Self-Help To ICSE 10 Years Solved Papers Physics

Contents
PHYSICS
ICSE Paper 2011 Ph-1-12
CHEMISTRY
ICSE Paper 2011 Ch-124-135
BIOLOGY
ICSE Paper 2010 Bio-234-244
MATHEMATICS
ICSE Paper 2011 M-355-371
HISTORY & CIVICS
ICSE Paper 2011 H&C-522-533
GEOGRAPHY
ICSE Paper 2011 Geo-621-631
ENGLISH LANGUAGE-I
ICSE Paper 2019 Eng-I-731-739
ICSE Paper 2020 Eng-I-731-739
(Solution for previous year papers is not given due to introduction of new pattern of the paper)
ENGLISH LITERATURE-II
ICSE Paper 2019 Eng-II-740-751
ICSE Paper 2019 Eng-II-740-751
(Solution for previous year papers is not given due to introduction of new syllabus)
HINDI
ICSE Paper 2010 Hin-752-762
COMMERCIAL STUDIES
ICSE Paper 2010 CS-877-884
COMMERCIALAPPLICATIONS
ICSE Paper 2012 CS-1005-1021
ICSE Paper 2013 CS-1022-1031
ICSE Paper 2014 CS-1032-1044
ICSE Paper 2015 CS-1045-1064
ICSE Paper 2016 CS-1065-1074
ICSE Paper 2017 CS-1075-1088
ICSE Paper 2018 CS-1089-1098
ICSE Paper 2019 CS-1099-1110
ECONOMICS
ICSE Paper 2010 Eco-1111-1121
ECONOMICS APPLICATIONS
ICSE Paper 2012 E.A-1219-1232
ICSE Paper 2013 E.A-1233-1242
ICSE Paper 2014 E.A-1243-1252
ICSE Paper 2015 E.A-1253-1262
ICSE Paper 2016 E.A-1263-1270
ICSE Paper 2017 E.A-1271-1280
ICSE Paper 2018 E.A-1281-1291
ICSE Paper 2019 E.A-1292-1302
COMPUTER APPLICATIONS
ICSE Paper 2010 CA-1303-1317
ICSE Paper 2011 CA-1318-1328
ICSE Paper 2012 CA-1329-1336
ICSE Paper 2013 CA-1337-1347
ICSE Paper 2014 CA-1348-1359
ICSE Paper 2015 CA-1360-1367
ICSE Paper 2016 CA-1368-1377
ICSE Paper 2017 CA-1378-1387
ICSE Paper 2018 CA-1388-1400
ICSE Paper 2019 CA-1401-1409
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ICSE EXAMINATION QUESTION PAPER – 2011 (SOLVED)
PHYSICS
Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Section I is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section II.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets ( ).
SECTION – I (40 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this section)
Question 1.
(a) (i) Define one newton.
(ii) Write the relation between S.I. unit and C.G.S. unit of force. (2)
(b) Where does the position of centre of gravity lie for
(i) a circular lamina
(ii) a triangular lamina ? (2)
(c) A man can open a nut by applying a force of 150 N by using a lever handle of length 0.4
m. What should be the length of the handle if he is able to open it by applying a force of 60
N? (2)
(d) Name a machine which can be used to
(i) multiply force
(ii) change the direction of force applied. (2)
(e) The diagram below shows a lever in use.
Effort (E)
F A
B
Load (L)
50 N
(i) To which class of lever does it belong ?

(ii) If FA = 40 cm, AB = 60 cm, then find the mechanical advantage of the lever. (2)
Answer :
(a) (i) One newton is that force which when acting on a body of mass 1 kg, produces an
acceleration of 1 ms–2 in it.
Ph- 1 2011
Ph- 2 2011
(ii) S.I. unit of force is newton (N) and C.G.S. unit is dyne.
1N = 10 5 dyne
(b) (i) Centre of lamina.
(ii) The point of intersection of medians.
(c) Let the second length of the handle be L.
150 × 0.4 = 60 × L
150 ´ 0.4
Þ L= =1m
60
\ Length of handle = 1 m
(d) (i) Single movable pulley. (ii) Single fixed pulley.
(e) (i) Class II lever.
BF FA + AB
(ii) M.A. = =
AF FA
40 + 60 100
= = = 2.5
40 40
Question 2.
(a) A ball of mass 200 g falls from a height of 5 m. What will be its kinetic energy when it just
reaches the ground ? (g = 9.8 m s–2 ) (2)
(b) In the diagram below, PQ is a ray of light incident on rectangular glass block.
(i) Copy the diagram and complete the path of the ray of light through the glass block.
In your diagram, mark the angle of incidence by letter ‘i’ and the angle of emergence
by the letter ‘e’.
(ii) How are the angle ‘i’ and ‘e’ related to each other ?
(c) A ray of monochromatic light enters a liquid from air as shown in the diagram given
below.
(i) Copy the diagram and show in the diagram the path of the ray of light after it strikes
the mirror and re-enters the medium of air.
Ph- 3 2011
(ii) Mark in your diagram the two angles on the surface of separation when the ray of
light moves out from the liquid to air. (2)
45° Air
30° Liquid
Plane miror
(d) (i) When does a ray of light falling on a lens pass through it undeviated ?
(ii) Which lens can produce a real and inverted image of an object ? (2)
(e) (i) How is the refractive index of a medium related to its real depth and apparent depth?
(ii) Which characteristic property of light is responsible for the blue colour of the sky ?
(2)
Answer :
(a) K.E. = P.E. = mgh
200
= × 9.8 × 5 = 9.8 Joule
1000
(b) (i) P
i Q
(ii) Ði = Ðe
(c) (i), (ii) 45° 45°
Air
30° Liquid
30°
Plane miror
Ph- 4 2011
(d) (i) A ray of light passing through the optical centre of the lens passes through it undeviated.
(ii) Convex lens.
Real depth
(e) (i) Refractive index =
Apparent depth
(ii) Effects of scattering.
The blue or violet light due to its short wavelength is scattered more as compared to
red light of long wavelength.
Question 3.
(a) When acoustic resonance takes place, a loud sound is heard. Why does this happen ?
Explain. (2)
(b) (i) Three musical instruments give out notes at the frequencies listed below. Flute : 400
Hz; Guitar : 200 Hz; Trumpet : 500 Hz. Which one of these has the highest pitch ?
(ii) With which of the following frequencies does a tuning fork of 256 Hz resonate ? 288
Hz, 314 Hz, 333 Hz, 512 Hz. (2)
(c) Two bulbs are marked 100 W, 220 V and 60 W, 110 V. Calculate the ratio of their resistances.
(2)
(d) (i) What is the colour code for the insulation on the earth wire ?
(ii) Write an expression for calculating electrical power in terms of current and resistance.
(2)
(e) Calculate the equivalent resistance between A and B from the following diagram : (2)
Answer :
(a) At acoustic resonance, the amplitude of the vibration of the body becomes very large.
Since loudness is proportional to the square of the amplitude, therefore, we hear a loud
sound under this condition.
(b) (i) Trumpet : 500 Hz.
(ii) 512 Hz. Second resonance will take place.
V2
(c) We know that R =
P
Ph- 5 2011
220 ´ 220
The resistance R1 of the first bulb, R1 = = 484W
100
110 ´ 110 1210

and R2 = = = 201.67W
60 6
R1 484
\ = × 6 = 2.4
R2 1210
(d) (i) Yellow (ii) P = I2 R
(e) R1 = 3 + 2 = 5W
R2 = 30W
R3 = 6 + 4 = 10W
1 1 1 1
\ = + +
R R1 R2 R3
1 1 1 1
Þ = + +
R 5 30 10
1 6 +1+ 3
Þ =
R 30
1 10
Þ =
R 30
Þ R = 3W
Question 4.
(a) Differentiate between heat and temperature. (2)
(b) (i) Define Calorimetry.
(ii) What is meant by Energy degradation ? (2)
(c) 200 g of hot water at 80ºC is added to 300 g of cold water at 10ºC.
Calculate the final temperature of the mixture of water. Consider the heat taken by the
container to by negligible. [specific heat capacity of water is 4200 Jkg–1 ºC–1 ] (2)
(d) Fill in the blanks in the following sentences with appropriate words :
(i) During the emission of a beta particle, the number remains the same.
(ii) The minimum amount of energy required to emit an electron from a metal surface is
called . (2)
(e) A mixture of radioactive substances gives off three types of radiations.
(i) Name the radiation which travels with the speed of light.
(ii) Name the radiation which has the highest ionizing power. (2)
Ph- 6 2011
Answer :
(a) Heat Temperature
(i) Heat is the energy of transit. (i) Tempera ture is the funda menta l
quantity which determines the
direction of flow of heat.
(ii) Its S.I. unit is Joule. (ii) Its S.I. unit is Kelvin.
(b) (i) A calorimetry is the phenomenon through which we measure the amount of heat
gained or lost by a body when it is mixed with other body.
(ii) It is the transformation of energy into some form in which it is less available for
doing work.
(c) Let the final temperature be TºC. By the principle of calorimetry, we know
Heat lost = Heat gained
200 300
× 4200 × (80 – T) = × 4200 × (T – 10)
1000 1000
2 (80 – T) = 3 (T – 10)
Þ 160 – 2T = 3T – 30
Þ 160 + 30 = 3T + 2T
Þ 5T = 190
190
\ T= = 38ºC
5
(d) (i) Mass number (ii) Work function
(e) (i) g-rays (ii) Alpha particle
SECTION – II (40 Marks)

(Attempt any four questions from this section)
Question 5.
(a) (i) What is meant by an ideal machine ?
(ii) Write a relationship between the mechanical advantage (M.A.) and velocity ratio (V.R.)
of an ideal machine.
(iii) A coolie carrying a load on his head and moving on a frictionless horizontal platform
does no work. Explain the reason why. (3)
(b) Draw a diagram to show the energy changes in an oscillating simple pendulum. Indicate in
your diagram how the total mechanical energy in it remains constant during the oscillation.
(3)
(c) A uniform metre scale can be balanced at the 70.0 cm mark when a mass of 0.05 kg is
hung from the 94.0 cm mark.
Ph- 7 2011
(i) Draw a diagram of the arrangement.

(ii) Find the mass of the metre scale. (4)
Answers :
(a) (i) In an ideal machine, the work output is equal to the work input i.e., the efficiency of
an ideal machine is 100%.
M.A.
(ii) Efficiency =
V.R.
In an ideal machine, ratio = 1 : 1
(iii) Coolie does not move under the influence of a force i.e., frictional force is zero. The
force applied by him to lift the load is perpendicular to displacement.
(b) Total energy O
K.E.
P.E. = mgh P.E. = mgh
K.E= 0 K.E = 0
Energy
P.E. C B
h h
A
Height above ground
K.E. = mgh
P.E. = 0
The variation of potential and kinetic energy is as shown. The total energy remains constant.
(c) (i)
9cm 50cm 70cm 94cm
100cm
F
W
(ii) According the principle of moments
W (70 – 50) = 0.05 (94 – 70)
W × 20 = 0.05 × 24
24
Weight of the metre scale = × 0.05 = 0.06 kg
20
Question 6.
(a) (i) State the laws of refraction of light.
(ii) Write a relation between the angle of incidence (i), angle of emergence (e), angle of
prism (A) and angle of deviation (d) for a ray of light passing through an equilateral
prism. (3)
(b) (i) Suggest one way, in each case, by which we can detect the presence of :
1. Infrared radiations. 2. Ultraviolet radiations.
(ii) Give one use of Infrared radiations. (3)
Ph- 8 2011
(c) An object is placed in front of a lens between its optical centre and the focus and forms a
virtual, erect and diminished image.
(i) Name the lens which formed this image.
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to shows the formation of the image with the above stated
characteristics. (4)
Answer :
(a) (i) Laws of Refraction :
(a) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at the point of incidence, all
lie in the same plane.
(b) The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction
is constant for the pair of given media.
(ii) i + e = A + d
(b) (i) It is the portion of spectrum :
(a) Just beyond the red end. A blackened thermometer shows a much larger rise of
temperature when placed in the infrared region.
(b) Just before the violet end. These are detected by the silver chloride solution
which turns violet and finally black in the ultraviolet light.
(ii) They are used in photography at night.
(c) (i) Concave lens
C
(ii)
A
A¢
B
O
F2 D D¢ F1
Question 7.
(a) (i) Name the type of waves which are used for sound ranging.
(ii) Why are these waves mentioned in (i) above, not audible to us ?
(iii) Give one use of sound ranging. (3)
(b) A man standing 25 m away from a wall produces a sound and receives the reflected
sound.
(i) Calculate the time after which he receives the reflected sound if the speed of sound
in air is 350 ms–1.
(ii) Will he man be able to hear a distinct echo ? Give a reason for your answer. (3)
(c) (i) Name two safety devices which are connected to the live wire of a household electrical
circuit.
(ii) Give one important function of each of these two devices. (4)
Ph- 9 2011
Answer.
(a) (i) Ultrasonic waves.
(ii) Because their frequency lies beyond the limits of audibility (20 Hz – 20,000 Hz).
(iii) To locate the position of the object under water and to find the depth of sea.
2d 2 ´ 25
(b) (i) Time = = = 0.14 sec
v 350
(ii) Yes, because distance is more than 17 m and time period is 0.14 sec.
(c) (i) Connected devices are switches and fuses to live wire.
(ii) Fuse : It is a safety device which is used to limit current in an electric circuit.
Switch : Its main function is either to connect or to disconnect an electric appliance
in an electric circuit.
Question 8.
(a) (i) Draw a graph of Potential difference (V) versus Current (I) for an ohmic resistor.
(ii) How can you find the resistance of the resistor from this graph ?
(iii) What is a non-ohmic resistor ? (3)
(b) (i) An electric bulb is marked 100 W, 250 V. What information does this convey ?
(ii) How much current will the bulb draw if connected to a 250 V supply ? (3)
(c) Three resistors are connected to a 12 V battery as shown in the figure given below :
(i) What is the current through the 8 ohm resistor ?

(ii) What is the potential difference across the parallel combination of 6 ohm and 12 ohm
resistor ?
(iii) What is the current through the 6 ohm resistor ? (4)
Answer :
(a) (i)
P.D. in volts
I (in amp.)
Ph- 10 2011
(ii) The reciprocal of the I-V graph shown in the figure gives the resistance of the resistor.
(iii) Resistor which do not obey ohm’s law (i.e., V µ I) are called non-ohmic resistors.
(b) (i) P = 100 W
V = 250 V
It tells us that it will consume 100 watt at 250 V.
V2
(ii) R =
P
250 ´ 250
= = 625W
100
V
\ I=
R
250
= = 0.4 A
625
12 ´ 6
(c) (i) Resistance of 12W, 6W parallel combination = = 4W
18
The combined resistance of the circuit = 8 + 4 = 12W
12V
\ Current through 8W resistance = = 1A
12Ω
(ii) Potential difference across the 12W – 6W parallel combination is = 4 × 1 = 4V
1 ´ 12 12 2
(iii) Current through 6W resistor = = = A
6 + 12 18 3
Question 9.
(a) (i) Explain why the weather becomes very cold after a hail storm.
(ii) What happens to the heat supplied to a substance when the heat supplied causes no
change in the temperature of the substance ? (3)
(b) (i) When 1 g of ice at 0 ºC melts to form 1 g of water at 0 ºC then, is the latent heat
absorbed by the ice or given out by it ?
(ii) Give one example where high specific heat capacity of water is used as a heat reservoir.
(iii) Give one example where high specific heat capacity of water is used for cooling
purposes. (3)
(c) 250 g of water at 30ºC is present in a copper vessel of mass 50 g. Calculate the mass of
ice required to bring down the temperature of the vessel and its contents to 5ºC.
Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 × 10 3 J kg–1
Specific heat capacity of copper vessel = 400 J kg–1 ºC–1
Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg–1 ºC–1 (4)
Ph- 11 2011
Answer :
(a) (i) As the ice starts melting after a hail storm, it absorbs latent heat of fusion from the
surrounding air. This leads to the cooling of atmosphere.
(ii) Heat supplied to a substance during its change of state is called latent heat. It is used
up in increasing the potential energy of the molecules of the substance and in doing
work against external pressure if there is an increase in volume. Hence there is no
change of temperature.
(b) (i) Water at 0ºC has more heat than ice at 0ºC. This is because each gram of ice absorbs
nearly 336 J of heat when it melts into water at 0ºC.
(ii) Hot water bottles are used for fomentation since water does not cool quickly.
(iii) It is used as coolant by flowing it in pipes around the heated part of machines.
(c) According to the principle of calorimetry we know,
Heat gained = Heat lost
m × 336 + m × 4.2 × 5 = 250 × 4.2 (30 – 5) + 50 × 0.4 (30 – 5)
Þ 336 m + 21 m = 250 × 105 + 50 × 10
Þ 357 m = 26250 + 500
26750
\ m= = 74.9 g
357
Question 10.
(a) (i) State two properties which a substance should possess when used as a thermionic
emitter.
(ii) When an alpha particle gains two electrons it becomes neutral and becomes an atom
of an element which is a rare gas. What is the name of this rare gas ? (3)
(b) (i) Define radioactivity.
(ii) What happens inside the nucleus that causes the emission of beta particle ?
(iii) Express the above change in the form of an equation. (3)
(c) (i) Name a device which is commonly used to convert an electrical signal into a visual
signal.
202
(ii) The nucleus 84 X
emits an alpha particle and forms the nucleus Y. Represent this
change in the form of an equation.
(iii) What changes will take place in the mass number and atomic number of nucleus Y if
it emits gamma radiations ? (4)
Answer.
(a) (i) (1) Low work function.
(2) High melting point.
(ii) Helium atom
(b) (i) Radioactivity is self spontaneous disintegration of a heavy nucleus in a, b, and g
radiation.
Ph- 12 2011
(ii) The atomic number increases by one.

A β -emission A 0
(iii) ZX ¾¾ ¾ ¾
¾® Z+1 Y
+ -1 e
(c) (i) A cathode ray tube.

202 α -emission 198
+ 42 He
(ii) 84 X ¾¾ ¾ ¾
¾® 82 Y
(iii) There will be no change.


