LICENSURE 2019 TELEGRAM GROUP

Test 12.... Obstetrics

31. Which of the following is not a part of conceptus?

a. deciduas
b. amniotic fluid
c. fetus
d. membranes

32. Protection of the fetus against syphilis during the 1st trimester is
attributed to:

a. amniotic fluid
b. langhan’s layer
c. syncitiothrophoblast
d. placenta

Situation: Diane is pregnant with her first baby. She went to the clinic for
check up.

33. To determine the clients EDC, which day of the menstrual period will you
ask?

a. first
b. last
c. third
d. second

34. According to Diane, her LMP is November 15, 2002, using the Naegle’s
rule what is her EDC?

a. August 22, 2003

b. August 18, 2003
c. July 22, 2003
d. February 22, 2003

35. She complained of leg cramps, which usually occurs at night. To provide
relief, the nurse tells Diane to:

a. Dorsiflex the foot while extending the knee when the cramps occur
b. Dorsiflex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occurs
c. Plantar flex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occur
d. Plantar flex the foot while extending the knee when the cramp occur

Situation: Marita is a nurse working in a STD clinic (question 36-45)

36. The main symptom of gonorrhea in male is:

a. Maculopapular rash
b. Jaundice
c. Urinary retention
d. Urethral discharge

37. In providing education to your clients, you should take into account the
fact that the most effective method known to control the spread of HIV
infection is:

a. Premarital serological screening

b. Prophylactic treatment of exposed person
c. On going sex education about preventive behaviors
d. Laboratory screening of pregnant woman

38. You counseled one of your clients who developed herpes genitalis
concerning follow up care. Women who have developed the disease are at
risk of developing:

a. Heart and CNS damage

b. Cervical cancer
c. Infant Pneumonia and eye infection
d. Sterility

39. Cremasteric, 19 y/o states that he has Gonorrhea. In performing

assessment, the nurse should expect to identify which of the following
symptoms?

a. Lesion on the palms and soles

b. A pinpoint rash on the penis
c. Urinary dribbling
d. Dysuria

40. The nurse should explain to Rhone, 15 y/o that untreated Gonorrhea in
the female frequently leads to:

a. Obstruction of the Fallopian tubes

b. Ovarian cysts
c. Ulceration of the cervix
d. Endometrial polyps

41. Diane, a 16 y/o female high school student has syphilis. Treatment is
initiated. Before the client leaves the clinic, which of the following actions is
essential for the nurse to take?
a. Advice the client to avoid sexual contact for 2 months
b. Ask the client to identify her sexual contacts
c. Arrange for the client to have hearing and vision screening
d. Have the client to return to the clinic weekly for blood test

42. Kris complains of fishy smelling, white cheeslike vaginal discharge with
pruritus. You suspect that Kris may have:

a. Moniliasis
b. Trichomoniasis
c. Syphilis
d. Gonorrhea

43. Demi who has history of repeated Trichomonas infections was advised to
have Pap-smear by her physician. She asked you what the test is for. Your
appropriate response is:

a. It’s a screening for cervical cancer

b. It’s a screening test for presence of cancer in the female reproductive
tract
c. It is a diagnostic test for the presence of Trichomonas infection
d. It is a test that will show if she has cervical cancer or not.

44. The result of the pap-test is class II. This means that:

a. Presence of malignant cells

b. Presence of benign or possible malignancy
c. Normal finding
d. Possible inflammation or infections

45. You should be aware that a major difficulty in preventing spread of

gonorrhea is that many women who have the disease:

a. Is un aware that they have it

b. Have milder form of the disease than most men
c. Are more reluctant to seek health care than men
d. Acquire the disease without having sexual contact

Situation: Mrs. Rhona Mahilum was admitted to the hospital with signs and
symptoms of pre-eclampsia

46. Because of the possibility of convulsive seizures, which of the following

should the nurse have available at the client’s bed side?
a. Oxygen and nasopharyngeal suction
b. leather restraints
c. cardiac monitor
d. venous cutdown set

47. One morning, Rhona tells the nurse that she think she is having
contractions. Which of the following approaches should the nurse use to fully
assess the presence of uterine co tractions?

a. Place the hand on opposite side of the upper part of the abdomen, and
curve them somewhat around the uterine fundus.
b. Place the heel of the hand on the abdomen just above the umbilicus firmly
c. Place the hand flat on the abdomen over the uterine fundus, with the
fingers apart and press lightly
d. Place the hand in the middle of the upper abdomen and then move hand
several times to different parts of the abdomen

48. Exposure of a woman pregnant of a female offspring to which of the

following substance increases the risk of the offspring during reproductive
years to cervical and uterine cancer

steroids
thalidomides
diethylstilbestrol
tetracyclines

49. In which of the following conditions is vaginal rugae most prominent?

a. multiparous women
b. before menopause
c. after menopause
d. nulliparous woman

50. The deepest part o the perineal body surrounding the urethra, vagina
and rectum that when damaged can result to cystocele, rectocele and
urinary stress incontinence is the?

a. Pubococcygeus muscle
b. Spinchter of urethra and anus
c. Bulbocavernous muscle
d. Ischiocavernous muscle
Situation: Review of concepts of parturition was made by the clinical
instructor to a group of nursing students preliminary to their assignment to
Labor and delivery room
51. Which plays an important role in the initiation of labor?

a. maternal adrenal cortex

b. fetal adrenal cortex
c. fetal adrenal medulla
d. maternal adrenal medulla

52. Which is not considered an uteroronin?

a. Prostaglandin
b. Endothelin-1
c. Oxytocin
d. Relaxin

53. Which is a primary power of labor?

a. uterine contractions
b. pushing of the mother
c. intrathoracic pressure
d. abdominal contraction

54. The lower uterine segment is formed from the:

a. cervix
b. isthmus and cervix
c. body of the uterus
d. isthmus

55. Ripening of the cervix occurs during the:

a. first stage
b. second stage
c. third stage
d. fourth stage

56. In the second stage of labor, uterine contraction last:

a. 20 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 60 seconds
d. 120 seconds

57. The time between uterine contractions is:

a. intensity
b. interval
c. duration
d. frequency

58. Midpelvic capacity may be precisely determined by:

a. imaging studies
b. clinical measurement of the sidewall convergence
c. clinical measurement of the ischial spine prominence
d. sub pubic angel measurement

59. The inanimate bone of the pelvis is not composed of the:

b. ilium
c. Pubis
a. sacrum

d. Ischium

60. Which does not refer to the transverse diameter of the pelvic outlet?

a. Bi-ischial diameter
b. Bi-spinous diameter
c. Bi-tuberous diameter
d. Intertuberous diameter

SAMMY wishes You Best Of Luck In Your

Impending Licensure Exams. God has done it
Already!!!
Sammy~(0247693186)