ch 1, and R Side windshield heat)
Ref: [PAS, p. 4-7]
 Q. What is the output of each TRU?
A. 26 to 29 VDC, depending on loads between 250 and 20 amps.
Ref: [MTM, ATA 24, p.54]
 Q. What is minimum airspeed for effective RAT operation?

A. 200 KCAS
Ref: [AFM, §01-24-10]
Fire Protection Systems
The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: GVII Fire Protection
Systems
You can get more about this topic here: GVII Fire Protection System.
 Q. For how long can the APU titanium box contain a fire?
A. 15 minutes.
Ref: [PAS, p. 5-4]
 Q. What does pulling the fire handle do?

A. Shuts off fuel from the hopper, electrics at the IDG, and hydraulics
from the shutoff valve.
Ref: [PAS, p. 5-15]
 Q. What does rotating the fire handle do?

A. Discharges the fire bottle into Zone 1.
Ref: [PAS, p. 5-15]
 Q. Which areas are monitored by 250°F thermal switches?

A. Left aft floor, right aft floor, aft equipment, left pylon, right pylon.
Ref: [PAS, p. 5-6]
 Q. Which areas are monitored by 150°F thermal switches?
A. LEER, REER, Forward under floor area, Forward baggage EER, Aft
baggage EER.
Ref: [PAS, p. 5-6]
Flight Controls
The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: GVII Flight Control
System
You can get more about this topic here: GVII Flight Controls.
 Q. What is the range of motion of the Active Control Sidesticks?

A. 10° left, right, forward, 15° aft.
Ref: [PAS, p. 6-25]
 Q. What is the maximum rudder deflection?

A. 3.6° at high speeds, 25° at low speeds.
Ref: [PAS, p. 6-29]
 Q. When will the primary trim switches on the Active Control Sidesticks
stop?
A. If you trim for more than 3 seconds, if you attempt to trim below
AOA Limiting, or if you attempt to trim for 187 knots or lower while you
are flying above 250 knots.
Ref: [PAS, pp. 6-26, 31]
 Q. What inputs do the EHSAs use?

A. The Electro-Hydraulic Servo Actuators receive data from the Remote
Electronic Units (REUs) and use left or right hydraulic system pressure.
Ref: [PAS, p. 6-5]
 Q. When does the stabilizer move automatically?

A. Takeoff pitch trim is set if FMS PERF and Takeoff Init done prior to
initiating FCS test, during flight to counter any persistent elevator
offset, and after landing (20 seconds after ground spoiler retraction and
10 seconds after speed drops below 42 knots).
Ref: [PAS, p. 6-33]
 Q. What happens to the spoilers and ailerons during a rejected takeoff

or at touchdown and what triggers this?
A. All spoiler panels deploy to 55° and all ailerons fully deploy trailing
edge up. This occurs when both throttles are at idle and one of the
following criteria are met: both main gear WOW= ground, One main gear
WOW = ground and wheel spin > 47 knots, or both main wheels spin and
radar alt < 10' and either flaps > 21° or GPWS Flap Inhibit selected.
Ref: [PAS, p. 6-41]
 Q. When will ground spoilers and ailerons autostow?

A. Airspeed and wheel speed < 42 kts for 10 secs, or either throttle not
at idle, or if 2 of following 3 occur: both MLG WOW in air mode, wheel
speed < 47 kts, or RA > 10'
Ref: [PAS, p. 6-41]
 Q. At what speed is continued flight prohibited under normal control

laws?
A. At or below stick shaker activation speed.
Ref: [AFM, §01-27-10]
 Q. When is speed brake extension prohibited?

A. With flaps 39 or with landing gear extended.
Ref: [AFM, §01-27-10]
 Q. Under what flight control laws is flight into known icing prohibited?
A. In any flight control law mode other than normal.
Ref: [AFM, §01-27-20]
Fuel System
The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: GVII Fuel System
Flashcards.
You can get more about this topic here: GVII Fuel System.
 Q. What is the maximum fuel imbalance?

A. 1,000 lbs for takeoff; 2,000 lbs in flight
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-80]
 Q. What is the usable fuel capacity (pressure refueling)?

A. 30,250 lbs (4,515 gallons)
Ref: [AFM, §01-28-10]
 Q. What is the minimum fuel tank temperature?

A. -37°C with > 5,000 lbs total fuel; -30°C with < 5,000 lbs
Ref: [AFM, §01-28-30]
 Q. When does the Heated Fuel Return System auto on? auto off?
A. Auto on when tank temperature ≤ 0°C, auto off when tank temperature
> 10*C
Ref: [PAS, p. 7-20]
 Q. What is a good range of pressure from the fuel truck?
A. Between 35 and 55 psi.
Ref: [PAS, p. 7-8]
 Q. At what altitudes will the engines suction feed?

A. At or below 20,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §02-08-60]
 Q. When will you get a "L-R Fuel Level Low" CAS message?
A. If the fuel level in the respective hopper falls below 650 lbs.
Ref: [PAS, p. 7-14 to 7-19]
Functional Checks
The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: GVII Functional Checks
Flashcards.
You can get more about this topic here: GVII Functional Checks.
 Q. Summarize the Airplane Power-up Flow.

A. Arm emergency power, check emergency lights, 2 sfd, 2 tsc; main
batteries and FCS batteries on, check 23V UPS, 24 V EBHA, 2 OHPTS, 2
DU, 5 TSCs, 3 green gear lights; do fire test; APU Master ON, check
electrical panel, bleed air panel, start APU, cabin galley masters on,
emergency power arm.
Ref: [AFM, §02-02-10]
 Q. Summarize the Fire Test.

A. Press and hold FIRE TEST on APU OHPTS page, count 1 APU FIRE
light, 2 Master Caution lights, 4 CAS, 2 fire handle lights, 2 fuel control
lights.
Ref: [AOM, §01-01-80]
 Q. Summarize the Master Test.
A. Select Master Test, check annunciator lights, check pax oxygen light,
4 red CAS, 5 amber CAS, plus Bax Smoke cyan CAS, deselect Master
Test.
Ref: [AOM, §01-01-120]
 Q. Summarize the FCS Trim Checks.

A. Left seat pilot moves stick trim switch aft then forward, verifies
movement, presses AP DISC button, verifies trim stops. Moves both
backup pitch switches, verifies movement. Moves single backup pitch trim
switches, verifies no movement. Pilot moves aileron trim 3 seconds left
(till tone), 3 seconds right (till tone). Pilot moves yaw trim left, then right
until tone. Copilot repeats stick trim switches.
Ref: [AOM, §01-01-70]
 Q. Summarize the Flight Controls Check.

A. Surfaces faired, speed brake extend, stick left/right, speed brake
retract, stick left/right, stick release, stick full forward/aft, stick
release, nosewheel steering off, rudder left/right, rudder release,
surfaces faired.
Ref: [AOM, §01-01-90]
Hydraulic System
The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: GVII Hydraulic System
Flashcards
You can get more about this topic here: GVII Hydraulic System.
 Q. What is the maximum left system hydraulic quantity as indicated on

the synoptic page?
A. 4.6 gallons
Ref: [AFM, §29-10]
 Q. What is the maximum right system hydraulic quantity as indicated on

the synoptic page?
A. 2.8 gallons
Ref: [AFM, §29-10]
 Q. What is the correct hydraulic system accumulator precharge?

A. 1200 psi at 70°F
Ref: [AFM, §29-10]
 Q. When must you land following a hydraulic system failure?

A. Land within 4 hours of a hydraulic system failure if the failure
occurred within 2 hours of takeoff.
Ref: [AFM, §01-29-20]
 Q. Describe the engine drive hydraulic pump pressure and volume output.
A. Constant pressure (3,000 psi) and variable volume (low at idle, higher
at cruise).
Ref: [PAS, p. 8-2]
 Q. What components does the left system power?

A. The left system powers the primary flight controls (elevators,
ailerons, rudder) the midboard spoilers, as well as the left thrust
reverser. The left system also performs a number of utility functions:
Flaps, Gear, Brakes (Inboard), Nosewheel steering, Main Entrance Door.
Ref: [PAS, p. 8-2]
 Q. What components does the right system power?

A. The right system powers the primary flight controls (elevators,
ailerons, rudder) the inboard and outboard spoilers, as well as the right
thrust reverser. The right system also powers the outboard brakes and
drive the PTU motor.
Ref: [PAS, p. 8-4]
 Q. When will the PTU operate automatically?

A. When armed on OHPTS → DCN will trigger operation immediately
when left system pressure < 2400 psi, fluid available in left and right
system > 0.36 gal, right system pressure > 2850 psi, and right system
fluid not hot < 107°C.
Ref: [PAS, p. 8-7]
Ice and Rain Protection
The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: GVII Ice and Rain
Protection Flashcards.
You can get more about this topic here: GVII Ice and Rain Protection.
 Q. At what temperature and general conditions do icing conditions exist?

A. When SAT or TAT is between 10° and -40°C and visible moisture in any
form is present, including on ramps, taxiways, or runways..
Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]
 Q. When must wing and cowl anti-ice systems be used?

A. When entry into icing conditions is imminent, or immediately upon
detection.
Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]
 Q. What must be done prior to takeoff with wing anti-ice required?

A. If required for takeoff, WAI must be selected on at least 3 minutes
prior to setting takeoff power and normal system operation must be
verified prior to takeoff (wing temperature stabilized at 130°F +/- 10°F.)
Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]
 Q. What is the minimum speed for wing anti-ice on and flaps up?
A. 200 KCAS
Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]
 Q. What are the restrictions when using wing anti-ice and a single bleed
source?
A. WAI operations with single bleed air system operating: WAI Auto
mode prohibited, maximum altitude 32,000’, maximum airspeed → 0.85M,
WAI activation and wing temp > 100°F required prior to entry into icing
conditions.
Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]
 Q. In what position does the wing anti-ice valve fail?

A. It is spring-loaded closed.
Ref: [PAS, p. 9-3]
 Q. At what altitudes will automatic ice detection work?

A. From 400' AGL to FL350.
Ref: [PAS, p. 9-4 and 9-7]
 Q. What is the target temperature for wing anti-ice duct air?

A. WAI valves to maintain WAI duct exit temperature of approximately
130°F.
Ref: [PAS, p. 9-4]
 Q. What is the source of cowl anti-ice air?

A. 4th stage bleed air.
Ref: [PAS, p. 9-6]
 Q. When does multifunction and TAT probe heat automatically come on?
A. Multifunction at 60 knots, TAT at 100 knots.
Ref: [PAS, p. 9-12]
 Q. When does cabin window heat come on automatically?

