Perfect Education

Vinyak Vihar,Opposite-Sihag Hospital

Date: 19/10/2020
Time: 3 hours 0 min Max. Marks: 186

REVIEW TEST-6 XII NM P-II

Physics
Multiple Choice Question

Q1 Which of the following is a wave equation?

a)    y = A sin k(x 2 – vt 2 ) b)    y = A cos2 (x/λ – t)
c)    d)    y = A sinkx cos
y = A sin 2

Q2 A wave is represented by the equation y = A sin (10 x + 15 t + /3)

where x is in meters and t is in seconds. The expression represents
a)    A wave travelling in positive x direction with a velocity of 1.5 m/s
b)    A wave travelling in negative x-direction with a velocity of 1.5 m/s
c) A wave travelling in the negative x-direction having a wavelength
   0.2 m.
d)    A wave travelling in positive x-direction having a wavelength 0.2 m.
Q3 A wave equation is given as y = cos(500t – 70x), where y is in mm, x in m
and t is in sec.
a)    the wave must be a transverse propagating wave.

b)    The speed of the wave is 50/7 m/s

c)    The frequency of oscillations 1000π Hz
d) Two closest points which are in same phase have separation 20π/7
   cm.
Q4 At a certain moment, the photograph of a string on which a harmonic
wave is travelling to the right is shown. Then, which of the following
is true regarding the velocities of the points P, Q and R on the string.

a)    v P is upwards b)    v Q = – v R
c)    | v P | > | v Q |
= | vR | d)    v Q = v R
Q5 The vibration of a string fixed at both ends are described by Y= 2 sin( )
sin(100 ) where Y is in mm,x is in cm,t in sec then
a)    Maximum displacement of the particle at x = 1/6 cm would be 1 mm.
b) velocity of the particle at x = 1/6 cm at time t = 1/600 sec will be 157
   mm/s
c)    If the
length of the string be 10 cm, number of loop in it would be 5
d)    None
of these
Q6 The length, tension, diameter and density of a wire B are double than the
corresponding quantities for another stretched wire A. Then.
a)   
Fundamental frequency of B is times that of A.
b)   
The velocity of wave in B is times that of velocity in A.
c)    The fundamental frequency of A is equal to the third overtone of B.
d)    The velocity of wave in B is half that of velocity in A.
Q7 A wave disturbance in a medium is described by y(x,t) = 0.02 cos (5 t +
/2) cos(10 x), where x and y are in metres and t in second, then the
correct statement is/are
a)    a node occurs at x = 0.15 m b)    an antinode occurs at x = 0.3 m

c)    the speed of the wave is 5.0 m/s d)    the wavelength is 0.2 m

Q8 The (x , y) co−ordinates of the corners of a square plate are (0, 0) (L, 0) (L,
L) & (0, L). The edges of the plate are clamped & transverse standing
waves are set up in it . If u (x, y) denotes t he displacement of the plate at
the point (x, y) at some instant of time, the possible expression(s) for u
is/are : (a = positive constant)
a)    b)   
a cos cos a sin sin

c)    d)   
a sin sin a cos sin
Numerical

Q9 A nucleus with Z = 92 emits the following in a sequence;

The Z of the resulting nucleus is
Ans. 78
Q10 If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV,
the energy required to remove the electron from the first excited
state of Li++ is (in eV)
Ans. 30.6
Q11 The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. Then longest
wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron emission from
this substance approximately (in nm)
Ans. 310
Q12 The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron ( ) and helium
nucleus ( ) is 1.1 MeV and 7 MeV respectively. If two deuteron
nuclei react to form a single helium nucleus, then the energy
released is (in MeV)
Ans. 23.6
Q13 Starting with a sample of pure 66Cu, 7/8 of it decays into Zn in 15
minutes. The corresponding half-life is (in minutes)
Ans. 5
Q14 The surface of a metal is illuminated with the light of 400 nm. The
kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons was found to be 1.68
eV. The work function of the metal is (hc = 1240 eV.nm) (in eV)
Ans. 1.41

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Q15 The speed of daughter nuclei is

a)    b)    c)    d)   

Q16 The binding energy per nucleon for the parent nucleus is E1 and that for
the daughter nuclei is E2. Then
a)    b)    c)    d)   
E2 > E1 E 1 = 2E 2 E 2 = 2E 1 E1 > E2
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Q17 If a maxima is formed at the detector then, the magnitude of wavelength

  of the wave produced can not given by
a)    b)    c)    d)   

Q18 If the minima is formed at the detector then, the magnitude of

wavelength   of the wave produced can not given by
a)    b)    c)    d)   
 Chemistry
Multiple Choice Question

Q19 Be(OH)2 forms bridge bonding structure in their polymeric form of the
compounds as given below.
(I) [Be3(OH)8]2–
(II) [Be4(OH)10]2–
Which types of bonds are present in the above compounds?
a)    2c–2e bond b)    3c–2e bond c)    3c–4e bond d)    All of these

Q20 Which of the following types of bonds are present in NaNO3?

a)    Ionic bond b)    Covalently bonded bond
c)    -bond d)    Coordinate bond

Q21 Select the correct statement(s) about O3 molecule.

a)    Correct structure of ozone is O=O=O.
b)    Molecule is planar and polar.

c)    It is diamagnetic.
d)    Ithas bent structure.
Q22 Choose the correct statements from the following.
a)    The ratios of bond to bond in SO3 and SO2 are identical.
b)    The hybridization of S in SO3 and SO2 is identical
c) The S atom in SO3 is more electronegative as compared to that in
   SO2.
d)    SO 3 is planar while SO 2 is non-planar.
Q23 What is the final product of this sequence of reactions ?

a)    b)   

c)    d)   
Q24
Ph–CH2–COOEt + (A) (B) Product B is :
a)    Ph–CH b)    Ph–CH 2 –COOEt
2 –COOH
c)    d)    None of these
Q25

(P) (Q) (R)

The products of the above reaction is / are :

a)    b)    c)    d)   

Q26 Which of the following will gives iodoform with NaOI ?

a)    b)   

c)    d)   

Numerical

Q27 Find the number of planar species from the following.

