IV Therapy Assessment One IV Therapy Assessment One IV Therapy Assessment One

IV
IV Therapy
Therapy Assessment
Assessment One
One
Name: _____________________________
Instructions
Complete this assessment and submit your work when you are finished. The purpose of this
assessment is to provide the learner with a self-evaluation of what he/she has learned and what
he or she needs to study to be able to succeed in this course. There are 45 multiple choice
questions to answer. You ought to be able to successfully complete 34 out the 45 to achieve a
satisfactory completion.
1. Whose responsibility is it to educate the patient about the procedure?

a. The physician
b. The RN, LPN or CCMA
c. The physical therapist
d. The patient support coordinator
2. What type of consent is ideal for IV therapy?

a. Informed
b. Implied
c. Expressed
d. Verbal
3. If the patient is in the hospital, do they have the right to refuse an IV?
a. Yes, a patient may refuse any procedure at any time
b. Yes, but only if the physician agrees
c. No, a patient gives up all rights once they enter the hospital
d. No, a patient’s blanket consent form gives the staff consent
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IV Therapy Assessment One

4. To prevent infection, the first thing that should be done is:
a. Wash hands
b. Check patient’s ID
c. Great the patient
d. Use an Alcohol swap
5. A greater chance of infection can be caused by:

a. 22 gauge
b. 24 gauge
c. 16 gauge
d. 18 gauge
6. Best part of the body where you can start a peripheral lines
a. Arm
b. leg
c. Foot
d. Groin
7. Historically, the majority of IV advancements took place during

a. The Cholera Epidemic in the sixteenth century
b. World War I
c. World War II
d. Both WWI and WWII
8. When preparing the site, how should excess hair be removed?

a. Shave hair
b. Clip hair
c. Wax hair
d. Leave hair

9. How often should the IV site be rotated?
a. Every 12 hours
b. Every 48 hours
c. Every 72 hours
d. Every five days
10. Into what anatomical structure should an IV catheter be inserted?

a. Artery
b. Vein
c. Tendon
d. Nerve
11. Where are the pain receptors of the skin located?

a. Dermis
b. Epidermis
c. Hypodermis
d. Muscle
12. When starting an IV we should start_____________________ and

work____________________
a. Distal; Proximal
b. Proximal; Distal
c. Medial; Lateral
d. Lateral; medial

13. What can make the veins more difficult to locate?
a. Excess adipose tissue
b. Well hydrated patients
c. Young patients
d. Physically fit patients
14. What areas of the arm should we attempt to avoid if possible?

a. Points of flexion
b. Anti-cubital Area
c. Cephalic vein
d. Forearm
15. Can IVs be placed in any area other than the arm?
a. Yes, they may be placed in veins all over the body
b. Yes, but only in the legs
c. No, only the arm
d. No, the physician must place all others
16. Would an IV in the dorsalis pedis be a good choice for a patient with type II diabetes?
a. No, due to the higher risk of infection
b. No, due to the higher potential for pain
c. Yes, due to the complications of the arms
d. Yes, to increase patient mobility
17. Plasma comprises _____% of the blood

a. 45%
b. 55%
c. 65%
d. 75%

18. Hemoglobin transports__________________________
a. Oxygen
b. Water
c. Nutrients
d. Minerals
19. The function of the T Cell is to__________________________________________

a. Respond to invaders
b. Produce antibodies
c. Produce Natural Killer cells
d. Produce enzymes
20. Osmosis is defined:

a. The tendency of fluid, normally water, to pass through the membrane
b. The solubility of liquid
c. The filtration of solutions
d. The movement of Solute
21. When selecting a site for IV, which of the following is safe to use?
a. Edema
b. Swelling
c. Scaring
d. Birthmark

22. What major disadvantage is there when attempting an IV in the cephalic vein?
a. Veins roll
b. Hard to position needle
c. Hard to secure IV site
d. Uncomfortable for patient
23. What is the major advantage of selecting the basilic vein to place an IV?
a. Doesn’t limit the patient’s mobility
b. Large Vein and easy to access
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
24. Known disadvantages of using the antecubital site are:

a. Prevent lab from obtaining draw
b. Large and easy to access
c. Limit Patient mobility
d. A and C
25. What must be combined with glass administration sets?

a. Vents
b. DEHP
c. Careful monitoring
d. 24 hour site changes

26. How often should administration sets be changed?
a. Every 72 hours
b. Every 12 hours
c. Every time site is inspected
d. Only if blood is found in tubing
27. What is the standard drip factor of a microdrip set?

a. 60 ggt/min
b. 15 ggt/min
c. 10 ggt/min
d. 20 ggt/min
28. What do fat emulsions administration sets NOT contain?

a. DEHP
b. Saline
c. HCG
d. NaCl
29. What is the most common catheter gauge used?

