CODE - X6

FINAL NEET(UG)–2020 EXAMINATION

(Held On Wednesday 14th OCTOBER, 2020)

BIOL OGY TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

46. In some plants thalamus contributes to fruit 52. Identify the statement which is incorrect.
formation. Such fruits are termed as : (1) Sulphur is an integral part of cysteine.
(1) False fruits (2) Glycine is an example of lipids.
(2) Aggregate fruits (3) Lecithin contains phosphorus atom in its
(3) True fruits structure.
(4) Parthenocarpic fruit (4) Tyrosine possesses aromatic ring in its structure.
Ans. (1) Ans. (2)
47. First discovered restriction endonuclease that always 53. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
cuts DNA molecule at a particular point by gymnosperms ?
recognising a specific sequence of six base pairs is: (1) They are heterosporous
(1) EcoR1 (2) Male and female gametophytes are free living
(2) Adenosine deaminase (3) Most of them have narrow leaves with thick
(3) Thermostable DNA polymerase cuticle
(4) Hind II (4) Their seeds are not covered
Ans. (4) Ans. (2)
48. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 54. A species which was introduced for ornamentation
(1) Biomass decreases from first to fourth trophic but has become a trouble-some weed in India :
level (1) Parthenium hysterophorus
(2) Energy content gradually increases from first to (2) Eichhornia crassipes
fourth trophic level (3) Prosopis juliflora
(3) Number of individuals decreases from first (4) Trapa spinosa
trophic level to fourth trophic level Ans. (2)
(4) Energy content gradually decreases from first to 55. Correct position of floral parts over thalamus in
fourth trophic level mustard plant is :
Ans. (2) (1) Gynoecium occupies the highest position, while
49. The term 'Nuclein' for the genetic material was used the other parts are situated below it.
by : (2) Margin of the thalamus grows upward, enclosing
(1) Franklin (2) Meischer the ovary completely, and other parts arise
(3) Chargaff (4) Mendel below the ovary.
Ans. (2) (3) Gynoecium is present in the centre and other
50. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed parts cover it partially.
by :
(4) Gynoecium is situated in the centre, and other
(1) Sutton and Boveri
parts of the flower are located at the rim of the
(2) Bateson and Punnet
thalamus, at the same level.
(3) T. H. Morgan
Ans. (1)
(4) Watson and Crick
56. In Recombinant DNA technology antibiotics are
Ans. (1)
used :
51. Phycoerythrin is the major pigment in :
(1) to keep medium bacteria-free
(1) Red algae
(2) to detect alien DNA
(2) Blue green algae
(3) to impart disease-resistance to the host plant
(3) Green algae
(4) as selectable markers
(4) Brown algae
Ans. (2)/(4)
Ans. (1)
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Final NEET(UG)-2020 Exam/14-10-2020/For Corona Positive Students