Time : 1½ hours 80 Marks
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Question 1.
(a) (i) Define 1 kgf.
(ii) How is it related to the S.I. unit of force ? [2]
(b) (i) What are non-contact forces ?
(ii) How does the distance of separation between two bodies affect the magnitude of the
non-contact force between them ? [2]
(c) A boy of mass 30 kg is sitting at a distance of 2 m from the middle of a see-saw. Where
should a boy of mass 40 kg sit so as to balance the sea-saw ? [2]
(d) (i) What is meant by the term ‘moment of force’ ?
(ii) If the moment of force is assigned a negative sign then will the turning tendency of
the force be clockwise or anticlockwise ? [2]
(e) A ball is placed on a compressed spring. When the spring is released, the ball is observed
to fly away.
(i) What form of energy does the compressed spring possess ?
(ii) Why does the ball fly away ? [2]
Compressed spring
Answer.
(a) (i) The force with which a mass of 1 kg is attracted towards the centre of the earth, due
to the acceleration due to gravity is called 1 kgf.
(ii) 1 kgf = 1 kg × acceleration due to gravity
= 1 kg × 9.8 ms–2 = 9.8 N
(b) (i) The forces which do act on bodies without being physically touched are called the
non-contact forces.
(ii) The magnitude of non-contact forces acting between the two bodies is inversely
proportional to the square of distance between the mass centres of the two bodies.
Ph- 13 2012
Ph- 14 2012
(c) Let ‘x’ be the distance of 40 kg boy from the middle of see-saw.
\ Moments due to 40 kg boy = Moments due to 30 kg boy
40 kg × x = 30 kg × 2 m
30 kg ´ 2 m
\ x= = 1.5 m
40 kg
(d) (i) The turning effect of a force about a fixed point or a fixed axis is called moment of
force.
(ii) Negative sign of the moment of force implies that turning tendency of the force is in
anticlockwise direction.
(e) (i) The compressed spring possesses potential energy.
(ii) The potential energy of the spring on releasing changes to kinetic energy. It is the
kinetic energy which makes the ball to fly away.
Question 2.
(a) (i) State the energy conversion taking place in a solar cell.
(ii) Give one disadvantage of using a solar cell. [2]
(b) A body of mass 0.2 kg falls from a height of 10 m to a height of 6 m above the ground.
Find the loss in potential energy taking place in the body. [g = 10 ms–2 ] [2]
(c) (i) Define the term refractive index of a medium in terms of velocity of light.
(ii) A ray of light moves from a rare medium to a dense medium as shown in the diagram
below. Write down the number of the ray which represents the partially reflected ray.
[2]
Ray 1
Ray 2
Rare medium
Dense medium
Ray 3
(d) You are provided with a printed piece of paper. Using this paper how will you differentiate
between a convex lens and a concave lens ? [2]
(e) A ray of light incident at an angle of incidence ‘i’ passes through an equilateral glass prism
such that the refracted ray inside the prism is parallel to its base and emerges from the
prism at an angle of emergence ‘e’.
(i) How is the angle of emergence ‘e’ related to the angle of incidence ‘i’ ?
(ii) What can you say about the value of the angle of deviation in such a situation ? [2]
Answer.
(a) (i) In a solar cell, the light energy directly changes to electric energy.
Ph- 15 2012
(ii) Solar cell does not produce electric energy during night or in darkness.
(b) Loss in potential energy = mass × g × loss of height
= 0.2 kg × 10 ms–2 × 4 m = 8 J
(c) (i) Refractive index of a medium is the ratio of velocity of light in vacuum or air to the
velocity of light in a given medium.
(ii) Ray 2, represents partially reflected ray.
(d) Hold each of the lens 5 cm above the printed paper and look for the image. In case of
convex lens the print appears enlarged. However, in case of concave lens, the print appears
diminished.
(e) (i) Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence.
(ii) The angle of deviation is minimum in this particular case.
Question 3.
(a) (i) What is meant by ‘Dispersion of light’ ?
(ii) In the atmosphere which colour of light gets scattered the least ? [2]
(b) Which characteristic of sound will change if there is a change in
(i) its amplitude (ii) its waveform. [2]
(c) (i) Name one factor which affects the frequency of sound emitted due to vibrations in
an air column.
(ii) Name the unit used for measuring the sound level. [2]
(d) An electrical appliance is rated at 1000 kVA, 220V. If the appliance is operated for 2 hours,
calculate the energy consumed by the appliance in :
(i) kWh (ii) joule
(e) Calculate the equivalent resistance between P and Q from the following diagram : [2]
Answer.
(a) (i) The phenomenon due to which white light splits into component colours on passing
through a prism is called dispersion of light.
(ii) Red colour scatters least in the atmosphere.
(b) (i) With the change in amplitude, the loudness of sound changes.
(ii) With the change in waveform the quality of sound changes.
(c) (i) The length of vibrating air column affects its frequency. More the length of vibrating
air column, lesser is its frequency.
(ii) Decibel (dB) is the unit used for measuring sound level.
Ph- 16 2012
(d) (i) Energy consumed in kWh = 1000 kVA × 2h = 2000 kWh.

(ii) Energy consumed in Joules = 1000 × 1000 VA × 2 × 3600 s
= 7,200,000,000 J
(e) Resistance of two 10W resistance in series = 10 + 10 = 20W
\ Equivalent resistance of 20W in parallel with 5W resistance
1 1 1 1+ 4 5 1
R p = 20 + 5 = 20 = 20 = 4 \ Rp = 4W
\ Resistance between P and Q in series = 3W + 4W + 2W = 9W

Question 4.
(a) (i) What is an a.c. generator or Dynamo used for ? [2]
(ii) Name the principle on which it works.
(b) Differentiate between heat capacity and specific heat capacity. [2]
(c) A hot solid of mass 60 g at 100ºC is placed in 150 g of water at 20ºC. The final steady
temperature recorded is 25ºC. Calculate the specific heat capacity of the solid. [Specific
heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg–1 ºC–1 ] [2]
(d) (i) What is the value of the speed of gamma radiations in air or vacuum ?
(ii) Name a material which exhibits fluorescence when cathode rays fall on it. [2]
(e) Give any two important sources of background radiation. [2]
Answer.
(a) (i) Dynamo is used for conversation of mechanical energy into electric energy.
(ii) Principle of A.C. Generator : When a conductor is rotated in a magnetic field, the
magnetic flux linked with it changes and e.m.f. is induced in the coil.
(b) Heat capacity is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a given mass of
substance through 1 K or (1ºC).
Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg (or
1g) of a substance through 1K (1ºC).
(c) msolid × Csolid × qfall = mwater × Cwater× qR
60 150
kg × Csolid × 75ºC = kg × 4200 Jkg–1 ºC–1 × 5ºC
1000 1000
150 ´ 4200 ´ 5 ´ 1000

\ Csolid = J kg–1 ºC–1 = 700 J kg–1 ºC–1
1000 ´ 60 ´ 75
(d) (i) The speed of gamma rays (g) is 3 × 108 ms–1 .
(ii) Zinc sulphide, Barium platinocyanide show fluorescence when cathode rays fall on
it.
(e) (i) The radioactive emissions given out by the earth.
(ii) Sources are K-40, C-14 and Radium contained inside our body.
Ph- 17 2012

(Attempt any four questions from this Section)
Question 5.
(a) (i) Which of the following remains constant in uniform circular motion : Speed or Velocity
or both ?
(ii) Name the force required for uniform circular motion. State its direction ? [3]
(b) (i) State the class of levers and the relative positions of load (L), effort (E) and fulcrum
(F) in each of the following cases.
1. a bottle opener
2. Sugar tongs.
(ii) Why is less effort needed to lift a load over an inclined plane as compared to lifting
the load directly ? [3]
(c) (i) A moving body weighing 400 N possesses 500 J of kinetic energy.
Calculate the velocity with which the body is moving. (g = 10 ms –2 )
(ii) Under what condition will a set of gears produce –
1. a gain in speed
2. a gain in torque. [4]
Answer.
(a) (i) Speed remains constant during uniform circular motion.
(ii) Centripetal force. It is always directed towards the centre of the circular path.
(b) (i) 1. In case of bottle opener the load (L) acts in the middle of metal crown, the
fulcrum (F) at the edge of metal crown and effort (E) at the end of the handle.
It is a lever of second order.
2. Sugar tongs is a lever of third order. The sugar cube at the ends of tongs acts as
load (L), the effort (E) acts in the middle and fulcrum (F) acts at its end.
1 1
(ii) Here, mechanical advantage = Þ sin q =
sin θ Mechanical advantage
If a body rises 1 m vertically, when it moves along the inclined plane by 100 m.
Then sin q = 1/100. Higher the magnitude of the gradient, more difficult, more difficult
is the slop to climb and vice-versa. Thus keeping gradient as low as possible which
helps in using lesser effort for lift a load over inclined plane as compared to lifting the
load directly.
(c) (i) Force acting on body (F) = mg
400 N = m × 100 ms–2
\ Mass of body (m) = 400 N ¸ 10 ms–2 = 40 kg.
1
Kinetic energy of body (KE) = mv 2
2
Ph- 18 2012
1
500 J = × 40 kg v 2
2
500 2 –2
v2 = ms
20
\ v= 25 = 5ms–1
(ii) 1. When the radius of driven wheel is less than the driving wheel.
2. When the radius of driven wheel is more than the driving wheel.
Question 6.
(a) (i) What is meant by the term ‘critical angle’ ?
(ii) How is it related to the refractive index of the medium ?
(iii) Does the depth of a tank of water appear to change or remain the same when viewed
normally from above ? [3]
(b) A ray of light PQ is incident normally on the hypotenuse of a right angled prism ABC as
shown in the diagram given alongside :
A P
B C
(i) Copy the diagram and complete the path of the ray PQ till it emerges from the prism.
(ii) What is the value of the angle of deviation of the ray ?
(iii) Name an instrument where this action of the prism is used. [3]
(c) A converging lens is used to obtain an image of an object placed in front of it.
The inverted image is formed between F2 and 2F2 of the lens.
(i) Where is the object placed ?
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to illustrate the formation of the image obtained. [4]
Answer.
(a) (i) The angle of incidence in a denser medium for which angle of refraction in rarer
medium is 90º is called critical angle.
1
(ii) Refractive index (m) =
sin C
(iii) The depth of tank remains same when viewed normally from above.
Ph- 19 2012
(b) (i) P
A
Q
U
45°
R 45°
T
45°45°
B
S C
(ii) The ray deviates through 180º.
(iii) Binoculars use this action of right angled prism.
(c) (i) The object is anywhere between 2F1 and infinity.
(ii)
A
B O F2 B1 2F
2F1 F1
A1
Converging lens
Question 7.
(a) (i) What is meant by Resonance ?
(ii) State two ways in which Resonance differs from Forced vibrations. [3]
(b) (i) A man standing between two cliffs produces a sound and hears two successive
echoes at intervals of 3 s and 4 s respectively. Calculate the distance between the two
cliffs. The speed of sound in the air is 330 ms –1 .
(ii) Why will an echo not be hears when the distance between the source of sound and
the reflecting surface is 10 m ? [3]
(c) The diagram alongside shows the displacement-time graph for a vibrating body.
(i) Name the type of vibrations produced by the vibrating body.

(ii) Give one example of a body producing such vibrations.
(iii) Why is the amplitude of the wave gradually decreasing ?
(iv) What will happen to the vibrations of the body after some time ?
Ph- 20 2012
Answer.
(a) (i) The phenomenon due to which the natural frequency of a given body corresponds to
the frequency of sound impressed on it, such that it rapidly starts vibrating is called
resonance.
(ii) 1. The resonance takes place only when the natural frequency of a given body is
equal to the frequency of sound impressed on it, whereas during forced vibration
a body is forced to vibrate with the frequency of sound impressed on it.
2. Loud sound is produced during resonance, but not in case of forced vibrations.
v´t 300 ms -1 ´ 7 s
(b) (i) Distance between two cliffs = = = 1155 m.
2 2
(ii) The persistence of sound on ear drum is 1/10 of a second. The echo can be heard if
the minimum distance of the source of sound from the vibrating body is 17 m. As the
distance is only 10 m, therefore, no echo is produced.
(c) (i) Transverse vibrations are produced which are gradually damped.
(ii) A stretched string of a guitar.
(iii) As the energy of wave is dissipated its amplitude decreases.
(iv) The body will stop vibrating.
Question 8.
(a) (i) A cell is sending current in an external circuit. How does the terminal voltage compare
with the e.m.f. of the cell ?
(ii) What is the purpose of using a fuse in an electrical circuit ?
(iii) What are the characteristic properties of fuse wire ? [3]
(b) (i) Write an expression for the electrical energy spent in the flow of current through an
electrical appliance in terms of I, R and t.
(ii) At what voltage is the alternating current supplied to our houses ?
(iii) How should the electric lamps in a building be connected ? [3]
(c) Three resistors are connected to a 6 V battery as shown in the figure given alongside :
Calculate :
(i) the equivalent resistance of the circuit.
(ii) total current in the circuit.
(iii) potential difference across the 7.2 W resistor.
Ph- 21 2012
Answer.
(a) (i) Terminal voltage is slightly less than the e.m.f. of the cell.
(ii) The fuse wire melts and stops the flow of electric current in a given circuit, in case
the circuit is overloaded or short circuited.
(iii) 1. Fuse wire should have low melting point around 200ºC.
2. Fuse wire should have high electrical resistance.
(b) (i) Electrical energy (E) = I2 .R.t.
(ii) Alternating current is supplied at 220V for domestic consumption.
(iii) All lamps should be connected in parallel.
(c) (i) Resistance of 8W and 12W resistors in parallel.
1 1 1 3+ 2 5
R p = 8 + 12 = 24 = 24
24
\ Rp = = 4.8W
5
Equivalent resistance of circuit = Rp + 7.2W = 4.8W + 7.2W = 12W
V 6V
(ii) Current in circuit I = = = 0.5 A.
R 12W
(iii) Potential difference across 7.2W resistor
V = I.R = 0.5 A × 7.2W = 3.60V
Question 9.
(a) (i) Write an expression for the heat energy liberated by a hot body.
(ii) Some heat is provided to a body to raise its temperature by 25ºC.
What will be the corresponding rise in temperature of the body as shown on the
kelvin scale ?
(iii) What happens to the average kinetic energy of the molecules as ice melts at 0ºC ?
[3]
(b) A piece of ice at 0ºC is heated at a constant rate and its temperature recorded at regular
intervals till steam is formed at 100ºC. Draw a temperature – time graph to represent the
change in phase. Label the different parts of your graph. [3]
(c) 40 g of ice at 0ºC is used to bring down the temperature of a certain mass of water at 60ºC
to 10ºC. Find the mass of water used.
[Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg–1 ºC–1 ]
[Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 × 103 J kg–1 ] [4]
Answer.
(a) (i) Heat liberated by a body = mass × sp. heat capacity × fall in temperature
= m × C × qfall
(ii) The rise in temperature on kelvin scale will be 25 K.
Ph- 22 2012
(iii) The average kinetic energy of the molecules remains same.

(b)
D E
100
Temp (ºC)
B C
0°C
A
Time (s)
(c) Heat absorbed by ice to form water at 0ºC = 40 g × 336 Jg–1 = 13440 J.
Heat absorbed by water at 0º to attain temperature of 10ºC = mCqR
= 40 g × 4.2 Jg–1 ºC–1 × 10ºC = 1680 J.
\ Total heat absorbed = (13440 + 1680) J = 15120 J
Heat given out by water at 60ºC = mCqF
= m × 4.2 Jg–1 ºC–1 × 50ºC = 210 m J g–1
Now, Heat given out = Heat absorbed
\ 210 m Jg–1 = 15120 J
15120
\ m= g = 72 g.
210
Question 10.
(a) The diagram alongside shows a current carrying loop or a circular coil passing through a
sheet of cardboard at the points M and N. The sheet of cardboard is sprinkled uniformly
with iron filings.
(i) Copy the diagram and draw an arrow on the circular coil to show the direction of
current flowing through it.
(ii) Draw the pattern of arrangement of the iron filings when current is passed through
the loop. [3]
(b) (i) Draw a simplified labelled diagram of a hot cathode ray tube.
(ii) Name a common device where a hot cathode ray tube is used. [3]
(c) A certain nucleus X has a mass number 14 and atomic number 6. The nucleus X changes
to 7 Y14 after the loss of a particle.
(i) Name the particle emitted.
Ph- 23 2012
(ii) Represent this change in the form of an equation.

(iii) A radioactive substance is oxidized. What change would you expect to take place in
the nature of its radioactivity ? Give a reason for you answer. [4]
Answer.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i)
(ii) Hot cathode ray tube is used in monitors in computers.

(c) (i) The particle emitted is beta particle.
(ii) 6 Y14 + b 7Y
14
(iii) No change will take place in its rate of activity. It is because oxidation is a chemical
change which takes at electron level. It has nothing to do with nucleus of the atom.
(Time : 1 1/2 hours) (M.Marks 80)

Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper,
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Section I (40 Marks)
Attempt all questions from this Section.
Question 1
(a) Give any two effects of a force on a non-rigid body.
Fixed
(b) One end of a spring is kept fixed while the other end F end
is stretched by a force as shown in the diagram.

(i) Copy the diagram and mark on it the direction of the restoring force.
(ii) Name one instrument which works on the above principle. (2)
(c) (i) Where is the centre of gravity of a uniform ring situated ?
(ii) ‘The position of the centre of gravity of a body remains unchanged even when the body
is deformed.’ State whether the statement is true or false. (2)
–1
(d) A force is applied on a body of mass 20 kg moving with a velocity of 40 ms . The body
attains a velocity of 50 ms–1 in 2 seconds. Calculate the work done by the body. (2)
(e) A type of single pulley is very often used as a machine even though it does not give any
gain in mechanical advantage.
(i) Name the type of pulley used.
(ii) For what purpose is such a pulley used ? (2)
Answer.
(a) (i) A force can bring about change in the state of rest or uniform motion of a body.
(ii) A force can change the shape of dimensions of a body.
(b) (i) F Restoring force (ii) Spring balance.
F Fixed
end
(c) (i) The centre of gravity of a uniform ring is its centre. (ii) False
n - u (50 - 40) ms -1
(d) Acceleration of body (a) = = = 5 ms–2
t 2s
Distance covered by body while accelerating,
1 1
S = ut + at2 = 40 × 2 + × 5 × 2 × 2 = 80 + 10 = 90 m
2 2
Force possessed by body, F = m.a = 20 (kg) × 5 ms–2 = 100 N
Ph- 24 2013
Ph- 25 2013
\ Work done by the body, W = F × S = 100 N × 90 m = 9000 J

(e) (i) Single fixed pulley. (ii) It helps in changing the direction of applying efforts.
Question 2.
(a) (i) In what way does an ‘Ideal machine’ differ from a ‘Practical machine’ ?
(ii) Can a simple machine act as a force multiplier and a speed multiplier at the same time?(2)
(b) A girl of mass 35 kg climbs up from the first floor of a building at a height 4 m above
the ground to the third floor at a height 12 m above the ground. What will be the increase
in her gravitational potential energy ? (g = 10 ms–2).
(c) Which class of lever found in the human body is being used by a boy -
(i) when he holds a load on the palm of his hand.
(ii) when he raises the weight of his body on his toes ?
(d) A ray of light is moving from a rarer medium
to a denser medium and strikes a plane mirror
placed at 90o to the direction of the ray as
shown in the diagram.
(i) Copy the diagram and mark arrows to show the path of the ray of light after it is reflected
from the mirror.
(ii) Name the principle you have used to mark the arrows to show the direction of the ray.(2)
(e) (i) The refractive index of glass with respect to air is 1.5. What is the value of the
refractive index of air with respect to glass ?
(ii) A ray of light is incident as a normal ray on the surface of separation of two different
mediums. What is the value of the angle of incidence in this case ? (2)
Answer
(a) (i) An ideal machine is the one whose parts are frictionless as well as weightless, such
that its mechanical advantage is equal to its velocity ratio.
A practical machine is the one whose parts are neither frictionless nor weightless. Furthermore,
its mechanical advantage is always less than its velocity ratio.
(ii) No, it can be either speed multiplier or force multiplier.
(b) Mass of girl (m) = 35 kg
Height gained by girl (h) = (12 – 4) = 8 m
\ Increase in gravitational potential
energy = mgh = 35 (kg) × 10 ms–2 × 8 m Rarer medium
= 2800 J
Denser medium
(c) (i) Lever of third order.
(ii) Lever of second order
90°
(d) (i)
(ii) The principle is the law of reversibility of light Mirror
Ph- 26 2013
1 1 2
(e) (i)
g
ma = = = = 0.67 (Appox.)
a
m g 1 .5 3
(ii) Angle of incidence is zero.
Question 3
(a) A bucket kept under a running tap is getting filled with water. A person sitting at a distance
is able to get an idea when the bucket is about to be filled.
(i) What change takes place in the sound to give this idea ?
(ii) What causes the change in the sound ? (2)
(b) A sound made on the surface of a lake takes 3 s to reach a boatman.
How much time will it take to reach a diver inside the water at the same depth ?
[Velocity of sound in air = 330 ms–1 ; Velocity of sound in water = 1450 ms–1] (2)
(c) Calculate the equivalent resistance between the points A and B for the following combination
of resistors : (2)
(d) You have been provided with a solenoid AB.
A B
(i) What is the polarity at end A ?

