Exame Simulado Oficial EXIN 2.0 - Ingles

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SIMULAÇÃO DE EXAME DE CERTIFICAÇÃO FOUNDATION DE ACORDO

COM O EXIN

EXAMINATION

1 of 40

Which process or function deals with errors and questions about use of services, raised by
end users?

A .Availability Management
B. Service level Management
C. Problem management
D. Service Desk

2 of 40

What is the difference between a Known Error and a problem ?

A. The underlying cause of a known Error is known. The underlying cause of a


Problem is not known
B. A Known Error involves an error in the IT infrastructure, A Problem does not
involve such an error.
C. A Known Error always originates from an Incident. This is not always the case with
a Problem.
D. With a Problem, the relevant Configurations items have been identified. This is not
the case with a known Error.

3 of 40

Submission of Requests for Change (RFC’s) is an activity of which ITIL process?

A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Incident Management
D. Release Management

1
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4 of 40

Who is authorised to establish an agreement with the IT organisation for the purchase of IT
Services?

A. the service Level Manager


B. the user
C. the ITIL process owner
D. the customer

5 of 40

The Service Level Manager has established a Service Level Agreement (SLA) with the
customer. The IT department has been unable to fulfil the requirements in the IT
organisation orders new hardware only once a month. The IT department often needs the
hardware sooner than this, as the SLA agreed to delivery “ as required”.

Which document(s) should the IT department and the purchasing division establish or
review together?

A. the Operational Level agreement (OLA)


B. the service Level Requirements (SLR’s)
C. the Service Specification sheets
D. the underpinning Contract (UC)

6 of 40

When a new of a software package is installed in a desktop or client/server environment, it


can affect other software packages.

Which IT process monitors whether other software packages must be tested and installed
again in such a situation?

A. Change Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management

2
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7 of 40

A properly implemented Configuration Management process will help us determine what


services are no longer available in the event of a server ”crash”. To achieve this what step
has to have been completed?

A. The “Status” attribute should have been added to the Configuration items (CI’s).
B. CI’s should have been marked with asset stickers.
C. The Service Desk should have access to the Configuration Management
Database(CMDB).
D. Relationships should have been defined between CI’s.

8 of 40

From which document can the Incident Management process obtain information about
when and to whom it must escalate issues if required?

A. the Service Improvement Programme


B. the Service Catalogue
C. the organisation chart
D. the Service Level Agreement

9 of 40

The Problem Control is a sub-process of Problem Management. The first activity of


Problem Control is to identify and record problems.

What is the first step to be taken in identifying a problem?

A. analyse all existing incidents


B. classify and prioritise problems
C. solve problems
D. provide management information

10 of 40

Which ITIL process or function checks that Requests for change (RFC’s) are logical,
workable and necessary?

A. Change Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
3
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D. Service Desk

4
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11 of 40

From which data collection tool can statistical information be extracted to gain an insight
into the structure and composition of the IT infrastructure?

A. the Capacity Management Database (CMD)


B. the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
C. the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)
D. 4the Definitive Software Library (DSL)

12 of 40

What is another term for Uptime?

A. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)


B. Mean Time To Repair ( MTTR)
C. Mean Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI)
D. Relationship between MTBF and MTBSI

13 of 40

Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management?

A. advising end users of a system failure


B. documenting the fallback arrangements
C. providing reports regarding availability
D. guaranteeing that the configuration Items are constantly kept up-to-date.

14 of 40

What is the description of the term confidentiality as part of the security management
process?

A. protection of the data against unauthorised access and use


B. ability to access data at any moment
C. the capacity to verify that the data is correct
D. the correctness of the data

15 of 40

What is usually not an activity of the service desk?

A. handling (standard)Requests For Change


5
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B. handling complaints about the services of the IT organisation
C. tracing the underlying cause of incidents
D. providing information on products and services

16 of 40
Which of the following documents is part of a tactical process?