57. According to Alexander von Humboldt : 63. Attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochores of
(1) Species richness decreases with increasing area chromosomes becomes evident in :
of exploration (1) Anaphase (2) Telophase
(2) Species richness increases with increasing area, (3) Prophase (4) Metaphase
but only up to limit Ans. (4)
(3) There is no relationship between species 64. Match the items in Column-I with those in
richness and area explored. Column-II :
(4) Species richness goes on increasing with Column I Column II
increasing area of exploration (a) Herbivores-Plants (i) Commensalism
Ans. (2) (b) Mycorrhiza-Plants (ii) Mutualism
58. Wh ich of t he f ollowin g is incorrect fo r
(c) Sheep-Cattle (iii) Predation
wind-pollinated plants ?
(d) Orchid-Tree (iv) Competition
(1) Well exposed stamens and stigma
Select the correct option from following :
(2) Many ovules in each ovary
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) Flowers are small and not brightly coloured
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(4) Pollen grains are light and non-sticky
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Ans. (2)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
59. Which of the following is the correct floral formula
Ans. (2)
of Liliaceae ?
65. Vegetative propagule in Agave is as :
(1) % O C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1 (1) Rhizome (2) Bulbil
(3) Offset (4) Eye
(2) O O K(5) C(5) A 5 G(2) Ans. (2)
66. Match the following :
(3) Br (a) Aquaporin (i) Amide
O P(3+3) A3+3 G(3)
(b) Asparagine (ii) Polysaccharide
(c) Abscisic acid (iii) Polypeptide
(4) O K(5) C(5) A5 G(2) (d) Chitin (iv) Carotenoids
Ans. (3) Select the correct option :
60. In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a nitrogenous (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
base is linked to the –OH of: (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(1) 2'C pentose sugar (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(2) 3'C pentose sugar (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c) -(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) 5'C pentose sugar Ans. (1)
(4) 1'C pentose sugar 67. Which of the following elements helps in maintaining
Ans. (4) the structure of ribosomes ?
61. In Glycine max, the product of biological nitrogen (1) Magnesium (2) Zinc
fixation is transported from the root nodules to other (3) Copper (4) Molybdenum
parts as : Ans. (1)
(1) Ammonia (2) Glutamate 68. Who coined the term 'Kinetin' ?
(3) Nitrates (4) Ureides (1) Skoog and Miller
Ans. (4) (2) Darwin
62. The number of contrasting characters studied by (3) Went
Mendel for his experiments was : (4) Kurosawa
(1) 14 (3) 4 (2) 2 (4) 7 Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)

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 CODE - X6
69. In the following in each set a conservation approach 75. The biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA occurs in :
and an example of method of conservation are (1) Ribosomes
given (2) Golgi apparatus
(a) In situ conservation - Biosphere Reserve (3) Microbodies
(b) Ex situ conservation - Sacred groves (4) Nucleolus
(c) In situ conservation - Seed bank Ans. (4)
(d) Ex situ conservation - Cryopreservation 76. Which of the following is incorrect about
`Select the option with correct match of approach Cynobacteria ?
and method : (1) They are photoautotrophs
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (d) (2) They lack heterocysts
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (a) and (b) (3) They often form blooms in polluted water bodies
Ans. (2) (4) They have chlorophyll A similar to green plants
70. Embryological support for evolution was proposed Ans. (2)
by : 77. Which of the following statements about cork
(1) Ernst Heckel
cambium is incorrect?
(2) Karl Ernst von Baer
(1) It forms secondary cortex on its outerside
(3) Charles Darwin
(2) It forms a part of periderm
(4) Alfred Wallace
(3) It is responsible for the formation of lenticels
Ans. (1)
(4) It is a couple of layers thick
71. During non-cyclic photophosphorylation, when
Ans. (1)
electrons are lost from the reaction centre at PS II,
78. Select the incorrect statement.
what is the source which replaces these electrons?
(1) Transport of molecules in phloem can be
(1) Oxygen (2) Water
bidirectional.
(3) Carbon dioxide (4) Light
(2) Movement of minerals in xylem is unidirectional.
Ans. (2)
(3) Unloading of sucrose at sink does not involve
72. In a mitotic cycle, the correct sequence of phases
the utilization of ATP.
is
(4) Elements most easily mobilized in plants from
(1) S, G1, G2, M (2) G1, S, G2, M
one region to another are: phosphorus, sulphur,
(3) M, G1, G2, S (4) G1, G2, S, M
nitrogen and potassium.
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
73. Inclusion bodies of blue- green, purple and green 79. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was
photosynthetic bacteria are : amended in 1987 to include among pollutants
(1) Contractile vacuoles (1) Vehicular exhaust
(2) Gas vacuoles (2) Allergy causing pollen
(3) Centrioles (3) Noise
(4) Microtubules (4) Particulates of size 2.5 micrometer or below
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
74. Large, empty colourless cells of the adaxial 80. Inhibitory substances in dormant seeds cannot be
epidermis along the veins of grass leaves are removed by subjecting seeds to :
(1) Lenticels (1) Gibberellic acid
(2) Guard cells (2) Nitrate
(3) Bundle sheath cells (3) Ascorbic acid
(4) Bulliform cells (4) Chilling conditions
Ans. (4) Ans. (3)
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Final NEET(UG)-2020 Exam/14-10-2020/For Corona Positive Students

