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1.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the
English alphabet and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) AZ (2) EV (3) BY (4) GT (5) DU

2. If ‘$’ means ‘×’, ‘#’ means ‘÷’, ‘*’ means ‘–’ and ‘@’ means ‘+’ then what is the value of 204
# 6 * 15 $ 8 @ 88?
(1) 8 (2) 2 (3) –6 (4) 12 (5) None of these

3. If the position of the first and the sixth letters of the word ‘PRESCRIBED’ are interchanged,
similarly position
of the second and the seventh letters are interchanged and so on. Which letter will be fourth from
the left end after the
rearrangement?
(1) E (2) S (3) B (4) D (5) None of these

4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word INTERNAL, each of which has as many
letters between
them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two
(4) Three (5) None of these

5. In a certain code DIVERT is written as SCQHDU, how is CONFER written in that code?
(1) QBDNEO (2) QDBNEM (3) QBDNEM
(4) QDBNEO (5) None of these

Qs. 6-10. In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action
numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for
improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of
the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true,
then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Give answer (1) if only I follows.
Give answer (2) if only II follows.
Give answer (3) if either I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
Statement:

6. A country cannot develop without fast and easy communication.


Courses of action:
I. Govt. should provide communication facilities to the public at a cheaper rate.
II. More private companies should be permitted to enter into field of communication to
strengthen the network.

7. “Due to availability of air tickets at cheaper rates from various airlines large no. of people now
a days prefer to travel by air than travelling by train.”
Courses of action:
I. Railway ministry has to put in its best efforts to improve the quality of rail journey in respect
of facilities and also the punctuality.
II. Airlines should not be allowed to introduce various schemes offering concessional fare.

Statement:

8. Continuous use of computers is affecting the eyesights of many youth.


Courses of action:
I. All the establishments should permit the people using computer to take a short break after
every hour of work on the computer.
II. Use of computers should be discouraged by the managements of the establishments.

Statement:

9. Proportion of females compared to that of males in the population of our country has
drastically gone down in the recent past.
Courses of action:
I. Social workers shoule take up the task of emphasizing the importance of having atleast one
female child in each family in both rural and urban areas of the counry.
II. Government should severely punish the persons involved in the practice of female foeticide.

Statement:

10. Reading habits in the children of coming generations is diminishing day by day.
Courses of action:
I. Access to various electronic gadgets such as television, computer and particularly the internet
should be controlled.
II. Parents should ensure and cultivate reading habits among their children.

Qs. 11-15. Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

Seven T.V. channels A, B, C, D, E, F and G telecast different programmes P, Q, R, S, T, U and


V on different

days of the week from Monday to Sunday, not necessarily in the same order.Channel A telecast
Programme T on Sunday. Channel D does not telecast Programme P or U but telecasts on theday
just prior to Channel F. Channel C telecasts Programme Q but not on Monday. Channel B
telecasts Programme R on Tuesday. Channel G telecasts Programme V but not on Monday.
Channel C telecasts on the next day of Channel G and previous day of Channel D. Programme
‘P’ is telecast before Programme ‘U’. 11. Which programme is telecast on Thursday?

(1) P (2) S (3) R (4) U (5) None of these

12. Which of the following combination of daychannel- programme is correct?


(1) Thursday—C—R

(2) Tuesday—C—Q

(3) Saturday—E—U

(4) Monday—E—P

(5) None of these

13. Which channel telecasts on Wednesday?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) G

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

14. Channel ‘C’ telecasts on which day of the week?

(1) Thursday

(2) Tuesday

(3) Friday

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

15. Which channel telecasts programme ‘S’?

(1) E

(2) D

(3) F

(4) D or E

(5) None of these


Qs. 16-20. In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish
between “strong” arguments and “weak” arguments. “Strong” arguments must be both important
and directly related to the question. “Weak” arguments may not be directly related to the
question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question.
Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which
of the arguments

is a “strong” argument and which is a “weak” argument.

Give answer (1) if only argument I is strong.

Give answer (2) if only argument II is strong.

Give answer (3) if either argument I or II is strong.

Give answer (4) if neither argument I nor II is strong.

Give answer (5) if both arguments I and II are strong.

16. Should there be a quota for underprivileged categories and the minority communities for
admissions into the premier educational institutions in India?

Arguments:

I. No, admissions to the premier institutes should be only on merit and there should be no system
for any special consideration.