A. user manual in area of an application


B. newsletter from the Service Desk about an application
C. discussion about a Request for Change (RFC) for expansion of an application with
the person who submitted the RFC
D. agreements on the availability percentage of an applicat

17 of 40

An end-user’s PC crashes. This is not the first time that he has had problems with his PC. It
also crashed three months ago. The user reports the crash to the Service Desk.

What is Happening Here?

A. an incident
B. a Known Error
C. a Problem
D. a Request for Change

18 of 40

Which of the following is an example of a Service Request?

A. a complaint about the provision of services


B. an error report
C. a relocation of equipment request
D. a request for documentation

19 of 40

What is an activity within the area of Pro-active Problem Management?

A. handling requests for change


B. performing trend analyses and identifying potential incidents and problems
C. following up on all incidents and disruptions
D. minimising the disruption to services resulting from Changes to the IT environment
6
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20 of 40

A user has forgotten his password and asks the Service desk for a new password.

What type of request does this involve?

A. an information Request
B. a Request for Change (RFC)
C. a Service Request
D. a Standard Change

21 of 40

Control is one the activities of Configuration Management.

A. updating changes to Configuration Items (CI’s)and their relationships in teh


Configuration management Database (CMDB)
B. verifying that the CI’s and their attributes are specified correctly in the CMDB
C. installing new CI’s in the operating environment
D. taking inventory of the CI’s

22 of 40

Which activity is part of the Availability Management process?

A. classifying Requests For Change


B. defining the impact code for incidents
C. identifying problems with the availability of IT Services
D. measuring the availability of IT Services

23 of 40

In which ITIL process are negotiations held with customer about the IT Services?

A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Financial Management for IT services
D. Service Level Management

8
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24 of 40

Which attribute in the configuration Management Database (CMDB) would help to


ascertain which Configuration items are undergoing maintenance at a particular moment in
time?

A. purchase data
B. owner
C. location
D. status

25 of 40

Which of the following Changes must be authorised through Change Management?


A. data entry from users indo a database
B. changing a password
C. adding a new user to the system
D. relocating of a printer from the second floor to the third floor

26 of 40

Which measure will contribute to an improvement in the way Problem Management


functions and therefore structurally reduce regularly recurring incidents?

A. holding an information campaign among users to encourage them to engage the


services of Problem Management
B. setting up and implementing Problem control and Error Control
C. introducing a distributed Service Desk
D. selecting a new tool that enables the Service desk to oversee all incidents much
more effectively

27of 40

Which ITIL process or which ITIL function has the matching of incidents with
known(documented) solutions as one of its activities?

A . Change Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Service Desk

9
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28 of 40

Which status does a Problem obtain when the cause of that problem is known?

A. the status ” Incident”


B. the status “Known Error”
C. the status “Solved”
D. the status ”Request for Change”

29 of 40

After a Change has been implemented, an evaluation is performed.

What is this evaluation called?

A. Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)


B. Post Implementation Review (PIR)
C. Service Improvement Programme (SIP)
D. Service Level requirement (SLR)

30 of 40

Due to a defect, a user’s sound card is replaced with a new one.

For future reference, which ITIL process is responsible for registering the new sound card
made by a different manufacturer?

A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Incident Management
D. Problem Management

31 of 40

At which moment does release Management start building, testing and implementing a
Change?

A. After the members of the Change Advisory Board (CAB) have discussed the,
impact analysis.
B. After the Request for Change (RFC) has been formally authorised and scheduled.
C. After the Service Quality Plan has been realised, so that the quality is guaranteed
after the Change has been implemented.
10
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D. After Problem Management submits the RFC.

11
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32 of 40

Which of the following is included in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A. arrangements about the services to be provided


B. availability statistics of a past period
C. an action plan for setting up the Service Level Management process
D. detailed technical descriptions of the TCP-IP protocol

33 of 40

Which ITIL process ensures that the IT Services are restored as soon as possible in the case
of a malfunction?

A. Change Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Service Level Management

34 of 40

One of the activities of Capacity Management is described as:


“making predictions about the `behaviour` of the infrastructure. The available technologies
range from formulating estimates to extensively testing prototypes.”

Which Capacity Management activity does this involve?