a. 18 gauge
b. 20 gauge
c. 22 gauge
d. 16 gauge

30. How should we tape down a winged infusion set?
a. Using an H configuration
b. Using a chevron configuration
c. Using a C configuration
d. Using Gauze
31. How long can a “butterfly” catheter stay in place?

a. Minutes to hours
b. Hours to days
c. Days to Weeks
d. Weeks to months
32. How long can a midline catheter stay in place?

a. Minutes to hours
b. Hours to days
c. Days to Weeks
d. Weeks to months
33. At what angle do we insert the needle?

a. 30°- 45°
b. 15°- 30°
c. 45°- 90°
d. 60°- 90°

34. How often should the nurse change the dressings?
a. Every 48 hours
b. Every 72 hours
c. Depends on type of dressing
d. Every site is inspected
35. How often should a heprin/saline lock be flushed?

a. 8-12 hours
b. 12-24 hours
c. 24-36 hours
d. 48-72 hours
36. How many lbs. does one liter of fluid equal?

a. 2.2 lbs.
b. 3.9 lbs.
c. 1.5 lbs.
d. 9.6 lbs.
37. In which space should fluid normally be?

a. First space
b. Second space
c. Third space
d. Vein space

38. What is a cause of hypovolemia?
a. Rapid fluid loss
b. Excessive calcium
c. Excessive potassium
d. Rapid weight gain
39. What is a sign of hypervolemia?

a. “wet” lung sounds
b. Vomiting
c. Change in LOC
d. Fever
40. Cations are ________________.

a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Neutral
41. Major function that Sodium serves in the body

a. Regulate water in the body
b. Control blood pressure
c. Control muscle function
d. Control acid base balance

42. Trousseau’s signs point to what?
a. Electrolyte imbalance
b. Muscle convulsions
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Hypervolemia
43. Chvostek’s sign suggest what?

a. Infection
b. Hypovolemia
c. Phlebitis
d. Electrolyte Imbalance
44. The type of solution most commonly used in IV therapy is _______________.

a. Hypertonic
b. Isotonic
c. Hypotonic
d. Sterile water
45. Which type of solutions is most likely to cause fluid to rush into the cell?
a. Isotonic
b. Hypotonic
c. Hypertonic
d. Saline
46. A hypotonic solution causes fluid to rush ___________the cell.

a. Into
b. Out of
c. Remain equal

47. Which catheter size is most appropriate for a patient requiring a large volume of fluid in a
short amount of time?
a. 22 gauge
b. 20 gauge
c. 16 gauge
d. 18 gauge
48. Which is not a function of blood?

a. Supply oxygen and remove waste
b. Coagulation
c. Regulate body temperature
d. Promote active respiration
49. What is the thickest structure of veins and arteries?

a. Tunica intima
b. Tunica externa
c. Tunica media
d. Endothelium
50. Granulocytes are comprised of all of the following except?

a. Neutrophils
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Monocytes

IV Therapy Assessment One IV Therapy Assessment One IV Therapy Assessment One

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IV

1. Whose responsibility is it to educate the patient about the procedure?

2. What type of consent is ideal for IV therapy?

IV Therapy Assessment One

5. A greater chance of infection can be caused by:

7. Historically, the majority of IV advancements took place during

8. When preparing the site, how should excess hair be removed?

IV Therapy Assessment One

10. Into what anatomical structure should an IV catheter be inserted?

11. Where are the pain receptors of the skin located?

12. When starting an IV we should start_____________________ and

IV Therapy Assessment One

14. What areas of the arm should we attempt to avoid if possible?

17. Plasma comprises _____% of the blood

IV Therapy Assessment One

19. The function of the T Cell is to__________________________________________

20. Osmosis is defined:

IV Therapy Assessment One

24. Known disadvantages of using the antecubital site are:

25. What must be combined with glass administration sets?

IV Therapy Assessment One

27. What is the standard drip factor of a microdrip set?

28. What do fat emulsions administration sets NOT contain?

29. What is the most common catheter gauge used?

IV Therapy Assessment One

31. How long can a “butterfly” catheter stay in place?

32. How long can a midline catheter stay in place?

33. At what angle do we insert the needle?

IV Therapy Assessment One

35. How often should a heprin/saline lock be flushed?

36. How many lbs. does one liter of fluid equal?

37. In which space should fluid normally be?

IV Therapy Assessment One

39. What is a sign of hypervolemia?

40. Cations are ________________.

41. Major function that Sodium serves in the body

IV Therapy Assessment One

43. Chvostek’s sign suggest what?

44. The type of solution most commonly used in IV therapy is _______________.

46. A hypotonic solution causes fluid to rush ___________the cell.

IV Therapy Assessment One

48. Which is not a function of blood?

49. What is the thickest structure of veins and arteries?

50. Granulocytes are comprised of all of the following except?

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