II. No, this will put the deserving non-reserved category students to disadvantage.

17. Can the total ban on dance bars across a State be justified?

Arguments:

I. Yes, running of dance bars gives scope for various illegal and criminal activities.

II. No, the livelihood of the families of bar-girls is totally dependent on the dance bars.

18. Should the top officials and politicians detained by the law enforcement agencies be given
special treatment

in jails while under-trial?

Arguments:

I. No, there is no such need for any special treatment,they should be treated like all other
detainees.
II. Yes, it is necessary to take care of their special security requirements.

19. Should stricter discipline be imposed upon all the children by parents and teachers in view of
the increasing

criminal cases among the youth?

Arguments:

I. Yes, too much freedom to the children is leading to

such cases of crime.

II. No, freedom to the children is necessary in the

changing social scenario.

20. Should the gender-reassignment surgeries be legally permitted?

Arguments:

I. Yes, it is the genuine need of the transsexuals.

II. No, people will take disadvantage of the facility since it is difficult to judge the genuineness
of the requirement

Q. 21-25. Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn
from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the
context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

Mark answer:

(1) if the inference is “definitely true” i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.

(2) if the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely true” in the light of the facts given.

(3) if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is
likely to be

true or false.

(4) if the inference is “probably false” though not “definitely false” in the light of the facts given.

(5) if the inference is “definitely false” i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it
contradicts the given facts.
There has been a complete turnaround in global coal markets over the last couple of years. While
a booming economy led China to turn from being a net coal exporterinto a net importer, Japanese
nuclear closures contributed to additional demand for steam coal imports. A weakening USA
dollar led exporters to further nudge prices northwards. As a result, global coal prices jumped
from about $25 per tonne in 2003 to over $60 per tonne by July 2004. Above all Chinese demand
for commodities sent bulk cargo freight rates to dizzying heights of $25-30 per tonne. While
there has been some moderation in coal prices, since July 2004, prices effectively remained
above $50 per tonne during the first half of 2005. In the ensuing scenario, the rationale for large
scale imports of coal needs to be revisited. In fact, citing high prices, utilities are shying away
from importing coal as per the schedule plan for 2005-06. This has led to additional pressure on
indigenous coal companies, already stressed with enhanced production targets.

21. Japan’s nuclear closure did not have an effect on the rise in coal prices worldwide.

22. In the changing scenario Indian utility companies are considering other options to coal for
their energy requirements.

23. Import of coal was a preferred option by the utility companies prior to 2004.

24. China has become the largest coal importer in the world.

25. Coal prices have increased by about 100% in the recent past.

Qs. 26-30. In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right
should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
31. The average of five consecutive odd numbers is 21. Which is the lowest number of the five?

(1) 15

(2) 19

(3) 13

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

32. Vipul told Neha that a number when multiplied by 5 and 7 gives two numbers with a
difference of 300. What

is the number?

(1) 125

(2) 100
(3) 150

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

33. Rs 123 is accrued as compound interest on an amount at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. after two years.
How much

will be the compound interest at the end of three years?

(1) Rs 129.15

(2) Rs 189.15

(3) Rs 117.15

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

34. Vidya bought a cup for Rs 80 after getting 266 % rebate on the printed price. What was the
printed price?

(1) Rs 120

(2) Rs 140

(3) Rs 180

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

35. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series? 5 21 96 500 3030 ?

(1) 15175

(2) 18210

(3) 21252

(4) 18216

(5) None of these


36. Two-fifth of three-fourth of a number is 174. What is the number?

(1) 232

(2) 326

(3) 435

(4) 480

(5) None of these

37. A train crosses a platform in 40 seconds. What is the speed of the train in km/hr? In order to
answer the

question, which of the following information is required?

(A) Length of the train.

(B) Length of the platform.

(C) The time, the train takes to cross a pole.

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only

(3) A and C only

(4) Any two of A, B, C

(5) All the three A, B, C

Qs. 38-39. Study the following information to answer

the given questions.

Out of 6 men and 3 women, a committee of 4 is to be

formed. In how many different ways it can be done if the

committee must have:

38. At least 2 men

(1) 252 (2) 120 (3) 180 (4) 126 (5) None of these
39. 3 men and 1 woman

(1) 126 (2) 63 (3) 30 (4) 60 (5) None of these

40. When the numerator of a fraction is increased by 1, and the denominator is also increased by
1, the fraction

becomes 23 . What was the original fraction?

(1) 12

(2) 58

(3) 1117

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Qs. 41-45. Study the following graph to answer the

given questions:

shown steady increase in per

cent increase in exports from that of previous year over the

given years?