A. Demand Management
B. Modelling
C. Application Sizing
D. Tuning

35 of 40

Who provides input to the Security Management process in order to define security
requirements?

A. configuration manager
B. database manager
C. customer
D. Service Desk employee
12
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13
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36 0f 40

Which ITIL process co-ordinates the implementation of a new software release?

A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Release Management
D. Service Level Management

37 of 40

Which ITIL process analyses threats and dependencies to IT Services as part of the decision
regarding “countermeasures” to be implemented?

A. Availability Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Problem Management
D. Service Level Management

38 of 40

Which ITIL process draws up a (long-range) plan for the expected purchase of IT
Services ?

A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Service Level Management

39 of 40

Which ITIL process is responsible for drawing up a charging system?

A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Financial Management for IT Services
D. Service Level Management

14
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40 of 40

What is IT Service Management?

A. effectively and efficiently managing the quality of the IT Services


B. organising the management of the IT infrastructure according to the best practices
of ITIL
C. managing the IT infrastructure in a process-oriented way so that the IT organisation
can provide the customer with IT products in a professional way
D. promoting an understanding of IT Services among a wider audience

15
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ANSWER KEY

1 of 40

A. Incorrect. Availability Management has no direct contact with users.


B. Incorrect. Service Level Management mainly concerns itself with the agreements
with customer for the IT Services, not on resolving malfunctions or answering
users’ questions.
C. Incorrect. Problem Management concerns itself with investigating the underlying
cause.
D. Correct. Dealing with questions about use or errors with services is the task of the
Service desk ITIL function.

2 of 40

A. Correct. An underlying cause will be defined when a Problem is being investigated.


This results in a Known Error.
B. Incorrect. The cause of both a Known Error and a Problem can be located in the IT
infrastructure, but this cause will be known in the case of a Known Error.
C. Incorrect. A Problem should always have been defined from the registration of one
or more Incidents.
D. Incorrect. In the description of a Problem, the Configuration Items involved are not
yet known. The Problem must still be investigated, after which it becomes a Known
Error.

3 of 40

A. Incorrect. Change Management itself does not submit any Requests for Change
(RFC’s).Change Management receives RFC’s, evaluates them and implements them
or rejects them.
B. Incorrect. Configuration Management does not submit RFC’s. Configuration
Management provides information about the Configuration items involved in an
RFC to be implemented.
C. Correct. When the cause of an Incident is clear ,Incident Management can submit an
RFC.
D. Incorrect. Release Management does not submit REFC’s . Release Management
provides (planning) information about which releases are to be included in an RFC.

4 of 40

A. Incorrect. The Service Level Management is part of the IT organisation and as such
cannot establish any agreements.
16
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B. Incorrect. The user is the person who uses the IT resources for his or her daily tasks,
but has no authorisation to establish agreements.
C. Incorrect. The ITITL process owner is part of the IT organisation and as such
cannot establish any agreements
D. Correct. The customer is the authorised person to establish an agreement with the IT
organisation for the purchase of IT Services.

5 of 40

A. Correct. The purchasing division is an internal supplier, and an Operational Level


Agreement (OLA) should be reviewed/modified or established.
B. Incorrect. The Service Level Requirements (SLR’s) specify the customer’s
requirements/expectations. This is not the appropriate type of contract between
internal supplier and the IT Service Provider.
C. Incorrect. Although the Service Specification sheets specify which kind of
technology must be available, it is not the appropriate type of contract between an
internal supplier and the IT Service Provider.
D. Incorrect. Underpinning Contracts (UC’s) are intended for external suppliers.

6 of 40
Carefully read the introduction to this question.

A. Correct. Change Management ensures that the risks associated with a Change are
kept to the minimum.
B. Incorrect. IT Service Continuity Management May be involved indirectly in this
matter if there is a serious problem as a result of the Change and the IT Service
Continuity Plan must be put into effect a s a result. However, this is not the
responsibility of IT Service Continuity Management.
C. Incorrect. This is not the task of Problem Management.
D. Incorrect. The actual activities (reinstalling and retesting other packages) may be the
task of Release Management, but Change Management is responsible for
monitoring these activities.