A. 60 knots.
Ref: [PAS, p. 9-11]
Landing Gear and Brakes
The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: GVII Landing Gear and
Brakes Flash Cards
You can get more about this topic here: GVII Landing Gear and Brakes.
 Q. What is the maximum altitude for extension of the landing gear or for
flight with the gear extended?
A. 20,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]
 Q. What is VLE?
A. 250 KCAS.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]
 Q. What is VLO?
A. 225 KCAS.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]
 Q. What is maximum emergency landing gear extension speed?
A. 175 KCAS.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]
 Q. What is maximum speed with the landing gear extended utilizing the
alternate system?
A. 225 KCAS.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]
 Q. What is the recommended tire pressure for all takeoff and landing
weights?
A. 182 psi (nose wheel tires), 223 psi (main wheel tires), as measured at
lest 2 hours stationary.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]
 Q. What is the normal maximum available nose wheel steering available

from the tiller?
A. 82°.
Ref: [PAS, p.10-11]
 Q. When is autobrake RTO activated and how much authority is it given?

A. Activate at 60 knots, ramps up brake pressure over 1 second to 600
psi, once over 80 ramps up to full anti-skid braking.
Ref: [PAS, p. 10-27]
 Q. What are the three levels of autobrake deceleration and how long
does it take to ramp up?
A. Low is 7 ft/sec2, medium is 20 ft/sec2, high is full anti-skid limit
provided the NLG WOW, it takes 3 seconds to ramp up.
Ref: [PAS, p. 10-27]
 Q. What will cause the autobrakes to disengage?
A. Selected off, brake pedal deflection > 25% for 1 second, brake pedal
deflection > 25% then < 8%, brake pressure exceeds autobrake pressure,
or throttles advanced above idle.
Ref: [PAS, p. 10-27]
 Q. At what brake pedal deflection is hydraulic pressure allowed to reach

the brake assemblies?
A. 8%.
Ref: [PAS, p. 10-23]
 Q. When will the landing gear warning horn be activated?

A. Flaps > 22° and any gear not down and locked, OR flaps < 22° and < 345
' AGL and throttles near idle and any gear not down and locked, OR
CWOW is not in the AIR mode and gear handle selected up.'
Ref: [PAS, p. 10-20]
Limitations
Some of these questions seem silly but are oral questions for your type ride.
The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: GVII Limitations
You can get more about this topic here: GVII Limitations.
Production Aircraft Systems Manual
 Q. What is the wing span?

A. 87 ft 1 in.
Ref: [PAS, p. 2-21]
 Q. What is the length of the aircraft?
A. 91 ft 2 in.
Ref: [PAS, p. 2-21]
 Q. What is the tail height of the aircraft?

A. 25 ft 6 in.
Ref: [PAS, p. 2-21]
 Q. What is the minimum taxi turn radius for a 180° using the tiller?
A. 60 ft.
Ref: [PAS, p. 2-22]
 Q. What is the minimum taxi turn radius for a 180° using the rudder
pedals only?
A. 125 ft.
Ref: [PAS, p. 2-22]
Airplane Flight Manual
 Q. What are the maximum number of passengers?

A. 19.
Ref: [AFM, §01-01-20]
 Q. When is a runway considered wet?

A. More than 25% of the reported length and width used covered by any
visible dampness that is 1/8" or less in depth.
Ref: [AFM, §01-02-10]
 Q. When is a runway considered contaminated?

A. More than 25% of the reported length and width used covered by any
frost, ice, snow, slush that is greater than 1/8" in depth.
Ref: [AFM, §01-02-10]
 Q. What is the maximum runway slope for takeoff and landing?

A. +/- 2%.
Ref: [AFM, §01-02-10]
 Q. What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff or landing?

A. 10 knots.
Ref: [AFM, §01-02-10]
 Q. What is the maximum crosswind component for landing when operating

in any flight control law other than normal?
A. 10 knots.
Ref: [AFM, §01-02-10]
 Q. What is the maximum tailwind component for landing with flaps 10° or
less?
A. 0 knots.
Ref: [AFM, §01-02-10]
 Q. What is the takeoff crosswind limit?

A. 30 knots.
Ref: [AFM, §01-02-10]
 Q. What is the maximum approved airport pressure altitude for takeoff

or landing?
A. 15,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-02-20]
 Q. Below what ambient temperature is engine start prohibited?
A. -20°C.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-20]
 Q. What is the maximum operating altitude?

A. 51,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]
 Q. What is the maximum operating altitude with a single air conditioning

pack operating?
A. 48,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]
 Q. What is the maximum operating altitude with the interior baggage

compartment door open?
A. 40,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]
 Q. What is the maximum operating altitude with a jammed rudder, rudder

failure, or yaw damper failure?
A. 35,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]
 Q. What is the maximum operating altitude for extension or flight with

flaps 10 or 20°?
A. 25,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]
 Q. What is the maximum operating altitude for extension/flight with the

landing gear extended?
A. 20,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]
 Q. What is the maximum operating altitude for extension/flight with

flaps 39°?
A. 20,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]
 Q. What is the Minimum Control Speed Air (VMCA) for flaps 10° and flaps
20°?
A. 120 KCAS (flaps 10°), 112 KCAS (flaps 20°).
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What is Minimum Control Speed Air Landing (VMCL)?

A. 109 KCAS.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What is Minimum Control Speed Ground (VMCG)?

A. 111 KCAS.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What is Maneuvering Speed (VA)?

A. 206 KCAS.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What are the maximum flaps extended speeds (VFE)?

A. 250 KCAS (flaps 10°), 220 KCAS (flaps 20°), and 180 KCAS (flaps 39°).
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What is the Maximum Landing Gear Extended speed (VLE)?
A. 250 KCAS.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What is the Maximum Landing Gear Operation speed (VLO)?

A. 225 KCAS.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What is the maximum emergency landing gear extension speed?

A. 175 KCAS.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What is the Maximum Operating Mach Number (MMO)?

A. 0.925 Mach, above 35,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What is the Maximum Operating Velocity (VMO)?

A. 340 KCAS
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What is the maximum airspeed with yaw damper failure?

A. 285 KCAS / 0.90M
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What is the turbulence penetration speed at or above 10,000 feet?

A. 270 KCAS/ 0.85M, whichever is less
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What is the turbulence penetration speed below 10,000 feet?
A. 240 KCAS
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What is the maximum tire groundspeed?

A. 195 knots.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What is the maximum speed in any flight control law other than
normal?
A. 285 KCAS / 0.90 M.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What is the maximum speed with any primary flight control surface or
spoiler panel failed?
A. 285 KCAS / 0.90 M.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. When must the guidance panel be set to IAS mode?

A. With the flaps or landing gear extended.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]
 Q. What is the maximum flight load acceleration, flaps 0°?

A. -1 to 2.5G.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-50]
 Q. What is the maximum flight load acceleration, flaps 10° or flaps 20°?
A. 0 to 2.0G.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-50]
 Q. What is the maximum flight load acceleration, flaps 39°?
A. 0 to 2.0G below maximum landing weight, 0 to 1.5G above maximum
landing weight.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-50]
 Q. What is the maximum zero fuel weight?

A. 52,100 lbs.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-60]
 Q. What is the maximum ramp weight?

A. 80,000 lbs.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-60]
 Q. What is the maximum takeoff weight?

A. 79,600 lbs.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-60]
 Q. What is the maximum landing weight?

A. 64,350 lbs.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-60]
 Q. What is the minimum flight weight?

A. 48,300 lbs.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-60]
 Q. What is the maximum baggage compartment weight?

A. 2,250 lbs.
Ref: [AFM, §01-03-60]
 Q. What is the maximum fuel imbalance?
A. 1,000 lbs. for takeoff, 2,000 lbs. inflight.
Ref: [AFM, §01-0]
 Q. How high is landing field elevation limited with the CPCS in semi mode,
except in an emergency?
A. Less than 10,000 feet MSL.
Ref: [AFM, §01-21-10]
 Q. What is the maximum cabin differential pressure?

A. 10.69 PSI in flight, 0.3 PSI for taxi, takeoff, and landing.
Ref: [AFM, §01-21-10]
 Q. What is the maximum duct temperature during manual zone control?

A. 200°F.
Ref: [AFM, §01-21-10]
 Q. At what temperature must at least one ECS pack be operating during

ground operations with APU or engines operating?
A. Above 98°F.
Ref: [AFM, §01-21-10]
 Q. When is the use of autothrottles prohibited?

A. During single engine approaches or any approaches with flaps 10° or
flaps 0°.
Ref: [AFM, §01-22-10]
 Q. When is autopilot use prohibited?

A. During a single-engine go-around.
Ref: [AFM, §01-22-20]
 Q. What is the minimum autopilot engage height?
A. 200 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-22-20]
 Q. What is the minimum autopilot disengage height from an ILS or LPV

approach?
A. 90 feet AGL (flaps 39°), 130 feet AGL (less than flaps 39°).
Ref: [AFM, §01-22-20]
 Q. What is the minimum autopilot disengage height for other than an ILS
or LPV approach?
A. 200 feet AGL.
Ref: [AFM, §01-22-20]
 Q. What is the maximum demonstrated altitude loss for a coupled go-

around?
A. 50 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-22-20]
 Q. What is minimum airspeed for effective RAT operation?

A. 200 KCAS.
Ref: [AFM, §01-24-10]
 Q. what is the TRU load limit for ground operations?

A. 80% for all but the Auxiliary TRU which is milted to 40%.
Ref: [AFM, §01-24-20]
 Q. When is speed brake extension prohibited?
A. with flaps 39° or landing gear extended.
Ref: [AFM, §01-27-10]
 Q. what is the usable fuel capacity when pressure refueling?

A. 30,250 lbs (4,515 gallons).
Ref: [AFM, §01-28-10]
 Q. What is the minimum allowed fuel tank temperature?

A. -37°C with greater than 5,000 lbs total fuel, -30°C with less.
Ref: [AFM, §01-28-30]
 Q. What is the time limit after a hydraulic failure?

A. Land within 4 hours if the failure took place within 2 hours of takeoff.
Ref: [AFM, §01-29-20]
 Q. At what temperature and general conditions do icing conditions exist?

A. When SAT or TAT is between 10° and -40°C and visible moisture in any
form is present, including on ramps, taxiways, or runways..
Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]
 Q. When must wing and cowl anti-ice systems be used?

A. when entry into icing conditions is imminent, or immediately upon
detection.
Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]
 Q. If flight in icing conditions with flaps extended has occurred for more
than 10 minutes during takeoff or approach and landing, do not retract
flaps below 10 degrees until?
A. It is verified that the flap leading edge is clear of ice by visual
inspection of the flap on the ground after landing or visual inspection of
the winglet leading edges while in flight.
Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]
 Q. What is the minimum airspeed with wing anti-ice operating and the
flaps up?
A. 200 KCAS.
Ref: [AFM, §01-30-20]
 Q. What are the restrictions for using wing anti-ice for takeoff?
A. Must be selected at least 4 minutes prior to setting takeoff power,
wing temperature stabilized at 130°F must be verified.
Ref: [AFM, §01-30-20]
 Q. What are the single bleed source wing anti-ice restrictions?