Ans. 6
Q28 The number of compounds among the following, forming oxyacids
from the central atom on hydrolysis is____.
AsCl3, NCl3, PCl3, SbCl3, PCl5, SiF4
Ans. 4
Q29 Select correct statement
(1) Solvolysis of (CH3)2C=CH–CH2–Cl in ethanol is more faster than
primary alkyl chloride (25°C)
(2) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–OH when reacts with HBr give a mixture of 1–
bromo–2–butene and 3–bromo 1–butene.
(3) When solution of 3–buten–2–ol in aqueous sulphuric acid is
allowed to stand for one week, it was found to contain both 3–buten–
2–ol and 2–buten–1–ol
(4) All of these
Ans. 4
Q30

Total no. of alkenes (X)

No. of Fractions obtained (Y) X are :

Ans. 9
Q31 The number of possible product when Acetaldehyde &
Propionaldehyde react in the presence of dilute NaOH
Ans. 4
Q32 The number of possible product when Acetaldehyde &
Benzaldehyde react in the presence of dilute NaOH
Ans. 2

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As implied by the mechanism of hydrolysis, diborane and many other light boron hybrids act
as Lewis acids and they are cleaved by reaction with Lewis bases.
Two different cleavage patterns have been observed, namely, symmetric cleavage and
unsymmetric cleavage. In symmetric cleavage, B 2 H 6 is broken symmetrically into two BH 3
fragments with NMe 3 . While hydrolysis with NH 3 , MeNH 2 , MeNH results in unsymmetrical
cleavage, which is a cleavage leading to an ionic product.
Q33 Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the reaction of B H   with NH ?
2 6 3
a)   
B H with NH gives ionic product [BH (NH ) ] + [BH ] – .
2 6 3 2 3 2 4
b)   
The hybridization state of boron atom is unchanged from reactant to ionic products.
c)   
B 2 H 6 is non-planar and each boron atom is in sp 3 hybridized state.
d)   
None of the above statements are incorrect.
Q34

a)    Y is a planar molecule.
b)   
Y is aromatic and sp 3 hybridization of each B and N atom.
c)   
Y is a non-polar molecule.
d)   
Back bonding takes place from N-atom to B-atom in Y.
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Q35

a)    b)   

c)    d)   

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Q36 Which step is Rate determening step ?

a)    b)    c)    d)   
I II III IV
 Mathematics
Multiple Choice Question

Q37
If xp . yq = (x + y) p + q, then is
a)    independent of p b)    independent of q
c)    dependent both p and q d)   

Q38 If f(x) = |x2 – 3| x | + 2|, then which of the following is/are true ?
a)    f ’(x) = 2x – 3 for x (0, 1) (2, )
b)    f ’(x) = 2x + 3 for x (– , –2) (–1, 0)
c)    f’(x) = –2x – 3 for x (–2, –1)
d)    None of the above
Q39 The coordinate of the point(s) on the graph of the function,
where the tangent drawn cuts-off intercepts from the
coordinate axes which are equal in magnitude but opposite in sign, is
a)    b)    c)    d)    None of these

Q40 If a > 0, b > 0, c > 0 and a + b + c = abc, then atleast one of the numbers a,
b, c exceeds
a)    b)    c)    2 d)   

Q41 Let f (x, y) = x2 + 2xy + 3y2 – 6x – 2y, where x, y R, then

a)    f (x, y) –11 b)    f (x, y) –10 c)    f (x, y) > –11 d)    f (x, y) > –12

Q42 If = f (x) + c, then f (x) is equal to

a)    b)   

c)    d)    None of these

Q43
Area bounded by the ellipse is equal to
a)    6 sq units
b)    3 sq units
c)    12 sq units
d)   
Area bounded by the ellipse
Q44 If f (x) = [sin–1 (sin 2x)] ([] denotes the integer function), then
a)    b)    f (x) is periodic with period

c)    d)    None of these

Numerical

Q45 The area defined by 1 |x–2|+|y+1| 2 is

Ans. 6
Q46 If [x] stands for the greatest integer function, then evaluate

Ans. 3
Q47 If ar denotes the coefficient of xr in the expansion of (1 – x)2n–1 (n
N), then sum of possible values of (ar–1 + a2n–r) is :
Ans. 0
Q48
The value of is equal to :
Ans. 16
Q49
If where C is the constant of

integrating and f(x) is positive, then is equal to …........ .

Ans. 1
Q50 For any real number x, let [x] denotes the largest integer less than
or equal to x. Let f be a real valued function defined on the
interval [–10, 10] by . Then, the value of

Ans. 4
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Q51 If D=4(a 2 –3b)<0, then

a)   
f(x) has all real roots
b)   
f(x) has one real and two imaginary roots
c)   
f(x) has repeated roots
d)    None of the above
Q52 If D=4(a 2 –3b) > 0 and f(x ).f(x )>0, where x , x are the roots of f(x), then
1 2 1 2
a)   
f(x) has all real and distinct roots
b)   
f(x) has three real roots but one of the roots would be repeated
c)   
f(x) would have just one real root
d)   
None of the above

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Q53

a)    b)   

c)    d)   
Q54

a)    b)   

c)    d)