7 of 40

A. Incorrect. If the status of the server is ‘inactive’, you still cannot see which services
are affected. In that case, you must also have defined the relationships.
B. Incorrect. Stickers do not show which services are using the server.
C. Incorrect. Although it is useful that the Service Desk has access to the Configuration
Management Database (CMDB), it is absolutely not necessary in order to see which
services are no longer operational. The Configuration Manager can also see that.
D. Correct. In the CMDB, the relation between the hardware infrastructure (for
example, a server) and the services linked to it (for example, which applications are
17
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running on a server and which business process is being supported in this way) has
been recorded.

18
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8 of 40

A. Incorrect. The Service Improvement Programme contains steps necessary to make


improvements in Service Delivery following major failures in delivering services.
B. Incorrect. The Service Catalogue (product and service catalogue) contains
descriptions about all services, but not the people to whom Incident Management
can escalate.
C. Incorrect . The organisation chart display the existing organisational structure and
contains no information about escalation in a particular situation.
D. Correct. Arrangements about escalation can be recorded in a Service Level
Agreement.

9 of 40

A. Correct. Analysis of all existing incidents is the first activity of Problem


Management in the Problem Control subprocess.
B. Incorrect. This is not one of the first steps.
C. Incorrect. This will certainly not be the first step. In order to solve a Problem,
Problem Management must first investigate what the Problem is
D. Incorrect. Problem Management can only report on the Problem when information
in known about the Problem. This is the last step

10 of 40

A. Correct. Change Management evaluates Requests for Change (RFC’s)


B. Incorrect. Incident Management must be informed about RFC’s, but it does not
verify them.
C. Incorrect. Problem Management can, however, submit RFC’s.
D. Incorrect. The Service Desk can, however, be involved in implementing a Change.

11 of 40

A. Incorrect. The Capacity Management Database (CMD) contains only capacity and
performance data on the IT infrastructure.
B. Correct. The Configuration Management Database (CMDB) contains a record of the
entire IT infrastructure and its interrelationships.
C. Incorrect. The Definitive Hardware Store (DHS) is the storage location for hardware
stocks of standardised basic configurations.
D. Incorrect. The Definitive Software Library (DSL) contains all source software and
documentation for the operational software.

19
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12 of 40

A. Correct.
B. Incorrect. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is the average time required to resolve an
incident (Downtime).
C. Incorrect. Mean time Between System Incidents (MTBSI) is the average time
between the occurrence of two successive incidents. This also includes the MTTR,
therefore,
D. Incorrect. A relationship between two different time indicators produces a factor or
percentage as a result. This has nothing to do with Uptime.

13 of 40

A. Incorrect. Advising users of system failure is a Service Desk activity.


B. Correct.
C. Incorrect. Providing reports on availability is an activity of Availability
Management.
D. Incorrect. Guaranteeing that the Configuration items are constantly kept up-to-date
is an activity of Configuration Management.

14 of 40

A. Correct. Protection of the data against unauthorised access and use is the description
of confidentiality as used in the Security Management process.
B. Incorrect. Ability to access data at any moment is a description of Availability as
used in the Security Management process
C. Incorrect. The Capacity to verify that the data is correct is part of the description of
Integrity as used in the Security Management process.
D. Incorrect. The correctness of the data is part of the description of Integrity as used in
the Security Management process.

15 of 40

A. Incorrect. The handling of (standard) Requests For Change is an activity within


Change Management, but it can also be a Service Desk activity
B. Incorrect. The handling of complaints about the services of the IT organisation is an
activity within Service Level Management, but it can also be a Service Desk
activity.
C. Correct. Tracing the underlying cause of incidents is an activity of Problem
Management.
D. Incorrect. Providing information on products and services can be an activity of the
Service Desk.