A. Can only use one ECS pack, maximum altitude is 32,000 feet, automatic
mode prohibited, wing temperature must be at least 100°F prior to entry
into icing conditions.
Ref: [AFM, §01-30-20]
 Q. When can flaps or landing gear be extended in icing conditions?

A. Takeoff, approach, and landing only.
Ref: [AFM, §01-30-20]
 Q. What is the minimum distance of refueling operations for use of the

weather radar?
A. 50 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-34-20]
 Q. What is the minimum distance of ground personnel for use of the

weather radar?
A. 11 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-34-20]
 Q. What is the maximum guaranteed APU start altitude?

A. 37,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]
 Q. What is the maximum operating altitude for the APU?

A. 45,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]
 Q. At what temperature is takeoff with the APU operating prohibited?

A. Above 45°C.
Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]
 Q. What is the APU starter cycle limit?

A. Three consecutive start attempts with 1 minute cool down periods
between attempts, followed by a 1 hour period.
Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]
 Q. At what altitudes can the APU generator deliver 100% electrical

power?
A. Up to 35,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]
 Q. When must the internal baggage door be closed?

A. Above 40,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-52-10]
 Q. What is the powerplant crosswind/tailwind limits for engine start?
A. 40 / 25 knots.
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-20]
 Q. What is the maximum start TGT?

A. 975°C
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]
 Q. What is the maximum TGT and the time limit for takeoff?
A. 965°C for 5 minutes.
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]
 Q. What is the maximum continuous TGT?

A. 950°C
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]
 Q. What is the takeoff thrust time limit with all engines operating?
A. 5 minutes
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]
 Q. What is the takeoff thrust time limit with one engine inoperative?
A. 10 minutes
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]
 Q. What is the powerplant crosswind/tailwind limits for high power

(above 30% N1) ground operations?
A. 25 / 20 knots.
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-20]
 Q. What is the powerplant crosswind/tailwind limits for taxi?
A. 40 / 40 knots.
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-20]
 Q. What is the powerplant crosswind/tailwind limits for a normal

takeoff?
A. 30 / 10 knots.
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-20]
 Q. What is the air start envelope for an assisted (APU or crossbleed)

start?
A. 30,000 feet maximum altitude, VREF to VMO.
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-30]
 Q. What is the air start envelope for a windmill start?

A. 16,500 feet maximum altitude, 250 KCAS to VMO.
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-30]
 Q. At what speed must reverse thrust be canceled?

A. To reach reverse idle by 60 KCAS.
Ref: [AFM, §]
 Q. When is the use of both thrust reversers prohibited?

A. Below 10 KGS [knots ground speed].
Ref: [AFM, §01-78-10]
 Q. What is a "normal" powerplant start cycle?

A. Three start attempts of up to 3 minutes with 15 seconds between
attempts, followed by a 10 minute cooling period.
Ref: [AFM, §01-80-10]
 Q. What is an "extended" powerplant start cycle?
A. One start attempt of 5 minutes followed by a 10 minute cooling period
if the attempt exceeded 3 minutes.
Ref: [AFM, §01-80-10]
 Q. When is the use of caged FPV prohibited?

A. Above 1500 ft AAL.
Ref: [AFM, §01-34-70]
 Q. For what airports should Terrain Inhibit be selected ON?

A. For airports not in the EGPWS database.
Ref: [AFM, §01-34-80]
 Q. When is the use of VORAP mode prohibited?

A. When VOR station overflight is required during any portion of the
intermediate or final approach segments, excluding the missed approach
point.
Ref: [AFM, §01-34-150]
 Q. When can SFD declutter mode be used?

A. It is prohibited.
Ref: [AFM, §01-34-170]
 Q. Is the use of external DC allowed to start the APU?

A. No.
Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]
 Q. What is the time limit for engine operation below zero G?
A. 7 seconds.
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]
 Q. What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and

landing?
A. 33 knots
Ref: [AFM, §05-01-10, ¶4.]
 Q. What are the crosswind limits?

A. 10 knots (any degraded flight control law), 25 knots (high power ground
ops), 30 knots (takeoff limit), 33 knots (max demonstrated for takeoff
and landing), 40 knots (engine start)
Ref: [AFM, §05]
 Q. What are the APU altitudes?

A. 35,000' (100% electrical power), 37,000' (guaranteed start), 45,000'
(max operating)
Ref: [AFM, §05]
 Q. What are the minimum control speeds?

A. 109 (MCL), 111 (MCG), 112 (MCA F20), 120 (MCA F10)
Ref: [AFM, §05]
Things FlightSafety wants you to know (for some reason that escapes
me)
 Q. What is the airplane's initial cruising altitude at Max Weight?

A. FL430
Ref: [FSI, ?]
Oxygen System
The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: GVII Oxygen System
Flashcards
You can get more about this topic here: GVII Oxygen System.
 Q. What is the intent of passenger oxygen masks?

A. For use during an emergency descent to an altitude not requiring
supplemental oxygen.
Ref: [AFM, §01-35-20]
 Q. Above what altitude are passenger oxygen masks unable to provide

sufficient oxygen for prolonged operation?
A. Above 34,000 feet cabin altitude.
Ref: [AFM, §01-35-20]
 Q. Above what altitude is prolonged operation with passengers on board

not recommended?
A. Above 25,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-35-20]
 Q. When must crew masks be in the quick donning position? How quickly
must they be donned?
A. Above Flight Level 250, crew masks must be in the quick-donning
position which allows donning within 5 seconds.
Ref: [AFM, §01-35-20]
 Q. What is the maximum approved altitude for use of crew and passenger
oxygen masks?
A. Crew and passenger oxygen masks are not approved for use at greater
than 40,000 feet cabin altitude.
Ref: [AFM, §01-35-20]
 Q. What is normal oxygen bottle pressure?

A. 1800 psi.
Ref: [PAS, p. 12-3]
Pneumatic System
The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: GVII Pneumatic System
You can get more about this topic here: GVII Pneumatic System.
 Q. What are the restrictions for takeoff with a single bleed air source?
A. Takeoff with a single bleed air source requires isolation valve closed
until 1500 feet AGL or until clear of takeoff obstacles (whichever is
higher).
Ref: [AFM, §01-36-10]
 Q. What are the restrictions for wing anti-ice operations with a single
bleed air source?
A. Wing anti-ice operation with a single bleed air source is restricted to
single ECS pack operations.
Ref: [AFM, §01-36-10]
 Q. What is the maximum altitude for wing anti-ice operations with a

single bleed air source?
A. 32,000 feet.
Ref: [AFM, §01-36-10]
 Q. What is the maximum airspeed for wing anti-ice operations with a
single bleed air source?
A. 0.85M.
Ref: [AFM, §01-36-10]
 Q. How is bleed temperature regulated for wing anti-ice operations?

A. The 8th stage valve is controlled to maintain a maximum of 700°F at
the pre-cooler inlet and the fan air valve to control the pre-cooler outlet
to 500°F.
Ref: [PAS, p. 13-4]
 Q. How is bleed temperature regulated when wing anti-ice is not in use?

A. The fan air valve is controlled to adjust pre-cooler outlet to 400°F.
Ref: [PAS, p. 13-4]
 Q. What controls the Manifold Pressure Regulating and Shutoff Valves?

What does it do? How does the valve fail?
A. Controlled by L/R ENG BLEED switches, regulates pressure to 44.5
psig minimum, spring-loaded-closed.
Ref: [MTM, ATA 36, p. 15]
Powerplant
The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: GVII Powerplant
flashcards
You can get more about this topic here: GVII Powerplant.
1. Q. What is the maximum EGT and time limit for starting (ground or air)?
A. 975°C (Momentary).
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]
2. Q. What is the maximum EGT and time limit for takeoff?
A. 965°C (Five minutes with two engines, ten minutes when single engine).
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]
3. Q. What is the maximum EGT and time limit for Maximum Continuous
Thrust?
A. 950°C (no time limit, but intended for infrequent use).
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]
4. Q. What is the maximum EGT and time limit for reverse thrust?
A. 965°C (30 seconds).
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]
5. Q. What are the acceleration (G) limits for the engine?

A. Operation below zero G limited to 7 seconds.
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]
6. Q. What are the restrictions for operating in engine alternate control

mode?
A. Takeoff or operation in icing conditions is prohibited.
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]
7. Q. What are the wind limits for engine start?

A. Crosswind: 40 kts, tailwind: 25 kts
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-20]
8. Q. What are the wind limits for static high power (above 30% N1)?
A. Crosswind: 25 kts, tailwind: 20 kts
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-20]
9. Q. What is the airspeed and altitude envelope for an assisted start?
A. VREF to VMO up to 30,000 ft.
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-30]
10. Q. What is the airspeed and altitude envelope for a windmilling start?
A. 250 KCAS to VMO up to 16,500 ft.
Ref: [AFM, §01-71-30]
11. Q. What is the minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff power?
A. 9°C.
Ref: [AFM, §01-73-10]
12. Q. When must reverse thrust be canceled?

A. So as to reach idle reverse by 60 kts.
Ref: [AFM, §01-78-10]
13. Q. When is the use of both reversers simultaneously prohibited?

A. Below 10 knots ground speed.
Ref: [AFM, §01-78-10]
14. Q. What is the minimum oil temperature for ground start?

A. -20°C.
Ref: [AFM, §01-79-10]
15. Q. What is the minimum oil temperature for takeoff?

A. +10°C.
Ref: [AFM, §01-79-10]
16. Q. What are the normal engine starter duty limits?
A. Three attempts of up to 3 minutes, with 15 seconds between start
cycles, followed by 10 minutes cooling.
Ref: [AFM, §01-80-10]
17. Q. What are the extended starter duty limits?

A. One attempt of up to 5 minutes, followed by a 10 minute cooling period.
Ref: [AFM, §01-80-10]
18. Q. When must engine oil quantity be checked?

A. After shutdown of last flight of day or at internals not greater than
24 hours cumulative flight tine, 10 to 30 minutes following shutdown.
Ref: [PAS, p. 14-7]
19. Q. What is flight idle and when does it occur?

A. Flight idle occurs when the gear is not down and locked and flaps are
less than 39°, it can be between 40 and 47% N1.
Ref: [PAS, p. 14-17]
20. Q. How does wing anti-ice affect flight idle?

A. Wing anti-ice idle is 47% N1 minimum when wing anti-ice is on and the
temperature is below -5°C, the gear is down or flaps are 39°.
Ref: [PAS, p. 14-17]
21. Q. What is approach idle and when does it occur?