(1) B (2) C (3) A


(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

42. For Company C, the exports in 2001 were at 950.

How much was the export in 2000?

(1) 980 (2) 997.5 (3) 1010 (4) 1002.5 (5) 990.2

43. For Company C, the exports in 1999 were at 1078.

How much was the export in 1998?

(1) 1078 (2) 1185.8 (3) 990 (4) 1000 (5) 980

44. For Company A, how much is the average of per

cent increase in exports for the given years?

(1) 60 (2) 45 (3) 40 (4) 36

3 (5) None of these

45. Which Company had the highest amount of export

in the year 2001?

(1) A (2) B (3) C

(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Qs. 46-50. Study the following table to answer the given

questions:
Number of Participants in different Programmes

46. For Programme B, which year was the per cent

increase in the number from the preceding year the

maximum?

(1) 2005 (2) 1999 (3) 2002

(4) 2004 (5) None of these

47. What is the difference in the total number of

participants in different programmes in the years 2003 and

2004?

(1) 2.4 (2) 3.75 (3) 345 (4) 240 (5) None of these

48. For Programme A, how much is the per cent

increase in the number from 2000 to 2001?

(1) 20 (2) 10 (3) 100 (4) 0.20 (5) None of these

49. For the given years, the total number of participants

for Programme D is what per cent of that of Programme E?

(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 7.25 (4) 6.78 (5) None of these


50. For which programme was there an increase in

number from the previous year for all the given years?

(1) A and C only (2) A, C and D only

(3) B, C and D only (4) B, C and F only

(5) C, D and F only

Answers

1. (5) Other pairs occupy the same place in alphabets from A and Z.

2. (2) 204 ÷ 6 – 15 × 8 + 88 = 34 – 120 + 88 = 2. (Apply BODMAS)

RightRIBEDPRESS →3. (1) Left ←

4. (4) IN, TR and NL.

5. (3) D I V E R T would be TDRIEV hence CONFER would be RCEOFN. The preceding letter
in alphabets is the code.

6. (5) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (5) 10. (2)

11. (5) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (5) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (2)

21. (5) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (2) 29. (5) 30. (1)

31. (5) 17, 19, 21, 23, 25.

32. (3) 300 ÷ (7 – 5).

33. (2)

34. (5) Rs 240.

35. (3) 5 × 3 + 3 × 2 = 21; 21 × 4 + 3 × 4 = 96;

96 × 5 + 4 × 5 = 500; 500 × 6 + 5 × 6 = 3030; 3030 × 7 + 6 × 7 = 21252.

36. (5) Number is 580.3rd 4 is 435 and its 2nd 5 = 174.


37. (1)
38. (2)
39. (4)
40 (1)
41. (1) 42. (2) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (1) 50. (5)

Qs. 1-15. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate hem while answering some of the
questions. For a business still in a burgeoning state of development the performance of the gem
and jewelry sector in exports s gratifying. On top of an over 50 per cent growth during 2004-05,
these exports are poised to grow at a similar rate during the current year, if the trend in the irst
half of the year is an indication. Data released by the Gems and Jewelry Export Promotion
Council show that Gems exports at Rs 2,363 crores during April- eptember 2005 were 51 per
cent higher than during the corresponding period of 2004. Since there is a greater acceleration in
the tempo of exports in the econd half of the year, it appears that the target of Gems and Jewelry
exports, pegged at Rs 5,000 crore is well within reach. Even more heartening is the fact that the
xport flow has been broad based, though the pace has been set by better showing in both Jewelry
and Gem exports.

This successful incursion is the outcome of a conscious strategy to build export infrastructure
which includes the setting up of Gems and Jewelry export zones, echnology missions and a
liberal policy under which virtually the entire industry is thrown open to foreign direct
investment. Some incentives like access to omestic market for these export-oriented units, based
on the net value addition, also have helped the export drive. Besides, the industry had made
efforts to apture new markets, laid stress on quality of the product and became alive to customer
needs.

However, in the case of jewelry exports, the actual performance is behind the potential. With its
endowment in terms of jewelry designers, low costs and high roductivity, India can emerge as a
major force in global jewelry exports by emphasizing on customizing jewelry rather than relying
on standard products. At the ame time, gems exports should not suffer by default. The recent
data given lie to the claim that we have a leeway in jewelry designing. Over a period, this uccess
on global marketing of our gems should facilitate system integration, and to exports of value-
added gems with jewelry. As of now, what is significant is that we ave carved a small niche in
the global market in an industry that is the cutting edge of designing.