81. Match the following techniques or instruments with 86. Identify the correct features of Mango and Coconut
their usage : fruits.
(a) Bioreactor (i) Separation of (i) In both fruit is a drupe
DNA fragments (ii) Endocarp is edible in both
(b) Electrophoresis (ii) Production of large (iii) Mesocarp in Coconut is fibrous, and in Mango
quantities of products
it is fleshy
(c) PCR (iii)Detection of
(iv) In both, fruit develops from monocarpellary
pathogen, based
ovary
on antigen - antibody
Select the correct option from below :
reaction
(d) ELISA (iv) Amplification of (1) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
nucleic acids (2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Select the correct option from following: (3) (i) and (iv) only
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (4) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) Ans. (1)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) 87. The impact of immigration on population density
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) is :-
Ans. (2) (1) Negative
82. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (2) Both positive and negative
(1) RuBisCO is a bifunctional enzyme (3) Neutralized by natality
(2) In C4 plants, the site of RuBisCO activity is (4) Positive
mesophyll cell
Ans. (4)
(3) The substrate molecule for RuBisCO activity is
88. Male and female gametophytes do not have an
a 5-carbon compound
independent free living existence in :-
(4) RuBisCO action requires ATP and NADPH
(1) Pteridophytes (2) Algae
Ans. (2)
83. Which of the following statements is incorrect (3) Angiosperms (4) Bryophytes
regarding the phosphorus cycle? Ans. (3)
(1) Phosphates are the major form of phosphorus 89. Match the following concerning the activity/function
reservoir and the phytohormone involved :-
(2) Phosphorus solubilising bacteria facilitate the (a) Fruit ripener (i) Abscisic acid
release of phosphorus from organic remains (b) Herbicide (ii) GA3
(3) There is appreciable respiratory release of (c) Bolting agent (iii) 2, 4-D
phosphorus into atmosphere (d) Stress hormone (iv) Ethephon
(4) It is sedimentary cycle Select the correct option from following :-
Ans. (3) (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
84. After about how many years of formation of earth,
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
life appeared on this planet ?
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(1) 500 billion years (2) 50 million years
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) 500 million years (4) 50 billion years
Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)
85. In a mixture, DNA fragments are separated by :- 90. Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity during aerobic
(1) Bioprocess engineering respiration requires :-
(2) Restriction digestion (1) Calcium (2) Iron
(3) Electrophoresis (3) Cobalt (4) Magnesium
(4) Polymerase chain reaction Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)