A. Approach idle occurs when the gear is down and locked or flaps are
39°; it is typically 2 to 3% N1 higher than flight idle.
Ref: [PAS, p. 14-17]
22. Q. When does ground idle occur?
A. Five seconds after WOW goes to ground mode.
Ref: [PAS, p. 14-17]
Study Guide
Gulfstream GVII
Eddie sez:
If you are headed to GVII Initial and had a look at the study materials, you can
be forgiven for feeling a little lost. It is a new airplane, after all. I felt the
same way. But I've been through this more than a few times. (This was type
rating number nine for me.) But the feeling of aimlessness continues during
initial. They will tell you that "you have to get through the complexity to get to
the simplicity." That method works. But I think there is a better way.
You can do it their way and survive. In fact, if you are showing up for class in
the next few days, that's probably what you should do. But if you have about a
month before initial begins, you might want to try my method. I think, in
retrospect, it would have allowed me to more tightly focus my efforts, avoid a
lot of wasted time, and I would have left initial with a firmer grasp on the
airplane. I hope I can do that for you now.
alternate color.
Photo: Alice, Tweedledee, and Tweedledum

The FlightSafety International GVII Initial Course was quite good, but I often
felt directionless in my efforts. (See: Introducing Eddie's New Jet.) I admitted
my angst to several instructors and heard the same thing: "You have to get
through the complexity to get to the simplicity." After three weeks of this I
got my type rating and moved on. But looking back at the experience, I think
there has to be a better way. Let me give it a shot:
 Study Strategy
 Questions and Answers for the Written Exam
 Questions and Answers for the Oral
 Checkride Strategy
Last revision:
20190603
Study Strategy
This is a holistic airplane. What that means is everything is connected to

everything else. You cannot study one system and then move on to the next
system, then move on to normal procedures, etcetera. What you did for all
those airplanes up to now will not work, at least not efficiently. When you go to
initial they will teach you in a method that seems aimless but does eventually
get you to where you need to be. You won't have an "ah ha!" moment, but you will
realize at the end of the course that you have learned.
I think your learning will be broad enough to pass a check ride but not deep
enough to really have mastered the airplane. I think a month of prestudy will
get you spooled up pretty well so that you can really maximize your time in class.
I'm not sure my method is the best way, but I do think it is a better way.
Week One: Appreciate the virtual switch, explore the OHPTS, start on
those limitations
The "virtual circuit breaker" is really a "virtual switch" and is usually nothing
more than a way to save weight and panel space. But if you really embrace what
this does for you, it can completely change how the manufacturer designs a
cockpit and the way you fly airplanes. Gulfstream has done just that with the
GVII and that is why you cannot learn this airplane system by system. I think
the best place to start is with a look at Circuit Breakers for a basic
understanding about how traditional physical circuit breakers work and a look at
how a solid state, or "virtual" circuit breaker is different. The key point to
realize is that these solid state breakers also make excellent switches.
Traditional hardware switches and circuit breakers:
 Advantages:
o They maintain a fixed position in the cockpit or elsewhere in the

airplane; once you learn where they are, you can easily find them.
 Disadvantages:
o They are prone to breaking with repeated use or age; when they
break the switched item is no longer usable.
o They take up panel space as well as space behind the panels for all
the wires connecting them.
o They add to their aircraft's weight, as do all the wires used to

connect them.
o They are only selectable by a human hand, other systems on the

airplane cannot access them unless they are equipped with
expensive, heavy, and space consuming solenoids.
Solid State "Virtual" switches and circuit breakers:
 Advantages:
o They do not break with physical use, wear and tear, or age.
o They do not take any panel space or space behind the panels for
connecting wires.
o They save a considerable amount of weight.

o They provide access to other aircraft systems; if another system
wants to change the status of a "virtural" switch, it can do so with
a digital or analog signal.
 Disadvantages:
o You may have to hunt around menus to find them.
As you can see, the pros of one are the cons of the other. The GVII uses solid
state switches and circuit breakers for most functions. Exceptions include
those items that are used before the various computers and screens have
booted or those that must be accessed in the event the computers or screens
will have become inaccessible.
Once you realize the magic that goes on behind all the cockpit glass, it becomes
easier to understand the function of a lot of that glass. Much of your interface
with various airplane systems will take place on three Over Head Panel Touch
Screens (OHPTS). You should get familiar with them before you venture into
the world of aircraft systems.
While you are doing all this, it is never too early to start the rote memorization
of limitations. I have a set of Flashcards you might find useful.
Week Two: Learn a new CAS Philosophy, learn a few systems
You may have heard this is a "fly-by-wire" airplane and that is certainly true.
But before you learn about that, it is more important to learn that this is a "fly-
by-CAS" airplane because Gulfstream has reinvented the CAS. The idea behind
the new CAS Philosophy is that all those solid state switches will simplify your
normal and abnormal procedures. You need to grasp how this works before you
go any further.
Depending on your level of Gulfstream experience, some of the GVII Systems

may look familiar. You should still study them fairly closely, because no system
has gone unchanged. I recommend the following order:
1. Fuel System — This is a good system to start with because it has a lot of
OHPTS switches that have simple results: on / off, or open / close. Once
you understand this system, the others will become easier. Note to you
with previous Gulfstream experience: while the components look the
same, they are not. The fuel pumps and valves are all different, which
means the limitations and procedures are different too.
2. Electrical System — This system is just about automatic thanks mostly to

those solid state switches. At first glance the synoptics look similar to
those of the G450 and G550, but they have significant differences.
3. Landing Gear and Brakes System — The landing gear and the gear doors
are all computer controlled, greatly reducing the number of hydraulic
lines, valves, and associated parts. The brakes also represent a departure
from previous Gulfstreams, not only because we now have autobrakes but
the inboards and outboards have been split up and the accumulators are
pressurized a bit differently.
4. Pneumatic System — Gulfstream long ago figured out how to get more air
out of two stages of the engine compressor and the change to Pratt &
Whitney engines means you will never be short of pneumatics.
5. Air Conditioning — The air conditioning system is a lot like the GV and
later.
6. Pressurization System — The maximum differential is higher so the cabin

altitudes are significantly lower.
7. Auxiliary Power Unit — The APU is usable in flight.

8. Powerplant — These Pratt & Whitney engines represent a significant
change for Gulfstream, but the result is higher speeds and lower fuel
consumption. System abnormal procedures are easier to deal with, but you
now have two types of fires to consider. Air starts are significantly
easier.
9. Doors — The main entrance door is different and will require a new
thought process for even the mundane task of opening it. The cabin doors
will automatically open before landing.
10. Fire Protection — Even the fire protection system has been simplified;
fault detection is now automatic and continuous.
11. Ice and Rain Protection System — The ice detectors are the same as with
the GV and later, but the numbers are a bit different.
12. Oxygen System — The oxygen system is simplified and the masks are
more comfortable.
13. Water and Waste Systems — The water system now has two tanks, the
purge process is easier, and the waste system is a bit easier.
Don't worry if you can't get to them all, just plow through them in the order
given. As time permits in the following weeks you can catch up. You might be
tempted to skip ahead to the flight control system but don't. In the end this
airplane flies basically like an airplane. We'll get into the flight control system
in week four.
Week Three: Get comfortable with the TSC, try a few normal procedures
Most of your interaction with the airplane will be through the Touch Screen
Controllers; this will cover everything from your conventional FMS, radio tuning,
and even for things like dimming the lights of your displays. You can access all of
these functions through menus, but there is an easier way.
Now is a great time to start looking at some Normal Procedures. I would

concentrate on the following for now:
 Airplane Power-up
 Engine Start
 Functional Checks
 Takeoff
 Arrival
 Landing
 Shutdown
Week Four: All about flight controls
Even if you haven't completed all systems you started in week two, you need to
devote the last week to Flight Controls. I think this system isn't as difficult as
the study materials would lead you to believe. But here is an area where you
have to digest two or three systems at once because they are so interrelated:
 Flight Controls — My page begins with a primer and it may be best to

read that, go on to hydraulics and the autopilot, and then get into the
nitty gritty of the flight controls. Try not to worry about all those flight
control laws and just focus on "normal mode" for now.
 Hydraulic System — Half of the hydraulic system is very similar to what

you might have seen on previous Gulfstreams (GV and later) until you get
to the flight control system. Then you will see that a lot has been
removed (no HOPS, for example) but an electrical-hydraulic backup on
some of the flight controls has been added. You need to get comfortable
with this as you get comfortable with the flight control system itself.
 Autopilot — The autopilot and autothrottles are more closely linked and
do more than previous Gulfstreams. The fact the airplane is fly-by-wire
makes this possible.
 Flight Control Laws — A flight control "law" is nothing more than

software instructions and are better thought of as "modes." Once you
understand how the airplane works in normal mode, it then helps to know
what happens when you lose various sensors and computers, and how the
degraded modes impact how you fly the airplane.
If time permits: Abnormals and some Q and A
I would place a priority on learning the lessons covered so far but if you have
the time, you might look at a few Abnormal Procedures. Of course you do have a
written and oral exam to get through, see the following. I recommend you
download the Quizlet App so you can do this study at anytime on your phone.
Questions and Answers for the Written Exam
Would you like these in flashcard form? Here you go: Quizlet G500 Written
Exam Flashcards.
1. Q. Where can you find the definitions for landing urgency?

A. AFM 00-20-60
Ref: AFM, §00-20-60
2. Q. What is the meaning of "land as soon as possible?"
A. Land without delay where a safe approach and landing is assured.
Ref: AFM, §00-20-60
3. Q. What are the five types of CAS messages?

A. Single system, umbrella, consequential alert, collector, and directive.
Ref: AFM, §00-20-70
4. Q. What's a consequential alert CAS message?

A. One that shares a common cause with an umbrella.
Ref: AFM, §00-20-70
5. Q. What does a gray switch indicate on an OHPTS?

A. An unavailable selection.
Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-02-30
6. Q. What is the meaning of an OHPTS switch with a cyan font?

A. Indicates operating state that triggers a cyan CAS message.
Ref: GVII-GER-0033 & 386
7. Q. What is the meaning of an OHPTS switch with an amber font?

A. Indicates operating state that triggers an amber CAS message or
reflects an abnormal inflight condition.
Ref: GVII-GER-0033 & 386
8. Q. What controls automatic functions on the aircraft?

A. The Data Concentration Network and the Secondary Power
Distribution System.
Ref: GAC GVII DCN ppt Feb 2016
9. Q. What dampens main entry door during opening?
A. A hydraulic damper with a self-contained, recirculating supply of
hydraulic oil.
Ref: PAS, p.2-31
10. Q. What dampens main entry door during opening?

A. A hydraulic damper with a self-contained, recirculating supply of
hydraulic oil.
Ref: PAS, p.2-31
11. Q. What is normal bleed pressure?

