THIRUVALLUVAR UNIVERSITY

MEDICAL BACTERIOLOGY MCQS

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING

1. Nose and skin are the best anatomic location of

a)Bacteroids sp b) Gardnerella vaginalis c).Entercoccus d)Staphylococcus aureus

2. Within how many days after birth a stable flora develops?

a) 1 day b) 7 days c) 30 days d) 7-14 days

3.  Where does the Streptococcus mutans adhere to the body site?

a) intestinal tract b) tongue c) teeth d) hairs

4. Which of the following microorganism produces colicins in the intestine?

a) E.coli b) B.subtilis c) Clostridium botulinum d) Streptococcus salivarius

5.  Which body part contains the largest microbial population?

a) stomach b) small intestine c) large intestine d) mouth

6. Which of the following choices lists the steps of pathogenesis in the correct order?

A. invasion, infection, adhesion, exposure

B. adhesion, exposure, infection, invasion
C. exposure, adhesion, invasion, infection
D. disease, infection, exposure, invasion

7. Which of the following would be a virulence factor of a pathogen?

A. a surface protein allowing the pathogen to bind to host cells

B. a secondary host the pathogen can infect
C. a surface protein the host immune system recognizes
D. the ability to form a provirus

8. __________ pathogen causes disease only when conditions are favorable for the microorganism because of
transfer to an inappropriate body site or weakened immunity in an individual.

a. opportunistic b. contagious c. virulent d. acute

9. Which of the following applies to hyaluronidase?

A. It acts as a spreading factor.

B. It promotes blood clotting.
C. It is an example of an adhesin.
D. It is produced by immune cells to target pathogens.

10. Glycocalyx allows bacteria to ________

a. Attach to the membranes of the body

b. Escape the immune system
 c. Appear like they are part of the body
d. All of the answers are correct.

11.  A relationship between two organisms in which one benefits at the expense of the other
a)Parasitism b)Mutualism c) Commensalism d) Amensalism

12. Parasites are organisms that _____.

a) Support one or more life stages of another organism

b) Live on or in another organism

c) Live on or in another organism and always do harm

d) Live on or in another organism but provide a benefit to that organism

13. Which of the following is true about the relationship between parasites and hosts?
a. Parasites will only have one host their entire lives
b. One host cannot transmit a parasite to another host
c. Hosts are always aware that they have a parasite
d. Parasites may have more than one host throughout their lives
14. If a parasite reaches maturity in a host, we call this the _____ host.
a. maturity
b. intermediate
c. definitive
d. secondary
15.The term ectoparasites includes
a) some viruses b)some bacteria c) some protozoan d)some insects

16.Swabs are appropriate for specimens collected from all the following sites EXCEPT:

A) Upper respiratory tract B) External ear C) Urine D) Genital tract

17. Why does a fecal sample for culture need to be collected in a leak-proof, nonsterile container?

A) Fecal samples can be runny and if the specimen leaks, this can present a biohazard.
B) Many types of bacteria call the intestinal tract home; the specimen cannot become contaminated.
C) Leak-proof containers are always sterile, so the container will be leak-proof as well as sterile.
D) Because DNA probes can determine resident florae from pathogenic bacteria.

18. Glassware used to measure 24 hour urine volumes is a:

a. volumetric ask b. beaker c. Erlenmeyer cylinder d. graduated cylinder

19. The destruction of all micro-organisms including spores is called:

a. sanitation b. antisepsis c. sterilization d. disinfection

20. A biopsy is:

a. a removal of biological fluid
b. the removal of an organ
c. a post mortem examination
d. excision of a representative tissue sample

21. The liquid portion of blood remaining after a clot has formed is called:
a. the buffy coat
b. serum
c. plasma
d. lymph

22. A biohazarddous container is used to discard:

a. lancets
b. needled
c. band-aid wrappers
d. a & b

23. A specimen is:

a. material spread on a slide
b. an amount of blood or urine
c. a small sample taken to represent the whole organism or system
d. a colony of micro-organisms growing on solid medium

24.Identify the correct sequence of steps on the gram stain procedure:

a. primary stain, secondary stain, mordant, decolorizing
b. mordant, primary stain, decolorizing, counterstain
c. counterstain, mordant, primary stain, decolorizing
d. primary stain, mordant, decolorizing, counterstain