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 CODE - X6
91. The rate of decomposition is faster in the ecosystem 97. In cockroach, identify the parts of the foregut in
due to following factors EXCEPT :- correct sequence :-
(1) Mouth Oesophagus Pharynx Crop
(1) Detritus rich in sugars Gizzard
(2) Warm and moist environment (2) Mouth Crop Pharynx Oesophagus
(3) Presence of aerobic soil microbes Gizzard
(3) Mouth Gizzard Crop Pharynx
(4) Detritus richer in lignin and chitin Oesophagus
Ans. (4) (4) Mouth Pharynx Oesophagus Crop
92. For the commercial and industrial production of Gizzard
Ans. (4)
Citric Acid, which of the following microbes is
98. Match the following columns and select the correct
used ? option :-
(1) Aspergillus niger Column-I Column-II
(2) Lactobacillus sp (a) Pituitary hormone (i) Steroid
(b) Epinephrine (ii) Neuropeptides
(3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (c) Endorphins (iii) Peptides, proteins
(4) Clostridium butylicum (d) Cortisol (iv) Biogenic amines
Ans. (1) (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
93. Which of the following STDs are not curable ?
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(1) Genital herpes, Hepatitis B, HIV infection (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, Genital warts Ans. (2)
99. Which of the following options does correctly
(3) HIV, Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis
represent the characteristic features of phylum
(4) Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis B Annelida ?
Ans. (1) (1) Triploblastic, unsegmented body and bilaterally
symmetrical.
94. Spooling is :-
(2) Triploblastic, segmented body and bilaterally
(1) Amplification of DNA symmetrical.
(2) Cutting of separated DNA bands from the (3) Triploblastic, flattened body and acoelomate
agarose gel condition.
(4) Diploblastic, mostly marine and radially
(3) Transfer of separated DNA fragments to symmetrical.
synthetic membranes Ans. (2)
(4) Collection of isolated DNA 100. Match the following columns and select the correct
Ans. (4) option :-
95. The phenomenon of evolution of different species
Column-I Column-II
in a given geographical area starting from a point (a) Dragonflies (i) Biocontrol agents
and spreading to other habitats is called :- of several plant
(1) Saltation pathogens
(b) Bacillus (ii) Get rid of Aphids
(2) Co-evolution thuringiensis and mosquitoes
(3) Natural selection (c) Glomus (iii) Narrow spectrum
insecticidal
(4) Adaptive radiation
applications
Ans. (4) (d) Baculoviruses (iv) Biocontrol agents
96. The best example for pleiotropy is :- of lepidopteran
plant pests
(1) Skin colour (v) Absorb phosphorus
(2) Phenylketoneuria from soil
(3) Colour Blindness (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(v), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(4) ABO Blood group
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v)
Ans. (2)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii)
Ans. (4)
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Final NEET(UG)-2020 Exam/14-10-2020/For Corona Positive Students