A. 14 to 52 psi. (14 normal, 24 low power ground ops or descent 35 single
pack ops)
Ref: PAS, p.13-3
12. Q. What are the deceleration rates associated with each setting of the
autobrakes?
A. Low is 7 ft/sec2, Medium is 10 ft/sec2, High is the anti-skid limit.
Ref: PAS, p.10-27
13. Q. What happens when the outside door is selected to CLOSE?

A. Provided the external battery switch is place ON first, the aux pump
auto activates and the door closes
Ref: PAS, p.2-31
14. Q. When does the acoustic door open automatically?

A. With flaps selected to 10° or the landing gear extended.
Ref: GAC GVII DCN ppt Feb 2016
15. Q. What is the AHTMS?
A. The Aircraft Health and Trend Monitoring System, which captures
data from the Crew Alerting System and the Central Maintenance
Computer.
Ref: PAS, p. 2-41
16. Q. What are the primary escape routes?

A. The MED and the four emergency exit windows.
Ref: AFM, §04-19-30
17. Q. What are the requirements for erasing the CVR?

A. Must be on the ground with the MED open.
Ref: PAS, p. 2-46
18. Q. How long will the Main Ships Batteries last without a normal source of
power?
A. 10 minutes minimum after 2 APU start attempts.
Ref: PAS, p. 4-11
19. Q. What are the Modular Avionics Units (MAUs)?

A. The main computers that control most avionics related applications.
Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-
20. Q. What is the purpose of the Guidance Panel?

A. It provides most of controls for operation of the Automatic Flight
Control System (AFCS).
21. Q. What is NUC?

A. Non-Uniformity Correction, a calibration process.
22. Q. When the the airport symbol normally appear on the HUD?
A. 2,000' above the airport.
Ref: Unsourced (someone is teaching this but no source confirmed)
23. Q. When does the runway symbol replace the airport symbol?
A. The runway symbol appears at 350' RA and the airport symbol
disappears at 325' RA.
24. Q. What does the magenta dashed line extending from the nose of the
aircraft to compass arc represent on the MAP display?
A. The IRS track vector.
Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-04-00, p. 84
25. Q. What color messages can be scrolled off the CAS display?
A. Amber, blue, and white. Red can be scrolled to show other red
messages.
26. Q. What happens when a red or amber CAS message becomes active?
A. Message appears in inverse video, three chimes (red) or two chimes
(amber), Red WARN or amber CAUTION lights.
27. Q. What happens when a blue or white CAS message becomes active?
A. Message flashes for five seconds, one chime for blue message.
28. Q. When is navigation preview mode automatically selected (provided
FMS is the selected navigation source and a short range navigation
approach is selected in the FMS flight plan)?
A. When the aircraft is within 75 nm flight plan distance and 40 nm
direct distance from the destination airport.
Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-04-160, ¶2.A.(2)
29. Q. What are two types of automatic CAS message filters?

A. Takeoff and landing, and power-up.
30. Q. What tone is associated with autopilot disengagement?

A. LO/HI/LO
31. Q. With AP engaged, what happens when PFD SRC switch is pressed?
A. Lateral mode changes to ROL, vertical mode changes to FPA.
32. Q. What's the indication of a normal AT disengagement?

A. AT1 or AT2 flashes amber for five seconds along with a LO/LO/LO
triple tone.
33. Q. What are the long range sensors?

A. Two GPSs and three IRUs.
34. Q. What are the short range sensors?

A. VOR/DME and DME/DME.
35. Q. What is the default heading, attitude reference, and air data source
for each SFF?
A. Attitude / Heading Reference System (AHRS) for attitude,
magnetometer for heading.
A. Attitude / Heading Reference System (AHRS) for attitude,
magnetometer for heading., ADS 4 for air data.
36. Q. What is color is turbulence displayed on the weather radar?

A. Magenta.
37. Q. How is predicted windshear displayed?

A. By a series of red and black bands in area of windshear followed by
searchlights.
Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-29-00, p. 26
38. Q. What is the windshear / CFIT vertical escape maneuver?

A. AP/AT disconnect, increase pitch up to full aft stick (30° maximum),
power levers full forward, once at a safe altitude retract gear and flaps.
Ref: AFM, §3E-10-00
39. Q. As you start your preflight, what is the preferred way of opening the
Main Entrance Door?
A. Push Emergency Entry panel to allow door to unlock using FWD E-Batt,
thereby testing that E-Batt.
Ref: FSI Q and A
40. Q. How do you open the Main Entry Door from the outside, normally?
A. Use the Security/Ground Service panel, select battery to ON and the
outside door switch to OPEN.
Ref: FSI Q and A
41. Q. Can you fly with the Security/Ground Service panel door or the
entrance push panel locked?
A. No.
Ref: FSI Q and A
42. Q. What is the purpose of the Door Safety Switch on the overhead
panel?
A. To prevent the door from being closed or stop if from closing if it is.
Ref: FSI Q and A
43. Q. Do I have to have all 4 DUs to dispatch?

A. No, Number 3 can be failed.
Ref: FSI Q and A
44. Q. The aircraft is facing 360 and the wind is 270 @ 25 Are you allowed
to start the engines?
A. Yes, the limit is 40 knots cross, 25 knots tail.
Ref: FSI Q and A
45. Q. Where can I find the crosswind component chart?

A. AFM Performance section under "conversion charts".
Ref: FSI Q and A
46. Q. Where is the emergency evacuation checklist?

A. AFM, there is an EVAC icon.
Ref: FSI Q and A
47. Q. What are your escape routes?
A. The main entrance door and the four overwing escape windows.
Ref: FSI Q and A
48. Q. When does the acoustic door open automatically?

A. Gear or Flaps 10°.
Ref: FSI Q and A
49. Q. When and how do you check tire pressures?

A. After stationary for at least 2 hours, on TSC Systems, Ground
Service.
Ref: FSI Q and A
50. Q. What are the recommended tire pressures?

A. 182 psi (nose), 223 psi (main)
Ref: FSI Q and A
51. Q. What does a gray OHPTS switch indicate?

A. An unavailable selection.
Ref: FSI Q and A
52. Q. What does a cyan OHPTS switch indicate?

A. An operating state that triggers a cyan CAS message.
Ref: FSI Q and A
53. Q. What does a amber OHPTS switch indicate?

A. An operating state that triggers an amber CAS message or reflects an
abnormal in flight condition.
Ref: FSI Q and A
54. Q. What controls automatic functions on the aircraft?
A. DCN and SPSDS.
Ref: FSI Q and A
55. Q. How were cabin systems designed?

A. With redundancy so single-point failures don't result in loss of
functionality.
Ref: FSI Q and A
56. Q. What happens when the outside door switch is selected to CLOSE?
A. Provided external battery switch is ON, aux pump operates and door
closes, door latches, aux pump turns off.
Ref: FSI Q and A
57. Q. What is the limitation associated with the main entry acoustic door?
A. Must be open for taxi, takeoff, and landing.
Ref: FSI Q and A
58. Q. Describe the seal on the external baggage door.

A. It uses a passive seal to maintain pressurization.
Ref: FSI Q and A
59. Q. What is the purpose of the AC/DC RESET switch?

A. It resets the lockout and allows tripped contactors to close if the
fault is cleared.
Ref: FSI Q and A
60. Q. What are the minimum EBHA and UPS voltages?

A. 24 and 23 VDC.
Ref: FSI Q and A
61. Q. What do you check when arming emergency power during the aircraft
power up?
A. Both SFDs, TSC 2 and 3 on Backup Engine/Radio, and emergency
lighting.
Ref: FSI Q and A
62. Q. What is an ESC?

A. An electrical system controller which performs system control
functions.
Ref: FSI Q and A
63. Q. How many MPTs are there?

A. The are 14 Modular Power Tiles that perform power routing and circuit
protection functions using SSPCs.
Ref: FSI Q and A
64. Q. How many batteries are there and where are they located?
A. 2 Main Ship Batteries (tail compartment), an EBHA (tail compartment),
a UPS (REER), and two EBPs (one in LEER one in Fwd Aft BEER).
Ref: FSI Q and A
65. Q. How many generators do we have?

A. Four: two IDG, one APU, one RAT.
Ref: FSI Q and A
66. Q. What is the output of the APU generator?

A. 40 kVA, 3-phase, 115 VAC
Ref: FSI Q and A
67. Q. What is the output of the RAT generator?
A. 15 kVA, 3-phase, 115 VAC
Ref: FSI Q and A
68. Q. What is the APU maximum start EGT?

A. 1050°C.
Ref: FSI Q and A
69. Q. What is the purpose of the GCU?

A. They work with the electrical system to provide quality power.
Ref: FSI Q and A
70. Q. When would the main battery switches indicate ON?

A. APU start, operating the Aux pump, or if battery switches are on and
ESS DC buses have no other sources of power.
Ref: FSI Q and A
71. Q. What does it mean when we say we have a split battery bus
configuration?
A. Left battery only for APU start, both for Aux pump.
Ref: FSI Q and A
72. Q. How many REUs do we have?

A. Eight Remote Electric Units.
Ref: FSI Q and A
73. Q. What are the different flight control modes?

A. Normal, Alternate, Direct, Backup.
Ref: FSI Q and A
74. Q. What is the purpose of the BFCU?
A. Provides "get home capability" if both FCCs fail.
Ref: FSI Q and A
75. Q. How many FCCs do we have?

A. Two.
Ref: FSI Q and A
76. Q. How many FCC channels?

A. Two per FCC.
Ref: FSI Q and A
77. Q. What are our limitations in alternate flight control mode?

A. No faster than 285 KCAS / 0.90M, no more than a 10 knot crosswind
for landing, no icing allowed.
Ref: FSI Q and A
78. Q. When would flight control mode change from normal to alternate?
A. Due to a loss of multiple air data or internal sensors, or if FCCs lose
communications with REUs that control HS MCE.
Ref: FSI Q and A
79. Q. Which control modes can be reset to Normal?

A. Only Alternate.
Ref: FSI Q and A
80. Q. Can you turn TAT heat on when on the ground?

A. Yes, using the switch on the OHPTS, it will heat for 1 minute.
Ref: FSI Q and A
81. Q. When does TAT heat normally come on?
A. At 100 kts.
Ref: FSI Q and A
82. Q. What happens when Cabin Window Heat is selected on when on the
ground?
A. The switch turns green and it comes on for 10 minutes.
Ref: FSI Q and A
83. Q. What happens with EVS window heat is selected on?

A. The switch blooms cyan, the EVS graphic turns green, and EVS window
heat operates for 5 minutes.
Ref: FSI Q and A
84. Q. When do you check engine oil level?