25. Specimens which are not expected to be sterile in healthy individuals include:
a. blood and cerebrospinal fluid b. aspirated and catheterized urine c. respiratory and gastrointestinal tract specimens
d. all of the above

26. Culture media which promotes the growth of one type of organism and
retards the growth of others is called:
a. differential media
b. enriched media
c. natural media
d. selective media

27. Susceptibility testing:

a. measures how fast a pathogen can be destroyed
b. identifies the type of organism in the specimen
c. determines the effectiveness of drug therapy
d. identifies the appropriate antibiotic needed to kill the pathogen

28. Activated charcoal present in transport media will:

a. indicate a contaminated specimen
b. prevent overgrowth of extraneous organisms
c. maintain anaerobic conditions
d. absorb toxic substances

29. Enriched media:

A) Support the grouping of microbes based on different characteristics demonstrated in the media

B) Allow the growth of fastidious microbes through the addition of certain growth enhancers

C) Support the growth of most nonfastidious microbes

D) Support the growth of one type or group of microbes, but not another

30. When using the isolation streaking technique,the most isolated forms of the organisms should be in which
quadrant?

A) Fourth B) Third C) Second D) First

31. Among the following which is positive for coagulase test?

a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Staphylococcus epidermidis
c) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
d) E.coli

32. S.pneumoniae produces which of the following type of colonies?

a) alpha-haemolytic b) beta-haemolytic c) non-haemolytic d) alpha-, beta-haemolytic

33. The causative agent of leprosy is __________

a) M.intracellulare b) M.leprae c) M.kansasii d) M.phlei

34. Which of the following is true of Haemophilus influenzae?

A) Invasive infections are most commonly associated with encapsulated strains

B) Most invasive infections occur in infants during the neonatal period

C) Most human infections are acquired from domestic pets

D) The organism can be readily cultured on sheep blood agar in an environment of elevated CO2

E) Older adults are rarely at risk for infection with this organism because they typically have a high level of
immunity.

35. Anthrax is caused by the gram-positive rod named as

a)Bacillus b) Bacillus anthracis c)Bacillus subtilis d)Bacillus cereus

36. Klebsiella sp E.coli Enterobacters and pseudomonas are causative agents for

A. Cancer
B. Urinary tract infections
C. Anthrax
D. Peritonitis

37. A wall-less aerobic and fried egg-shaped bacteria cause pneumonia named as

A. Mycobacterium
B. Mycoplasma
C. Clostridium sordellii
D. Treponema

38. Most common cause of Traveller‘s diarrhoea :

a) Enterotoxigenic E. coli
b) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
c) Enteropathogenic E. coli
d) Enreroinvasive E. coli

39. Endotoxin produced by gramnegative bacteria is present in

a.Peptidoglycan b. Lipo polysaccharide c. Teichoic acid d. Inner membrane

40. The anthrax disease is most frequently infected from

a.Cattle b. Sheeps c. Rats d. Both a and b
41. Lepra bacillus is best cultured
a.Armadillo’s brain b.Foot pad of mice c.Liver of guinea pig d.any of the above
42.Nagler’s reaction detects
a.Coagulase b. Hyaluronidase c. Lecithinase d. None of these

43.Triple toxoid vaccine gives protection against

a,Diphtheria, tetanus and rabies
b.Tetanus, whooping cough, Tuberculosis
c.whooping cough, tetanus and Diphtheria
d.Whooping cough, cancer and T.B.
44. Septicaemia is
a. Bacteria in blood b. toxin in blood c Pus in blood d.Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood
45. Salmonella typhi is causative organism of
a.Undulent fever b. Remittent fever c. Dengue fever d. Enteric feve

46. Main symptom of tuberculosis is

a.Tubercle formation b. Liquid formation c. Both a and b d. None of these

47 which of the following is the most immunogenic in typhoid?

a.O Antigen b.H Antigen c.Vi Antigen d.Somatic antigen

48. Positive tuberculin test indicates

a. Exposure to TB b. Sensitivity to tuberculin protein c. Tuberculin infection d. Fulminant tuberculosis

49.Causative agent of syphilis

a.T. pallidum b. T. pertenue c. T. carateum d. T. endemicum

50. All the following features are penumococcus EXCEPT

a. Bile insolubility b. Optochin sensitivity c. Gram positivity d. Encapsulation

51. Wool sorter’s disease is

a. Pneumonic plaque b. Pneumonic form of anthrax c. Hydaited disease of lung d. Caused by psittacosis