20
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16 of 40

A. Incorrect. User support in the area of applications is part the Incident Management
process, an operational process.
B. Incorrect. A newsletter from the Service Desk about an applications is a form of
communication from the Service Desk, an operational department.
C. Incorrect. A discussion about a request for Change (RFC) for the communication in
the Change Management process, an operational process.
D. Correct. Agreements on the availability percentage needed of a purchasing
application are made in the Service Level Management Process, a tactical process.

17 of 40

Carefully read the introduction to this question.

A. Correct. This is an Incident. It is a long time ago that the previous Incident occurred.
This Incident Cannot be related directly to the previous Incident.
B. Incorrect. This involves an Incident, and not a Known Error. Moreover, the fact that
this is a recurring malfunction still does not make it a Known Error.
C. Incorrect. This report does not involve a Problem. Moreover, the fact that this is a
recurring malfunction still does not make it a Problem.
D. Incorrect. This is an Incident and not a Request for Change

18 of 40

A. Incorrect. A complaint about the provision of services is possibly an Incident, but it


is not a Service Request hat can be solved by the Service Desk according to a
straightforward standard procedure.
B. Incorrect. A error report is not a Service request, but it requires Incident
Management procedures to ensure the rapid recovery of services..
C. Incorrect. The relocation of equipment is a Change request.
D. Correct. A request from a user for information, advice, documentation or a new
password, for example, is a Service Request.

19 of 40

A. Incorrect. Handling Requests for Change is the task of Change Management.


B. Correct. Pro-active Problem Management concerns itself with trend analysis and
identifying potential incidents and problems.
21
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C. Incorrect. Following up on all incidents and disruptions is the task of Incident
Management.
D. Incorrect. Minimising the impact of changes is not task of Pro-active Problem
Management but of Change Management.

20 of 40

A. Incorrect. The user is not just requesting information. Moreover, ‘Information


Request’ is not an ITIL term.
B. Incorrect. A Request for Change is submitted to Change Management.
C. Correct. A service Request is an Incident whereby the Service Desk can help the
user in a straightforward way.
D. Incorrect. A Standard Change is a Change that can be regarded as standard as far as
its content is concerned but that no longer has go through the entire Change
Management process.

21 of 40

A. Correct.
B. Incorrect. Verifying that the CI’s and their attributes are specified correctly the
Configuration Management Database (CMDB) is a description of Verification and
not the Control activity.
C. Incorrect. Installing new CI’s the operating environment does not describe the
Control activity. It is an activity that is usually executed by Release Management
under the responsibility of Change Management.
D. Incorrect. Taking inventory of the Configuration Items (CI’s) is a description of
Identification and registration and not the Control activity.

22 of 40

A. Incorrect. Classifying Requests for Change is a Change Management activity.


B. Incorrect. Defining the impact code for incidents is an Incident Management
activity.
C. Incorrect. Identifying problems with the availability of IT Services is a Problem
Management activity.
D. Correct. In addition to reporting, measurement is the most important activity in the
Availability Management process. The measurement and reporting activities create

22
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the basis for verifying service agreements, removing problem situations and
formulating improvement proposals.

23
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23 of 40

A. Incorrect. Availability Management has no direct with the customer.


B. Incorrect. Capacity Management has no direct contact with the customer.
C. Incorrect. Financial Management for IT Services determines the cost price and sales
price on the basis of the financial policy or negotiations with the customer, but is
not directly involved in negotiations.
D. Correct. One of the activities of service Level Management is ‘drawing up the
contract’. Part of this activity involves negotiating on the desired provision of
services in relation to the costs. Pricing information is recorded in a service Level
Agreement (SLA).

24 of 40

A. Incorrect. The purchase data of a Configuration Item (CI) has nothing to do with the
maintenance being carried out on that CI.
B. Incorrect. The owner does not change if a CI is undergoing maintenance.
C. Incorrect. While the location of a CI may change when under maintenance – this
attribute would not be a useful way to show all CI’s currently under
maintenance(there could be multiple maintenance locations)
D. Correct. Reporting on the status flag will show us all CI’s that are currently
‘flagged’ as being in a maintenance state.