A. Between 10 and 30 minutes after shutdown.
Ref: FSI Q and A
85. Q. Does APU oil have a historical value on FQI?

A. No.
Ref: FSI Q and A
86. Q. What is the difference between APU essential and non-essential

mode?
A. When in essential mode, some protective shutdowns are disabled to
allow continued operation.
Ref: FSI Q and A
87. Q. Which fire bottle can be discharged into the APU?

A. The left.
Ref: FSI Q and A
88. Q. What causes the Aux pump to operate automatically?
A. Inflight: armed, left system < 1500 psi, fluid in system, fluid not hot,
flap or gear positions do not match handles. Ground: armed, left system <
1500 psi, brake pedal depressed.
Ref: FSI Q and A
89. Q. What causes the PTU to operate automatically?

A. Armed, left system < 2400 psi, fluid in left system, right system fluid
not hot.
Ref: FSI Q and A
90. Q. What do you lose during a single hydraulic system failure?

A. Onside thrust reverser and a spoiler pair (left: midboard, right:
inboard)
Ref: FSI Q and A
91. Q. How does the Aux pump operate differently in the air when selected
to ON?
A. In flight it has a 2-minute time limit that can be reset by selecting
OFF then ON.
Ref: PAS, p. 8-6
92. Q. At what level is negative pressure relief provided?

A. At -0.25 psid.
Ref: PAS, p. 8-6
93. Q. What do blue wing anti-ice lines on the ECS/PRESS synoptic indicate?
A. WAI temperature is less than 100°F.
Ref: FSI Q and A
94. Q. What do green wing anti-ice lines on the ECS/PRESS synoptic
indicate?
A. WAI temperature is normal (100 to 180°F).
Ref: FSI Q and A
95. Q. What do amber wing anti-ice lines on the ECS/PRESS synoptic

indicate?
A. WAI temperature is less than 100°F for several minutes after it is
selected ON, or exceeds 180°F..
Ref: FSI Q and A
96. Q. At what level is positive pressure relief provided?

A. At 10.8 and 11.0 psid.
Ref: PAS, p. 8-6
97. Q. What kind of test is performed with PRESS TO TEST AND RESET
control switch on the oxygen mask storage box?
A. A leak check.
Ref: FSI Q and A
98. Q. When would you select GPWS Flap Inhibit?

A. For a landing with less than 22° flaps, in accordance with the checklist.
Ref: FSI Q and A
99. Q. When the parking brake is set, what component assures pressure from
the outboard accumulator is equal or slightly less than the pressure
coming from the inboard accumulator?
A. Repeater valve.
Ref: FSI Q and A
100. Q. How is brake life determined during preflight?
A. Wear pin indicators.
Ref: FSI Q and A
Questions and Answers for the Oral
Would you like these in flashcard form? Here you go: Quizlet G500 Written
Exam Flashcards.
1. Q. What are the minimum EBHA and UPS battery voltages?

A. 24 and 23 VDC.
Ref: AFM, §02-02-10
2. Q. What do you check when arming E Power during the cockpit preflight?
A. Emergency lighting, both SFDs, and TSC 2 and 3.
Ref: AFM, §02-02-10
3. Q. How many batteries are there and where are they located?
A. 2 Main Ship Batteries (tail compartment), an EBHA (tail compartment),
a UPS (REER), and two EBPs (one in LEER one in Fwd Aft BEER).
Ref: FSI Q and A
4. Q. How many generators do we have? Capacity?

A. Four: two IDG (40 kVA), one APU (40 kVA), one RAT (15 kVA).
Ref: FSI Q and A
5. Q. What does the RAT power? What airspeed is required? How is it

deployed?
A. Powers LESS TRU, RESS TRU, EBHA Charger, UPS Charger,
Emergency AC bus, Horizontal Stab Ch 1, L and R side windshield heat.
Requires 200 knots. Deployed manually, is spring loaded.
Ref: FSI Q and A
6. Q. How many REUs on the aircraft? What do they do?
A. There are 8 Remote Electronics Units. They control actuators and the
HSTS based on FCC commands and they report control surface positions.
Ref: PAS, p. 6-4
7. Q. What are the different flight control modes?

A. Normal (the default mode), Alternate (if air data, inertial data, or
communications between FCC and GSTS lost), Direct (if all 4 FCC
channels become invalid), and Backup (All 4 FCCs unable to communicate).
Ref: PAS, p. 6-11 to 6-18
8. Q. Where is the BFCU and what is its purpose?

A. Under the floor, used to "get home" if both FCCs fail. Powered by UPS
and has its own set of RVDTs on sidesticks and rudder pedals.
Ref: FSI Q and A
9. Q. What are our limitations in alternate flight control mode?

A. No faster than 285 KCAS / 0.90M, no more than a 10 knot crosswind
for landing, no icing allowed.
Ref: FSI Q and A
10. Q. Can you turn TAT heat on when on the ground?

A. Yes, using the switch on the OHPTS, it will heat for 10 minutes. The
PAS says 1 minute.
Ref: FSI Q and A and PAS, p. 9-12
11. Q. When does TAT heat normally come on?

A. At 100 kts.
Ref: FSI Q and A
12. Q. Can you turn the cabin window heat on when on the ground?
A. Yes, for 10 minutes.
Ref: PAS, p. 9-11
13. Q. When does EVS window heat come on?

A. Airborne when ice detected (1 minute on, 7 off with gear handle up; 1
on 1 off with gear handle down). Manually forces it on for 5 minutes.
Ref: PAS, p. 9-10
14. Q. When do you check engine oil level?

A. Between 10 and 30 minutes after shutdown.
Ref: FSI Q and A
15. Q. What is the difference between APU essential and non-essential

mode?
A. When in essential mode, some protective shutdowns are disabled to
allow continued operation.
Ref: FSI Q and A
16. Q. What causes the Aux pump to operate automatically?

A. Inflight: armed, left system < 1500 psi, fluid in system, fluid not hot,
flap or gear positions do not match handles. Ground: armed, left system <
1500 psi, brake pedal depressed.
Ref: FSI Q and A
17. Q. What causes the PTU to operate automatically?

A. Armed, left system < 2400 psi, fluid in left system, right system fluid
not hot.
Ref: FSI Q and A
18. Q. What do you lose during a single hydraulic system failure?
A. Onside thrust reverser and a spoiler pair (left: midboard, right:
inboard)
Ref: FSI Q and A
19. Q. How does the Aux pump operate differently in the air when selected
to ON?
A. In flight it has a 2-minute time limit that can be reset by selecting
OFF then ON.
Ref: PAS, p. 8-6
20. Q. What is the maximum cabin differential?

A. 10.69 psi (inflight), 0.3 psi (taxi, takeoff, landing).
Ref: AFM, §01-21-10
21. Q. When is the wing anti-ice white, cyan, green, or amber?

A. White (not operating), cyan (wing temp < 100°F), green (wing temp
between 100°F and 180°F), amber (wing temp < 100°F for 2 minutes auto
or 4 minutes manual, or > 180°F).
Ref: PAS, p. 9-26
22. Q. How do you open the Main Entry door from outside the aircraft when
starting your preflight during the first flight of the day?
A. EMED Push panel – PUSH for Emergency Entry. The EMED door will
electrically unlock and free fall open using the FWD E-Batt. This allows
you to test that function as well as the FWD E-Batt.
Ref: AFM, 02-01-10, Interior Preflight Inspection, Aircraft General Slide
30, 31, 32, 34 Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Aircraft General page 30, 31, 32,
33 of 50
23. Q. How do you open the Main Entry door from outside the aircraft
normally?
A. Open the Security/Gnd Service door. Select the External Battery to
ON Select the outside door switch to OPEN. The door will electrically
unlock and free fall open. Opening the door and unfolding the stair
section does not require hydraulic pressure; the door is electrically
opened and the stairs will free-fall to the extended position using a
closed-circuit hydraulic damper to control the extension rate.
Ref: Ref: AFM, 02-01-10, Interior Preflight Inspection, Ref: Aircraft
General Slide 30, 31 Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Aircraft General page 30,
31, 32 of 50
24. Q. Can you fly with the Security / Ground Service panel door locked or
the Entrance Entry Push Panel locked?
A. No. The forward ground service panel access door and MED emergency
open button must remain unlocked during all ground and flight operations
to ensure accessibility to the Main Door switches, allowing ground crews
the ability to open the MED during an emergency.
Ref: AFM 01-52-10: Main Entry Door, iFlightDECK / PTH Aircraft
General page 32, 49 of 50
25. Q. When and how do you check the tire pressure?

A. Aircraft static for at least 2 hours; TSC 1-4 - SYSTEMS—GROUND
SERVICE, TIRE PRESSURE. TSC 5, PRESS Status, Tire Pressure AFM,
Nose wheel tires: 182 psi, Main wheel tires: 223 psi.
Ref: AFM 02-01-10
26. Q. How many pins should you have in your hand when you finish the
preflight?
A. 8 (3 Gear pins, 4 Door pins, 1 Maint pin)
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Landing Gear and Brakes page 44 of 76
27. Q. During landing you get an Amber Tiller Steering Fail CAS message.
What type of rudder pedal authority would you expect to get?
A. 40° from the tiller (instead of 82° from the tiller).
Ref: PAS 10-11
28. Q. What does a magenta landing gear indication mean?
A. Gear in transit.
Ref: PAS 10-45.
29. Q. What does a amber landing gear indication mean?

A. Gear fear failed to extend.
Ref: PAS 10-45.
30. Q. After opening the gear doors for preflight, what must be
accomplished to put the airplane back into “ready for flight mode?”
A. Close all the gear doors and select Normal on the LGCMP; otherwise,
the plane will remain in MX mode and gear will not retract on departure.
31. Q. Is there a CAS message that the landing gear is not in the NORM
mode.
A. Yes, "LG Maintenance Mode"
Ref: AFM, 3A-12-20
32. Q. How can the gear warning horn be silenced if flap position is < 22° or >
22° and the gear is retracted?
A. By either retracting the flaps or extending the landing gear. Tone
Generator – MAU 1 and MAU 2 Inhibit TSC, Aural Inhibits. Selecting the
gear silence button on TSC, Aural Inhibits, Ldg Gear Horn (This works
until descending below 345 feet AGL)
33. Q. While performing the Perf Takeoff, AC Cfg on TSC, you notice that
the ENABLED legend under BTMS is amber. What does that mean?
A. The FMS is not able to perform brake temperature monitoring
computations.
Ref: iFlightDECK, Perf Takeoff, AC Cfg
34. Q. How can the pilot deactivate the autobrakes system on landing?
A. By selecting the Autobrake to OFF on TSC 1-4, POF, Taxi, or Takeoff.
Any one throttle advanced forward of the idle stop. Any one brake pedal
is depressed greater than 25% and released to less than 8% for more
than 0.03 seconds. Any one brake pedal is depressed to more than 25%
for more than one second. Brake pressure commanded by any one brake
pedal exceeds the brake pressure commanded by autobrakes (greater
than 25%).
35. Q. Where does the FADEC get its electrical power?