(ii) Give one advantage of an electromagnet over a permanent magnet. (2)
(e) (i) Name the device used to protect the electric circuits from overloading and short
circuits.
(ii) On what effect of electricity does the above device work ? (2)
Answer
(a) (i) The sharp pitched sound slowly changes to low pitched sound as the bucket gets filled.
The sound almost dies when the bucket is completely filled.
(ii) As the length of vibrating air column decreases due to the water, the frequency of the
sound changes.
(b) Distance covered by the sound to reach boatman = 330 ms–1 × 3 s = 990 m
\ Distance of diver from the source of sound = 990 m
Ph- 27 2013
990 m 990
\ Time taken by the sound to reach diver = 1450 ms –1 = 145 s = 0.68 s (Appox.).
(c) Resistance of three 4 W resistors in series = 4 × 3 = 12 W

Resistance of three 2 W resistors in series = 2 × 3 = 6 W
\ Equivalent resistance of 12 W , 6 W and 4 W in parallel.
1 1 1 1 1+ 2 + 3 6 1
= + + = = = Þ Rp = 2 W
R p 12 6 4 12 12 2
\ Equivalent resistance of 5 W , 2 W and 6 W in series.

Rs = (5 + 2 + 6) W = 13 W
(d) (i) Polarity at the end A is NORTH.
(ii) An electromagnet’s strength can be increased by increasing the flow of current in the coil,
which is not possible in case of a permanent magnet.
(e) (i) Electric fuse.
(ii) It works on the heating effect of electric current.
Question 4
(a) Define the term ‘Heat capacity’ and state its S.I. unit. (2)
(b) What is meant by Global warming ? (2)
(c) How much heat energy is released when 5 g of water at 20oC changes to ice at 0oC?
[Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 Jg–1 oC–1 ; Specific latent heat of fusion of ice =
336 g–1] (2)
(d) Which of the radioactive radiations -
(i) can cause severe genetical disorders. (ii) are deflected by an electric field ?
(e) A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decays according to the sequence
b a a
X¾
¾® X1 ¾¾® X2 ¾
¾® X3.
If the mass number and atomic number of X3 are 172 and 69 respectively, what is the
mass number and atomic number of X ?
Answer
(a) Heat capacity : The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a given
mass of a substance through 1 K (or 1oC) is called its heat capacity.
S.I. unit of heat capacity is JK–1.
(b) The rise in average temperature of the atmosphere around the earth, due to the trapping
of radiant solar heat due to carbon dioxide and chloroflurocarbons is called global warming.
(c) Heat energy released in cooling water to 0oC = mc q f = 5 ´ 4.2 ´ 20 = 420J
Heat energy released in freezing water = mL = 5 × 336 = 1680 J
\ Total heat energy released = (1680 + 420) J = 2100 J
(d) (i) Gamma radiations (ii) Alpha and beta radiations
+a 176 +a 180 +b 180
(e) 172
69 X 3 ¾¾® 71 X2 ; 176
71 X 2 ¾¾® 73 X1 180
73 X 1 ¾¾® 72 X
Thus, mass number of X is 180 and atomic number 72 ;
Ph- 28 2013
SECTION II (40 Marks)

Attempt any four questions from this Section.
Question 5.
(a) (i) With reference to their direction of action, how does a centripetal force differ from
a centrifugal force ?
(ii) State the Principle of conservation of energy.
(iii) Name the form of energy which a body may possess even when it is not in motion. (3)
(b) A coolie is pushing a box weighing 1500 N up an inclined plane 7.5 m long on to a
platform, 2.5 m above the ground.
(i) Calculate the mechanical advantage of the inclined plane.
(ii) Calculate the effort applied by the coolie.
(iii) In actual practice, the coolie needs to apply more effort than what is calculated. Give one
reason why you think the coolie needs to apply more effort. (3)
(c) A block and tackle system of pulley’s a velocity ratio 4.
(i) Draw a labelled diagram of the system indicating clearly the points of application and
directions of a load and effort.
(ii) What is the value of the mechanical advantage of the given pulley system if it is an ideal
pulley system ? (4)
Answer.
(a) (i) With reference to action, the centripetal force is directed towards the centre of circular
path and the centrifugal force is directed away from the centre of circular path, such that
they are acting opposite to one another.
(ii) Law of conservation of energy : Energy in a system cannot be created, nor it can be
destroyed and the sum total of energy remains constant, no matter it can change its form.
(iii) Potential energy.
(b) (i) For a perfect machnine ;
Mechanical advantage = Velocity ratio
Distance through w hich effort acts 7.5 m
= Distance through w hich load acts = 2.5 m = 3
Load 1500 N Block and tackle system

(ii) Mechanical advantage = \ 3 = with velocity ratio 4
Effort Effort
1500 N
Effort = = 500 N. E
3
(iii) Inclined plane is not a perfect machine. It offers E E E
certain amount of resistance to the load. Thus, in actual
practice coolie has to apply more effort. E
(c) (i) Load = 4T
E= T
\ V.R. = 4
Block and tackle system of pulley having V.R. = 4
Load
(ii) Mechanical advantage will be equal to the number
L
of pulleys engaged in a given pulley system.
Ph- 29 2013
Question 6
(a) Name the radiations :
(i) that are used for photography at night. (ii) used for detection of fracture in bones.
o o
(ii) whose wavelength range is from 100 A to 4000 A (or 10 nm to 400 nm). (3)
(b) (i) Can the absolute refractive index of a medium be less than one ?
(ii) A coin placed at the bottom of a beaker appears to be raised by 4.0 cm.
If the refractive index of water is 4/3, find the depth of the water in the beaker. (3)
(c) An object AB is placed between 2F1 and F1 on the principal axis of a convex lens as
shown in the diagram.
Copy the diagram and using three rays starting from point A, obtain the image of the
object formed by the lens. (4)
Answer
(a) (i) infrared radiation. (ii) X-rays. (iii) Ultraviolet radiation.
(b) (i) No, absolute refractive index of a medium is always greater than 1, as speed of light
in any medium is always less than that in vacuum.
(ii) Let the real depth of water = x
Apparent depth of water = (x – 4) cm.
Real depth 4 x
Now, refractive index of water = Apparent depth Þ 3 = x - 4 or (4x – 16) = 3x
\ Real depth = x = 16 cm
(c)
Question 7.
(a) (i) What is the principle on which SONAR is based.
(ii) An observer stands at a certain distance away from a cliff and produces a loud sound.
He hears the echo of the sound after 1.8 s. Calculate the distance between the cliff and
the observer if the velocity of sound in air is 340 ms–1.
Ph- 30 2013
(b) A vibrating tuning fork is placed over the mouth of a burette filled with water. The tap
of the burette is opened and the water level gradually starts falling. It is found that the
sound from the tuning fork becomes very loud for a particular length of the water column.
(i) Name the phenomenon taking place when this happens.
(ii) Why does the sound become very loud for this length of the water column ? (3)
(c) (i) What is meant by the terms (1) amplitude (2) frequency of a wave ?
(ii) Explain why stringed musical instruments, like the guitar, are provided with a hollow box.
(4)
Answer
(a) (i) Echo depth sounding
Ultrasonic waves have the same speed as of audible sound but are not absorbed in the
medium. So transmitter sends these waves receiver receives the waves back after striking
vt
the rigid obstacle so time taken is recorded. And we can calculate distance d = .
2
Velocity of sound ´ time 340ms –1 ´ 1.8s
(ii) Distance between cliff and source of sound = =
2 2
= 306 m
(b) (i) The phenomenon is called ‘resonance of sound’.
(ii) A some particular length of air column the natural frequency of air column corresponds
the frequency of tuning fork. At this moment the sound waves reinforce to produce loud
sound.
(c) (i) The maximum displacement of vibrating particle about its mean position is called its
amplitude.The number of waves which pass through a point in a medium in one second
is called frequency.
(ii) The air trapped in the hollow box starts vibrating with forced vibrations, thereby producing
lounder sound.
Question 8.
(a) (i) It is observed that the temperature of the surrounding starts falling when the ice in a
frozen lake starts melting. Give a reason for the observation.
(ii) How is the heat capacity of the body related to its specific heat capacity ? (3)
(b) (i) Why does a bottle of soft drink cool faster when surrounded by ice cubes than by ice
cold water, both at 0o C ?
(ii) A certain amount of heat Q will warm 1 g of material X by 3oC and 1 g of material Y
by 4oC. Which material has a higher specific heat capacity.
(c) A calorimeter of mass 50 g and specific heat capacity 0.42 J g–1 oC–1 contains some mass
of water at 20oC. A metal piece of mass 20 g at 100 oC is dropped into the calorimeter.
After stirring, the final temperature of the mixture is found to be 22oC. Find the mass of
water used in the calorimeter.
[specific heat capacity of the metal piece = 0.3 Jg–1 oC–1 ; specific heat capacity of water
= 4.2 Jg–1 oC–1] (4)
Answer
(a) (i) Every kilogram of ice at 0oC on melting to form water at 0oC needs 336 × 103 J of
heat energy as its specific latent heat is 336 × 103J. This heat energy is supplied by the
surrounding of the lake, which in turn results in the fall in temperature.
Ph- 31 2013
Heat capacity of the body

(ii) Specific heat capacity of a body = Mass of the body
(b) (i) Every gram of ice surrounding the soft drink extracts out 336 J of heat energy from
it and the temperature of surrounding the soft drink remains at 0 oC. However, in case of
cold water, it will extract out only 4.2 J of heat energy per gram. Furthermore, the
temperature of surrounding water starts rising. Thus, soft-drink bottle cools better in case
of ice.
(ii) Material X has higher specific heat capacity compared to material Y.
It is because for the mass amount of heat its temperature rises less than Y.
(c) Data
Substance Mass SHC Initial temperature Final temperature = 22 oC
Calorimeter 50 g 0.42 Jg–1 oC–1 20oC q R = (22 – 20) = 2oC
Cold water ? (x) 0.42 Jg–1 oC–1 20oC q R = (22 – 20) = 2oC
Hot metal piece 20 g 0.3 Jg–1 oC–1 100 oC q F = (100 – 22) = 78oC
Heat absorbed by cold water = mc q R = x × 4.2 × 2 = 8.4x
Heat absorbed by calorimeter = mc q R = 50 × 0.42 × 2 = 42
Total heat absorbed = 8.4x + 42.
Heat given out by metal mc q F = 20 × 0.3 × 78 = 468.
By the principle of calorimetry, Total heat absorbed = total heat lost
426
8.4x + 42 = 468 Þ 8.4x = 468 – 42 = 426 Þ x = = 50.7 g
8 .4
Question 9.
(a) (i) State Ohm’s law.
(ii) A metal wire of resistance 6 W is stretched so that its length is increased to twice its
original length. Calculate its new resistance. (3)
(b) (i) An electrical gadget can give an electric shock to its user under certain circumstances.
Mention any two of these circumstances.
(ii) What preventive measure provided in a gadget can protect a person from an electric
shock ?
(c) The figure shows a circuit
When the circuit is switched on, the ammeter reads 0.5 A.

Ph- 32 2013
(i) Calculate the value of the unknown resistor R.

(ii) Calculate the charge passing through the 3 W resistor in 120s.
(iii) Calculate the power dissipated in the 3 W resistor.. (4)
Answer
(a) (i) Ohm’s Law : It states, all physical conditions of a conductor remaining same, the
current flowing through it is directly proportional to the potential difference at its ends.
(ii) Let the original length be (l) and area of cross-section (a), such that its resistance is 6 W .
1 Kl
Applying, R = K Þ 6 = ...(i)
a a
a
When the length 2l, its area of cross-section becomes . If R is the new resistance of
2
conductor then :
2l Kl
R = K =4 ....(ii)
a/2 a
R
Dividing (ii) by (i) =4 \ R = 24 W
6
(b) (i) (1) The electrical gadget may be short circuited i.e., its live or neutral wire is touching
its metallic body directly.
(2) The hands of the user may be wet, such that water dripping from his hands makes contact
with the live wire.
(ii) The body of the electric gadget is connected to the earth terminal by means of earth wire.
In case of short circuit a huge surge of current flows through the earth terminal. This in
turn melts fuse in the live wire and hence the flow or current stops in the gadget.
V 6
(c) (i) I = \ 0.5 =
R R +3
\ 0.5 R + 1.5 = 6 Þ 0.5 R = 4.5 Þ R = 9 W
(ii) Charge Q = I × t = 0.5 × 120 = 60 Coulombs
(iii) Power dissipated in 3 W resistor = I2R = 0.5 × 0.5 × 3 = 0.75 W
Question 10.
(a) Name the three main parts of a Cathode Ray Tube.
(b) (i) What is meant by Radioactivity ? (3)
(ii) What is meant by nuclear waste ? (3)
(iii) Suggest one effective way for the safe disposal of nuclear waste.
(c) (i) Draw a simple labelled diagram of d.c. electric motor.
(ii) What is the function of the split rings in a d.c. motor ?
(iii) State one advantage of a.c. over d.c. (4)
Answer
(a) (i) (1) electron gun (2) Deflecting plates (3) Fluorescent screen
(b) (i) The phenomenon due to the nucleus of certain elements decays on its own, giving out
Ph- 33 2013
harmful radiations, such as a alpha particles, beta particles and gamma radiations is called
radioactivity.
(ii) The residual material left in the nuclear reactors after generating heat energy is called
nuclear waste. The nuclear waste is radioactive and very harmful to the environment.
(iii) The nuclear waste should be stored in stainless steel containers, lined from within with
thick sheets of lead, so that no radioactive rays come out of it. The containers should be
stored in safe and well guarded place, so that they do not fall in the hands of criminal
elements.
(c) (i)
(ii) The split rings alter the direction of current in the coil after every half rotation. This in
turn helps the coil to move in the same direction, i.e., clockwise or anticlockwise direction.
(iii) The alternating current can be easily stepped up or down and can be transmitted over long
distance cable wires. This is not possible in case of direct current.

Time : 2 hours 80 Marks

Question 1.
(a) A force is applied on (i) a non-rigid body and (ii) a rigid body. How does the effect of the
force differ in the above two cases? [2]
(b) A metallic ball is hanging by a string from a fixed support. Draw a neat labelled diagram
showing the forces acting on the ball and the string. [2]
(c) (i) What is the weight of a body placed at the centre of the earth?
(ii) What is the principle of an ideal machine? [2]
(d) Is it possible to have an accelerated motion with a constant speed? Explain. [2]
(e) (i) When does a force do work?
(ii) What is the work done by the moon when it revolves around the earth? [2]
Answer.
(a) (i) When a force applied on a non-rigid body, it changes the interspacing between its
constituent particles and therefore causes a change in its dimensions and can also
produce motion in it.
(ii) When a force is applied on a rigid body, it does not change the interspacing between
its constituent particles and therefore it does not change the dimensions of the object
but causes only the motion in it.
(b) Support
T
T ® Tension in the string
mg ® Weight of the ball
mg
(c) (i) The weight of a body placed at the centre of the earth is zero because value of g = 0
at the center of the earth.
(ii) An ideal machine is that in which there is no dissipation of energy in any manner.
\ Principle of an ideal machine = work done by a machine = work done on the machine /
work output = work input
Ph- 34 2014
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(d) Yes. The velocity of particle in circular motion is variable or the circular motion is accelerated
even though the speed of particle is uniform.
(e) (i) Work is said to be done only when the force applied on a body makes the body moves
i.e., there is displacement of the body.
(ii) The work done by the moon when it revolves around the earth is zero.
Question 2.
(a) Calculate the change in the Kinetic energy of a moving body if its velocity is reduced to
1/3rd of the initial velocity. [2]
(b) State the energy changes in the following devices while in use :
(i) A loud speaker.
(ii) A glowing electric bulb. [2]
(c) (i) What is nuclear energy?
(ii) Name the process used for producing electricity using nuclear energy. [2]
(d) State one important advantage and disadvantage each of using nuclear energy for producing
electricity. [2]
(e) (i) The conversion of part of the energy into an undesirable form is called ............. .
(ii) For a given height h, ............. the length 1 of the inclined plane, lesser will be the
effort required. [2]
Answer.
1
(a) Initial K.E = mv2
2 1 1
1
Change in velocity = of initial velocity
3
2
1 1 ævö
\ Final K.E. = K.E2 = mv2 = × m ç ÷
2 2 è3ø
1 æ v2 ö
= m çç 9 ÷÷
2 è ø
1 æ1 2ö
= ç 2 mv ÷
9 è ø
1
= th of initial K.E.
9
(b) (i) Electrical energy converted to sound energy.
(ii) Electrical energy converted to heat energy and to light energy.
(c) (i) In nuclear fission and fusion there is a loss in mass due to loss in mass energy
released. The energy so released is called the nuclear energy.
Ph- 36 2014
(ii) Nuclear fission.

(d) Advantage : A very small amount of nuclear fuel can produce a tremendous amount of
energy.
Disadvantage : Very harmful nuclear radiations are produced in the process which are
highly energetic and penetrating.
(e) (i) Dissipation of energy. (ii) More.
Question 3.
(a) Draw the diagram given below and clearly show the path taken by the emergent ray. [2]
45°
(b) (i) What is consumed using different electrical appliances, for which electricity bills are
paid?
(ii) Name a common device that uses electromagnets. [2]
(c) (i) A ray of light passes from water to air. How does the speed of light change?
(ii) Which colour of light travels fastest in any medium except air? [2]
(d) Name the factors affecting the critical angle for the pair of media. [2]
(e) (i) Name a prism required for obtaining a spectrum of Ultraviolet light.
(ii) Name the radiations which can be detected by a thermopile. [2]
Answer.
(a)
45° Q
45°
Þ Correct path of the refracted ray shown

Þ Correct path of emergent ray shown
(b) (i) Electrical energy. (ii) Electrical bell (Door Bell) / microphone / Electric motor
(c) (i) Speed of light increases.
(ii) Red colour of light travels fastest in any medium except air.
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(d) Factors affecting the critical angle for the pair of media are :
(i) Wavelength of light
(ii) Effect of temperature of the medium
(iii) Refractive index of the pair of media.
(e) (i) Quartz prism.
(ii) Infrared radiations can be detected by thermopile.
Question 4.
(a) Why is the colour red used as a sign of danger? [2]
(b) (i) What are mechanical waves?
(ii) Name one property of waves that do no change when the wave passes from one
medium to another. [2]
(c) Find the equivalent resistance between points A and B. [2]
3W 4W
3W 5W
A B
6W
3W
(d) 50 g of metal piece at 27 ºC requires 2400 J of heat energy so as to attain a temperature of

327 ºC. Calculate the specific heat capacity of the metal. [2]
(e) An electron emitter must have ............. work function and ............. melting point. [2]
Answer.
(a) Since the wavelength of red light is maximum in the visible light, the light of red colour is
scattered least by the air molecules of the atmosphere and therefore it can reach to a
longer distance and can be seen easily from farthest distance.
(b) (i) The waves which require a medium for their propagation are called elastic or
mechanical waves. These waves travel in the medium though the vibrations of the medium
particles about their mean positions.
(ii) Frequency.
1 1 1 1 3
(c) = + + = =1
R1 3 3 3 3
R1 = 1W
R2 = 5W
1 1 1 3+ 2 5
= + = =
R3 4 6 12 12
Ph- 38 2014
12
R3 = = 2.4W
5
Total R = R1 + R2 + R3 = 1 + 5 + 2.4 = 8.4W.

(d) Given : m = 50g; Dt = 327ºC – 27ºC = 300ºC, Q = 2400 J.
Now, Q = mC Dt
2400 = 50 × C × 300
2400
C= = 0.16 J/g ºC
50 ´ 300
(e) An electron emitter must have low work function and high melting point.