1. Which of the following are responsible for substantial growth n exports in Gems and jewelry
sector?

(A) Conscious strategy to build export infrastructure


(B) Liberal policy
(C) Government subsidy
(1) All (A), (B) and (C) (2) Only (B) and (C) (3) Only (A) and (C) (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) None
of these

2. Setting up of gems and jewelry exports zones has resulted into which of the following?
(1) Production of gems has increased
(2) Increase in gems exports
(3) Increase in jewelry exports
(4) Abundance of gems and jewelry in the domestic market
(5) None of these

3. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘heartening’ as used in the
passage?
(1) Saddening (2) Encouraging (3) Illuminating
(4) Satisfying (5) Worsening

4. Which of the following have helped in the growth of exports in gem and jewelry sector?
(A) Value addition
(B) Quality control
(C) Customer friendly
(D) Access to domestic market

(1) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) (2) Only (A), (B) and (C)
(3) Only (B), (C) and (D) (4) Only (A), (C) and (D) (5) None of these

5. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?


(1) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 100 per cent during 2005-
2006 to that of 2004-05.
(2) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector in 2005-2006 is expected to be more than
that in 2004- 05.
(3) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 50 per cent in 2005-2006.
(4) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 25 per cent in 2005-2006.
(5) None of these

6. Which of the following factors have not helped in the export promotion?
(A) Building an infrastructure for export
(B) Encouraging foreign direct investment
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Either (A) or (B)
(4) Both (A) and (B) (5) None of these

7. How much export was realized in the first half of the year 2005-2006?
(1) Less than half the targeted amount.
(2) More than half the targeted amount.
(3) Almost half of the amount projected for the purpose.
(4) The exact amount is not mentioned.
(5) None of these

8. Which of the following words/group of words has the SAME meaning as the word
‘customizing’ as used in the passage?
(1) Need based (2) Supportive (3) Appropriate
(4) Quality (5) Traditional

9. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘alive’ as used in the
passage?
(1) Awake (2) Open (3) Conducive
(4) Active (5) Brisk

10. Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
(1) India’s performance in exports of jewelry is better than that of gems.
(2) India’s performance in export of gems is better than that of jewelry.
(3) India’s performance in value added exports has grown in the recent past.
(4) India has made considerable effort in exporting value added products in the international
market.
(5) Performance in global marketing has helped in developing an edge in designing.

11. What according to the passage, is the basis for the expectation of the exports in Gem and
jewelry sector reaching the targeted amount?
(1) Growth in exports in the earlier year.
(2) Domestic demand in the sector.
(3) India’s performance in jewelry designing.
(4) Trend observed during the first half of the year.
(5) None of these

Qs. 12-13. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold used in
the passage. 12. Emerge
(1) Drawn (2) Evolve (3) Shine
(4) Grow (5) Submerge

13. Conscious
(1) Desirable (2) Deliberate (3) Planned
(4) Unconscious (5) Wanted
Qs. 14-15. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as
used in the passage.

14. Virtually
(1) Artificially (2) Lately (3) Really
(4) Imaginary (5) Realistically

15. Burgeoning
(1) Emerging (2) Established (3) Dying
(4) Sneaking (5) Middle
Qs. 16-20. Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the eustions given below them.

(A) The Central government is weighing several options to involve the States in the process of
boosting the country’s exports.
(B) These governments hitherto felt that exports are the Centre’s responsibility, which was a
wrong approach.
(C) The States will now realize that they should themselves encourage export-oriented units.
(D) This move by the Centre is also necessitated to eradicate the misunderstanding that prevails
among most of
the States.

(E) It is a welcome move to instill into governments the feeling of belongingness.


(F) Exports help flourish a country’s economic situation.

16. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

17. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

18. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

19. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

Qs. 21-30. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error,
if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no
error, the answer is (5) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

21. The number of students(1) competing in the event(2) has been fallen(3) because of want of
incentive.(4) No error.(5)

22. I am grateful to you(1) and all your friends(2) by extending required help(3) in my hour of
need.(4) No error.(5)

23. Ramesh has been both(1) an intelligent(2) and hardworking chap(3) since his childhood.(4)
No error.(5)

24. A small piece(1) of bread is(2) certainly better than(3) being nothing to eat.(4) No error.(5)

25. It was clear from the way(1) they were moving(2) that everyone possessed(3) the required
experience.(4) No error.(5)

26. The fact that he(1) can not be able to sing(2) is known only(3) to very few people.(4) No
error.(5)

27. That boy has(1) three precious objects,(2) and he would not(3) part for any one of them.(4)
No error.(5)
28. When he used to walk(1) along the road(2) a wild and ferocious dog(3) knocked him down.
(4) No error.(5)

29. Though he was(1) not relating to me,(2) I helped him by(3) giving money and a profitable
advice.(4) No error.(5)

30. People who are(1) fortunate enough to own(2) a house in the city(3) are very few.(4) No
error.(5)

Qs. 31-40. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given
in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence rammatically correct. If the sentence is
correct as it is and no correction is required, mark(5) as the answer.