A. From ESS DC until 35% and then from its own PMA. PAS says 52%.
Ref: PAS 14-16
36. Q. Name some conditions that stops the heated fuel return system to
operate automatically?
A. At high power setting, crossflow open, fire handle pulled, fuel selector
OFF, low fuel pressure, HTFR AUTO switch OFF, fuel tank temperature
above 10°C, low fuel quantity signal
Ref: PAS 7-20.
37. Q. When does the FADEC change channels during a ground start?
A. Each time the fuel switch is selected to RUN.
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Power Plant page 17 of 41
38. Q. What’s the downside to the alternate control mode?

A. You lose FADEC protection, you lose auto throttles, and you can’t
dispatch in alternate control. Operation in icing conditions prohibited.
Engine sync inoperative. Increased ground and flight idle
Ref: AFM 03-05-10
39. Q. When you select Fire Test switch on OHPTS what are you expecting
to happen?
A. 13 items: APU fire light, two master cautions, left and right fire
handles, left and right fuel controls, 6 CAS.
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Fire, page 11 of 21
40. Q. On your preflight checks, how do you know you have full engine fire
bottles?
A. Absence of discharge bottle CAS messages.
41. Q. If the APU senses a fire will it continue to operate?

A. No; the APU will automatically shut down. However, you must discharge
the fire bottle into APU enclosure by selecting FIRE EXT on Overhead
Panel.
42. Q. What’s the location of portable fire extinguishers?

A. One Halon in the cockpit, and two Halon and one water in the cabin.
43. Q. What happens when you pull the fire handle up?
A. You send a signal to close the fuel shutoff valve, trips the associated
GCU, and shuts off hydraulics in the tail compartment.
44. Q. What electrical power source is required to detect an engine/APU Fire

and discharge a fire bottle?
A. Essential DC.
45. Q. What is the purpose of the APU?
A. Supply aircraft w/bleed air and AC power during ground ops. Inflight
AC power or /and bleed air for engine start only.
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH APU page 1 of 24
46. Q. How does the APU shut down?

A. Surface to 20,000 feet the APU sheds the air and electrical, slows
down at 1/2 % per second to 70% then shuts down. Above 20,000 feet
the APU sheds the APU Generator and Bleed Air and operates at 100%
before shutting down.
47. Q. Can APU air be used inflight?

A. Yes, for engine starts 30,000 feet and below.
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH APU page 1 & 23 of 24
48. Q. What power sources can be used for starting the APU?
A. Essential power (Right Ships Batteries), AC external power cart. Use
of an External DC power source to start the APU is prohibited
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Fuel page 14 of 45
49. Q. What the indication that air inlet door has opened and APU is ready to
start?
A. Cyan “APU Ready” annunciation illuminates on IRS / APU / Batt page of
OHPTS’s. ALSO ON THE HARD SWITCH.
50. Q. After selecting the APU Master ON the switch indicates amber
FAULT. Can I clear this indication?
A. Cycle MASTER and give it another try.
51. Q. Inflight you get an amber APU Essential CAS message. What does
that indicate?
A. It means it hasn’t shutdown for one of the malfunctions that would
have caused shutdown on ground. Don’t shut it down if you really need it
because a subsequent start may be inhibited. If you don’t need it, shut it
down quickly by turning off the APU MASTER.
52. Q. How much fuel can be uploaded to the aircraft?

A. 30,250 lbs.
Ref: AFM Limitations, 01-28-10: Usable Fuel Capacities
53. Q. What is the maximum amount of fuel when fueling over wing?
A. 22,500 lbs.
Ref: AFM Limitations, 01-28-10: Usable Fuel Capacities
54. Q. What is the maximum imbalance while in-flight?

A. 2,000 lbs
Ref: AFM, 3A-06-230: Fuel Imbalance
55. Q. When must the Fuel Boost Pumps be ON?

A. Select operable fuel pumps ON for all phases of flight unless fuel
balancing is in progress.
Ref: AFM Limitations, 01-28-20: Fuel Pumps
56. Q. What must you do to check the engine oil?

A. CHECK Engine and APU OIL LEVEL 10 MINUTES to 30 minutes AFTER
SHUTDOWN TO DETERMINE IF THE ENGINE NEEDS OIL SERVICE.
Ref: AFM, 06-01-70, Pilot Oil Servicing Procedures
57. Q. If you get a "L Hyd Pump Fail" CAS message, what will not work?
A. Left Thrust Reverser and Mid Spoiler Panels/Speed Brakes.
Ref: AFM 03-15-10
58. Q. The Left Hydraulic pump failed 1 hour after takeoff. Is there
anything you must do?
A. Land at the nearest suitable airport no more than 4 hours after the
failure.
Ref: AFM, 01-29-20
59. Q. Will the aux hydraulic pump retract the landing gear?
A. Yes, but very slowly
Ref: AFM, 03-15-10, Note
60. Q. What is the lowest power source that will operate the Standby Flight
Display?
A. Emergency Batteries
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Electrical page 10 of 74
61. Q. If operating on the Emergency Batteries ONLY do you have Air Data
Information?
A. No
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Avionics Part 2 page 122 or page 1 of 90
62. Q. What would have to be powered to get Air Data to the SFD?
A. ESS DC power
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Avionics Part 2 page 122 or page 1 of 90
63. Q. What is the maximum altitude I can use the APU for electrical power?
A. The APU alternator can deliver 100% (40 kVA) electrical power on the
ground or in flight from sea level to 35,000 ft. You can still use it above
35K, to 45K. If load exceeds 55% descend to 35 or below.
64. Q. What causes the “AC” legend of AC/DC RESET switchlight to

activate?
A. A Fault in Main AC or Emergency AC bus, a logic fault within BPCU, or
by a relay or component failure (Glitch, Fault, Failure)
Ref: AFM, 03-04-40, Emergency AC Bus Fault and AC/DC Reset
65. Q. What would cause 1 or both emergency batteries to come ON

automatically?
A. Any one of the 3 door open switches selected to OPEN causes the
Forward E-Batt to come ON and open the MED. Or if < 20 volts on the
ESS Busses with the E-Batts ARMED.
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Aircraft General page 30 of 50
66. Q. Describe the purpose of the fifth or Aux TRU?

A. It serves as a backup to the other TRU’s. When not serving in a backup
role, the Aux TRU powers the Aux DC bus which provides 28 VDC power
to cabin loads.
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Electrical page 5, 9, 65 of 74
67. Q. What does the Emergency AC Bus power?

A. EBHA battery charger, UPS battery charger, H-STAB Channel 1, L & E
Ess TRU - VIA RAT, L & R Side Window Heat – VIA RAT, RAT
VOLT/FREQ
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Electrical page 3, 7, 12 of 74
68. Q. What are the sources of power for the ground service bus?
A. Right main DC bus, external DC power cart, or right battery.
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Electrical page 5, 6, 8, 11, 23 of 74
69. Q. What powers the Emergency AC Bus?
A. Left Main AC or RAT generator.
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Electrical page 3, 23 of 74
70. Q. What happens on a dark airplane when the GND SVC BUS switch on
the Security / Gnd Svc panel is selected to ON?
A. The right battery powers the ground service bus and the anti-collision
beacon illuminates and TSC #5 is powered.
71. Q. How many TSC’s can be used to simultaneously control the SSPC’s?
A. The Secondary Power Distribution System can be accessed from any
two of TSC 2 thru 5. Secondary Power is not available on TSC 1
Ref:
72. Q. If the Right Essential TRU fails, the Aux TRU will power the Right
Essential DC bus. If we have a subsequent failure of the Left Essential
TRU, what will occur?
A. Aux TRU will take over the LH ESS DC bus and the right Ess DC bus
will be powered by the BATTS.
73. Q. If you had to deploy the RAT. What buses can it power?
A. Emergency AC Bus, Left and Right ESS Buses
Ref: AFM, 04-04-10, Dual Generator Failure, NOTE
74. Q. What is temperature range in manual?

A. 0 to 100 % - Full cold 35 F to full hot 230 F
Ref: iFlightDECK
75. Q. Automatic pressurization is available down to what source of power?
A. Main batteries, CPCS Channel 1
Ref: AFM, CB Listing: Air Conditioning
76. Q. During Cockpit Inspection there is a pressurization panel Fault Light

illuminated, what does that mean?
A. A fault has been sensed by the cabin pressure controller, or both
channels of the controller have failed.
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Pressurization page 6 of 25
77. Q. What are the restrictions when taking off with a single bleed air
system?
A. Isolation valve closed until 1500 feet AGL or clear of obstacles, if wing
anti-ice needed must be single pack.
Ref: AFM 03-21-20, Bleed Air System Failure - Single
78. Q. Is there any time I cannot use VNAV?

A. VNAV operations using QFE altimeter settings are prohibited.
Ref: AFM, 01-03-10: Types of Airplane Operations Permitted.
79. Q. When can I not use the Autothrottles?

A. During single engine approaches. During approach and landing with flaps
10° or flaps 0°.
Ref: AFM, 01-22-10: Autothrottle
80. Q. Can you dispatch without the pilot's CCD?

A. Yes, Both can be inoperative
Ref: MEL, ATA 34 Navigation, Cursor Control Device
81. Q. Do you lose any functionality in the cockpit with one CCD inoperative?
A. No
Ref: iFlightDECK
82. Q. Looking into the HUD, how can you tell if the EVS is selected ON and
ready for use?
A. It indicates EVS A, H, or L in the upper left corner
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Avionics HUD System page 27, 28
83. Q. What are the flap restrictions in icing conditions?

A. The use of flaps in icing conditions is restricted to takeoff, approach,
and landing. If icing conditions exist or may exist during approach and
landing, wing anti-ice must be selected on and confirmed to be operating
in the normal temperature range prior to flap extension. Extended
operations in icing conditions is limited to the Flaps Up configuration. If
flight in icing conditions with flaps extended has occurred for more than
10 minutes during takeoff or approach and landing, do not retract flaps
below 10 deflection until it is verified that the flap leading edge is clear
of ice by one of the following means: 1. Visual inspection of the flap on
the ground after landing. 2. Visual inspection of the winglet leading edges
while in flight.
Ref: AFM Limitations 01-30-20 Use of Flaps
84. Q. As you are taxiing out, you get a blue "FCC 1A Fail (U)" CAS. Can you
takeoff?
A. Yes, you can go with 3 of the 4 channels.
Ref: MMEL, ATA 27, page 64 of 247 – 27-1
85. Q. Are there any limitations associated with an amber "Spoiler Panel Fail
(U)" CAS message?
A. Yes, do not exceed 285 KCAS or 0.90M.
Ref: AFM Limitations 01-03-40, Airspeed Limitations
86. Q. What will cause an amber "FCS Alternate Mode (U)" CAS message?
Can it be recovered?
A. Less than 2 valid IRS signals, or less than 2 valid ADS sources, or loss
of communications from FCC to HSTS. FLT CTRL RESET might get it
back.
Ref: AFM 3A-06-70
87. Q. What are the limitations associated with flying in a degraded flight
control mode?
A. Do not exceed 285 KCAS or 0.90M, don't fly into known icing
conditions, maximum crosswind for landing is 10 knots.
Ref: AFM Limitations 01-03-40, Airspeed Limitations, AFM Limitations
01-27-20, Degraded Flight Control Law Mode, AFM Limitations 01-02-10,
Runway, Slope and Wind Conditions
88. Q. What’s the purpose of the A/P DISC switch?