Question 5.
(a) (i) A man having a box on his head, climbs up a slope and another man having an
identical box walks the same distance on a levelled road. Who does more work against
the force of gravity and why?
(ii) Two forces each of 5N act vertically upwards and downwards respectively on the
two ends of a uniform metre rule which is placed at its mid-point as shown in the
diagram. Determine the magnitude of the resultant moment of these forces about the
midpoint. [4]
5N–
50 cm
5N
(b) (i) A body is thrown vertically upwards. Its velocity keeps on decreasing. What happens
to its kinetic energy as its velocity becomes zero?
(ii) Draw a diagram to show how a single pulley can be used so as to have its ideal M.A.
= 2. [3]
(c) Derive a relationship between mechanical advantages, velocity ratio and efficiency of a
machine. [3]
Answer.
(a) (i) Man climbs up a slope does more work against the force of graving whereas the
work done by the man walking on a levelled road is zero because displacement is
normal to the force of gravity.
Ph- 39 2014
(ii) F1 = F2 = 5N, d1 = d2 = 50 cm = 0.5 m

Torque t = F × d
t1 = F1 × d1 = = 5N × 0.5 m
= 2.5 N m (Anti-clockwise)
t2 = F2 × d2 = 5N × 0.5 m
= 2.5 N m (Anti-clockwise)
The resultant moment of force = t1 + t2
= 2.5 + 2.5 = 5N m in Anti clockwise direction.
(b) (i) When a body thrown vertically upward its velocity continuously decreases, kinetic energy
also decrease and potential energy increases due to increase in height.
\ K.E. completely changes to P.E.
(ii) Single Movable Pulley. Rigid Support
T E
T=E
Axle
Frame
Single movable Pulley
L
(c) Let a machine overcome a load L by the application of an effort E. In time t, let the displacement
of effort be dE and the displacement of load be dL.
Work input = Effort × displacement of effort
= E × dE
Work output = Load × displacement of load
= L × dL
Work output
Efficiency =
Work input
L ´ dL L dL
= = ×
E ´ dE E dE
L 1
= ×
E dE / dL
L
But = M.A.
E
Ph- 40 2014
dE
and = V.R.
dL
M.A.
\ Efficiency h = or M.A. = V.R. × h
V.R.
Thus, the mechanical advantage of a machine is equal to the product of its efficiency and
velocity ratio.
Question 6.
(a) (i) Light passes through a rectangular glass slab and through a triangular glass prism. In
what way does the direction of the two emergent beams differ and why?
(ii) Ranbir claims to have obtained an image twice the size of the object with a concave
lens. Is he correct? Give a reason for your answer. [4]
(b) A lens forms an erect, magnified and virtual image of an object.
(i) Name the lens.
(ii) Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the image formation. [3]
(c) (i) Define the power of a lens.
(ii) The lens mentioned in 6(b) above is of focal length 25 cm. Calculate the power of the
lens. [3]
Answer.
(a) (i) In a rectangular glass slab, the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray but they are
not along the same line whereas in a prism the emergent ray is not parallel to incident
ray. Because in a glass block the two surfaces at which refraction occurs is parallel
to each other.
(ii) No. By the concave lens only diminished images are obtained.
(b) (i) Convex lens.
(ii) Object drawn b/w the optical center and the principle focus.
B’
B
2F2
2F1 A’ F1 A O F2
Convex lens
(c) (i) The power of a lens is a measure of deviation produced by it in the path of rays
refracted through it.
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1
(ii) Power of lens (in D) =
Focal length (in metre)
100
=
Focal length (in centimetre)
100
= = 4D.
25
Question 7.
(a) The adjacent diagram shows three different modes of vibrations P, Q and R of the same
string.
(i) Which vibrations will produce a louder sound and why?
(ii) The sound of which string will have maximum shrillness?
(iii) State the ratio of wavelengths of P and R. [4]
(b) A type of electromagnetic wave has wavelength 50 A .

(i) Name the wave.
(ii) What is the speed of the wave in vacuum?
(iii) State one use of this type of wave. [3]
(c) (i) State one important property of waves used for echo depth sounding.
(ii) A radar sends a signal to an aircraft at a distance of 30 km away and receives it back
after 2 × 10–4 second. What is the speed of the signal? [4]
Answer.
(a) (i) R will produce louder sound because its amplitude is more than P and Q.
(ii) The sound of P string will have maximum shrillness.
(iii) The ratio of wavelength of P and R is 1 : 3.
(b) (i) X-Rays. (ii) 3 × 108 m/s.
(iii) X-Rays are used for detection of fracture in bones.
Ph- 42 2014
(c) (i) The ultrasonic waves travel undeviated through long distances and they can be confined
to a narrow beam.
(ii) Distance of aircraft = 30 km = 30 × 1000 m = 30,000 m
Total distance = 2 × 30,000 = 60,000 m
Time taken = 2 × 10–4 second
distance travelled (2d )
Hence, Speed of sound V =
time taken (t )
60,000
= = 30,000 × 104 m/s
2 ´ 10 - 4
= 3 × 108 m/s.
Question 8.
(a) Two resistors of 4W and 6W are connected in parallel to a cell to draw 0.5 A current from
the cell.
(i) Draw a labelled circuit diagram showing the above arrangement.
(ii) Calculate the current in each resistor. [3]
(b) (i) What is an Ohmic resistor?
(ii) Two copper wires are of the same length, but one is thicker than the other.
(1) Which wire will have more resistance?
(2) Which wire will have more specific resistance? [3]
(c) (i) Two sets A and B, of the three bulbs each, are glowing in two separate rooms. When
one of the bulbs in set A is fused, the other two bulbs, alos cease to glow. But in set
B, when one bulb fuses, the other two bulbs continue to glow. Explain why this
phenomenon occurs.
(ii) Why do we prefer arrangement of Set B for house circuiting? [3]
Answer.
(a) (i)
4W
6W
0.5A
r = 0.6 W
1.5 V
(ii) Let current through 4W resistance is i then current through 6W resistance is (0.5 – i)
\ i × 4 = (0.5 – i) × 6
4i = 3 – 6i
Ph- 43 2014
4i + 6i = 3
10i = 3
i = 0.3 A
\ Current through 4W resistance = 0.3 A
and current through 6W resistance = 0.5 – 0.3 = 0.2 A
(b) (i) Ohmic Resistors : The conductors which obey Ohm’s law are called the Ohmic resistors
or linear resistances. For such resistors, a graph plotted for the potential difference V
against current I is a straight line.
(ii) (1) Thin wire will have more resistance because the resistance is inversely proportional
to area of cross-section.
(2) Specific resistance of both wire is same because specific resistance depends upon
the nature of the medium which is the same (copper) in both cases.
(c) (i) The bulbs of set A are connected in series. Therefore when one bulb fuse the current stop
flowing. Whereas the bulbs of set B are connected in parallel. When one bulb fuse then the
current flows through the other bulb.
(ii) Set B prefer parallel combination because in it potential difference remains same.
Question 9.
(a) Heat energy is supplied at a constant rate to 100g of ice at 0 ºC. The ice is converted into
water at 0 ºC in 2 minutes. How much time will be required to raise the temperature of
water from 0 ºC to 20 ºC? [Given : sp. heat capacity of water = 4.2 J g–1 ºC–1 , sp. latent
heat of ice = 336 J g–1 ]. [4]
–1 –1
(b) Specific heat capacity of substance A is 3.8 J g K whereas the Specific heat capacity
of substance B is 0.4 J g–1 K–1 .
(i) Which of the two is a good conductor of heat?
(ii) How is one led to the above conclusion?
(iii) If substances A and B are liquids then which one would be more useful in car radiators?
[3]
(c) (i) State any two measures to minimize the impact of global warming.
(ii) What is the Greenhouse effect? [3]
Answer.
(a) m = 100g, t = 2 minutes = 2 × 60 sec.
Heat energy taken by ice at 0ºC to convert to water at 0ºC.
Q = mL = 100 × 336 = 33600 J
Q 33600
\ P= = = 280 J/S
t 2 ´ 60
The heat energy required to convert water at 0ºC to 20ºC.
Q = mC Dt
= 100 × 4.2 × 20 = 8400 J
Q=P×t
Ph- 44 2014
8400 = 280 × t
8400
t=
280
t = 30 sec. = 0.5 min.
(b) (i) Substance B is a good conductor of heat.
(ii) Because specific capacity of B is less then that of A. [lower the specific heat capacity,
better the conducting power]
(iii) Substance A is more useful in car radiator.
(c) (i) Two measures to minimize the impact of global warming are :
(1) Technological measures
(2) Economic measures
(ii) The green house effect is the phenomenon in which infrared radiations of long wavelength
given out from the surface of the earth are absorbed by its atmospheric gases to keep the
environment warm at the earth’s surface and the lower atmosphere.
Question 10.
(a) (i) Name two factors on which the magnitude of an induced e.m.f. in the secondary coil
depends.
(ii) In the following diagram an arrow shows the motion of the coil towards the bar
magnet.
(1) State in which direction the current flows, A to B or B to A?
(2) Name the law used to come to the conclusion.
Magnet
S N
A B
(b) A nucleus 11 Na 24 emits a beta particle to change into Magnesium (Mg)

(i) Write the symbolic equation for the process.
(ii) What are numbers 24 and 11 called?
24 24
(iii) What is the general name of 12 Mg
with respect to 11 Na
? [3]
(c) In a cathode ray tube state :
(i) The purpose of covering cathode by thorium and carbon.
(ii) The purpose of the fluorescent screen.
(iii) How is it possible to increase the rate of emission of electrons. [3]
Answer.
(a) (i) The magnitude of induced e.m.f. in the secondary coil depends on the following two
factors :
Ph- 45 2014
(1) The change in the magnetic flux, and

(2) The time in which the magnetic flux changes.
(ii) (1) A to B (2) Lenz’s law.
(b) (i) 11 NA24 12 Mg 24 +
–1 e 0
(ii) The number 24 is atomic mass number (number of protons and neutrons) and 11 is
atomic number.
(iii) They are isobars.
(c) (i) The purpose of covering cathode by thorium and carbon is to decrease the work
function or to emit electrons at lower temperature.
(ii) To convert electrical signal into a visual signal.
(iii) By increasing the temperature of cathode or By increasing the filament current, the
rate of emission of electrons from the cathode will increase.
Pages 46 to 57
ICSE QUESTION PAPER-2016 (SOLVED)

PHYSICS
SCIENCE Paper – 3
(One hour and a half)
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper,
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time alloted for writing the answers.
Attempt all questions from Section I and any four questions from Section II.
The intended marks of questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION I (40 Marks)

Attempt all questions from this Section
Question 1
(a)
(i) Give an example of a non contact force which is always of attractive nature.
(ii) How does the magnitude of this non contact force on the two bodies depend on the distance of
separation between them? [2]
(b) A boy weighing 40 kgf climbs up a stair of 30 steps each 20 cm high in 4 minutes and a girl
weighing 30 kgf does the same in 3 minutes. Compare:
(i) The work done by them.
(ii) The power developed by them. [2]
(c) With reference to the terms Mechanical Advantage, Velocity Ratio and efficiency of a machine,
name and define the term that will not change for machine of a given design. [2]
(d) Calculate the mass of ice required to lower the temperature of 300 g of water 40 oC to water at
0oC. [2]
o
(Specific latent heat of ice = 336 J/g, Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2J/g C)
(e) What do you understand by the following statements:
(i) The heat capacity of the body is 60JK-1.
(ii) The specific heat capacity of lead is 130 Jkg-1K-1. [2]
Answer: (a)
(i) The example of non-contact force is gravitational force. It is always attractive in nature.
(ii) The magnitude of non-contact forces acting on two bodies depends on the distance of separation
between them. The magnitude of force decreases with an increase in separation and increases as
the separation decreases. It varies inversely as the square of the distance of separation.
(b) Given:
Force of gravity of the boy, Fb = 40 kgf
Time taken by him, tb = 4 minutes = 4 × 60 s = 240 s
Force of gravity of the girl, Fg = 30 kgf
Time taken by her, tg = 3 minutes = 3 × 60 s = 180 s
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Ph- 61 2016
Distance covered by both in 30 steps is

D = 30 × 20 = 600 cm
While climbing, both have to do work against the force of gravity.
(i) Work done by the boy in climbing the stairs:
Wb = F × D = 40 kgf × 600 cm
Wb = 24000 J
Work done by the girl in climbing the stairs:
Wg = F × D = 30 kgf × 600 cm
Wg = 18000 J
Wb 24000J
® =
Wg 18000J
Wb 4
\ =
Wg 3
Work done
(ii) Power developed =
Time taken
For the boy :
24000 J
Power Developed = = 100W
240 s
For the girl :
18000 J
Power Developed = = 100W
180 s
Thus, power developed by them is 1 : 1
Or
(i) Work done by the boy = 40 × 10 × 6 = 2400 J
Work done by the girl = 30 × 10 × 6 = 9800 J
\ Ratio = 2400 : 1800 = 4 : 3
2400
(ii) Power of boy = = 10 watt
4 ´ 60
2400
Power of girl = = 10 watt
3 ´ 60
\ Ratio = 1 : 1
(c) Velocity ratio.
It is the ratio of the velocity of effort to the velocity of load.
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VE
V.R. = V .
L
Velocity ratio does not change.
(d) Let m be the mass of the ice to be added.
Heat energy required to melt to lower the temperature is = mL = m × 336
Heat energy imparted by the water in fall of its temperature from 40°C to 0°C = mass of the water
× specific heat capacity × fall in temperature.
= 300 × 4.2 × 40°C
If there is no loss of heat,
m × 336 J/g = 300 g × 4.2 J/g°C × 40°C
300 × 4.2 × 40
∴ m= 336
∴ m = 150g
(e)
(i) Heat capacity is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a body by 1°C or 1 K.
Thus, 60 JK–1 of energy is required to raise the temperature of the given body by 1 K.
(ii) Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of unit mass
of a substance through 1°C or 1K. Thus, 130 JKg–1 K–1 of heat energy required to raise the
temperature of unit mass of lead through 1 K.
Question 2
(a) State two factors upon which the heat absorbed by a body depends. [2]
(b) A boy uses blue colour of light to find the refractive index of glass. He then repeats the experiment
using red colour of light. Will the refractive index be the same or different in the two cases? Give
a reason to support your answer. [2]
A
(c) Copy the diagram given below and complete the path of the light ray
till it emerges out of the prism. The critical angle of glass is 42°. In 60°
your diagram mark the angles wherever necessary. [2]
P
(d) State the dependence of angle of deviation:
Q
(i) On the refractive index of the material of the prism. 60° 60°
(ii) On the wavelength of light [2] B C
(e) The ratio of amplitude of two waves is 3:4. What is the ratio of their:
(i) loudness?
(ii) Frequencies? [2]
Answer :
(a) Heat absorbed by a body depends on the mass of the body, change in temperature of the body and
the specific heat capacity of the body.
(b) The refractive index will be different in both cases.
Refractive index of glass is different for different colours. The speed of blue light is less than the
speed of red light. So, the wavelength of blue light is less than that of red light. Thus, red light
would deviate less than blue light because of difference in wavelength.
Ph- 63 2016
(c) The diagram is as shown :
(d)
(i) Angle of deviation is directly proportional to the refractive index of the material of prism. For a
given angle of incidence, the prism with higher refractive index produces a greater deviation than
the prism which has a lower refractive index. Thus, the angle of deviation increases with an
increase in the refractive index of the medium.
(ii) Angle of deviation is inversely propotional to the wavelength of the light used. The angle of
deviation decreases with an increase in the wavelength of light. Thus, a prism deviates violet light
the most and red light the least.
(e)
(i) Let a1 and a2 be the amplitudes and I1 and I2 be the intensities of the two waves.
I1 a12 32
∴ I = 2 = 2
2 a2 4
I1 9
∴ I = 16 Þ I1 : I1 = 9 : 16
2
(ii) Frequency is the number of waves formed per second. It only depends on time period. Thus, the
ratio of their frequencies is 1:1.
Question 3
(a) State two ways by which the frequency of transverse vibrations of a stretch string can be increased.
[2]
(b) What is meant by noise pollution? Name one source of sound causing noise pollution. [2]
(c) The V-I graph for a series combination and for a parallel combination of two resistors is shown in
the figure below. Which of the two A or B. represents the parallel combination? Give reasons for
your answer. [2]
Ph- 64 2016
(d) A music system draws a current of 400 mA when connected to a 12 V battery. [2]
(i) What is the resistance of the music system?
(ii) The music system if left playing for several hours and finally the battery voltage drops to 320 mA
and the music system stops playing when the current.
(e) Calculate the quantity of heat produced in a 20 W resistor carrying 2.5 A current in 5 minutes.
[2]
Answer :
(a) The frequency of transverse vibration is given by
1 T
f=
2l πr 2d
1 T
or f =
2l m
where l = length of the vibrating string
T = tension in the string
m = mass per unit length of the string
Therefore, the frequency of transverse vibration of a stretched string can be increased by
(i) decreasing the length of the string
(ii) decreasing the mass per unit length of the string
(iii) increasing the tension T in the string
(b) The disturbance produced in the environment because of undesirable loud and harsh sound of
level more than 120 dB from the various sources such as a loudspeaker and moving vehicles is
called noise pollution.
Ex : Honking of vehicles in traffic jams.
(c) For the same change in I, change in V is less for the straight line A than for the straight line B (i.e.
the straight line A is less steep than B). The straight line A represents small resistance, while the
straight line B represents more resistance. The equivalent resistance is less in a parallel combination
than in a series combination. So, line A represents a parallel combination.
(d)
(i) Given : I = 400 mA = 400 × 10–3 A
V = 12 V
V = IR
V 12V
∴ R= I =
400×10-3A
∴ R = 30 Ω
(ii) Current drops to I = 320 mA = 320 × 10–3 A
The music stops playing at
V = IR
= 320 × 10–3 × 30
∴ V = 9.6 V
Ph- 65 2016
(e) Given : R = 20 Ω , I = 2.5 A
t = 5 minutes = 5 × 60 = 300 s
Quantity of heat produced is given as
H = I2Rt
= (2.5)2 × 20 × 300
∴ H = 37500 J
Question 4
(a) State the characteristics required of a good thermion emitter. [2]
(b) An element ZS decays to 85R after emitting 2 a particles and 1 b particle. Find the atomic
A 222
number and atomic mass of the element S. [2]

(c) A radioactive substance is oxidized. Will there be any change in the nature of its radioactivity?
Give a reason for your answer. [2]
(d) State the characteristics required in a material to be used as an effective fuse wire. [2]
(e) Which coil of a step up transformer is made thicker and why? [2]
Answer :
(a) Two characteristic which a thermionic emitter should possess are
1. The work function of the substance should be low such that the electrons are emitted from it even
when it is not heated to a very high temperature.
2. The melting point of the substance should be quite high so that it may not melt when it is heated
to the temperature required for thermionic emission.
(b) The decay will follow the following sequence
SA α A– 4 α A– 8 β A– 8
Z → z– 2 P  → z– 4 Q  → z– 3 R
Therefore, we have
Z – 3 = 85 or Z = 85 + 3 = 88
And A – 8 = 222 or A = 222 + 8 = 230
Z = 88, A = 230
(c) No, radioactivity is not affected by any physical process.
(d) The material should have high resistivity and low melting point.
(e) Primary coil, as it has lesser number of turns.
Question 5
(a) A stone of mass ‘m’ is rotated in a circular path with a uniform speed by tying a strong string with
the help of your hand. Answer the following questions : (3)
(i) Is the stone moving with a uniform or variable speed ?
(ii) Is the stone moving with a uniform acceleration ? In which direction does the acceleration act?
(iii) What kind of force acts on the hand and state its direction ?
(b) From the diagram given below. answer the question that follow : (3)
Ph- 66 2016
T B
T T
A C
(i) What kind of pulleys are A and B ?