101. Intrinsic factor that helps in the absorption of vitamin 106. The size of Pleuropneumonia - like Organism
B12 is secreted by :- (PPLO) is :
(1) Goblet cells (2) Hepatic cells (1) 0.02 m (2) 1-2 m
(3) Oxyntic cells (4) Chief cells (3) 10-20 m (4) 0.1 m
Ans. (3) Ans. (4)
102. Hormones st ored and released from
107. The proteolytic enzyme rennin is found in :
neurohypophysis are :-
(1) Intestinal juice (2) Bile juice
(1) Thyroid stimulating hormone and Oxytocin
(3) Gastric juice (4) Pancreatic juice
(2) Oxytocin and Vasopressin
(3) Follicle stimulating hormone and Leutinizing Ans. (3)
hormone 108. Match the following group of organisms with their
(4) Prolactin and Vasopressin respective distinctive characteristics and select the
Ans. (2) correct option :
103. Match the following columns and select the correct Organisms Characteristics
option : (a) Platyhelminthes (i) Cylindrical body
Column - I Column - II with no segmentation
(i) Typhoid (a) Haemophilus influenzae (b) Echinoderms (ii) Warm blooded
(ii) Malaria (b) Wuchereria bancrofti animals with
(iii) Pneumonia (c) Plasmodium vivax direct development
(iv) Filariasis (d) Salmonella typhi (c) Hemichordates (iii) Bilateral
(1) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
symmetry with
(2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
incomplete
(3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
digestive system
(4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
Ans. (1) (d) Aves (iv) Radial symmetry
104. In human beings, at the end of 12 weeks with indirect
(first trimester) of pregnancy, the following is development
observed: (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(1) Eyelids and eyelashes are formed (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) Most of the major organ systems are formed (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(3) The head is covered with fine hair (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(4} Movement of the foetus Ans. (1)
Ans. (2) 109. Cyclosporin A, used as immuno suppression agent,
105. Match the following columns and select the correct is produced from :
option :
(1) Monascus purpureus
Column - I Column - II
(2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(a) Rods and (i) Absence of
(3) Penicillium notatum
Cones photoreceptor
cells (4) Trichoderma polysporum
(b) Blind Spot (ii) Cones are Ans. (4)
densely packed 110. Select the correct statement from the following :
(c) Fovea (iii) Photoreceptor (1) Gel electrophoresis is used for amplification of
cells a DNA segment.
(d) Iris (iv) Visible coloured (2) The polymerase enzyme joins the gene of
portion of the eye interest and the vector DNA.
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (3) Restriction enzyme digestions are performed by
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) incubating purified DNA molecules with the
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) restriction enzymes of optimum conditions.
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(4) PCR is used for isolation and separation of gene
Ans. (1)
of interest.
Ans. (3)
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 CODE - X6
111. The increase in osmolarity from outer to inner 115. E.coli has only 4.6 ×106 base pairs and completes
medullary interstitium is maintained due to : the process of replication within 18 minutes; then
(i) Close proximity between Henle's loop and vasa the average rate of polymerisation is approximately-
recta (1) 2000 base pairs/second
(ii) Counter current mechanism (2) 3000 base pairs/second
(iii) Selective secretion of HCO3¯ and hydrogen ions (3) 4000 base pairs/second
in PCT (4) 1000 base pairs/second
(iv) Higher blood pressure in glomerular capillaries Ans. (1)
(1) Only(ii) 116. Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogens
(2) (iii) and (iv) can be used as a contraceptive in the form of -
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (1) Implants only
(4) (i) and (ii) (2) Injections only
Ans. (4) (3) Pills, injections and implants
112. The yellowish fluid "colostrum" secreted by (4) Pills only
mammary glands of mother during the initial days Ans. (3)
of lactation has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect 117. According to Central Pollution Control Board
the infant. This type of immunity is called as : [CPCB] what size (in diameter) of particulate is
(1) Passive immunity responsible for causing greater harm to human
(2) Active immunity health ?
(3) Acquired immunity (1) 3.5 micrometers
(4) Autoimmunity (2) 2.5 micrometers
Ans. (1) (3) 4.0 micrometers
113. Match the following columns with reference to (4) 3.0 micrometers
cockroach and select the correct option : Ans. (2)
Column - I Column - II 118. The Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is the total volume
(a) Grinding of (i) Hepatic caecal of air accomodated in the lungs at the end of a
the food particles forced inspiration. This includes :
(b) Secrete gastric (ii) 10th segment (1) RV; IC (Inspiratory Capacity);
juice EC (Expiratory Capacity); and ERV
(c) 10 pairs (iii) Proventriculus (2) RV; ERV; IC and EC
(d) Anal cerci (iv) Spiracles (3) RV; ERV; VC (Vital Capacity) and
(v) Alary muscles FRC (Functional Residual Capacity)
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (4) RV (Residual Volume);
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii) ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume);
TV (Tidal Volume); and
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) Ans. (4)
Ans. (1) 119. Select the correct option of haploid cells from the
114. RNA interference is used for which of the following following groups :
purposes in the field of biotechnology ? (1) Primary oocyte, Secondary oocyte, Spermatid
(1) to develop a plant tolerant to abiotic stresses (2) Secondary spermatocyte, First polar body,
(2) to develop a pest resistant plant against Ovum
infestation by nematode (3) Spermatogonia, Primary spermatocyte,
(3) to enhance the mineral usage by the plant Spermatid
(4) Primary spermatocyte, Secondary
(4) to reduce post harvest losses
spermatocyte, Second polar body
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)

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Final NEET(UG)-2020 Exam/14-10-2020/For Corona Positive Students