A. It disengages the autopilot, stops runaway trim in all three axes,
silences the AP DISC warning, trim speed sync.
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Avionics Section 2 page 193 or 71 of 90, page 11
or 11 of 70
89. Q. Any other ways to disconnect the AP?

A. Override the flight controls, select the AP OFF on the guidance panel,
use any of the pitch trim switches.
Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH page
90. Q. What happens if all four (4) FCC channels are invalid?
A. The flight control system reverts to the Direct Mode
Ref:
91. Q. What’s the function of the FLT CTRL RESET switch?

A. Used to reset flight control computers and control surface actuators
when directed by a checklist. Removes Lockouts for the FCCs.
Ref: iFlightDECK
92. Q. When is stall protection not available?

A. ADS Failure (AOA, Airspeed, etc.), or FCC mode other than Normal, or
Flaps position information unavailable, or WAI status miscompare
between FCCs.
Ref: AFM, 3B-19-160, Stall Protect Unavail (U)
93. Q. What causes the spoilers to stow during landing?

A. After landing, ground spoilers retract 10 seconds after wheel and air
speeds are both below 42 knots, or immediately after either throttle is
not at idle, or immediately if either MLG WOW is in air.
Ref:
94. Q. When does the Stab return to zero after landing.

A. 5 seconds after ground spoilers stow, the FCC commands a post-flight
BIT of control surface and stab actuators. The stab will return to zero as
soon as the post-flight BIT completes.
Ref:
95. Q. On a no flap landing why do we turn on the wing anti-ice?

A. Changes the Flight Control Logic for AOA. Increases the available
AOA thus providing a lower approach speed
Ref: AFM, 03-12-10, Zero Flaps or Partial Flaps Landings
96. Q. What lights aren’t tested during Annun Test?

A. APU FIRE light, fire handles, fuel control switches, red light in ELT
switch panel, and passenger oxygen light.
Ref:
97. Q. When do taxi lights automatically extinguish?
A. Gear retraction.
Ref:
98. Q. What's the quickest way of turning up the SFD lighting?

A. Press and hold the Menu button for 3 seconds.
Ref: iFlightDECK
99. Q. What's the quickest way of turning up TSC lighting?

A. Press and hold the tumbler for 7 seconds.
Ref: iFlightDECK
100. Q. How long does it take to purge the water tanks?

A. 10 minutes.
Ref: iFlightDECK
101. Q. How do I turn OFF the water compressor to service the water
system?
A. Open the water service panel door or Pressing the button on the water
level indicator in the baggage compartment next to the water tanks or
Turn off the water system on the Galley Touch Screen.
Ref:
Checkride Strategy
We all have our own strategies for these things. Given the requirements, my
weaknesses, and what I am expecting, here are mine.
 My sim partner and I agreed I would go first. While he is setting up the

cockpit I'll program the flight plan.
 I don't plan on being too elaborate for the initial takeoff briefing, only to
mention V2, VSE, the acceleration altitude, and emergency return plans.
 I've never had problems with steep turns and using HUD symbology in the
HUD or PFD makes them easier still. Just keep the dot on the horizon
line, roll smoothly into the turn, trim using the stick pitch trim (TSS
doesn't trim for more than 1 G), and add just a little thrust. I'll ask for a
roll out call at 15° but I tend to roll quicker than that, so I'll wait until
10° to reverse the direction of roll. I don't change the trim or thrust,
just hold what I've got. As we approach our original heading I'll removed
the added thrust and use the TSS to retrim for 1 G level flight.
 Stalls are fairly benign since we exit at the first sign. I will be using the
HUD since one of the signs can appear in the HUD. Full power is not
always needed and in some cases can make things worse. Reduce angle of
attack, add power, and get the airplane out of any low speed cues.
 The nose tracks more quickly during the V1 on this airplane than any I've
flown before, and once the nose starts moving it is hard to arrest. I keep
my eyes outside during the takeoff roll and move the rudders to keep the
nose straight. Once the nose is in the air I shift to the PFD to double
check I have the correct rudder and then know I will end up needing all of
it. The next task is to keep the speed between V2 and V2+10. Some of the
instructors will tell you this is easy on the HUD, where you will have the
so-called "staple" with both speeds next to the FPV. I find this too hard
to do, since you have fewer roll and heading cues. So I crosscheck the
speed and ask for FLCH which is supposed to stay in the correct speed
range. Once 1,500' above the runway I ask for VSE and accelerate. Once
at VREF+20 ask for the flaps up and accelerate to 200 knots. I will, at that
point, trim the rudder.
 For each single engine approach, the idea is to minimize your workload
without violating the restrictions against being coupled below 200 feet
(non LPV or ILS), going around with the autopilot, or having the
autothrottles connected for a single engine approach. So I have the AP
and AT engaged just prior to joining the instrument final, ask for Flaps
10° and then disengaging the AT and centering the rudder trim. Since one
of the single engine approaches has to be handflown, I'll disengage the
AP prior to the glideslope intercept on the first, which is usually to a
missed approach. For the others, I'll leave the AP engaged until 200 feet.
 At glideslope intercept I like to call for the landing and taxi lights to be
killed, announce my intentions to fly to the DA posted on the PFD, and if
I have EVS lights to go further to the SA posted on the PFD. This is a
good time to say "set missed approach altitude and kill the landing and
taxi lights." If and when I see the EVS lights, I'll add to the callout "EVS
lights, continuing to 100 feet." If I hear "secondary" and the PM hasn't
said go around, I say "landing, lights on please." Otherwise it is "Go
around, flaps 20" while pressing TOGA, pushing the thrust levers forward
in time with the rudder, and rotating into the flight director. At positive
rate, "gear up, set me up for the missed." Clean up is as before, except
we skip VSE and go right to 200 KCAS.
Photo: Using "Kermit" and the 2 mile ring in Memphis
 For the circle to land at KMEM, I expect either the RNAV 27 or ILS 27
(with or without glideslope), circle to 18R. In either case brief you will be
getting down to the Cat C minimums of 940' and once the field is in sight,
turn right 45° and time for 45 seconds. If you have to go missed before
turning to the landing runway, simply jog back to the left and flight
straight out. Otherwise, turn 270° to align. Adjust your MAP display for a
2 nm ring and that will make the ILS or RNAV "feather" 2 nm and give
you a target. The ILS has a step down fix at IPEPE which holds you up to
980'. You can ask approach to call it for you or you can use your FMS to
circle it on the MAP display. Once the airport is in sight, call it, and turn
to offset. You should be able to make out the left and right runways
before timing is expired but turn to parallel by heading for the end of
the feather on 18R. Since your ASEL is set on the missed approach
altitude, you can begin your descent with the FPA button. Roll out on
centerline and place the 3° HUD FPA on the end of the runway. This will
probably be your "performance landing" so set Autobrakes to HIGH, once
down take over and get down to taxi speed as soon as possible.

Gulfstream G500 Aircraft Limitations and Flashcards

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Gulfstream G500 Aircraft Limitations and Flashcards

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Limitations

 02 Runway, Slope and Wind Conditions

Runway, Slope and Wind Conditions

Maximum Slopes Approved for Takeoff and Landing Operations

1. Maximum tailwind component approved for takeoff and landing: 10 knots

Takeoff Croswwind Limits:

1. Static Takeoff - 30 knots.

For crosswinds above 30 knots, refer to 02-08-130, High Crosswind

High Elevation Airport Operations

[G500 AFM, §01-02-20]

Maximum approved airport pressure altitude for takeoff or landing: 15,000

Types of Airplane Operations Permitted

[G500 AFM, §01-03-10]

1. Transport category - Land.

1. The extended squitter transmission system does not take into

ADS-B operations require capability to communicate via VHF radio or

Photo: Data Link Communication Limitations, G500 AFM, §01-03-00, Table

Photo: Navigation Operational Capabilities, G500 AFM, §01-03-00, Table

Photo: Navigation Operational Capabilities, G500 AFM, §01-03-00, Table

Photo: Navigation Operational Capabilities, G500 AFM, §01-03-00, Table

Operating Temperature Envelope

[G500 AFM, §01-03-10]

1. Engine start below an ambient temperature of -20°C is prohibited.

Maximum Operating Altitudes

[G500 AFM, §01-03-30]

1. Maximum Operating Altitude — 51,000 feet

[G500 AFM, §01-03-30]

1. Minimum Control Speed Air (VMCA)

NOTE: Rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in

4. Flaps Extended Speed (VFE)

9. Maximum Airspeed with Yaw Damper Failure

Flight Load Acceleration

[G500 AFM, §01-03-50]

1. Flaps Up: -1 – 2.5 G

[G500 AFM, §01-03-56]

 Maximum Zero Fuel Weight: 52,100 lb

Maximum Fuel Imbalance

1. The Maximum Fuel Imbalance Limits

[G500 AFMS 2019-05, §01-28-40] Fuel Balancing is prohibited in flight unless

Recently, Gulfstream discovered a condition where a failure in the Fuel

 Ground refueling may be inaccurate by up to 3,200 lbs.

Takeoff / Landing Distance

[G500 AFM, §01-03-90]

The 1.15 minimum landing distance operational safety factor is

Cabin Pressure Control

[G500 AFM, §01-21-10]

1. Landing Field Elevation (LFE)

This allows the cabin doors to open for a ground evacuation.

3. ECS Duct Temperatures

[G500 AFM, §01-22-10]

[G500 AFM, §01-22-20]

1. Single Engine autopilot coupled go-around is prohibited.

4. Minimum Autopilot Disengage Height AGL for All Other Operations

VHF and HF Communications

[G500 AFM, §01-23-20] Avoid HF transmission when utilizing ADF for

Ram Air Turbine

[G500 AFM, §01-24-10]

[G500 AFM, §01-27-10]

1. Continued flight at or below stick shaker activation speed is prohibited.

[G500 AFM, §01-27-20]

1. Flight into known icing conditions is prohibited when operating in a flight

2. Intentional degradation from normal mode or disabling of any flight

[G500 AFM, §01-28-10] Usable Fuel Capacities