(ii) State the purpose of pulley B.
(iii) What effort has to be applied at C just raise the load L = 20 kgf ?
(Neglect the weight of pulley A and friction)
(c)
(i) An effort is applied on the bigger wheel of a gear having 32 teeth. It is used to turn a wheel of 8
teeth. Where it is used.
(ii) A pulley system has three pulleys. A load of 120 N is overcome by applying an effort of 50 N.
Calculate the Mechanical Advantage and Efficiency of this system. (4)
Answer :
(a)
(i) The stone is moving with uniform speed as given in the question.
(ii) Although the stone is rotating with uniform speed, its direction keeps on acceleration. The direction
of acceleration is towards the centre of the circular path.
(iii) Centrifugal force acting radially outwards.
(b)
(i) The pulley A is a single movable pulley and B is a single fixed pulley.
(ii) So as to apply the effort in a convinient direction that is vertically downwards.
(iii) Distance moved by load dL = x / 2.
Distance moved by the effort dE = x
Load = 20 kgf, Effort = ?
Now, Load × dL = Effort × dE
20 × x / 2 = Effort × x
or Effort = 10 kgf
(c)
(i) The number of teeth in the driving wheel is nB = 32 and that in the driven wheel is nA = 8. Hence,
this system is used to obtain gain in speed.
n B 32
Gain in speed = n = 8 =4
A
(ii) Load = 120 N; E = 50 N; n = 3
Mechanical advantage of pulley system is
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L 120
M.A. = = = 2.4
E 50
The efficiency of the system is
M.A 2.4 2.4
η = = = =0.8=80%
V.A n 3
Question 6.
(a)
(i) What is the principle of method of mixtures ? (3)
(ii) What is the other name given to it ?
(iii) Name the law on which the principle is based
(b) Some ice is heated at a constant rate, and its temperature is recorded after every few seconds, till
steam is formed at 100°C. Draw a temperature time graph to represent the change. Label the two
phase changes in your graph. (3)
(c) A copper vessel of mass 100 g contains 150 g of water at 50°C. How much ice is needed to cool
it to 5°C ? (4)
Given : Specific heat capacity of copper = 0.4 Jg–1 °C–1
Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 Jg–1 °C–1
Specific latent heat of fusion ice = 336 Jg–1
Answer :
(a)
(i) The principle of method of mixture says that the heat lost by a hot body is equal to the heat gained
by a cold body provided no heat is last to the surroundings.
(ii) The other name given to the principle of mixture is the principle of calorimetry.
(iii) The principle of mixture is based on the law of conservation of energy.
(b) The figure for phase change is shown below :
Vaporization
100°C
temp
0°C Melting time
Correct graph (Axes and Shape)

Melting marked
Vaporization marked
(c) Heat energy lost by the vessel and water contained in it in cooling the water from 50°C to 5°C is
used in heating ice to melt it and then to raise its temperature from 0°C to 5°C.
Now, heat energy lost by the copper vessel is
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QC = mCCC ∆ t = 100 × 0.4 × (50 – 5) = 100 × 0.4 × 45
QC = 1800 J
Similarly, heat energy lost by water is = 150 × 4.2 × 45
QW = mWCW ∆ t = 150 × 4.2 × (50 – 5)
QW = 28350 J
Hence, the total heat energy lost is
QL = 1800 + 28350 = 30150 J
Let m g of ice be used to cool water. So, heat gained by ice is
QI = mLice + mcW ∆ t
QI = 336 m + m × 4.2 × 5 = 336m + 21m = 357 J
Therefore, from the principle of calorimetry, the mass of ice is
QL = Q I
∴ 357m = 30150
30150
∴ m= 357
= 84.45 g
Question 7.
(a) (3)
(i) Write a relationship between angle of incidence and angle of refractions for a given pair of media.
(ii) When a ray of light enters from one medium to another having different optical densities it bends.
Why does this pehnomenon occur ?
(iii) Write one conditions where it does not bend when entering a medium of different optical density.
(b) A lens produces a virtual image between the object and the lens. (3)
(i) Name the lens.
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of this image.
(c) What do you understand by the term ‘Scattering of light’ ? Which colour of white light is scattered
the least and why ? (4)
Answer : (a)
(i) The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is constant for
sini
a given pair of media called the refractive index = =μ
sin r
(ii) When a ray of light enters from one medium to another with different optical densities, it bends
because there is a change in the speed of light in the two medium.
(iii) A ray of light passing from one medium to another does not bend when incident normally at the
surface of the second medium.
(b)
(i) The image formed by the lens is virtual and between the object and the lens. Hence, the lens used
is a concave lens.
(ii) The following image is of formation of the above image :
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B
B1
2F2 A F2 A1 O
(c) Scattering is the process of absorption and then re-emission of light energy without the change in
the wavelength.
The red colour of the white light is scattered the least because scattering of light depends inversely
upon the four power of wavelength. As red colour has the maximum wavelength in the visible
region, therefore, it scattered the least.
Question 8.
(a) (3)
(i) Name the waves used for echo depth sounding.
(ii) Give one reason for their use for the above purpose.
(iii) Why are the waves mentioned by you not audible to us ?
(b) (3)
(i) What is an echo
(ii) State two conditions for an echo to take place.
(c)
(i) Name the phenomenon involved in tuning a radio set to a particular station.
(ii) Define the phenomenon named by you in part (i) above.
(iii) What do you understand by loudness of sound ?
(iv) In which units is the loudness of sound measured ?
Answer :
(a)
(i) The waves used for echo depth sounding are ultrasonic waves.
(ii) Ultrasonic waves are used for echo depth ranging because they can travel undeviated through a
long distance.
(iii) Ultrasonic waves have frequency larger than 20000 Hz. Hence, these waves are not audible to us
as the audible range for the human ear is 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.
(b)
(i) The sound heard after reflection from a distant obstacle after the original sound has ceased is
called an echo.
(ii) The conditions for an echo to take place are
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a. The minimum distance between the source of sound and the reflector in air must be at least
present 16 to 18 m.
b. The size of the reflector must be large enough as compared to the wavelength of sound wave.
(c)
(i) The phenomenon involved in tuning a radio set to a particular station is called resonance.
(ii) Resonance : When the frequency of an externally applied periodic force on a body is equal to its
natural frequency, the body readily begins to vibrate with an increased amplitude. This phenomenon
is known as resonance.
(iii) Loudness is the property by virtue of which a loud sound can be distinguished from a faint one,
both having the same pitch and quality.
(iv) The loudness of sound is measured in phon / db / bel.
Question 9.
(a) (3)
(i) Which particles are responsible for current in conductors ?
(ii) To which wire of a cable in a power circuit should the metal case of a geyser be connected ?
(b) (3)
(i) Name the transformer used in the power transmitting station of a power plant.
(ii) What type of current is transmitted from the power station ? 12 V
(iii) At what voltage is this current available to our household ?
2W
(c) A battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance 2 W is
connected with two resistors A and B of resistance 4 W and
6 W respectively joined in series. (4)
Find : A B
(i) Current in the circuit
4W 6W
(ii) The terminal voltage of the cell.
(iii) The potential difference across 6 W Resistor.
(iv) Electrical energy spent per minute in 4 W resistor.
Answer :
(a)
(i) Electrons are responsible for current in conductors.
(ii) The metal case of a geyser should be connected to the Earth wire.
(iii) The fuse should always be connected to the live wire.
(b)
(i) A step-up transformer is used in the power transmitting station of a power plant.
(ii) An alternating current is transmitted from the power station.
(iii) The current is available to our household at a voltage of 220 V.
(c) E = 12 V ; r1 = 2 W; RA = 4 W; RB = 6 W
(i) The current in the circuit is
E E
I= R =
total R1 + R A + R B
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12
∴ I = 2 + 4 + 6 = 1A
(ii) The terminal voltage of the cell is

T.V. = IR
T.V. = 1 × (6 + 4)
T.V. = 10 V
(iii) The potential difference across the 6 Ω resistor is
VB = IRB
∴ VB = 1 × 6 = 6 V
(iv) The electrical energy spent per minute (= 60s) is
W = I2Rt
W = 12 × 4 × 60 = 240 J
Question 10.
(a) Arrange α , β , and γ rays in ascending order with respect to their (3)
(i) Penetrating power.
(ii) Ionising power.
(iii) Biological effect.
(b) (3)
(i) In a cathode ray tube what is the function of anode ?
(ii) State the energy conversion taking place in a cathode ray tube.
(iii) Write one use of cathode ray tube.
(c) (3)
(i) Represent the change in the nucleus of a radioactive element when a β particle is emitted.
(ii) What is the name given to elements with same mass number and different atomic number.
(iii) Under which conditions does the nucleus of an atom tend to radioactive ?
Answer :
(a)
(i) Penetrating power : α < β < γ
(ii) Ionising power : γ < β < α
(iii) Biological effect = α < β < γ
(b)
(i) In a cathode ray tube, the anode accelerates the electrons and also focuses them in a fine energetic
beam.
(ii) In a cathode ray tube, electrical energy is converted into heat and than light energy.
(iii) A cathode ray tube is used to investigate the wave form of an unknown alternating potential by
applying it on the Y-plates and a known periodic time-based potential on the X-plates or picture
tube of T.V.
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(c)
(i) In an unstable nucleus, the neutron is changed into a proton by emitting a beta particle. This is
represented as
0
0 n → 1p +
1 1
–1 e
(neutron) (proton) (β -particle)
(ii) Elements with the same mass number but different atomic numbers are called isobars.
(iii) The nucleus of an atom tends to be radioactive when
— nucleus has more mass
— nucleus has excess energy
— neutrons proton ratio becomes more than 1.3 to 1.5.

SCIENCE
Paper–I (PHYSICS)
(One hour and a half hours)
You will NOT be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.

(Attempt all questions from this Section)
Question 1.
(a) A brass ball is hanging from a stiff cotton thread. Draw a neat labelled diagram showing the
forces acting on the brass ball and the cotton thread. (2)
(b) The distance between two bodies is doubled. How is the magnitude of gravitational force
between them affected? (2)
(c) Why is a jack screw provided with a long arm? (2)
(d) If the power of a motor be 100 kW, at what speed can it raise a load of 50,000 N? (2)
(e) Which class of level will always have MA > 1 and why? (2)
Answer 1.
(a) Support
Tension
(T)
Weight, (W)
(b) The magnitude of gravitational force between two bodies is inversely proportional to the square
of the distance between them.
1
G.F. µ
r2
\ As the distance is doubled, the force will become one fourth of the initial force.
(c) Increase in torque arm, increases the moment of force, so lesser effort is required for turming
(d) P = 100kW
\ P = 100 × 1000W, F = 50000N
\ Power = Force × Velocity
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\ 100000 = 50000 × V
\ V = 2 ms–1
(e) Class II lever.
Effort arm
Mechanical advantage =
Load arm
In a class II lever, the effort arm is always longer than the load arm, hence its MA > 1.
Question 2.
(a) Define heat capacity and state its SI unit. (2)
(b) Why is the base of a cooking pan generally made thick? (2)
(c) A solid of mass 50 g at 150°C is placed in 100 g of water at 11°C, when the final temperature
recorded is 20°C. Find the specific heat capacity of the solid.
(Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g°C)
(d) How is the refractive index of a material related to :
(i) real and apparent depth?
(ii) velocity of light in vacuum or air and the velocity of light in a given medium? (2)
(e) State the conditions required for total internal reflection of light to take place. (2)
Answer 2.
(a) Heat capacity of a body is the heat energy required to raise the temperature of the body by 1°C.
Its S.I. unit is Jk–1.
(b) The base is thick hence the mass of the base is more.
This increases the heat capacity which enables the pan to hold a large amount of heat energy at a
low temperature. The food is cooked properly and remains warm for a long time.
(c) Heat lost by solid = Heat gained by water
(MCDt)Solid = (MCDt)Water
\ 50 × C × (150 – 20) = 100 × 4.2 × (20 – 11)
100 ´ 4.2 ´ 9
C=
50 ´ 130
\ C = 0.582 Jg–1°C–1
Real depth
(d) (i) Refractive Index =
Apparent depth
Velocity of light in air or vacuum

(ii) Refractive Index =
Velocity of light in given medium
(e) (i) The ray of light must travel from denser medium to rarer medium.
(ii) The angle of incidence should be greater than the critical angle.
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Question 3.
(a) Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of a monochromatic ray through a prism when it
suffers minimum deviation. (2)
(b) The human ear can detect continuous sounds in the frequency range from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.
Assuming that the speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1 for all frequencies, calculate the wavelengths
corresponding to the given extreme frequencies of the audible range. (2)
(c) An enemy plane is at a distance of 300 km from a radar. In how much time will the radar be able
to detect the plane? Take velocity of radiowaves as 3 × 108 ms–1. (2)
(d) How is the frequency of a stretched string related to :
(i) its length?
(ii) its tension? (2)
(e) Define specific resistance and state its SI unit. (2)
Answer 3.
(a) A
A
D
i e
B C
Ði = Ðe
(b) V = 330 ms–1, f = 20 Hz
\ V=fl
\ 330 = 20 × l
330
l=
20
lhighest = 16.5 m
V = 330 Hz, f = 20,000 Hz
\ V=fl
330
\ =l
20000
\ llowest = 0.0165 m = 1.65 × 10–2 m
\ Range of wavelength from 20 Hz to 20000 Hz is 16.5 m to 1.65 × 10–2 m.
(c) D = 300 km = 300000 m
V = 3 × 108 ms–1
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2D
\ S=
T
2 ´ 300000
\ 3 × 108 =
T
2 ´ 300000
\ T= = 2 × 10–3 s
3 ´108
1
(d) (i) Frequency of a stretched string is inversely proportional to its length. Þ f µ
l
(ii) Frequency of a stretched string is directly proportional to its tension. Þ f µ T

(e) Specific resistance of a conductor is the resistance of unit length of the conductor and of unit
area of cross section.
Its SI unit is W m.
Question 4.
(a) An electric bulb of resistance 500 W draws a current of 0.4 A. Calculate the power of the bulb
and the potential difference at its end.
(b) State two causes of energy loss in a transformer.
(c) State two characteristics of a good thermion emitter.
(d) State two factors upon which the rate of emission of thermions depends.
(e) When does the nucleus of an atom tend to be radioactive?
Answer 4.
(a) R = 500 W I = 0.4 A
P= I2R = (0.4)2 × 500 = 80
\ P = 80 W
\ P = VI
\ 80 = V × 0.4
80
\ V=
0.4
V = 200 V
(b) (i) Formation of Eddy currents—the changing magnetic field induces current in the soft-iron
core.
(ii) Resistance of primary or secondary coil.
(iii) Hysteresis—magnetisation of the core is reversed.
(c) (i) Low work function.
(ii) High melting point.
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(d) (i) Nature of the surface.

(ii) Temperature of the surface.
(e) (i) When the number of neutrons is greater than the number of protons in the nucleus.
(ii) When the atomic number of an element is more than 82.

Question 5.
(a) A uniform half-metre rule balances horizontally on a knife edge at the 29 cm mark when a weight
of 20 gf is suspended from one end.
(i) Draw a diagram of the arrangement.
(ii) What is the weight of the half-metre rule? (3)
(b) (i) A boy uses a single fixed pulley to lift a load of 50 kgf to some height. Another boy uses a
single movable pulley to lift the same load to the same height. Compare the efforts applied by
them. Give a reason to support your answer.
(ii) How does uniform circular motion differ from uniform linear motion?
(iii) Name the process used for producing electricity using nuclear energy. (3)
(c) A pulley system with VR = 4 is used to lift a load of 175 kgf through a vertical height of 15 m.
The effort required is 50 kgf in the downward direction (g = 10 N kg–1).
(i) Distance moved by the effort.
(ii) Work done by the effort.
(iii) MA of the pulley system.
(iv) Efficiency of the pulley system. (4)
Answer 5.
(a) (i) 0 25 29 50
W gf
(ii) By principle of moments

Anticlockwise moment = clockwise moment
\ f1d1 = f2d2
\ W × 4 = 20 × 21
\ W × 105 gf
\ Weight of the rule = 105 gf
(b) For a single fixed pulley, MA = 1
(i) \ Load = Effort \ Effort = 50 kgf
For a single movable pulley, MA = 2
Load
\ MA =
Effort
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50
\ =2
Effort
\ Effort = 25 kgf
Effort applied using a single fixed pulley 50
\ = =2:1
Effort applied using a single movable pulley 25
Effort applied by the boy using a single fixed pulley is twice the effort used by the boy using
a single movable pulley.
(ii) Uniform circular motion has variable velocity and hence variable acceleration. Uniform linear
motion has constant velocity and no acceleration and \ is un accelerated motion.
(iii) Nuclear fission.
dE
(c) (i) Velocity ratio = VR =
dL
dE
\ 4=
15
\ dE = 60 m
(ii) Work done by effort = Effort E × Distance dE
E = 50 kgf = 50 × 10 = 500 N
\ Work done by effort = 500 N × 60 m = 30000 J
L 175
(iii) MA = = = 3.5
E 50
MA 3.5
(iv) Efficiency = × 100% = × 100% = 87.5%
VR 4
Question 6.
(a) (i) How is the transference of heat energy by radiation prevented in a calorimeter?
(ii) You have a choice of three metals, A, B and C, of specific heat capacities 900 Jkg–1°C–1,
380 Jkg–1°C–1 and 460 Jkg–1°C–1 respectively, to make a calorimeter. Which material will
you select? Justify your answer? (3)
(b) Calculate the mass of ice needed to cool 150 g of water contained in a calorimeter of mass 50 g
at 30°C such that the final temperature is 5°C. (3)
Specific heat capacity of calorimeter 0.4 J/g°C
Specific heat capacity of water 4.2 J/g°C
Latent heat capacity of ice 330 J/g
(c) (i) Name the radiations which are absorbed by greenhouse gases in the earth's atmosphere.
(ii) A radiation X is focused by a particular device on the bulb of a thermometer and mercury in
the thermometer shows a rapid increase. Name the radiation X.
(iii) Name two factors on which the heat energy liberated by a body depends. (4)
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Answer 6.
(a) (i) The outer and inner surfaces of the calorimeter are polished to reduce loss of heat due to
radiation.
(ii) Metal B, since metal B has lowest specific heat capacity among the three. So the amount of
heat energy taken by the calorimeter from its contents to acquire the temperature of its
contents is negligible.
(b) Heat gained by ice = mL + mc DT
= m(330 + 4.2 × 5) = 351 mJ
Heat given out by water and calorimeter = (150 × 4.2 + 50 × .4) × (32 – 5) = 17550 J
17550
Mass of ice = = 50 g
351
(c) (i) Infrared radiations of loy wavelength.
(ii) Infrared radiations.
(iii) Mass, specific heat capacity.
Question 7.
(a) A lens forms an upright and diminished image of an object when the object is placed at the focal
point of the given lens.
(i) Name the lens.
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation. (3)
(b) A ray of light travels from water to air as shown in the diagram given below :
Air
Water
°
48
1=
Ð
(i) Copy the diagram and complete the path of the ray. Given that the critical angle for water is
48°.
(ii) State the condition so that total internal reflection occurs in the above diagram. (3)
(c) The diagram below shows a point source P inside a water container. Four rays A, B, C, D starting
from the source P are shown up to the water surface.
Air
C 48°
B D
A Water
P
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(i) Show in the diagram the path of these rays after striking the water surface. The critical angle
for water-air surface is 48°.
(ii) Name the phenomenon which the rays B and D exhibit. (4)
Answer 7.
(a) (i) Concave lens.
(ii)
B
B¢
O
A F1 A¢ F2
Image is between F and O. It is virtual, erect and diminished.
(b) (i)
Air
Water
48°
(ii) (1) The ray of light must travel from denser medium to rarer medium.
(2) The angle of incidence should be greater than the critical angle.
(c) (i)
Air
B C 48° i r
A D
Water
(ii) Ray B exhibits refraction of light.