31. When do you intend to return back home?


(1) intend to return
(2) intention of returning to back
(3) intend to turn back for (4) intend for a return of
(5) No Correction Required

32. I would have been in your place, I would not have accepted his suggestion.
(1) If I had in (2) Had I been with
(3) I had been with (4) Had I been in
(5) No Correction Required

33. He firmly beliefs that a radical change in the structure of our various departments is
necessary.
(1) is believing that (2) firmly believes that
(3) firmly belief that (4) that firmly believes in
(5) No Correction Required

34. Mahatma Phule’s life was a saga of dedicating in the cause of social reforms in India.
(1) of dedicated the (2) of having dedicated in the
(3) of dedication to the (4) for dedication at the
(5) No Correction Required

35. No sooner did we reach the station than it started raining.


(1) then it started raining (2) then it starts to rain
(3) than it starts to rain (4) when it started raining
(5) No Correction Required

36. I met him yesterday but forgot to mention this point.


(1) had been forgotten to (2) was forgot to
(3) have forgotten to (4) forgot at
(5) No Correction Required
37. Every activity can be classified by two groups, namely mental and physical.
(1) will be classified by (2) can be classified into
(3) will be classified between (4) can classify into
(5) No Correction Required

38. The issues discussed had been so that critical they could hardly be resolved in such a limited
time.
(1) were so critically that (2) had so critical that
(3) were being so critical as that
(4) were so critical that (5) No Correction Required

39. The Conference is to be starting at 9.30 a.m. with the introductory speech by the Minister.
(1) is to start for (2) has been started by
(3) is to start at (4) will be started by
(5) No Correction Required

40. The unskilled class of workers is the most exploited of class under the present labour contract
system.
(1) most exploited class (2) mostly exploiting class
(3) most exploiting class (4) mostly the exploit class
(5) No Correction Required

Qs. 41-50. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five ords are suggested, one of which
fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The traditional method of managing credit risk is (41) diversification. Although (42) credit risk
through diversification is effective, institutions are often onstrained y (43) of diversification (44)
on account of limited area of (45). During the last few years, managing credit risk through selling
assets by way of securitisation has (46) in popularity. The market for securitised assets has
grown (47) in the last few years and is expected to grow further in the (48) years. This mode of
credit isk mitigation is most (49) to loans with standardized payment schedules and similar credit
risk characteristics such as housing loans, auto loans, credit card eceivables, etc.

Further, shedding loans through securitisation might (50) client relationship. In this context,
credit derivatives provide a new technique for managing credit risk.

41. (1) by (2) onto (3) for (4) at (5) through

42. (1) watching (2) mitigating (3) taking (4) affording (5) seeing

43. (1) lack (2) supply (3) scarcity (4) void (5) want

44. (1) luck (2) fortune (3) activities (4) opportunities (5) chance

45. (1) place (2) transaction (3) operations (4) dealing (5) work
46. (1) gained (2) sold (3) valued (4) bought (5) profited

47. (1) gigantic (2) slowly (3) slightly (4) needlessly (5) impressively

48. (1) yester (2) futuristic (3) golden (4) coming (5) past

49. (1) desired (2) suited (3) wanted (4) suitable (5) popular

50. (1) kill (2) lynch (3) damage (4) promote (5) burn

ANSWERS:-

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4 (1) 5. (2) 6. (5) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (1)
16. (3) 17. (5) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (1)

21. (3) ‘has fallen’ (4) ‘for want of incentive’


22. (3) ‘for extending’ 23. (1) “Romesh has been”
24. (4) ‘nothing to eat’ 25. (5) No error
26. (2) ‘is not able to sing’
27. (4) ‘part with any one of them’
28. (1) ‘When he was walking’
29. (2) ‘not related to me’ 30. (5) No error

31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (5) 36. (5) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (5) 42. (2) 43. (1)
44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (5) 48. (4) 49. (2) 50. (3)

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