52. ______________ is the most commonly acquired hospital infection

a Surgical wound infection.b. Urinary tract infection c. Respiratory tract infection.d. Infectious diarrhea

53. Hand-washing hygiene is so important because ____________ are not usually part of the resident skin flora, but
are readily carried on the hands.
a. Gram negative cocci b. Gram negative rods c. Gram positive cocci d. Gram positive rods

54. Darting motility is shown by

a. Proteus b.  Serratia c. Vibrio d. E coli

55. Hemophilus needs

a. X factor b.  V factor c. X and V factor d. None of the above

56. Chalmydia causes all of the following EXCEPT

a. Trachama b. Non gonococcal urthritis c. Pneumonia d. Parotitis

57.Borrelia burgdorferi is associated with which of the following bugs?

a. Louse .b. Dermacentor tick c. Fleas d. Ixodes tick

58. Bacteria associated with flea bites, rodents, and prairie dogs.
A. Yersinia pestis b. Rickettsia prowazekii c. Rickettsia typhus d. Rickettsia rickettsii
59. which one is associated with unpasteurized dairy products:

a. Borrelia recurrentis b. Pasteurella multocida c. Brucella species d. Borrelia burgdorferi

60. Weil-Felix reaction is useful in diagnosis of

a. Rickettisial infection b. Viral infection c. chlamydial infection d. Parasitic infection

61. Which of the following is not true about mycoplasma pneumonia?

a. Mycoplasama are bacteria b. Cold agglutination is present c. PCR is used wherever possible for diagnosis
d. Difficult to culture from sputum

62. What plan should we make to the disposal of solid waste?

a.. Integrated waste management plan

b Recycling of waste management plan
C Reducing of waste management plan
D Use of waste management plan
63. The term ISWM refers to:

A.International Solid Waste Management

B b.Integrated Solid Waste Management
c Integrated Solid Waste Machine
D d.International Solid Waste Mechanism

64.  What is called for the process of burning municipal solid waste in a properly designed furnace under suitable
temperature and operating conditions?

ALandfill B Recycling C Vermicomposting D Incineration

65. What is the first thing you need to know about Infection Control?

a. Biohazards b. Handwashing c. Disinfection d. The basic elements

66. What is the correct order of the Chain of Infection?
a. Susceptible patient; route of exit; organism; reservoir/source; mode of transmission; route of entry.
b. Organism; reservoir/source; route of exit; mode of transmission; route of entry; susceptible patient
c. Reservoir/source; organism; susceptible patient; route of exit; mode of transmission; route of entry
d. Susceptible patient; organism; reservoir/source; mode of transmission; route of exit; route of entry
67. what is the function of ethical committee
a.clinical ethics consultation,revising policies pertaining to clinical ethics and hospital policy
.b.cleaning hospital
c.maintainance of hospital
d.favoring patient against the hospital
68. What are the steps to take if you are exposed to blood or other infectious materials?
a Needle sticks or sharps injuries should be immediately washed with soap and water
b. Irrigate eyes with an eye wash for 10 to 15 mintues
c. Report the incident to your supervisor and seek immediate medical treatment.
D. All of the above
69. What is the color coding of the bag used in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body parts:
A. Yellow
B. Black
C. Red
D. Blue
70. infectious transmitted from animals are known as disease
a.nosocomial b.zoonotic c.contagious d.acute
71.What is a vector?
a. A vehicle for disease transmission
b. A fomite
c. Any object that carries and transmits an infectious agent into another organism
d. Any organism that carries and transmits an infectious agent into another organism
72. What container would you choose for a placenta?
a. Red pail b. Grey tote c. Yellow pail d. Regular waste

73. Where would you put a scalpe?

a. Yellow pail b. Red pail c. White pail d. Sharps container

74. Which of the following bacteria is associated with fleas and causes endemic typhus.
a. Rickettsia typhus b. Rickettsia prowazekii c. coxiella burnetii d.Mycobacterium leprae

75. Which bug is associated with Q fever and comes from spores from cattle placenta and tick feces?
a. Campylobacter b. Chlamydophila psittaci c. Mycobacterium leprae d. Coxiella burnetii