120. During Meiosis 1, in which stage synapsis takes 125. Select the incorrectly matched pair from
place ? following:
(1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene (1) Chondrocytes - Smooth muscle cells
(3) Diplotene (4) Leptotene
(2) Neurons - Nerve cells
Ans. (2)
(3) Fibroblast - Areolar tissue
121. Match the following columns and select the correct
(4) Osteocytes - Bone cells
option :
Column - I Column - II Ans. (1)
(a) Smooth (i) Protein synthesis 126. The laws and rules to prevent unauthorised
endoplasmic exploitation of bio-resources are termed as -
reticulum (1) Biopatenting (2) Bioethics
(b) Rough (ii) Lipid synthesis (3) Bioengineering (4) Biopiracy
endoplasmic Ans. (1)
reticulum 127. Match the following columns and select the correct
(c) Golgi complex (iii) Glycosylation
option :
(d) Centriole (iv) Spindle formation
Column - I Column - II
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii). (d)-(iv)
(a) Ovary (i) Human chorionic
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) Gonadotropin
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (b) Placenta (ii) Estrogen &
Ans. (1) Progesterone
122. Select the correct statement : (c) Corpus luteum (iii) Androgens
(1) Atrial Natriuretic Factor increases the blood (d) Leydig cells (iv) Progesterone only
pressure. (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) Angiotensin II is a powerful vasodilator. (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) Counter current pattern of blood flow is not
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
observed in vasa recta.
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) Reduction in Glomerular Filtration Rate
Ans. (4)
activates JG cells to release renin.
Ans. (4) 128. Match the following columns and select the correct
123. Which of the following is associated with decrease option :
in cardiac output ? Column - I Column - II
(1) Sympathetic nerves (a) Aptenodytes (i) Flying fox
(2) Parasympathetic neural signals (b) Pteropus (ii) Angel fish
(3) Pneumotaxic centre (c) Pterophyllum (iii)Lamprey
(4) Adrenal medullary hormones
(d) Petromyzon (iv)Penguin
Ans. (2)
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
124. Inbreeding depression is -
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(1) Reduced motility and immunity due to close
inbreeding (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(2) Decreased productivity due to mating of (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
superior male and inferior female Ans. (3)
(3) Decrease in body mass of progeny due to 129. A Hominid fossil discovered in Java in 1891, now
continued close inbreeding extinct, having cranial capacity of about 900 cc was:
(4) Reduced fertility and productivity due to (1) Homo erectus (2) Neanderthal man
continued close inbreeding (3) Homo sapiens (4) Australopithecus
Ans. (4)
Ans. (1)
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 CODE - X6
130. Match the following events that occur in their 133. Wh ich of t he f ollo wing co ndit ions cause
respective phases of cell cycle and select the correct erythroblastosis foetalis ?
option : (1) Mother Rh+ve and foetus Rh–ve
(a) G1 phase (i) Cell grows and (2) Mother Rh–ve and foetus Rh+ve
organelle (3) Both mother and foetus Rh–ve
duplication (4) Both mother and foetus Rh+ve
(b) S phase (ii) DNA Ans. (2)
replication and 134. All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are
chromosome not vertebrates, why ?
duplication (1) Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in
(c) G2 phase (iii) Cytoplasmic adult of some chordates.
growth (2) Ventral hollow nerve cord remains throughout
(d) Metaphase in (iv) Alignment of life in some chordates.
M-phase chromosomes (3) All chordates possess vertebral column.
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (4) All chordates possess notochord throughout their
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) life.
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) Ans. (1)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) 135. Match the following columns and select the correct
Ans. (4) option
131. Match the following columns and select the correct Column - I Column - II
option : (a) Gout (i) Decreased
Column - I Column - II levels of estrogen
(a) Pneumotaxic (i) Alveoli (b) Osteoporosis (ii) Low Ca++ ions
Centre in the blood
(b) O2 Dissociation (ii) Pons region of (c) Tetany (iii) Accumulation
curve brain of uric acid crystals
(c) Carbonic (iii) Haemoglobin (d) Muscular (iv) Auto immune
Anhydrase dystrophy disorder
(d) Primary site (iv) R.B.C. (v) Genetic disorder
of exchange (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
of gases (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (3) (a)-(iv), .(b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) Ans. (2)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
Ans. (2)
132. Which is the basis of genetic mapping of human
genome as well as DNA finger printing ?
(1) Polymorphism in DNA sequence
(2) Single nucleotide polymorphism
(3) Polymorphism in hnRNA sequence
(4) Polymorphism in RNA sequence
Ans. (1)