Ray D exhibits total internal reflection of light.
Question 8.
(a) Name the factor that determines : (3)
(i) Loudness of the sound heard.
(ii) Quality of the note.
(iii) Pitch of the note.
(b) (i) What are damped vibrations? (3)
(ii) Give one example of damped vibrations.
(iii) Name the phenomenon that causes a loud sound when the stem of a vibrating tuning fork is
kept pressed on the surface of a table.
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(c) (i) A wire of length 80 cm has a frequency of 256 Hz. Calculate that length of a similar wire
under similar tension, which will have a frequency of 1024 Hz. (4)
(ii) A certain sound has a frequency of 256 hertz and a wavelength of 1.3 m.
(1) Calculate the speed with which this sound travels.
(2) What difference would be felt by a listener between the above sound and another sound
travelling at the same speed, but of wavelength 2.6 m?
Answer 8.
(a) (i) Amplitude
(ii) Waveform
(iii) Frequency
(b) (i) The periodic vibrations of a body of decreasing amplitude in presence of a resistive force are
called damped vibrations.
(ii) Oscillations of a simple pendulum in air. A tuning fork when struck on a rubber pad.
(iii) Resonance
1
(c) (i) Length of wire µ
Frequency
f1 l2
=
f 2 l1
\ L1 f1 = L2 f2
\ 80 cm × 256 Hz = L2 × 1024 Hz \ L2 = 20 cm
\ Length of the wire = 20 cm.
(ii) (1) V = f l = 256 × 1.3 = 332.8 ms–1
(2) As V = f l \ 332.8 = f × 2.6
\ f = 128 Hz.
Since the frequency of this sound is half of the first one the listener would feel the sound to
be less shrill or flat.
Question 9.
(a) (i) Name the colour code of the wire which has connected to the metallic body of an appliance.
(ii) Draw the diagram of a dual control switch when the appliance is switched 'ON'. (3)
(b) (i) Which particles are responsible for current in conductors?
(ii) To which wire of a cable in a power circuit should the metal case of a geyser be connected?
(iii) To which wire should the fuse be connected? (3)
(c) (i) Explain the meaning of the statement 'current rating of a fuse is 5A'.
(ii) In the transmission of power the voltage of power generated at the generating stations is
stepped up from 11 kV to 132 kV before it is transmitted. Why? (4)
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Answer 9.
(a) (i) Green or yellow.
(ii) Load
N
a a Supply
S1 S2 b L
b
c c
(b) (i) Electrons

(ii) Earth wire
(iii) Live wire
(c) (i) The live wire or the line wire has a current-carrying capacity of 5 A. Hence, a thin fuse wire
of low current-carrying capacity of 5 A is used. It is used for light and fan circuits.
(ii) The voltage is increased to decrease the current and prevent loss of energy due to heating in
the line wires.
Question 10.
(a) Answer the following questions based on a hot cathode ray tube. (3)
(i) Name the charged particles.
(ii) State the approximate voltage used to heat the filament.
(iii) What will happen to the beam when it passes through the electric field?
(b) State three factors on which the rate of emission of electrons from a metal surface depends.
(3)
(c) (i) What are the free electrons?
(ii) Why do they not leave the metal surface on their own?
(iii) How can they be made to leave the metal surface? (State any two ways) (4)
Answer 10.
(a) (i) Cathode rays / high speed electrons
(ii) 6 V
(iii) The electron beam gets deflected towards the positive plate in a direction opposite to the
direction of the electric field.
(b) (i) The nature of the metal surface
(ii) The temperature of the surface
(iii) The surface area of the metal.
(c) (i) Electrons in the outer orbits are weakly attracted by the nucleus. They are loosely bound and
leave their individual atom and become free to move inside the solid. These electrons are
called free electrons.
(ii) The free electrons do not have sufficient kinetic energy to leave its surface.
(iii) The free electrons can leave the metal surface by
(1) Thermionic emission: when energy is supplied as heat.
(2) Photo-electric emission: when energy is supplied as light.

SCIENCE
Paper–I (PHYSICS)

Question 1.
(a) (i) State and define the SI unit of power.
(ii) How is the unit horse power related to the SI unit of power? (2)
(b) State the energy changes in the following cases while in use : (2)
(i) An electric iron.
(ii) A ceiling fan.
(c) The diagram below shows a lever in use : (2)
(i) To which class of levers does it belong?
(ii) Without changing the dimensions of the lever, if the load is shifted towards the fulcrum what
happens to the mechanical advantage of the lever?
E
F
L
(d) (i) Why is the ratio of the velocities of light of wavelengths 4000 A and 8000 A in vacuum 1 : 1?
(ii) Which of the above wavelengths has a higher frequency? (2)
(e) (i) Why is the motion of a body moving with a constant speed around a circular path said to be
accelerated?
(ii) Name the unit of physical quantity obtained by the formula 2K/V2 where K: kinetic energy, V:
Linear velocity. (2)
Answer 1.
(a) (i) The SI unit of power is watt (W). The power of an agent is said to be one watt if it does one
joule of work in one second.
(ii) 1 hp = 746 W
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(b) (i) Electrical into heat energy
(ii) Electrical into mechanical energy.
(c) (i) Second class lever.
(ii) It increases.
(d) (i) Because all wavelengths of light travel with the same velocity in vacuum.
(ii) 4000 A higher frequency..
(e) (i) Because at every point of motion the direction of speed changes i.e., the body possesses
velocity which changes with time.
(ii) Kilogram (kg).
Question 2.
(a) The power of a lens is -5D. (2)
(i) Find its focal length.
(ii) Name the type of lens.
(b) State the position of the object in front of a converging lens if : (2)
(i) It produces a real and same size image of the object.
(ii) It is used as a magnifying lens.
(c) (i) State the relation between the critical angle and the absolute refractive index of a medium.
(ii) Which colour of light has a higher critical angle? Red light or Green light. (2)
(d) (i) Define scattering. (2)
(ii) The smoke from a fire looks white. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) Molecules of the smoke are bigger than the wavelength of light.
(2) Molecules of the smoke are smaller than the wavelength of light.
(e) The following diagram shows a 60°, 30°, 90° glass prism of critical angle 42°. Copy the diagram
and complete the path of incident ray AB emerging out of the prism marking the angle of
incidence on each surface. (2)
X
60°
B 30°
Y Z
A
Answer 2.
1 1
(a) (i) f = = = –0.2 m = 20 cm
P -5
(ii) Concave
(b) (i) At 2F
(ii) Between the optical center and principle focus.
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1
(c) (i) m = sin C
(ii) Red
(d) (i) Scattering is a general physical process where light is forced to deviate from a straight
trajectory by one or more paths due to localized non-uniformities in the medium through
which it passes.
(ii) Molecules of the smoke are bigger than the wavelength of light.
(e) The diagram is as shown
60°
45°
45°
B 30°
Y Z
Question 3.
(a) Displacement distance graph of two sound waves A and B, travelling in a medium, are as shown
in the diagram below. (2)
20 A
10 B
(0, 0) Distance (cm)
-10
-20
Study the two sound waves and compare their:

(i) Amplitudes
(ii) Wavelengths
(b) You have three resistors of values 2 W, 3 W and 5 W. How will you join them so that the total
resistance is more than 7 W? (2)
(i) Draw a diagram for the arrangement.
(ii) Calculate the equivalent resistance.
(c) (i) What do you understand by the term nuclear fusion? (2)
(ii) Nuclear power plants use nuclear fission reaction to produce electricity. What is the
advantage of producing electricity by fusion reaction?
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(d) (i) What do you understand by free vibrations of a body? (2)

(ii) Why does the amplitude of a vibrating body continuously decrease during damped
vibrations?
(e) (i) How is the emf across primary and secondary coils of a transformer related with the number
of turns of coil in them? (2)
(ii) On which type of current do transformers work? (2)
Answer 3.
(a) (i) AA / AB = 20 / 10 = 2 / 1 = 2 : 1 Þ Amplitudes of A and B are in the ratio 2 : 1
(ii) lB > lA Þ Wavelength of A and B are in the ratio 1 : 2
(b) (i) All of these can be connected in series as shown
2W 3W 5W
(ii) R = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 W
(c) (i) It is a process in which two or more smaller nuclei combine to form a bigger nucleus.
(ii) The product formed is not radioactive hence less harmful to humans / energy produced per
nucleon is more them fission.
(d) (i) If a body vibrates with its own frequency it is called a free vibration.
(ii) Energy is used up in overcoming friction.
VP NP
(e) (i) e.m.f. and the number of turns of the coil are directly proportional = =
VS NS
(ii) Alternating current. (A.C.)
Question 4.
(a) (i) How can a temperature in degree Celsius be converted into SI unit of temperature? (2)
(ii) A liquid X has the maximum specific heat capacity and is used as a coolant in Car radiators.
Name the liquid X.
(b) A solid metal weighing 150 g melts at its melting point of 800°C by providing heat at the rate of
100 W. The time taken for it to completely melt at the same temperature is 4 mm. What is the
specific latent heat of fusion of the metal? (2)
(c) Identify the following wires used in a household circuit : (2)
(i) The wire is also called as the phase wire.
(ii) The wire is connected to the top terminal of a three-pin socket.
(d) (i) What are isobars?
(ii) Give one example of isobars.
(e) State any two advantages of electromagnets over permanent magnets. (2)
Answer 4.
(a) (i) 1°C = 273 K
(ii) Water
100 ´ 4 ´ 60
(b) Using Q = mL, 100 × 4 × 60 = 150 × 10–3 × L or L = = L = 1.6 × 105 J kg–1
150 ´ 10 -3
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(c) (i) Live wire
(ii) Earth wire
(d) (i) Elements having same mass number but different atomic number.
(ii) 14 14 23 23
6 C, 7 N and 12 Mg, 11 Na
(e) (i) Strength can be increased or decreased during working.

(ii) Polarities can be changed during working.

Question 5.
(a) (i) Derive a relationship between SI and C.G.S. unit of work. (3)
(ii) A force acts on a body and displaces it by a distance S in a direction at an angle q with the
direction of force. What should be the value of q to get the maximum positive work?
(b) A half metre rod is pivoted at the centre with two weights of 20 gf and 12 gf suspended at a
perpendicular distance of 6 cm and 10 cm from the pivot respectively as shown below: (3)
50 cm
20 gf 12 gf
6 cm 10 cm
(i) Which of the two forces acting on the rigid rod causes clockwise moment?
(ii) Is the rod in equilibrium?
(iii) The direction of 20 kgf force is reversed. What is the magnitude of the resultant moment of
the forces on the rod?
(c) (i) Draw a diagram to show a block and tackle pulley system having a velocity ratio of 3
marking the direction of load (L), effort (E) and tension (T).
(ii) The pulley system drawn lifts a load of 150 N when an effort of 60 N is applied. Find its
mechanical advantage.
(iii) Is the above pulley system an ideal machine or not? (4)
Answer 5.
(a) (i) 1 J = 1 kg × 1 m2 × 1 s–2 = 103 g × 104 cm2 × 1 s–2 g cm2 s–2 = 107 erg
(ii) W = FS cos q = FS (maximum) if cos q = 1 or q = 0°
(b) (i) 12 kgf
(ii) Yes
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(iii) 120 + 120 = 240 dyne cm
(c) (i) The diagram is as shown
T
E
T T
T
load 150
(ii) Actual MA number of pulleys in the system = 3. Observed MA = = = 2.5
effort 60
(iii) Since, observed MA is lesser than the theoretical MA therefore, the machine is not an ideal
machine.
Question 6.
(a) A ray of light XY passes through a right angled isosceles prism as shown below. (3)
45°
Y
X
45°
C B
(i) What is the angle through which the incident ray deviates and emerges out of the prism?
(ii) Name the instrument where this action of prism is put into use.
(iii) Which prism surface will behave as a mirror?
(b) An object AB is placed between O and F1 on the principal axis of converging lens as shown in the
diagram. (3)
1F1 F1 B O F2 2F2
LENS
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Copy the diagram and by using three standard rays starting from point A, obtain an image of the
object AB.
(c) An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens of focal length 8 cm. Find : (4)
(i) the position of the image
(ii) nature of the image.
Answer 6.
(a) (i) 90°
(ii) Refracting Periscope
(iii) Surface AB
(b) The figure is as shown.
(c) Given u = –12 cm, f = +8 cm, v = ?, nature = ?

1 1 1
Using the lens formula = – we have
f v u
1 1 1 1 1 3- 2 1
= f + = + = =
v u 8 - 12 24 24
Or v = 24 cm,
(ii) Image will be real or inverted.
Question 7.
(a) Draw the diagram of a right angled isosceles prism which is used to make an inverted image
erect. (3)
(b) (3)
Wooden
Sonometer
Box
Paper
rider Tuning Tuning
10 kg
Fork A Fork B
The diagram above shows a wire stretched over a sonometer. Stems of two vibrating tuning
forks A and B are touched to the wooden box of the sonometer. It is observed that the paper rider
(a small piece of paper folded at the centre) present on the wire flies off when the stem of
vibrating tuning fork B is touched to the wooden box but the paper just vibrates when the stem of
vibrating tuning fork A is touched to the wooden box.
(i) Name the phenomenon when the paper rider just vibrates.
(ii) Name the phenomenon when the paper rider flies off.
(iii) Why does the paper rider fly off when the stem of tuning fork B is touched to the box?
(c) A person is standing at the sea shore. An observer on the ship, which is anchored in between a
Ph- 90 2018
vertical cliff and the person on the shore, fires a gun. The person on the shore hears two sounds,
2 seconds and 3 seconds after seeing the smoke of the fired gun. If the speed of sound in the air
is 320 m s–1 then calculate :
(i) the distance between the observer on the ship and the person on the shore.
(ii) the distance between the cliff and the observer on the ship. (4)
Cliff
Man
Observer
Ship
Sea shore
Water
Answer 7.
(a) The diagram is as shown.
P
45°
Object
45°
Q
90°
C
Q¢
45°
Image 45°
P¢
(b) (i) Forced vibrations

(ii) Resonance
(iii) The wire of the sonometer begins to vibrate with its natural frequency. This is called
resonance. At resonance the amplitude of vibration becomes very large.
(c) Let distance between the observer on the ship and person on the shore be x. For the first sound
which the person hears after 2 seconds, we have
x
v= Þ x = vt = 320 × 2 = 640 m
t
Let distance between the ship and the cliff be x, then in the second case
2 x + 640
v= Þ 2x + 640 = vt = 320 × 3 = 960
t
Or 2x = 960 – 640 = 320 m
320
x= = 160 m
2
Question 8.
(a) (i) A fuse is rated 8 A. Can it be used with an electrical appliance rated 5 kW, 200 V? Give a
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reason. (3)
(ii) Name two safety devices which are connected to the live wire of a household electric circuit.
(b) (i) Find the equivalent resistance between A and B.
6W 4W
A B
3W 12 W
(ii) State whether the resistivity of a wire changes with the change in the thickness of the wire.
(c) An electric iron is rated 220 V, 2 kW. (4)
(i) If the iron is used for 2 h daily find the cost of running it for one week if it costs ` 4.25 per
kWh.
(ii) Why is the fuse absolutely necessary in a power circuit?
Answer 8.
P 5000
(a) (i) The current which will pass through the electrical device will be I = = = 25 A.
V 200
The fuse cannot be used as it will blow off when the current exceeds 8 A.
(ii) MCB Fuse, switch, ELCB.
(b) (i) 6 W and 3 W are in parallel therefore,
6´3 18
= =2W
6+3 9
4 W and 12 W are in parallel therefore,
4 ´ 12 48
= =3W
4 + 12 16
The above two are now in series therefore, R = 2 + 3 = 5W
(ii) Resistivity is independent of the dimensions of the wire. Therefore, no change.
(c) (i) V = 220 V, P = 2 kW = 2000 W
P (in watt) ´ t (in hour) 2000 ´ 2 ´ 7
Energy consumed E = = = 28 kW h
1000 1000
Hence cost = 28 × 4.25 = ` 119
(ii) Power circuits draw large amount of current, Electric shock in this circuit is very fatal
hence to avoid it fuse is necessary in the power circuit.
Question 9.
(a) (i) Heat supplied to a solid change it into liquid. What is this change in phase called? (3)
(ii) During the phase change does the average kinetic energy of the molecules of the substance
increase?
(iii) What is the energy absorbed during the phase change called?
(b) (i) State two differences between "Heat Capacity" and "Specific Heat Capacity". (3)
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(ii) Give a mathematical relation between Heat Capacity and Specific Heat Capacity.
(c) The temperature of 170 g of water at 50°C is lowered to 5°C by adding certain amount of ice to
it. Find the mass of ice added. Given: Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg–1 °C–1 and
Specific latent heat of ice 336000 J kg–1. (4)
Answer 9.
(a) (i) Melting (ii) No (iii) Latent heat of fusion.
(b) (i) The two differences are
Specific heat capacity Heat capacity
1. Heat required to raise the temperature 1. Heat required to raise the temperature
of a unit mass of a substance by 1 degree of a substance by 1 degree Celsius.
Celsius.
2. Does not depends upon the mass of the 2. Depend upon of mass of the substance.
substance.
(ii) The relation is, heat capacity = Specific heat × Mass of substance.
(c) Given mass of ice = mg
Mass of water = 170 g
Initial temperature of water = 50°C
Let the final temperature of the mixture = 5°C
The latent heat required to change m g of ice at 0°C to m g of water at 0°C
= m × 336 = 336 m J
Now, heat required to change m g of water at 0°C to 5°C
= m × 4.2 × (5 – 0) J = 21 m J
Now, heat lost by 170 g of water to reach 5°C from 50°C
= 170 × 4.2 × (50 – 5) = 32 130 J
By principle of calorimetry
336 m + 21 m = 32130
or 357 m = 32130
m = 90 g
Question 10.
(a) The diagram shows a coil wound around a U shape soft iron bar AB.
A B
+ -
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(i) What is the polarity induced at the ends A and B when the switch is pressed?
(ii) Suggest one way to strengthen the magnetic field in the electromagnet.
(iii) What will be the polarities at A & B if the direction of current is reversed in the circuit? (3)
(b) The ore of Uranium found in nature contains 92U238 and 92U235. Although both the isotopes are
fissionable, it is found out experimentally that one of the two isotopes is more easily fissionable.
(i) Name the isotope of Uranium which is easily fissionable.
(ii) Give a reason for your answer.
(iii) Write a nuclear reaction when Uranium 238 emits an alpha particle to form a Thorium (Th)
nucleus. (3)
(c) Radiations given out from a source when subjected to an electric field in a direction perpendicular
to their path are shown below in the diagram. The arrows show the path of the radiation A, B and
C. Answer the following questions in terms of A, B and C. (4)
(i) Name the radiation B which is unaffected by the electrostatic field.
(ii) Why does the radiation C deflect more than A?
B
A C
Radioactive
Substance Lead Box
(iii) Which among the three causes the least biological damage externally?
(iv) Name the radiation which is used in carbon dating.
Answer 10.
(a) (i) A South and B South.
(ii) Increasing the strength of current through the coil.
(iii) The Polarities of the two ends become north.
(b) (i) 92U235
(ii) It readily absorbs thermal neutrons and becomes unstable.
(iii) The reaction is
92U
238
® 90Th234 + 2He4
(c) (i) Gamma radiation (ii) Because C is lighter than A.
(iii) Alpha (A) (iv) Carbon-14

SCIENCE
Paper–I (PHYSICS)

Question 1.
(a) The diagram below shows a claw hammer used to remove a nail; [2]
Claw hammer
Nail
(i) To which class of lever does it belong?