25 of 40

A. Incorrect. In that case, for example, every time an order is entered or a document is
stored, permission wold have to be received from Change Management.
B. Incorrect. Changing a password is not a Change but a Service Request. If it was a
Change, the Change Management process would be overloaded with Requests For
Change that generally have little impact have on the rest of the IT infrastructure.
C. Incorrect. Adding a new user to system is not a Change, but a Service Request. If it
was a Change, the Change Management process would be overloaded with Request
for Change that generally have little impact have on the rest of the IT infrastructure.
D. Correct. This is a change in the IT infrastructure and can have a certain impact on
the way the infrastructure functions.

26 of 40

A. Incorrect. Users do not engage the services of Problem Management.


B. Correct. Problem Control and Error Control focus on investigating underlying
causes and eliminating errors through Requests for Change, respectively. Both
processes actively contribute to the reduction of regularly recurring incidents.
24
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C. Incorrect. A distributed Service Desk does not improve the way Problem
Management functions.
D. Incorrect. A tool enables the Service Desk to oversee the reported and outstanding
incidents more effectively, but this does not necessarily improve the way the
Problem Management process functions.

27 of 40

A. Incorrect. Change Management concerns itself with submitted Requests for Change
and with dealing with those requests.
B. Correct. Matching is an activity that is part of the incident Management IYIL
process.
C. Incorrect. Problem Management concerns it self with investigating the underlying
cause of one or more incidents.
D. Incorrect. The Service Desk concerns itself with providing users with support.

28 of 40

A. Incorrect. The status ‘incident’ does not exist. Several incidents together make up a
Problem.
B. Correct. If the cause of the Problem is known, it obtains the status Known Error.
C. Incorrect. The status ‘Solved’ is not a correct term in the ITIL descriptions. The
Problem must still be solved after its cause is known.
D. Incorrect. A request for Change (RFC) is the logical consequence of a Known Error.
The Known Error can be solved by applying for and implementing an RFC.

29 of 40

A. Incorrect. A Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC) is not an evaluation, but a


calendar with a schedule of the coming changes.
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect. A Service Improvement Programme (SIP)is not an evaluation. A SIP
can, however, be the consequence of an evaluation (from Service Level
Management).
D. Incorrect. Service Level requirement (SLR’s) are the expectations of the customer
for a (new) service. There do not involve an evaluation.

30 of 40

25
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A. Incorrect. Change Management is indeed responsible for the Change, but not for
registering that Change.
B. Correct. Configuration Management registers new Configuration Items (CI’s) in the
Configuration Management Database (CMDB).
C. Incorrect. Incident Management registers the Incident and its development, but does
not register the Change in the CMDB.
D. Incorrect. Problem Management may have concluded that the sound card had to be
replaced, but it is not responsible for registering the Change.

31 of 40

A. Incorrect. Discussion of the impact analysis does not signify approval of the
Change proposal. Moreover, a schedule will have to be compiled for the Change
before Release Management can do its job.

B. Correct

C. Incorrect. The Service Quality Plan has nothing to do with the moment if building,
testing and implementing a Change.

D. Incorrect. Problem Management cannot itself initiate Change activities. Change


Management must initiate the formal start of those activities.

32 of 40

A. Correct.
B. Incorrect. The availability statistics are described in reports.
C. Incorrect. The agreement to establish and/ or execute the action plan can be
included in a Service Level agreement (SLA),but not the plan itself.
D. Incorrect. Detailed technical descriptions of services are not included in a good SLA
(customer language), let alone a technical description of the TCP-IP protocol.

33 of 40

A. Incorrect. Change Management can sometimes be involved in the solution


procedure.
B. Correct. Malfunctions (Incidents) are reported through Incident Management.
Incident Management tries to resolve the malfunctions as soon as possible.

26
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C. Incorrect. It is only after it has become clear that one or more malfunctions have a
structural cause – that is, there is a Problem involved – that Problem Management
tries to revolve the Problem.
D. Incorrect . Service Level Management does not resolve malfunctions. This process
records the arrangements made about service levels in a Service Level Agreement
(SLA).