(ii) Given one more example of the same class of lever mentioned by you
in (i) for which the mechanical advantage is greater than one.
(b) Two bodies A and B have masses in the ratio 5:1 and their kinetic energies are in the ratio
125:9. Find the ratio of their velocities. [2]
(c) (i) Name the physical quantity which is measured in calories.
(ii) How is calories related to the S.I. unit of that quantity?
(d) (i) Define couple.
(ii) State the S.I. unit of moment of couple.
(e) (i) Define critical angle.
(ii) State one important factor which affects the critical angle of a given medium.
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Answer 1.
(a) (i) It belongs to class I lever.
(ii) The mechanical advantage is greater than one when effort arm of body is longer than
the load arm. For example : crowbar, shears.
(b) body A body B
m1 = 5 x m2 = 1x
K.E.1 = 125y K.E.2 = 9y
1
K.E. = mv 2
2
1
K.E 1 = m1 (v1 ) 2
2
K.E 1 1 1 m (v )2
= m1 (v1 ) 2 ¸ m2 (v2 )2 = 1 1 2
K.E 2 2 2 m2 (v2 )
125 y (v1 ) 2 . m1
=
9y (v2 ) 2 . m2
(v1 )2 125 ´ m2
=
(v2 )2 9 ´ m1
(v1 ) 2 125 ´ 1x
=
(v2 )2 9 ´ 5x
v1 25
=
v2 9
v1 5
=
v2 3
(c) (i) Heat energy is measured in calories
(ii) SI unit is Joule.
1 calorie = 4.18 J
(d) (i) Couple Þ Two equal and opposite parallel forces, not acting along the same line, form
a couple.
(ii) Couple
d F
O
F
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Moment of couple = F ´ d = N ´ m
SI unit of moment of couple = Nm or Joule.
(e) (i) Critical angle is angle of incidence in denser medium corresponding to which angle of
refraction in rarer medium is 90°.
(ii) Refractive index and wavelength.
Question 2.
(a) An electromagnetic radiation is used for photography in fog. [2]
(i) Identify the radiation.
(ii) Why is this radiation mentioned by you, ideal for this purpose?
(b) (i) What is the relation between the refractive index of water with respect to air (amw) and
the refractive index of air with respect to water (wma).
5
(ii) If the refractive index of water with respect to air (amw) is .
3
Calculate the refractive index of air with respect to water (wma).
(c) The specific heat capacity of a substance A is 3,800 Jkg–1K–1 and that of a substance B is
400 Jkg–1K–1. Which of the two substances is a good conductor of heat? Give a reason for
your answer. [2]
(d) A man playing a flute is able to produce notes of different frequencies. If he closes the
holders near his mouth, will the pitch of the note produced, increase or decrease? Given a
reason. [2]
(e) The diagram below shows a light source P embedded in a rectangular glass block ABCD of
critical angle 42°. Complete the path of the ray PQ till it emerges out of the block. [Write
necessary angles.] [2]
B Q C
42°
A D
Answer 2.
(a) (i) Infrared radiations.
(ii) Infrared radiations are used for this purpose or they are not scattered much and can
penetrate appreciably through it.
(b) (i) w ma ´ a mw = 1
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According to principle of reversibility
1
a mw =
w ma
5
(ii) a m w =
3
w ma =?
According to principle of reversibility
1
a mw =
w ma
1 1 3
w ma = = =
m
a w 5 / 3 5
(c) A B
–1
Specific heat Capacity = 3,800 Jkg K –1 C = 400 JKg–1
Substance B is good conductor of heat.
Reason Þ B has high conductivity because it has low specific heat capacity..
Low specific heat capacity = good conductor of heat.
(d) Pitch decreases as length of air column increases in flute.
Q
(e)
42° 42°
90°
48° 48°
48°
42°
P
90°
Question 3.
(a) (i) If the lens is placed in water instead of air, how does its focal length change?
(ii) Which lens, thick or thin has greater focal length? [2]
(b) Two waves of the same pitch have amplitudes in the ratio 1: 3. [2]
What will be the ratio of their:
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(i) Intensities and (ii) Frequencies?
(c) How does an increase in the temperature affect the specific resistance of a : [2]
(i) Metal and (ii) Semiconductor?
(d) (i) Define resonant vibrations. [2]
(ii) Which characteristic of sound, makes it possible to recognize a person by his voice
without seeing him?
(e) It is possible for a hydrogen (H) nucleus to emit an alpha particle? [2]
Answer 3.
(a) (i) Local length will.
(ii) Thin lens has greater focal length.
(b) (i) Amplitude = 1 : 3
2
æ 1ö 1
Intensities = ç ÷ =
è 3ø 9
(ii) Frequency does not depends upon amplitude.
\ its ratio is 1 : 1.
(c) (i) Metal – increase (ii) Semiconductor – decrease
(d) (i) Resonant vibrations occurs due to phenomenon of Resonance.
It occurs due to resonance. It is special case of forced vibrations when frequency of
externally applied force on body is equal to its natural frequency, body readily begins to
vibrate with increased amplitude. Vibrations of large amplitude are called resonant
vibrations.
(ii) pitch.
(e) No it is not possible.
It has not enough electrons and protons for emitting alpha particle.
Question 4.
(a) Calculate the effective resistance across AB : [2]
5W 4W
8W
A B
3W
(b) (i) State whether the specific heat capacity of a substance remains the same when its state
changes from solid to liquid.
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(ii) Given one example to support your answer. [2]
(c) A magnet kept at the centre of two coils A and B is moved to and fro as shown in the
diagram. The two galvanometers show deflection. [2]
Soft Soft
iron N S iron
X Y
Cell A Cell B
(d) State with a reason whether:
x > y or x < y [x and y are magnitudes of deflection.] [2]
(i) Why a nuclear fusion reaction is called a thermos nuclear reaction?
(ii) Complete the reaction:
3He
2 + 2H1 ® 4He2 +................+ Energy
(e) State two ways to increase the speed of rotation of a D.C. motor. [2]
Answer 4.
(a) R 1 = 9W
R 2 = 3W
R 3 = 8W 5W 4W
1
=
1
+
1 8W 3W
R p R1 R 2 A B
1 1 1
= +
Rp 9 3
1 1+ 3 4 9W
= =
Rp 9 9
8W 3W
9 A B
Rp =
4
RS = R3 + Rp
9 9 + 32 41
RS = +8 Þ RS = = = 10 × 2W
4 4 4
(b) (i) No, specific heat capacity changes from solid to liquid.
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(ii) For e.g. ice and water have different specific heat capacity.
(c) y > x because (y) coil B have more number of turns.
(d) (i) Nuclear fusion is called Thermo nuclear reaction as it not occurs in ordinary temperature.
It need about 107 Kelvin temperature.
(ii) 23 He + 21 H ® 42 He + Energy + 11H

Attempt any four questions from this Section
Question 5.
(a) A body of mass 10 Kg is kept at a height of 5 m. It is allowed to fall and reach the ground.[3]
(i) What is the total mechanical energy possessed by the body at the height of 2m assuming
it is a frictionless medium?
(ii) What is the kinetic energy possessed by the body just before hitting the ground?
Take g = 10m/s2.
(b) A uniform meter scale is in equilibrium as shown in the diagram: [3]
5 cm 30 cm
F
0 cm 100 cm
40 gf
(i) Calculate the weight of the meter scale.

(ii) Which of the following options is correct to keep the ruler in equilibrium when 40 gf wt
is shifted to 0 cm mark?
F is shifted towards 0 cm.
or
F is shifted towards 100 cm.
(c) The diagram below shown a pulley arrangement : [4]
(i) Copy the diagram and mark the direction of tension B
on each stand of the string.
(ii) What is the velocity ratio of the arrangement? E
(iii) If the tension acting on the string is T, then what is

A
the relationship between T and effort E?
(iv) If the free end of the string moves through a
distance x, find the distance by which the load is
raised.
Load
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Answer 5.
(a) K.E. = Kinetic enegy
m = 10 kg
g = 10
h = 5m T.E. = K.E. + (U) ® Potential energy
(i) V = mgh
= 10 ´ 10 ´ 5 K.E. = 0
= 500 J \ T.E. = U = 500 J
(ii) K.E. = U When body is just to hit ground
U = mgh then U = O
U = 5 ´ 10 ´ 10 T.E. = K.E. + U
= 500 J T.E. = K.E. + O
T.E. = K.E.
K.E. = 500 J
(b) (i) According to principle of moment
W1 ´ l1 = W2 ´ l2
40 ´ (30 – 5) = W2 ´ (50 – 30)
40 ´ 25
= W2
20
W2 = 50 g
(ii) J is shifted towards 0 cm.
(c) (i)
B
T T
T E
Load
dl
(ii) Velocity ratio = 2 Þ V.R. = d
Î
(iii) T = E dl = 2 x
(iv) dÎ = x dÎ = x
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2x
dL = ? \ V.R. = =2
x
V.R. = 2
dÎ
V.R. = d
L
x x
2= Þ dL =
dL 2
Question 6.
(a) How does the angle of deviation formed by a prism change with the increase in the angle of
incidence? [3]
Draw a graph showing the variation in the angle of deviation with the angle of incidence at
a prism surface.
(b) A virtual, diminished image is formed when an object is placed between the optical centre
and the principal focus of a lens. [3]
(i) Name the type of lens which forms the above image,
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image with the above stated
characteristics.
(c) An object is placed at a distance of 24 cm from a convex lens of focal length 8 cm. [4]
(i) What is the nature of the image so formed?
(ii) Calculate the distance of the image from the lens,
(iii) Calculate the magnification of the image.
Answer 6.
(a) First with increase in angle of
incidence angle deviation first
decrease to deviation minimum and
then it increase.
devation
8 min
incidence
Ph- 103 2019

(b) (i) concave lens
(ii) Image is diminished and virtual.
A1
2F1 F1 F2 2F2
(c) (i) Real image
` (ii) m = -24 cm, f = 8 cm, v = ?
1 1 1 1 1 1
= - = +
f v m v f m
1 1 1
= -
v 8 24
1 3 -1 2
= = = 12cm \ V = 12 cm
v 24 24
v 12 -1
(iii) m = = =
m -24 2
Question 7.
(a) It is observed that during march-past we hear a base drum distinctly from a distance
compared to the side drums. [3]
(i) Name the characteristic of sound associated with the above observation,
(ii) Given a reason for the above observation.
(b) A pendulum has a frequency of 4 vibrations per second. An observer starts the pendulum
and fires a gun simultaneously. He hears the echo from the cliff after 6 vibrations of the
pendulum. If the velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s, find the distance between the cliff and
observer. [3]
(c) Two pendulums C and D are suspended from a wire as shown in the figure given below.
Pendulum C is made to oscillate by displacing it from its mean position. It is seen that D also
starts oscillating. [4]
Ph- 104 2019
wire
D
C
(i) Name the type of oscillation, C will execute.

(ii) Name the type of oscillation, D will execute.
(iii) If the length of D is made equal to C then what difference will you notice in the
oscillations of D?
(iv) What is the name of the phenomenon when the length of D is made equal to C?
Answer 7.
(a) (i) Loudness is characteristic of sound associated with above observation.
(ii) Surface area of bass drum is more therefore amplitude is more and it produces more
loudness.
` (b) 4 vibration = 1 second (frequency of pendulum)
1
1 vibration = second
4
1
6 vibration = ´ 6 second
4
6
t= second
4
Speed = 340 m/s = V
Vt 340 ´ 6
For echo, d = = = 255 m
2 4´2
(c) (i) Forced oscillation as Pendulum C is made to oscillate by displacing it from mean
position and it is not in vaccum.
(ii) Resonant oscillation.
(iii) If length of D is made equal to C then vibration of both will be same.
(iv) Resonance.
Ph- 105 2019

Question 8.
(a) (i) Write one advantage of connecting electrical appliance in parallel combination. [3]
(ii) What characteristic should a fuse wire have?
(iii) Which wire in a power circuit is connected to the metallic body of the appliance?
(b) The diagram below shows a dual control switch circuit connected to a bulb. [3]
Bulb B
A
(i) Copy the diagram and complete it so that bulb is switch ON.
(ii) Out of A & B which one is the live wire and which one is the neutral wire?
(c) The diagram below shows a circuit with the key k open. Calculate :
2W K 3W
5W
3.3V, 0,5W
(i) the resistance of the circuit when the key k is open.
(ii) the current drawn from the cell when the key k is open.
(iii) the resistance of the circuit when the key k is closed.
(iv) the current drawn from the cell when the key k is closed.
Answer 8.
(a) (i) If both are in parallel combination then if one is damaged then other will not be
damaged or effected.
(ii) A fuse wire should have high resistivity and low melting point.
(iii) Earth wire.
Bulb B
(b)
A
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Bulb B
(i)
A
(ii) A is line wire and B is neutral wire.

(c) V = 3.3 V
r = 0.5 W
(i) R = (5 + 0.5) W = 5.5 W
V 3/ 3 3
(ii) I = = = = 0.6 W
R 5/5 5
(iii) R1 = 5W, R2 = R3 + R4, R2 = 5 W
1 1 1
= +
Rp 5 5
5
Rp = = 2 ×5W
2
R = (Rp + r) = (2.5 + 0.5) = 3 W
V 3.3
(iv) I = = = 1.1A
R 3
Question 9.
(a) (i) Define Calorimetry. [3]
(ii) Name the material used for making a Calorimeter.
(iii) Why is a Calorimeter made up of thin sheets of the above material answered in (ii)?
(b) The melting point of naphthalene is 80°C and the room temperature is 30°C. A sample of
liquid naphthalene at 100°C is cooled down to the room temperature.
Draw a temperature time graph to represent this cooling. In the graph, mark the region
which corresponds to the freezing process. [3]
(c) 104 g of water at 30°C is taken in a calorimeter made of copper of mass 42g. When a
certain mass of ice at 0°C is added to it, the final temperature of the mixture after the ice
has melted, was found to be 10° C. Find the mass of ice added.
[Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 Jg–1°C–1; Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336
Jg–1; Specific heat capacity of copper = 0.4 Jg–1°C1] [4]
Ph- 107 2019

Answer 9.
(a) (i) The measurement of heat energy that means heat lost or gained is called calorimetry.
(ii) Copper.
(iii) Copper has low specific heat capacity if we use thin sheetd, the thermal capacity
further decreases therefore we made it thin sheets of copper.
(b)
150
140
130
120
Temperature
110
100
90 Freezing
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
Time (S)
(c) Hot bodies Cold body
H2O ® 104 gm at 30°C Ice ® x gm at 0°C
Calorimeter = 42 gm at 30°C
(Copper)
According to principle of calorimetery
Final temperature = 10°C
Q = mcDt
Þ (104 ´ (30 - 10) ´ 4.2) + (42 ´ (30 - 10) ´ 0.4) = ( x ´ 336) + ( x + 4.2 ´ 10 - 0)
Þ 8736 + 336 = 378x
9072
9072 = 378x Þ x= = 24gm
378
Question 10.
(a) Draw a neat labeled diagram of an A.C. generator. [3]
(b) (i) Define nuclear fission. [3]
(ii) Rewrite and complete the following nuclear reaction by filling in the atomic number of
Ba and mass number of Kr :
235 1
92 U + 0 n ® 144
..... Ba + ....
36 Kr + 3 01n + Energy
CLASS X (PHYSICS)
(ICSE 2020)
SCIENCE PAPER-1
(Two hours)
This time is to be spent in reading the Question paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [].
SECTION - I (40 marks) of rotation is known as the moment

Attempt all questions from this Section. of force. It is also known as torque.
1. (a) (i) Define moment of force. 2 (ii) Since the SI unit of moment of
(ii) Write the relationship between force is Newton metre, i.e., Nm and
the SI and CGS unit of moment the CGS unit of moment of force
of force. is dyne cm.
(b) Define a kilowatt hour. How is it So, the required relationship
related to joule ? 2 between the SI and CGS unit of
(c) A satellite revolves around a planet moment of force will be
in a circular orbit. What is the work 1 Nm = 105 dyne × 102 cm
done by the satellite at any instant? = 107 dyne cm
Give a reason. 2 (b) One kilowatt hour is defined as the
(d) (i) Identify the class of the lever electrical energy which is consumed by
shown in the diagram below : 2 the appliance of1 kW power in duration
of 1 hour.
Q 1 kilowatt hour = 1 kilowatt × 1 hour
= 1000 watts × 1 hour
(ii) How is it possible to increase the {Q 1 kilowatt = 1000 watts}
M.A. of the above lever without = 1000 watts × 3600 s
increasing its length ? {Q 1 hour = 3600 s}
(e) Give one example of each when : 2 ì 1J ü
(i) Chemical energy changes into and íQ 1 watt = ý
î sþ
electrical energy.
(ii) Electrical energy changes into J
= 1000 × × 3600 s
sound energy. s
Sol. (a) (i) The product of magnitude of force = 3600000 J
and the perpendicular distance of
line of action of force from the axis 1 kilowatt hour = 3.6 × 106 J
Ph-109
Ph- 110 2020
So, this is the required relation between chemical energy into electrical
kilowatt hour and Joule. energy.
(c) It is given that a satellite is revolving (ii) In case of electric bell, the electrical
around the Earth, So, let us represent energy changes into sound energy
the given situation through the as the sounds produced by the
following diagram, at particular instant. electrical signals is converted into
a form of sound energy.
2. (a) A crane ‘A’ lifts a heavy load in 5
seconds, whereas another crane ‘B’
does the same work in 2 seconds.
Compare the power of crane ‘A’ to
that of crane ‘B’. 2
(b) A ray of light falls normally on a
rectangular glass slab. 2
Draw a ray diagram showing the
Note: When the direction of acting
path of the ray till it emerges out of
force on the body is perpendicular to
the slab.
the direction of displacement, then work
done remains zero. So, in this given (c) Complete the path of the mono-
situation, the work done by the satellite chromatic light ray AB incident on
at any instant will be zero. It is because the surface PQ of the equilateral glass
® prism PQR till it emerges out of the
the centripetal force ( Fc ) is perpendi- prism due to refraction. 2
cular to the direction of the displace-
ment/motion.
(d) (i) Consider the following diagram of
lever.
The given diagram is of class III

lever, because Effort (E) is lying
between Fulcrum (F) and Load (L).
(ii) As Mechanical Advantage (d) Where should an object be placed in
front of a convex lens in order to get :
Effort arm
= . 2
load arm (i) an enlarged real image
So, if the distance of the effort from (ii) enlarged virtual image ?
the fulcrum is increased, then the (e) A pond appears to be 2.7 m deep. If
mechanical advantage of the above 4
lever will also be increased without the refractive index of water is ,
3
increasing its length. find the actual depth of the pond. 2
(e) (i) In case of primary cell, chemical Sol. (a) According to question, crane A lifts a
energy changes into electrical heavy load in 5 seconds and crane B
energy as it is used to convert stored does the same work in 2 seconds.
Ph- 111 2020
work done (c)

Q Power =
time taken
\ Power = work done / time taken
W
PA = ...(i)
5s
{Q For crane A, t = 5s}
and for crane B, In the given ray diagram,
W Ði = Angle of incidence
PB = ...(ii) Ðe = Angle of emergence
2s
{Q For crane B, t = 2s} Ðr1 and Ðr2 are the angle of refractions.
On dividing eqns. (i) and (ii), we get AB = Incident ray
BC = Refracted ray
W
PA CD = Emergent ray.
PA 2
= 5 Þ = So, this is the required path of the
PB W PB 5
monochromatic light ray AB incident
2 on the surface PQ of equilateral glass
or PA = 0.4 PB prism PQR till it emerges out of the
prism due to refraction.
i.e., the power of crane A is 0.4 times (d) (i) To get an enlarged real image, the
to that of crane B. object should be placed (in front of
(b) When a ray of light falls normally on a a convex lens) between F and 2F.
rectangular glass slab, then it will be
shown as follows :
(ii) To get an enlarged virtual image,

the object should be placed (in front
of a convex lens)between F and O.
So, in the given case, Angle of

incidence = Angle of refraction = Angle
of emergence = 0
i.e., Ði = Ðr = Ðe = 0
Hence, the above ray diagram is the
required ray diagram which shows the
path of the ray till it emerges out of the (e) Actual depth of pond = ?
slab. Apparent depth of pond = 2.7 m.
Ph- 112 2020
4 wavelength of blue light lblue