34 of 40

A. Incorrect. Demand Management is the adjustment of customer demand to capacity


B. Correct.
C. Incorrect. Application Sizing is the specification of the hardware capacity required
to support new (or adapted) applications.
D. Incorrect. Tuning involves the optimal fine-tuning of systems to the actual or
expected workload.

35 of 40

A. Incorrect. Configuration Management links the specification of the desired


confidentiality, integrity and/or availability (classification) to a Configuration
Item(CI).This classification is derived from the security requirements the Service
Level agreement (SLA).
B. Incorrect. The database manager does not draw up the requirements to be defined
for the database security level, but takes measures that guarantee the integrity of the
data in the database.
C. Correct . The user is the only party who can determine the importance of
information or information systems for the business processes. The security
requirements are recorded in a SLA
D. Incorrect. The service Desk does not provide any input in order to determine which
requirements are specified for security.

36 of 40

A. Correct. Control and management of the distribution of releases are the


responsibility of Change Management.
27
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B. Incorrect. Configuration Management does not manage the distribution of releases
It is, however in providing Configuration Item information and in modifying that
information as a result of the distribution.
C. Incorrect .Release Management does not manage the distribution of releases, but it
does provide content-related information about releases and the schedule.
D. Incorrect. Service Level Management does not manage the distribution of releases,
but it does provide the user with reports on releases.

28
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37 of 40

A. Incorrect. Availability Management provides data about the requisite availability of


components in the IT infrastructure and their mutual dependency. This data is used
for the analysis of threats and dependencies in the IT Service Continuity
Management process.
B. Correct. IT Service Continuity Management analyses the threats and dependencies
and determines the relevant countermeasures.
C. Incorrect. Problem Management investigates the IT infrastructure in order to detect
the causes of (potential) malfunctions in the provision of services. However,
external threats are not considered to be malfunctions or errors in the IT
infrastructure.
D. Incorrect. Service Level Management is responsible for the transparency of the
obligations assumed for the IT Services.

38 of 40

A. Incorrect . The task of Availability Management is to manage the availability of the


IT Services.
B. Correct. The task of Capacity Management is to plan the expected purchase of the
IT Services.
C. Incorrect . The task of Configuration Management is to register and monitor the
current information on the IT infrastructure.
D. Incorrect . The task of Service Level Management is to make agreements about IT
Services.

39 of 40

A. Incorrect. The task of Availability Management is to manage the availability of the


IT Services.
B. Incorrect . The task of Capacity Management is to plan the expected purchase of the
IT Services.
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect . The task of Service Level Management is to make agreements about IT
Services.

40 of 40

A. Correct.
B. Incorrect. IT Service Management is mush broader than the ITIL method.
29
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C. Incorrect . IT Service Management focuses on IT services rather than on IT
products.
D. Incorrect. IT Service Management restricts itself to people who are working or are
involved in the specialised field .
The evaluation

Examination results
A Maximum of 40 points can be earned on an ITIL Foundation examination.
A score 0f 26 points or higher is considered a passing grade.
The following table relates the number of points earned to a grade.

Failed passed
number of number of
points earned grade points earned grade

0 – 11 1 26 – 29 6
12 – 15 2 30 – 32 7
16 – 18 3 33 – 36 8
19 – 22 4 37 – 39 9
23 – 25 5 40 10

Sample examination
The table below shows the correct answers to the questions in this sample examination.

Number answer points number answer points


1 D 1 21 A 1
2 A 1 22 D 1
3 C 1 23 D 1
4 D 1 24 D 1
5 A 1 25 D 1
6 A 1 26 B 1
7 D 1 27 B 1
8 D 1 28 B 1
9 A 1 29 B 1
10 A 1 30 B 1
11 B 1 31 B 1
12 A 1 32 A 1
13 B 1 33 B 1
14 A 1 34 B 1
30
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15 C 1 35 C 1
16 D 1 36 A 1
17 A 1 37 B 1
18 D 1 38 B 1
19 B 1 39 C 1
20 C 1 40 A 1

31
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