Refractive index of water = = 4.8 × 10–7 cm
3
Q Velocity = wavelength × frequency
\ Refractive index of medium
Þ V = lf ...(i)
Real depth or Actual depth As we know that frequency of light
=
Apparent depth does not change when it enters into
a medium, i.e., f is constant.
4 Actual depth \ eqn. (i) becomes
\ =
3 2.7 m Vµl ...(ii)
4 As given
Þ Actual depth = ´ 2.7 m lred > lblue ...(iii)
3
from eqns (ii) and (iii), we get
= 4 × 0.9 m
Vred > Vblue
Þ Actual depth = 3.6 m
3. (a) The wave lengths for the light of red It means that the red colour light
and blue colours are nearly 7.8 × will have greater speed in glass.
10–7 m and 4.8 × 10–7 m respectively. (b)
(i) Which colour has the greater
speed in a vacuum ?
(ii) Which colour has a greater speed
in glass ? 2
(b) Draw a graph between displacement
from mean position and time for a
body executing free vibration in a
vacuum. 2 This is the required graph between the
(c) A sound wave travelling in water has displacement from mean position and
wavelength 0.4 m. 2 time for a body executing free
Is this wave audible in air ? (The vibrations in a vacuum.
speed of sound in water = 1400 ms–1) (c) It is given that a sound wave is
(d) Why does stone lying in the sun get travelling in water has wavelength of
heated up much more than water 0.4 m, i.e., l = 0.4 m
lying for the same duration of time ? Speed of sound in water, V =1400 ms–1
2 Q Velocity = wavelength × Frequency
(e) Why is it not advisable to use a piece Þ V=l×f
of copper wire as fuse wire in an
V 1400 14000
electric circuit ? 2 Þ f = = = = 3500 Hz
Sol. (a) (i) Since speed does not change in l 0.4 4
vacuum, therefore, all colours will As we know that audible frequency
move with the same speed, i.e., with ranges between 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.
the speed of light (3 × 108 m/s). And the obtained value of frequency,
(ii) It is given that wavelength of red i.e., 3500 Hz lies between this range,
light, lRed= 7.8 × 10–7 m and i.e. in between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz.
Ph- 113 2020
So, yes this sound wave is audible in

air.
(d) The stone lying in the sun get heated
much more than water lying for the
same duration of time. It is because the
specific heat capacity of stone is less
than that of water, due to which the
temperature of stone is more.
(e) It is not advisable to use a piece of
copper wire as fuse wire in an electric (i) What is the magnetic polarity of
circuit. It is because copper has low the loop that faces us ?
specific resistance and high melting (ii) With respect to the diagram how
point, due to which it will not can we increase the strength of
break(fuse) during the overloading in the magnetic field produced by
the circuit. this loop ?
4. (a) Calculate the total resistance across Sol. (a) Consider the given diagram,
AB : 2
It can be seen from the figure that R1

and R2 are in parallel.
(b) Two metallic blocks P and Q having
masses in ratio 2:1 are supplied with R1R 2
So, their equivalent, Req1 =
the same amount of heat. If their R1 + R 2
temperatures rise by same degree,
3 ´ 6 18
compare their specific heat Þ Req1 = = = 2W
capacities. 2 3+ 6 9
Now, the above given diagram can be
(c) When a current carrying conductor shown as follows
is placed in a magnetic field, it
experiences a mechanical force.
What should be the angle between
the magnetic field and the length of Q Req1 and R3 are in series.
the conductor so that the force \ equivalent resistance across AB will be
experienced is : 2 RAB = Req1 + R3 = (2 + 5) W = 7W.
(i) Zero (b) Consider a metallic block having mass
‘m’, specific heat capacity ‘S’, gains
(ii) Maximum ? heat energy ‘Q’ after rising the
(d) A nucleus 84X202 of an element emits temperature ‘DT’, then the relation
an alpha particle followed by a beta among them is given by,
particle. The final nucleus is a Y b . Q Q = mSDT ...(i)
Find a and b. 2 For block A, Mass = 2m,
(e) The diagram below shows a loop of Specific heat capacity = SP
wire carrying current I : 2 temperature = DT
Ph- 114 2020
For block B, Mass = m SECTION - II (40 marks)

Specific heat capacity = SQ Attempt any four questions from this Section.
temperature = DT 5. (a) The figure below shows a simple
As per question, pendulum of mass 200 g. It is
QP = Q Q ...(ii) displaced from the mean position A
\ from eqns. (i) and (ii), we get to the extreme position B. The
potential energy at the position A is
2m SP DT = m SQ DT
zero. At the position B the pendulum
Þ 2SP = SQ
bob is raised by 5 m. 3
1
Þ SP = S
2 Q
It means that specific heat capacity of
block P is half of the capacity of block
Q.
(c) It is given that when a current carrying
conductor is placed in a magnetic field,
it experiences a mechanical force
(F = i B L sin q). (i) What is the potential energy of
(i) So, the force experienced will be the pendulum at the position B ?
zero when the angle between the (ii) What is the total mechanical
magnetic field and the length of the energy at point C ?
conductor is 0°. (iii) What is the speed of the bob at
(ii) And the force experienced will be the position A when released
maximum when the angle between from B ?
the magnetic field and the length (Take g = 10 ms–2 and there is no
of conductor is 90°. loss of energy.)
(d) According to the question, a nucleus (b) (i) With reference to the direction of
202 of an element emits an alpha
84X action, how does a centripetal
particle followed by a beta particle force differ from a centrifugal
a- emission 4 force during uniform circular
84X
202
¾¾¾¾® 82Z198 + 2 He motion ? 3
198 b- emission 198 + 0 e (ii) Is centrifugal force the force of
82Z ¾¾¾¾® 83Z -1 reaction of centripetal force ?
(iii) Compare the magnitudes of
\ a = 83 and b = 198
centripetal and centrifugal force.
(e) (i) The magnetic polarity of the loop, 3
that faces us will be clockwise, i.e., (c) A block and tackle system of pulleys
south pole. has velocity ratio 4. 4
(ii) We can increase the strength of the (i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the
magnetic field produced by the system indicating clearly the points
loop in the given diagram, by. of application and direction of load
1. increasing number of turns of and effort.
coil. (ii) What will be its V.R. if the weight of
2. increasing the current. the movable block is doubled ?
Ph- 115 2020
Sol. (a) Consider the given diagram, reaction pair of forces acts on two
bodies, but here it is acting on a
single body.
(iii) The magnitudes of centripetal and
centrifugal force are equal.
(c) (i)
It is given that
Mass of simple pendulum, m = 200 g
= 0.2 kg. Potential energy at position A
is zero, i.e., PEA = 0.
(i) Potential energy at position B,
PEB = mgh = 0.2 × 10 × 5 = 10 J.
(ii) Whenever the bob of the pendulum
rotates, then mechanical energy
So, this is the required diagram.
remains same at all the points
according to the law of conser- (ii) \ Velocity ratio is always equals
vation of mechanical energy. to n.
\ Mechanical energy at point C So, if the weight of movable block
is doubled, then its mechanical
= 10 J.
advantage will get effected but the
(iii) As the bob is rotating, so the
velocity ratio will remain constant.
potential energy of bob at position
6. (a) A diver in water looks obliquely at
B will get converted into kinetic
an object AB in air. 3
energy at point A.
1
\ KE at position A, K.EA = m u2
2
1
Þ 10 = ´ 0.2 ´ u2
2
Þ 100 = u2
Þ u = 10 ms -1
(i) Does the object appear taller,
(b) (i) With reference to the direction of shorter or of the same size to the
motion, both centrifugal force and diver ?
centripetal force acts in opposite (ii) Show the path of two rays AC
direction. Centripetal force acts and AD starting from the tip of
towards the centre while centrifugal the object as it travels towards
force acts radially outwards. the diver in water and hence
(ii) No, the centrifugal force is not the obtain the image of the object.
force of reaction at centripetal (b) Complete the path of the ray AB
force. It is because the action- through the glass prism in PQR till it
Ph- 116 2020
emerges out of the prism. Given the Hence, from the above diagram, it can
critical angle of the glass as 42°. 3 be said that the object will appear taller.
(b)
(c) A lens of focal length 20 cm forms an

inverted image at a distance 60 cm (c) (i) As per the information given in the
from the lens. 4 question, we can conclude that the
(i) Identify the lens. given lens is a convex lens because
(ii) How far is the lens present in the formed image is inverted.
front of the object’ ? (ii) Given, f = 20 cm
(iii) Calculate the magnification of u = 60 cm
the image. According to lens formula,
Sol. (a) Consider the given diagram, 1 1 1
A = -
f u u
1 1 1
Þ = -
u u f
1 1 1
Þ = -
u 60 20
(i) and (ii) 1 -2
Þ =
As we know that when a ray of light u 60
enters from air to water, i.e., from rarer
to denser medium, it bends toward the Þ u = -30 cm
normal. So, the above diagram will u 60
become as follows : (iii) Magnification, m = = = -2
u -30
7. (a) Give reasons for the following : 3
During the day :
(i) Clouds appear white.
(ii) Sky appears blue.
(b) (i) Name the system which enables
us to locate underwater objects
by transmitting ultrasonic waves
and detecting the reflecting
impulse. 3
Ph- 117 2020
(ii) What are acoustically measurable (ii) Let the man is standing infront of
quantities related to pitch and cliff at a distance of d cm from the
loudness ? cliff.
(c) (i) When a tuning fork [vibrating] So, when he moves closer (after
is held close to ear, one hears a hearing echo) to the cliff by 84 m,
faint hum. The same [vibrating then the distance will be (d – 84) cm.
tuning fork] is held such that its Q we know that
stem is in contact with the table
2d
surface, then one hears a loud V=
sound. Explain. 4 t
Since velocity will remain same in
(ii) A man standing in front of a
both cases, therefore,
vertical cliff fires a gun. He hears
the echo after 3.5 seconds. On 2d 2 ( d - 84)
=
moving closer to the cliff by 84 t1 t2
m, he hears the echo after 3
seconds. Calculate the distance of {Q t1 = 3.5 s, t2 = 3 s}
the cliff from the initial position 2d 2 (d - 84)
of the man. Þ =
3.5 3
Sol. (a) (i) As clouds scatter all the colours of
2d d - 84
sunlight (i.e., VIBGYOR scatter) in = 6d = 7d – 588
the sky during the day, therefore, 7 3
due to this reason, the clouds Þ d = 588 m .
appear white.
(ii) Sky appears blue because when the 8. (a) The diagram below shows the core
light enters from the sun into the of a transformer and its input and
sky, the air layers scatter only blue output connections. 3
part of light more than any other
colour.
(b) (i) SONAR, i.e., Sound Navigation
and Ranging is a system which
enables us to locate under water
objects by transmitting ultrasonic
waves and detecting the reflecting (i) State the material used for the
impulse. core.
(ii) Frequency and Amplitude are (ii) Copy and complete the diagram
respectively measurable quantities of the transformer by drawing
related to pitch and loudness. input and output coils.
(c) (i) When a tuning fork is held close to (b) (i) What are superconductors ? 3
ear, it has some sound energy. But (ii) Calculate the current drawn by
when it is held such that its stem is an appliance rated 110 W, 220 V
in contact with the table surface, when connected across 220 V
then due to the larger surface area supply.
of table top, it produces more (iii) Name a substance whose resis-
vibrations with greater sound tance decreases with the increase
energy. in temperature.
Ph- 118 2020
(c) (iii) We know that semiconductor’s

resistance decreases with the
increase in temperature.
For examples : Silicon, Graphite,
etc.
(c) Consider the given diagram.
4
The diagram above shows three
resistors connected across a cell of
e.m.f. 1.8 V and internal resistance r.
Calculate :
(i) Cur r ent through 3 W resistor.
(ii) The internal resistance r. (i) Since 3W and 1.5 W resistor are in
parallel combination. Therefore the
Sol. (a) (i) Soft iron core are made of thin
potential difference across them
laminated sheets which are eight
will remain same.
(8) T or U shaped.
Let I 1 be the current passing
(ii) Since the input voltage is greater
through3 W resistor and I2 be the
than the output voltage, therefore,
current passing through 1.5 W
the given transformer is a step-
resistor.
down transformer. So, the given
diagram will become as follows : V = 3 I1 and V = 1.5 I2
{Q V = IR}
Q potential difference across them is
same,
\ 3 I1 = 1.5 I2
Þ I1 = 0.5 I2
I2
Þ I1 = Þ I2 = 2I1 ...(i)
(b) (i) The substances which have almost 2
zero resistance at low temperatures, Q I1 + I2 = I {Q I = 0.3 A}
are called superconductors.
Þ I1 + I2 = 0.3 ...(ii)
(ii) Current drawn by the appliance,
From eqns. (i) and (ii), we get
Power Þ I1 + 2I1 = 0.3
I=
Voltage Þ 3I1 = 0.3
P Þ I1 = 0.1 A and I2 = 2 × 0.1 = 0.2 A
Þ I=
V Þ I1 = 0.1 A and I2 = 0.2 A.
110 W 1 So, the current through 3 W resistor
Þ I= = A = 0.5 A. will be, I1 = 0.1 A.
220 V 2
(ii) Q 3 W and 1.5 W resistors are in parallel
Þ I = 0.5 A combination,
Ph- 119 2020
(Assume no heat is lost to the

Req1== 33 ´1.15
\ Req 1.5 4.5
==
4.5
= 1W surrounding)
33 +1.5
1.5 4.54.5 Specific heat capacity of water
Now, Req1 and 4 W are in series = 4.2 Jg–1 k–1
combination, therefore, their Specific latent heat of fusion of ice
equivalent resistance, = 336 Jg–1
Req2 = (1 + 4) W = 5 W Sol. (a) (i) The amount of heat which is to be
\ Total resistance, Rtot = Req2 supplied to a given mass of a
+ Internal resistance material to produce a unit change
\ Rtot = (5 + r) W ...(iii) in its temperature, is known as heat
capacity.
V 1.8
Q Rtot = = = 6W ...(iv) (ii) The SI unit of heat capacity is joule
I 0.3
per kelvin.
\ from eqn. (iii) and (iv), we get (iii) Q Heat capacity = mass
5+r=6 Þ r=6–5=1
× specific heat capacity.
Þ r = 1W
Þ C = mS
9. (a) (i) Define heat capacity of a
So, this is the required relationship
substance. 3
between heat capacity and specific
(ii) Write the SI unit of heat capacity. heat capacity of a substance.
(iii) What is the relationship between (b) (i) In the given graph, AB represents
heat capacity and specific heat the specific heat of solid phase and
capacity of a substance ? CD represents the specific heat of
(b) The diagram below shows the change Liquid phase. Since, the specific
of phases of a substance on a temp- heat of solid phase is always greater
erature vs time graph on heating the than that of liquid phase. So, due
substance at a constant rate. 3 to this reason, the slope of CD is
less than that of AB.
(ii) t1 is the melting point because, here
solid is changing into liquid and t2
is the boiling point because, here
liquid is changing into gas.
(c) For Ice, Mass = 60 g
Temperature = 0°C
For water, Mass = 140 g
Temperature = 50°C.
(i) Why is the slope of CD less than
slope of AB ? Let T be the final temperature of water.
(ii) What is the boiling and melting Now, apply Principle of Calorimetry,
point of the substance ? Þ 60 × 336 + 60 × 4.2 × T
(c) A piece of ice of mass 60 g is dropped = 140 × 4.2 (50 – T)
into 140 g of water at 50°C. Calculate Þ 60 × 336 = 4.2 [140 × 50 – 140T – 60T]
the final temperature of water when 60 ´ 336
all the ice has melted. 4 Þ = 7000 – 200 T
4.2
Ph- 120 2020
60 ´ 336 ´ 10 (ii) D.C. motor is used to convert

Þ = 7000 – 200 T electrical energy into mechanical
42
energy, such as in electric fan etc.
Þ 4800 = 7000 – 200 T
(b) (i)
Þ 200 T = 7000 – 4800
2200 Nuclear Fusion Nuclear Fission
Þ T= Þ T = 11º C .
200 1. In th is, smaller In this, a heavier nuclei
10. (a) (i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of nuclei combines to breaks into the smaller
a d.c. motor. 3 form a larger one. nuclei.
(ii) Write any one use of a d.c. motor. 2. Very high amount of Low temperature in
(b) (i) Differentiate between nuclear temperature is comparison to that in
fusion and nuclear fission. 3 obtained nuclear fusion is obtained
(ii) State one safety precaution in the
disposal of nuclear waste. (ii) The solid radioactive waste should
be sealed in red bag and placed in
(c) An atomic nucleus A is composed of
a cardboard radioactive waste box.
84 protons and 128 neutrons. The
nucleus A emits an alpha particle and (c) Nucleus A is composed of 84 protons
is transformed into a nucleus B. and 128 neutrons.
4 Q Mass number = Number of protons
(i) What is the composition of B ? + number of neutrons
(ii) The nucleus B emits a beta = 84 + 128
particle and is transformed into = 212
a nucleus C. \ The composition of nucleus A will be
What is the composition of C ? 212 A
84
(iii) What is mass number of the
nucleus A ? (i) Since, nucleus A emits an a-
particle, i.e.,
(iv) Does the composition of C
change if it emits gamma a- decay
radiations ? 84¾¾¾® 208
212 A 4
82 B + 2 He
Sol. (a) (i) \ The composition of nucleus B
will be 208 B
82
(ii) Since nucleus B emits a b-particle,
i.e.,
b- decay
¾¾¾® 208
208 B
82
0
83 C + -1e
\ The composition of nucleus C will
be 208 C.
83
(iii) The mass number of the nucleus A
is 212.
(iv) If the nucleus C emits gamma
radiations, then there will be no
change in its composition.
PAGES 121 TO 1409 ARE OMITTED.
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Contents

ICSE EXAMINATION QUESTION PAPER – 2011 (SOLVED)

(i) To which class of lever does it belong ?

110 ´ 110 1210

(a) Heat Temperature

SECTION – II (40 Marks)

(i) Draw a diagram of the arrangement.

(i) What is the current through the 8 ohm resistor ?

(ii) The atomic number increases by one.

(c) (i) A cathode ray tube.

(iii) There will be no change.

ICSE EXAMINATION QUESTION PAPER – 2012 (SOLVED)

SECTION – I (40 Marks)

(d) (i) Energy consumed in kWh = 1000 kVA × 2h = 2000 kWh.

\ Resistance between P and Q in series = 3W + 4W + 2W = 9W

150 ´ 4200 ´ 5 ´ 1000

SECTION – II (40 Marks)

(i) Name the type of vibrations produced by the vibrating body.

(iii) The average kinetic energy of the molecules remains same.

(ii) Represent this change in the form of an equation.

(ii) Hot cathode ray tube is used in monitors in computers.

ICSE EXAMINATION QUESTION PAPER – 2013 (SOLVED)

(Time : 1 1/2 hours) (M.Marks 80)

is stretched by a force as shown in the diagram.

\ Work done by the body, W = F × S = 100 N × 90 m = 9000 J

(d) You have been provided with a solenoid AB.

(i) What is the polarity at end A ?

(c) Resistance of three 4 W resistors in series = 4 × 3 = 12 W

\ Equivalent resistance of 5 W , 2 W and 6 W in series.

SECTION II (40 Marks)

Load 1500 N Block and tackle system

Heat capacity of the body

When the circuit is switched on, the ammeter reads 0.5 A.

(i) Calculate the value of the unknown resistor R.

ICSE EXAMINATION QUESTION PAPER – 2014 (SOLVED)

SECTION – I (40 Marks)

(ii) Nuclear fission.

Þ Correct path of the refracted ray shown

(d) 50 g of metal piece at 27 ºC requires 2400 J of heat energy so as to attain a temperature of

Total R = R1 + R2 + R3 = 1 + 5 + 2.4 = 8.4W.

SECTION – II (40 Marks)

(ii) F1 = F2 = 5N, d1 = d2 = 50 cm = 0.5 m

(b) A type of electromagnetic wave has wavelength 50 A .

(b) A nucleus 11 Na 24 emits a beta particle to change into Magnesium (Mg)

(1) The change in the magnetic flux, and

ICSE QUESTION PAPER-2016 (SOLVED)

SECTION I (40 Marks)

Distance covered by both in 30 steps is

number and atomic mass of the element S. [2]

(i) What kind of pulleys are A and B ?

0°C Melting time

Correct graph (Axes and Shape)

(ii) The terminal voltage of the cell is

ICSE EXAMINATION QUESTION PAPER – 2017 (SOLVED)

SECTION – I (40 Marks)

Velocity of light in air or vacuum

(ii) Frequency of a stretched string is directly proportional to its tension. Þ f µ T

(d) (i) Nature of the surface.

SECTION – II (40 Marks)

(ii) By principle of moments

Image is between F and O. It is virtual, erect and diminished.

(ii) Ray B exhibits refraction of light.

(b) (i) Electrons

ICSE EXAMINATION QUESTION PAPER – 2018 (SOLVED)

SECTION – I (40 Marks)

Study the two sound waves and compare their: