Test – 1 (Code-C)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2021

TEST - 1 (Code-C)
Test Date : 06/10/2019

ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (1) 145. (4)
2. (3) 38. (4) 74. (3) 110. (2) 146. (3)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (1) 111. (4) 147. (4)
4. (3) 40. (3) 76. (2) 112. (4) 148. (2)
5. (2) 41. (2) 77. (2) 113. (4) 149. (4)
6. (2) 42. (4) 78. (4) 114. (2) 150. (4)
7. (3) 43. (3) 79. (3) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (4) 44. (3) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (1)
9. (2) 45. (1) 81. (1) 117. (3) 153. (2)
10. (2) 46. (3) 82. (3) 118. (1) 154. (4)
11. (1) 47. (4) 83. (3) 119. (1) 155. (1)
12. (2) 48. (2) 84. (4) 120. (2) 156. (2)
13. (1) 49. (3) 85. (2) 121. (3) 157. (2)
14. (2) 50. (3) 86. (2) 122. (3) 158. (4)
15. (3) 51. (3) 87. (3) 123. (3) 159. (4)
16. (4) 52. (2) 88. (2) 124. (4) 160. (2)
17. (2) 53. (3) 89. (3) 125. (3) 161. (4)
18. (2) 54. (2) 90. (2) 126. (3) 162. (2)
19. (3) 55. (2) 91. (4) 127. (2) 163. (3)
20. (1) 56. (4) 92. (2) 128. (4) 164. (2)
21. (4) 57. (2) 93. (4) 129. (1) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (1) 94. (3) 130. (3) 166. (3)
23. (3) 59. (3) 95. (1) 131. (2) 167. (2)
24. (4) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (4) 168. (4)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (3) 133. (1) 169. (2)
26. (4) 62. (4) 98. (4) 134. (1) 170. (1)
27. (2) 63. (2) 99. (2) 135. (1) 171. (3)
28. (3) 64. (3) 100. (3) 136. (3) 172. (2)
29. (4) 65. (2) 101. (3) 137. (2) 173. (3)
30. (2) 66. (1) 102. (4) 138. (1) 174. (1)
31. (2) 67. (1) 103. (1) 139. (4) 175. (3)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (1) 140. (3) 176. (2)
33. (4) 69. (1) 105. (3) 141. (2) 177. (2)
34. (1) 70. (2) 106. (2) 142. (2) 178. (4)
35. (2) 71. (4) 107. (1) 143. (1) 179. (3)
36. (4) 72. (2) 108. (1) 144. (3) 180. (4)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (3) 6. Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: The ratio of strength of strong Hint: The power in exponential function must be
nuclear force to the strength of electromagnetic dimensionless
force is about 100 : 1.
Sol.: [Ct] = [M0L0T0]
2. Answer (3)
[C] = [T–1]
Hint & Sol.: In entire journey sum of kinetic
energy and potential energy remains conserved A
in absence of air.  B  = [L]
3. Answer (2)
 AC 
∴  [LT −1]
=
 B 
Hint & Sol.: The statement “science is not just a
collection of laws, a catalogue of unrelated facts.
It is a creation of human mind, with its freely 7. Answer (3)
invented ideas and concepts” was given by Albert Hint & Sol.:
Einstein.
4. Answer (3)
Hint: L.C. = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
Sol.: 10 VSD = 8 MSD
8
1 VSD = MSD
10
8
∴ L.C = 1MSD − MSD
10
1
= MSD
5
1
= mm
5 8. Answer (4)
1 Hint: Distance can never be negative and
Side of cube = 10 mm + 2 × decreasing
5
= (10 + 0.4) mm = 1.04 cm Sol.: v = 2t – 6 = 0 at t = 3 s
Volume = (1.04)3
= 1.12 cm3 (upto 3 significant figure)
5. Answer (2)
l At t = 3 s,
Hint: T = 2π
g x = –9 m,
l At t = 6 s
Sol.: T 2 = 4π2
g x=0m
So, distance = 9 + 9 = 18 m
4π2l 4 × 10 × 4
∴ g =2 = = 10.0 m/s2 9. Answer (2)
T 16
∆g ∆l 2∆T Hint: For equal half distances
and, = +
g l T 2vu
v av = and for equal time interval
 0.01 0.01  v +u
⇒ =
∆g  + 2×  ×=
10 0.075 ≈ 0.1 u +v
 4.00 4.00  v av = .
2
Hence g = (10.0 ± 0.1) m/s2

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 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

Sol.: 13. Answer (1)

Hint: Relative velocity of cars will be zero when
their velocity will be equal.
dx p
Sol.: v1 =
v2 + v3 dt
′ =
v av
2 = 4 – 4t
′
2 v1v av dxQ
∴ v av = v2 =
′
v1 + v av dt
= – 8 + 2t
 v + v3 
2 v1  2  As v1 = v2
v av =  2 
v + v3 4 – 4t = –8 + 2t
v1 + 2
2 t=2s
2 v1v 2 + 2v1v 3 14. Answer (2)
v av =
2v1 + v 2 + v 3 1 2
= ut +
Hint: Use S at
2
10. Answer (2)
1
Hint: In multiplication or in division, the number of Sol.: h1 = 0 + g × 4 = 2g
significant figures in result must be same as that 2
of given number with the least significant figures. 1
h1 + h2 = g × 36 = 18g
0.301× 0.27 2
Sol.: = 0.071
1.149 ⇒ h2 = 16g
11. Answer (1) h1 1
∴ =
–1 3 –2
Hint: [G] = [M L T ] h2 8
Sol.: t ∝ Ra Mb Gc 15. Answer (3)
0 0 1 a b –1 3 –2 c Hint: xAB = urel × t when arel = 0
[M L T ] = [L] [M] [M L T ]
0 0 1
[M L T ] = [M b–c
] [L 3c+a
] [T –2c
] Sol.: xrel = 10 × 1 = 10 m
–2c = 1, b – c = 0, 3c + a = 0 16. Answer (4)
1 1 3 2dv
c= − , b+ =
0, − +a =
0 Hint: t =
2 2 2 v 2 − u2

1 3 d d
b= − a= =
Sol.: t +
2 2 (v + u ) (v − u )

R 3/2 12 12
∴ t∝ = + =8s
M 1/2G1/2 6 2
17. Answer (2)
12. Answer (2)
Hint: Acceleration is slope of velocity-time graph.
Hint: n1u1 = n2u2
dv
Sol.: 10[M1L12T1−2 ] = n2 [M2L22T2−2 ] Sol.: a =
dt
1 2 −2
1 kg   1m   1 s  =
−
60
=
−2 m/s2
∴ n2 =
10      
1 kg  10 cm   30 s  30
2 −2
18. Answer (2)
100 cm   1 
= 10 ×   ×  dv
 10 cm   30  Hint: a =
dt
= 10 × 100 × 30 × 30 Sol.: a = 4t
= 9 × 105 units a∝t

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

19. Answer (3) 1

Sol.: s1 = × 2 × 25 = 25 m
S 2
Hint: t = rel
v rel v = at
Sol.: Srel = 200 m = 2 × 5 = 10 m/s
vrel = 40 m/s s2 = v × t
200 = 50 m
=t = 5s
40 s = s1 + s2 = 75 m
20. Answer (1) 25. Answer (2)
Hint: For uniform motion, velocity is constant t1t2
Sol.: As v = constant Hint: t =
t1 + t2
∴ x∝t
l
21. Answer (4) Sol.: =3
u
dx
Hint: v = l
dt And =6
v
dx
Sol.: =
1 − sin t =
0 ⇒ u = 2v
dt
and l = 6v
π 3.14
sin t = 1 ⇒ =
t = = 1.57 s Now,
2 2
22. Answer (2) l 6v
=
t = = 2s
dv v + u 3v
Hint: a = v
dx 26. Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: 220 = 210 × 210 = 1024 × 1024 ≈ 106
Hence order of magnitude = 6
Sol.:
27. Answer (2)
Hint: Distance travelled is same in last second of
ascent and its first second of descent.
v = –2x + 8
1 g
dv Sol.: × g × (1)2 =
a =v 2 2
dx
28. Answer (3)
a = (–2x + 8) (–2)
u2
a = 4x – 16 Hint: s =
2a
23. Answer (3)
Sol.: s1 ∝ u2
1
Hint:=s (u + v )t s2 ∝ 42u2
2
1 s1 1
Sol.:=s (u + v )t ∴ =
2 s2 16
1 29. Answer (4)
400 = × 40 × t
2
v12 + v 22
⇒ t = 20 s Hint: vC =
2
24. Answer (4)
Sol.: v=
2
2 v12 + 2al
1 2
Hint: s=
1 ut + at
2 v 22 − v12
or, al = …(1)
s2 = vt 2

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 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

l 33. Answer (4)

v c2 = v12 + 2a ×
2 m
Hint: d =
=
v12 +
( v 22 − v12 )= v12 + v 22
V
2 2 ∆d ∆m ∆V
= +
d m V
(10)2 + (20)2
=
⇒ vc = 5 10 m/s ∆d  0.01 0.01 
2 Sol.: % =  +  × 100  0.5%
d  23.35 2.30 
30. Answer (2)
34. Answer (1)
Change in position
Hint: v av = Hint: If y = xn
Time interval
dy
dx then = nx n −1
Sol.: v = dx
dt Sol.: y = x1/2 – x–1/2
x
t 1 −1/2 1 −3/2 x +1
∫=
dx ∫ (6 + 3t 2
0
) dt y′ = x + x = 3/2
0 2 2 2x
x = 6t + t3 35. Answer (2)
1
x(0) = 0 Hint & Sol.: The factor 1− must be
c2
x(2) = 6 × 2 + 8 = 20 m
dimensionless. To make it dimensionless multiply
20 − 0 1
=
v av = 10 m/s with v2
2 c2
31. Answer (2) m
∴ m=0
Hint: Concept of displacement and distance v2
1− 2
Sol.: After 6 steps c
36. Answer (4)
∆Z ∆A ∆B
Hint: = +
After 10 steps Z A B
A
Sol.: Z =
B
∆Z ∆A ∆B
After 16 steps, He will fall into the pit = +
Z A B
∴ t = 16 × 1 = 16 s
 ∆A ∆B  A
⇒ ∆Z
=  + ×
32. Answer (2)  A B  B
Hint: n1u1 = n2u2 ∆A A∆B
∆Z= + 2
Sol.: a × u1 = b × u2 B B
N dyne 37. Answer (2)
u1 for SI unit , u2 for CGS unit
m2 cm2 Hint: T = 2T1 + 2T2
N dyne ∆T = 2∆T1 + 2∆T2
a× 2
=×
b
m cm2 Sol.: T = 2 × 40.3 + 2x 70.2

105 dyne dyne = 80.6 + 140.4 = 221.0

a× =
b×
104cm2 cm2 ∆T = 2 × 0.1 + 2 × 0.2
= 0.2 + 0.4 = 0.6
a 1
= = 10−1 ∴ T ± ∆T = (221.0 ± 0.6)°C
b 10

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

38. Answer (4) 42. Answer (4)

Hint: Principle of homogeneity
 MLT -2 .L3  2 −2
Sol.: a2 – x1/n should have dimension of =
Hint & Sol.: [PV ]  = 2
=
 [ML T ] [W]
(distance)2  L 

∴ x1/n = [L]1/n = L2 43. Answer (3)

1
∴ =
2 Hint: If |x| < < 1, then (1 + x)n = 1 + nx
n
1 Sol.: (1000 + 6)1/3
n=
2
1/3
 6 
39. Answer (3) = 10  1 + 
 1000 
Hint: Use dimensions of different physical
quantities
 6 1
Sol.: [Torque] = [ML2T–2] =10  1 + × 
 1000 3 
[Work] = [ML2T–2]
[Force] = [MLT–2] = 10(1 + 0.002)
[Angular momentum] = [ML2T–1] = 10 × 1.002 = 10.02
40. Answer (3)
44. Answer (3)
Hint: Differentiation of exponential function.
dx dv Hint & Sol.: 1 ly = 9.46 × 1015 m
Sol.: v = = −4e −2t , a = = 8e −2t = −2v
dt dt
1 parsec = 3.26 ly
41. Answer (2)
Hint: Power rule of error combination. 1 AU = 1.496 × 1011 m

P 1/2Q1/3 45. Answer (1)

Sol.: Z =
R
∆Z 1 ∆P 1 ∆Q ∆V ∆r
⇒ × 100 = × × 100 + × × 100 Hint: =3
Z 2 P 3 Q V r

∆A ∆r
∆R =2
+ × 100 A r
R
1 1 ∆V ∆A ∆r
= × 2% + × 3% + 1% = 3% Sol.: For a given change in r, > >
2 3 V A r

[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (3) 2x
Mole of CO =
Hint: One mole of H2O contains 3 mole atoms. 28
Sol.: Mole of H2O molecules = 0.5 Mole of H2 x 28 7
= × =
Mole of atoms of H2O = 0.5 × 3 = 1.5 Mole of CO 2 2x 1
Number of atoms = 1.5 × 6.0 × 1023 = 9.0 × 1023 48. Answer (2)
47. Answer (4) Hint: No. of molecules = mole × NA
Given mass 40
Hint: Mole = =
Sol.: Molecules of SO3 = NA 0.5 NA
Molar mass 80
x 32
Sol.: Mole of H2 = Molecules of=
CH4 = NA 2 NA
2 16

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 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

3 100 × 56
=
Molecules of H2 = NA 1.5 NA 56 g of Fe2+ is present in = 28 × 1000
2 0.2
28 = 28000 g mol–1 of biomolecule.
Molecules=
of N2 = NA 1 NA
28 Molecular mass = 28000 u.
49. Answer (3) 57. Answer (2)
Hint: Orbital angular momentum (L) Hint: 1 mol of N2 occupies 22.4 L at STP.
= l(l + 1)  Sol.: 100 L of air contains 78 L of N2.
78 × 10
Sol.: For f-orbital, l is 3 10 L of air contains = 7.8 L N2
100
L= 3(3 + 1)  = 12 
7.8
50. Answer (3) Mole of N2 at STP = = 0.35
22.4
c Molecules of N2 = 0.35 NA
Hint: E = h
λ 58. Answer (1)
6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 J Hint: 2C2H6 + 7O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O
Sol.: E =
300 × 10−9 3000
= 6.63 × 10–19 J =
Sol.: Mole of ethane = 100
30
51. Answer (3) 7
Hint: Maximum of two electrons can be Mole of O2 = × 100 = 350
2
accommodated in an orbital.
Mass of O2 = 350 × 32 =11200 g = 11.2 kg
52. Answer (2)
59. Answer (3)
Hint.: Three dimensional shape of an atomic
orbital can be given by using Azimuthal quantum Hint: Write electronic configuration of chromium
number. (Cr).
53. Answer (3) Sol.: Cr(24) → 1s 2 2s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p 6 4s13d 5
h Number of unpaired electrons = 6
Hint: λ =
mv 60. Answer (4)
6.63 × 10−34 Z2
Sol.:=
λ m 6.63 × 10 −34 m
= Hint: E = −13.6 eV
5 × 10−3 × 200 n2
54. Answer (2) (2)2 54.4
Sol.: E =
−13.6 × eV =
− 2 eV
Mole of solute n 2
n
Hint: Molarity (M) =
Volume of solution (L) 61. Answer (2)
3.01× 10 21
Σ% × M
Sol.: Mole of glucose= = 5 × 10−3 Hint: Average atomic mass =
6.02 × 1023 100
Sol.: Average atomic mass of element X
5 × 10−3 × 1000
=
Molarity = 0.01 M 41× 30 + 43 × 70 1230 + 3010
500 = = = 42.4 u
55. Answer (2) 100 100
Hint: The species which does not contain 62. Answer (4)
unpaired electron will be diamagnetic Hint: Valence electrons in one oxygen atom is 6.
Sol.: Cu+ : 1s 2 2s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p 6 3d 10 Sol.: Mole of oxygen atom
6.4
= = 0.4
16
56. Answer (4)
Mole of valence electrons = 0.4 × 6 = 2.4
Hint: Each biomolecule should contain one Fe2+
ion. Number of valence electrons = 2.4 NA
Sol.: One mole of biomolecule will contain one 63. Answer (2)
mole of Fe2+ ions. Hint: H2 is limiting reagent.
2+
0.2 g of Fe is present in 100 g of biomolecule Sol.: N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

42 71. Answer (4)

=
Mole of N2 taken = 1.5
28 Hint: For n = 1, l = 0.
7.2 72. Answer (2)
=
Mole of H2 taken = 3.6
2 n2
Hint: rn α
3.6 mole of H2 will require 1.2 mole of N2 for Z
complete reaction.
Sol.: r2 (H) α (2)2 …(1)
∴ H2 is limiting reagent.
(3)2
2
Mole of NH3 produced = × 3.6 =2.4 r3 (Li2+ ) α …(2)
3 3
64. Answer (3) r2 (H) 4
∴ 2+
=
Hint: 1 mole of NO2 will occupy 22.4 L at STP. r3 (Li ) 3
Molar mass 46 73. Answer (4)
=
Sol.: Density = = 2.05 g/L
Molar volume 22.4 Hint: The orbital will be filled according to (n + l)
65. Answer (2) rule.
Hint: SI unit of amount of substance is mole. 74. Answer (3)
66. Answer (1) Hint: Number of electrons ejected in photoelectric
Hint: Calculate mole of C, H and O. effect is proportional to the intensity of the light.
Sol.: Elements Mass percentage Mole Mole ratio 75. Answer (1)
C 41.4 3.45 1 Hint: Radial node = n – l – 1
H 3.4 3.4 1 Angular node = l
O 55.2 3.45 1
Sol.: Radial nodes in 5dxy orbital = 5 – 2 – 1 = 2
Empirical formula of the compound is CHO.
Angular node = 2
67. Answer (1)
76. Answer (2)
Mole of state solute
Hint: Molality (m) = Hint: Hund’s rule.
Mass of solvent (kg)
77. Answer (2)
Sol.: Mass of solute = 15 g
Mole
15 1 Hint: Molarity(M) =
= =
Mole of solute V(l)
60 4
Sol.: m mol of H2SO4 = 200 × 0.5 = 100 m mol
Mass of solvent = (100 – 15) = 85 g
Mass of H2SO4 in 200 ml 0.5 M H2SO4
1× 1000
=
molality = 2.94 m = 100 × 98 × 10–3 = 9.8 g
4 × 85
50 g H2SO4 is present in 100 g of solution.
68. Answer (4)
100
Hint: Characteristics of cathode rays does not 9.8 g H2SO4 is present in × 9.8 =
19.6 g
depend upon the material of cathode used. 50
solution.
69. Answer (1)
78. Answer (4)
Hint: For n = 4; l = 0, 1, 2, 3
∆
Sol.: l = 0, 1, 2, 3 respectively represent s, p, d Hint: CaCO3  → CaO + CO2
and f orbitals There are four orbitals, one each in
20 10
s, p, d and f sub shell having m = 0. =
Sol.: Mole of CO2 produced =
44 22
∴ Maximum number of electrons = 4 × 2 = 8
10
70. Answer (2) Mole of CaCO3 decomposed =
22
Hint: P.E. = 2 Etotal
10
Z2 =
Mass of CaCO3 decomposed × 100
Sol.: Etotal =
−13.6 × eV 22
n2
= 45.45 g
(1)2
P.E. = 2 × −13.6 × eV = −6.8 eV % purity of CaCO3=
45.45
× 100= 90.9%
(2)2 50

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 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

79. Answer (3) 84. Answer (4)

Hint: Mole fraction of ethanol 1  1 1
= RH  2 − 2 
Hint:
mole of ethanol λ  n1 n2 
=
mole of ethanol + mole of H2O Sol.: For first line in Lyman series.
Sol.: Mole of ethanol = 4.45 n1 = 1, n2 = 2
1 1 1 
Mass of H2O = 1000 g = RH  2 − 2 
λ 1 2 
1000
Mole of H2O = = 55.55 1  4 − 1
18 or, = RH  
λ  4 
4.45
Mole fraction of ethanol = 4
4.45 + 55.55 or, λ=
3 RH
4.45
= = 0.074 85. Answer (2)
60
Hint: K(19) → 1s 2 2s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p 6 4s1
80. Answer (2)
Hint: p-orbitals, dx2 − y2 and dz2 orbitals are Sol.: Valence electron is present in 4s orbital.
1
oriented along the axes. ∴ n = 4, l = 0, m = 0 & s = +
2
81. Answer (1)
86. Answer (2)
Hint: Number of orbitals in nth shell is n2. Hint: For Balmer series n1 = 2.
82. Answer (3) Sol.:
c 5
Hint: E = h
λ 4

1 E
Sol.: E1 ∝ 3
λ1

E1 λ 2
= 2
E2 λ1 Number of spectral lines obtained = 3.
λ1 E2 25 5 87. Answer (3)
Or, = = =
λ 2 E1 20 4 Hint: Fe : [Ar] 3d64s2
Sol.: Electronic configuration of Fe3+ : [Ar] 3d5
83. Answer (3)
88. Answer (2)
h
Hint: ∆x ⋅ ∆p ≥ Hint: 2πr = nλ
4π
λ is de-Broglie wavelength
Sol.: ∆x = 2∆p Sol.: r = a0n2
h r5 = a052 = 25a0
2∆p ⋅ ∆p =
4π 2πr 2π × 25a0
λ= = = 10πa0
h n 5
( ∆p)2 =
8π 89. Answer (3)
Hint: Spin quantum number will distinguish two
1 h
∆p = electrons occupying the same orbital.
2 2π 90. Answer (2)
1 h Hint: Number of degenerate orbitals in a
m∆v = particular shell for one electron system is n2.
2 2π
Sol.: He+ is one electron species.
1 h ∴ Number of degenerate orbitals in the second
∆v =
2m 2π shell = 22 = 4.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (4) 99. Answer (2)
Sol.: Anton Von Leeuwenhoek first saw and Hint: RER is the site of protein synthesis.
described a living cell.
Sol.: RER is frequently found in cells which are
92. Answer (2) actively involved in protein synthesis and
Sol.: Rudolf Virchow modified cell theory and secretion.
gave it final shape. Now cell theory is understood 100. Answer (3)
as
Hint: Cell wall protects cell from mechanical
(i) All living organisms are composed of cells injury.
and products of cells.
Sol.: Cell growth, formation of intercellular
(ii) All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
junctions and endocytosis are functions which are
93. Answer (4) related to fluid nature of cell membrane.
Hint : Gas vacuoles are non-membrane bound 101. Answer (3)
structures.
Sol.:
Sol.: Gas vacuoles are found in BGA and purple
and green photosynthetic bacteria. – Ribosome is the only cell organelle found in
both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.
94. Answer (3)
– Fimbriae are fine bristle like structures of
Hint : During this phase chromatids move
bacteria, which help in attachment with
towards the pole.
substratum.
Sol.: In anaphase of mitosis, centromeres split
into two. 102. Answer (4)
95. Answer (1) Sol.: Outer nuclear membrane is often connected
to ER.
Hint : Double metaphasic plate is formed during
metaphase I. 103. Answer (1)
Sol.: Hint: Analogous organelles may differ in origin &
 Long lasting diplotene – Dictyotene structure but are similar in function.
 Appearance of chromosomes – Spireme Sol.: Mesosome is analogous to mitochondria
because both are involved in respiration.
like a ball of wool stage
104. Answer (1)
 Reduction of chromosome – Anaphase I
number Sol. : Intrinsic protein – Cell membrane.
96. Answer (3)
Hint: This is the phase of meiosis characterised Porin – It is a type of protein
by reduction in number of chromosomes. found in outer membrane
of mitochondria.
Sol.: During anaphase I, homologous
chromosomes separate from each other but there Nexin protein – Found in eukaryotic
is no splitting of centromere. flagella
97. Answer (3) Sedimentation – Indirect measure of
Hint: A meiocyte has double the number of coefficient density and size.
chromosomes than its meiotic products. 105. Answer (3)
Sol.: Cell A : 32 chromosomes and 60 pg DNA in Sol.: In plants, Golgi apparatus is made up of
G1 phase. unconnected units called dictyosome.
After replication during S-phase
106. Answer (2)
Cell A : 32 chromosomes and 120 pg DNA in G2
Hint: Chromosomes acquire different shapes
phase.
during anaphase.
98. Answer (4)
Sol.: Acrocentric chromosome – J shaped
Hint: Prophase follows interphase during which
DNA molecules are not distinct but interwined. Telocentric chromosome – I shaped
Sol.: During prophase, condensation of In telocentric chromosomes, position of
chromosomal material begins. centromere is terminal.

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 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)
107. Answer (1)
Sol.: Theodore Schwann was a British zoologist.
108. Answer (1)
Hint: TCA cycle/Krebs cycle which operates in
mitochondria is part of aerobic respiration.
Sol.: TCA cycle/Krebs cycle occurs in matrix of
mitochondria, therefore mitochondria is site of
aerobic respiration.
109. Answer (1)
Hint: Core of flagella is called axoneme which
remain surrounded by membrane.
Sol.: Axoneme exhibit 9 + 2 arrangement of
microtubules.
110. Answer (2)
Sol.: Cell wall allows materials to pass freely in
and out of the cell. Hence cell wall is completely
permeable.
111. Answer (4)
Sol.: Ribosomes attach with ER by their larger
sub-unit and ribophorin.
Rest of the statements are correct.
112. Answer (4)
Hint : Electron Transport System (ETS) takes
place in the inner membrane of mitochondria.
Sol.: Oxysome is related to ATP synthesis,
therefore enzymes and electron carriers for
formation of ATP are present in the inner
membrane of mitochondria.
113. Answer (4)
Hint : Leucoplasts are related to storage of food.
Sol.: Aleuroplast is a type of leucoplast, stores
protein not starch.
Rest of the statements are correct.
114. Answer (2)
Hint : It is preparatory phase of cell cycle.
Sol.: Interphase is preparatory phase of cell cycle
known as biosynthetic phase because cell
duplicates its organelles and replicates its DNA
during this phase.
115. Answer (3)
Hint : Mitochondria, chloroplast and Golgi bodies
duplicate during gap between S-phase and
M-phase.
Sol.: These cell organelles duplicate during G2
phase of interphase.
116. Answer (2)
Sol.: Genetic material (DNA) duplication takes
place during S-phase (synthesis phase).
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117. Answer (3)
Hint : Intermediate phase between prophase and
metaphase is known as transition phase.
Sol.: Given diagram shows transition to
metaphase because chromosomes are going to
align at metaphasic plate.
118. Answer (1)
Hint : During cytokinesis in animal cells, cell plate
is not formed.
Sol.: In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by
furrow formation with the help of microfilaments.
119. Answer (1)
Hint : Lysosome is considered as suicidal bag of
cell.
Sol.: Lysosomes are rich in hydrolytic enzymes
function at acidic pH i.e., acid hydrolases.
120. Answer (2)
Sol.: Sphaerosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes.
These are found in abundance in endosperm
cells of seeds, thus are believed to be plant
lysosome.
121. Answer (3)
Sol.: Nucleolus is the site for r-RNA synthesis.
122. Answer (3)
Hint : Site for attachment of spindle fibre is a
proteinaceous disc in centromere region.
Sol.: This proteinaceous disc is called
kinetochore.
123. Answer (3)
Hint : A pair of homologous chromosomes is
called a bivalent.
Sol.: During pachytene stage bivalent becomes
distinct. It consists of 4 chromatids and two
centromeres.
124. Answer (4)
Hint : Microtubules form spindle fibres in
eukaryotic cells.
Sol.: Microtubules are made up of tubulin protein.
125. Answer (3)
Hint : The final stage of prophase I is marked by
terminalisation of chiasmata.
Sol.: Final stage of prophase I is diakinesis.
126. Answer (3)
Sol. : Intrameiotic interphase or interkinesis is a
metabolic stage between telophase I and
prophase II. During this phase centriole replicates
but replication of DNA does not occur.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021
127. Answer (2)
Hint : Amitosis is direct cell division.
Sol.: In direct cell division, nucleus of cell
elongates and gradually splits into two daughter
nuclei. Therefore, spindle formation does not
occur.
128. Answer (4)
Sol. : Mitosis is helpful in growth, healing and
regeneration, repair and maintenance of cell size.
129. Answer (1)
Sol.: Phragmoplast is formed by Golgi complex.
130. Answer (3)
Hint : Number of generations (n) of mitosis = (2)n
Sol.: 128 = (2)n
⇒ n=7
131. Answer (2)
Sol.: Pigment chlorophyll remain present in
thylakoid not in stroma.
Rest of the statements are correct.
132. Answer (4)
Hint : In eukaryotes, basal body exhibit 9 + 0
arrangement of microtubules like centriole.
Sol.: It is chiefly made up of tubulin proteins.
Flagellin is found in flagella of prokaryotes
133. Answer (1)
Hint : In nucleolus, precursor of ribosome are
formed.
Sol.: Ribosomes are related to protein synthesis.
The cells which are actively involved in protein
synthesis, have larger and more numerous
nuclei.
134. Answer (1)
Sol.: Lampbrush chromosomes are present in
primary oocyte nuclei of vertebrates as well as
invertebrates.
135. Answer (1)
Sol.: – Meiosis conserve chromosomes number
constant across the generations.
– It increases genetic variability.
– It may occur in zygote or during gamete
formation or spore formation.
– It takes place in diploid cells.
136. Answer (3)
Hint: This sugar is abundant in corn and grapes.
Sol.: Fructose is six carbon sugar with keto
group. Ribose and deoxyribose are five carbon
sugars with aldehyde group.
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Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)
137. Answer (2)
Hint: These are not strictly biomacromolecules.
Sol.: Lipids are not polymers. Amino acids,
monosaccharides and nucleotides are monomers
available for proteins, polysaccharides and
nucleic acids respectively.
138. Answer (1)
Hint: This bond is a property of molecules
constituting genetic material.
Sol.: DNA and RNA both serve as genetic
material in organisms. Their nucleotides are
linked by phosphodiester bonds.
139. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify an inorganic cofactor.
Sol.: Zinc ions are essential as a cofactor for the
proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase.
140. Answer (3)
Hint: These enzymes require water for
functioning.
Sol.: Hydrolytic enzymes are classified in class III
as per IUB i.e. hydrolases.
141. Answer (2)
Hint: Holoenzyme is another term for conjugated
proteins working as enzymes.
Sol.: Protein part of holoenzyme is called
apoenzyme. Tightly bound organic cofactor is
prothetic group.
142. Answer (2)
Hint: Competitive inhibitors resemble the
substrate.
Sol.: Succinate is the substrate of enzyme
succinic dehydrogenase while oxaloacetate is the
product formed.
143. Answer (1)
Hint: Biocatalysts are enzymes.
Sol.: They are mostly proteinaceous. They work
optimally at different pH. They alter the rate of the
reaction but not the equilibrium constant of the
reaction.
144. Answer (3)
Hint: Cellulose is most abundant biomolecule on
earth.
Sol.: β-glucose is the monomer of cellulose.
N – acetylglucosamine (NAG) is the monomer of
chitin. ATP is energy currency of cell.
145. Answer (4)
Hint: ATP has ribose sugar.
Sol.: Adenosine triphosphate i.e. ATP is found in
RNA. DNA has deoxyribose.
 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)
146 Answer (3)
Hint: Functional group is aldehyde in many
sugars.
Sol.: Functional group in glycogen like sugars is
aldehyde (carboxyl or carbonyl ‘C’ atom) and
hydroxyl group.
147. Answer (4)
Hint: Elimination of this moiety is seen during
formation of glycosidic bond.
Sol.: Water is lost during formation
biomolecules by dehydration.
148. Answer (2)
Hint: ‘R’ is represented by – CH2OH.
Sol.: Serine is classified as alcoholic amino acid.
Cysteine is a sulfur containing amino acid.
149. Answer (4)
Hint: Applying Chargaff's rule.
Sol.: [A] = [T] = 30%, ∴ [C] = [G] = 20%. Total
purine and pyrimidine content is 50% each. Sugar
and phosphate form the backbone in DNA.
150. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a sugar obtained from sugarcane.
Sol.: Reducing sugars have free aldehyde or keto
group to oxidise cupric ions to cuprous form.
151. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a polymer of fructose.
Sol.: Inulin is obtained from roots of plants like
Dahlia.
152. Answer (1)
Hint: Glycogen can be stored in human liver.
Sol.: Chitin is structural homopolysaccharide of
N-acetylglucosamine.
153. Answer (2)
Hint: α-carbon of these biomolecules usually
have four different substituents.
Sol.: Glycerol is trihydroxypropane.
154. Answer (4)
Hint: T, L, I, V, W, F, K and M are simple
alphabetic codes of essential amino acids.
Sol.: Leucine, isoleucine, valine, tryptophan,
phenylalanine, lysine and methionine are
essential to man.
155. Answer (1)
Hint: Identify a nitrogenous base.
Sol.: Uridylic acid is a nucleotide of uracil.
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156. Answer (2)
Hint: Its side chain is a ‘methyl’ group.
Sol.: Tyrosine, tryptophan and phenylalanine are
aromatic amino acids. Alanine has the given
structure.
of 157. Answer (2)
Hint: Increased amount of substrate is required to
overcome the competitive inhibition.
Sol.: Km value increases while Vmax remains
unaffected in case of competitive inhibition.
158. Answer (4)
Hint: Feedback inhibition.
Sol.: Product concentration affects activity of
allosteric enzyme.
159. Answer (4)
Hint: Primary metabolites have identifiable
functions in physiological processes.
Sol.: Lectin such as Concanavalin A is a
secondary metabolite.
160. Answer (2)
Hint: They are components of cell membranes.
Sol.: A = water, B = proteins, C = Nucleic acids
D = Carbohydrates, E = Lipids, F = Ions
161. Answer (4)
Hint: It is a polymer of glucose.
Sol.: Proteins (insulin and GLUT 4) are
heteropolymers as are nucleic acids.
162. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a carbohydrate.
Sol.: DNA contains pentose sugar called
deoxyribose. Peptide bond is a feature of
proteins. Uridine is found in RNA. Thiamine is a
vitamin.
163. Answer (3)
Hint: Defense against abrasion.
Sol.: Surfaces requiring protection are lined by
multi-layered epithelium/compound epithelium.
164. Answer (2)
Hint: Column like-cells with basal nuclei are
present here.
Sol.: Surface lining of stomach is composed of
simple columnar epithelium.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021
165. Answer (3)
Hint: Upon loss of weight, the size of adipocytes
decreases.
Sol.: Fat storing cells are called adipocytes.
These cells increase/decrease in size depending
on fat reserve.
166. Answer (3)
Hint: Cells of a tissue perform similar functions.
Sol.: Cells of a tissue must recognise each other
to form a layer of cells.
167. Answer (2)
Hint: Glandular cells are specialised for
secretion.
Sol.: Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get
specialised for secretion and form glandular
epithelium.
168. Answer (4)
Hint: Tissues are organised in specific
proportions and patterns to form an organ.
Sol.: All types of tissues are present in organs
such as stomach, heart, lung and kidney.
169. Answer (2)
Hint: Excitability is a property of this tissue.
Sol.: Wall of blood vessels contain a layer of
smooth muscle fibres which exhibit excitability
and contractility.
170. Answer (1)
Hint: Identify regions where cartilage is found.
Sol.: Elastic cartilage is present in tip of nose and
outer ear joints.
171. Answer (3)
Hint: Fusiform fibres.
Sol.: Smooth muscle fibres are involuntary fibres
with cell junctions.
172. Answer (2)
Hint: Cardiac muscle fibres.
Sol.: Intercalated discs are fusion points that
allow the cells to contract as a unit.
173. Answer (3)
Hint: These are skeletal muscle fibres.
  
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Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)
Sol.: Cardiac muscle fibres show branched
appearance.
174. Answer (1)
Hint: These constitute more than one half of the
volume of neural tissue in our body.
Sol.: Nissl’s granules are site of protein synthesis
and are absent in axon part of a neuron.
175. Answer (3)
Hint: It belongs to category of specialised
connective tissue.
Sol.: Bone helps to support weight.
176. Answer (2)
Hint: These cells are enclosed in cavities called
lacunae.
Sol.: Lamellae are found in bone only. Lacunae
are common to both bone and cartilage.
177. Answer (2)
Hint: Loose connective tissue.
Sol.: Mast cells of areolar tissue are rich in
granules of histamine, serotonin and heparin.
178. Answer (4)
Hint: These are also called Zona occludens.
Sol.: Tight junctions occur in apical part of
epithelial tissue and stop substances from leaking
across the tissue.
179. Answer (3)
Hint: It is a hormone.
Sol.: Sweat, sebum and saliva are secretions of
exocrine glands i.e. they have ducts.
180. Answer (4)
Hint: Presence of keratin makes the surface
impermeable to water.
Sol.: Skin is lined by dry, keratinized epithelium.
 Test – 1 (Code-D)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2021

TEST - 1 (Code-D)
Test Date : 06/10/2019

ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (2) 73. (2) 109. (3) 145. (3)
2. (3) 38. (4) 74. (4) 110. (2) 146. (1)
3. (3) 39. (3) 75. (2) 111. (3) 147. (2)
4. (4) 40. (2) 76. (4) 112. (2) 148. (4)
5. (2) 41. (2) 77. (3) 113. (4) 149. (2)
6. (3) 42. (3) 78. (1) 114. (4) 150. (3)
7. (3) 43. (2) 79. (2) 115. (4) 151. (3)
8. (4) 44. (3) 80. (4) 116. (2) 152. (2)
9. (2) 45. (3) 81. (2) 117. (1) 153. (3)
10. (4) 46. (2) 82. (2) 118. (1) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (3) 83. (3) 119. (1) 155. (4)
12. (1) 48. (2) 84. (2) 120. (2) 156. (2)
13. (4) 49. (3) 85. (3) 121. (3) 157. (4)
14. (2) 50. (2) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (4)
15. (2) 51. (2) 87. (3) 123. (1) 159. (2)
16. (2) 52. (4) 88. (2) 124. (4) 160. (2)
17. (4) 53. (3) 89. (4) 125. (3) 161. (1)
18. (3) 54. (3) 90. (3) 126. (3) 162. (4)
19. (2) 55. (1) 91. (1) 127. (2) 163. (2)
20. (4) 56. (2) 92. (1) 128. (4) 164. (1)
21. (2) 57. (3) 93. (1) 129. (3) 165. (2)
22. (4) 58. (4) 94. (4) 130. (3) 166. (4)
23. (3) 59. (2) 95. (2) 131. (1) 167. (4)
24. (2) 60. (2) 96. (3) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (4) 61. (1) 97. (1) 133. (4) 169. (4)
26. (1) 62. (3) 98. (4) 134. (2) 170. (3)
27. (3) 63. (4) 99. (2) 135. (4) 171. (4)
28. (2) 64. (2) 100. (3) 136. (4) 172. (3)
29. (2) 65. (4) 101. (3) 137. (3) 173. (1)
30. (4) 66. (2) 102. (4) 138. (4) 174. (2)
31. (3) 67. (1) 103. (3) 139. (2) 175. (2)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (3) 140. (2) 176. (3)
33. (1) 69. (1) 105. (3) 141. (3) 177. (4)
34. (2) 70. (1) 106. (2) 142. (1) 178. (1)
35. (1) 71. (2) 107. (1) 143. (3) 179. (2)
36. (2) 72. (3) 108. (1) 144. (2) 180. (3)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 1 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (1) 7. Answer (3)
∆V ∆r Hint: Use dimensions of different physical
Hint: =3 quantities
V r
Sol.: [Torque] = [ML2T–2]
∆A ∆r [Work] = [ML2T–2]
=2
A r [Force] = [MLT–2]
∆V ∆A ∆r [Angular momentum] = [ML2T–1]
Sol.: For a given change in r, > > 8. Answer (4)
V A r
Hint: Principle of homogeneity
2. Answer (3)
Sol.: a2 – x1/n should have dimension of
Hint & Sol.: 1 ly = 9.46 × 1015 m (distance)2
1 parsec = 3.26 ly ∴ x1/n = [L]1/n = L2
1 AU = 1.496 × 1011 m 1
∴ = 2
3. Answer (3) n
1
Hint: If |x| < < 1, then (1 + x)n = 1 + nx n=
2
Sol.: (1000 + 6)1/3
9. Answer (2)
1/3
 6  Hint: T = 2T1 + 2T2
= 10  1 + 
 1000  ∆T = 2∆T1 + 2∆T2
Sol.: T = 2 × 40.3 + 2x 70.2
 6 1
=10  1 + ×  = 80.6 + 140.4 = 221.0
 1000 3  ∆T = 2 × 0.1 + 2 × 0.2
= 10(1 + 0.002) = 0.2 + 0.4 = 0.6
= 10 × 1.002 = 10.02 ∴ T ± ∆T = (221.0 ± 0.6)°C
10. Answer (4)
4. Answer (4)
∆Z ∆A ∆B
Hint: = +
 MLT -2 .L3  2 −2 Z A B
=
Hint & Sol.: [PV ]  = =
 [ML T ] [W]
 L2  A
Sol.: Z =
5. Answer (2) B
∆Z ∆A ∆B
Hint: Power rule of error combination. = +
Z A B
P 1/2Q1/3  ∆A ∆B  A
Sol.: Z = ⇒ ∆Z =  +
R ×
 A B  B
∆Z 1 ∆P 1 ∆Q ∆A A∆B
⇒ × 100 = × × 100 + × × 100 ∆Z= + 2
Z 2 P 3 Q B B
∆R 11. Answer (2)
+ × 100
R 1
Hint & Sol.: The factor 1− must be
c2
1 1
= × 2% + × 3% + 1% = 3% dimensionless. To make it dimensionless multiply
2 3
1
6. Answer (3) with v2
c2
Hint: Differentiation of exponential function.
m
dx dv ∴ m=0
Sol.: v = = −4e −2t , a = = 8e −2t = −2v v2
dt dt 1− 2
c

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 Test - 1 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

12. Answer (1) x

t
∫=
dx ∫ (6 + 3t 2
n ) dt
Hint: If y = x 0
0
dy
then = nx n −1 x = 6t + t3
dx
x(0) = 0
Sol.: y = x1/2 – x–1/2
x(2) = 6 × 2 + 8 = 20 m
1 1 x +1 20 − 0
y ′ = x −1/2 + x −3/2 = 3/2 =
v av = 10 m/s
2 2 2x 2
13. Answer (4) 17. Answer (4)
m
Hint: d = v12 + v 22
V Hint: vC =
2
∆d ∆m ∆V
= + Sol.: v=
2
2 v12 + 2al
d m V
∆d  0.01 0.01  v 22 − v12
=  + or, al =
 × 100  0.5%
Sol.: % …(1)
d  23.35 2.30  2
l
14. Answer (2) v c2 = v12 + 2a ×
2
Hint: n1u1 = n2u2
Sol.: a × u1 = b × u2 =
(v 2 − v12 ) =
v12 + 2
v12 + v 22
2 2
N dyne
u1 for SI unit , u2 for CGS unit
m 2
cm2 (10)2 + (20)2
=
⇒ vc = 5 10 m/s
N dyne 2
a× =×
b
m 2
cm2 18. Answer (3)

105 dyne u2
a× =
b×
dyne Hint: s =
4
10 cm 2
cm2 2a
Sol.: s1 ∝ u2
a 1
= = 10−1 s2 ∝ 42u2
b 10
s1 1
15. Answer (2) ∴ =
s2 16
Hint: Concept of displacement and distance
Sol.: After 6 steps 19. Answer (2)
Hint: Distance travelled is same in last second of
ascent and its first second of descent.
1 g
Sol.: × g × (1)2 =
After 10 steps 2 2
20. Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: 220 = 210 × 210 = 1024 × 1024 ≈ 106
After 16 steps, He will fall into the pit Hence order of magnitude = 6
21. Answer (2)
∴ t = 16 × 1 = 16 s
t1t2
16. Answer (2) Hint: t =
t1 + t2
Change in position
Hint: v av = l
Time interval Sol.: =3
u
dx
Sol.: v = l
dt And =6
v

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 1 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

⇒ u = 2v 26. Answer (1)

and l = 6v Hint: For uniform motion, velocity is constant
Now, Sol.: As v = constant
l 6v ∴ x∝t
=
t = = 2s
v + u 3v 27. Answer (3)
22. Answer (4) Srel
Hint: t =
1 2 v rel
Hint: s=1 ut + at
2
Sol.: Srel = 200 m
s2 = vt
vrel = 40 m/s
1
Sol.: s1 = × 2 × 25 = 25 m 200
2 =t = 5s
40
v = at
28. Answer (2)
= 2 × 5 = 10 m/s
dv
s2 = v × t Hint: a =
dt
= 50 m
Sol.: a = 4t
s = s1 + s2 = 75 m
a∝t
23. Answer (3)
29. Answer (2)
1
Hint:=s (u + v )t Hint: Acceleration is slope of velocity-time graph.
2
dv
1 Sol.: a =
Sol.:=s (u + v )t dt
2
60
1
400 = × 40 × t =
− =
−2 m/s2
2 30

⇒ t = 20 s 30. Answer (4)

24. Answer (2) 2dv
Hint: t =
dv v − u2
2

Hint: a = v
dx d d
=
Sol.: t +
(v + u ) (v − u )
12 12
Sol.: = + =8s
6 2
31. Answer (3)
Hint: xAB = urel × t when arel = 0
v = –2x + 8 Sol.: xrel = 10 × 1 = 10 m
dv
a =v 32. Answer (2)
dx
1 2
a = (–2x + 8) (–2) = ut +
Hint: Use S at
2
a = 4x – 16
1
25. Answer (4) Sol.: h1 = 0 + g × 4 = 2g
2
dx
Hint: v = 1
dt h1 + h2 = g × 36 = 18g
2
dx
Sol.: =
1 − sin t =
0 ⇒ h2 = 16g
dt
h1 1
π 3.14 ∴ =
sin t = 1 ⇒ =
t = = 1.57 s h2 8
2 2

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 Test - 1 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

33. Answer (1) 37. Answer (2)

Hint: Relative velocity of cars will be zero when Hint: For equal half distances
their velocity will be equal. 2vu
v av = and for equal time interval
dx p v +u
Sol.: v1 = u +v
dt v av = .
2
= 4 – 4t
dxQ Sol.:
v2 =
dt
= – 8 + 2t
As v1 = v2 v2 + v3
′ =
v av
4 – 4t = –8 + 2t 2
t=2s ′
2 v1v av
∴ v av =
′
v1 + v av
34. Answer (2)
Hint: n1u1 = n2u2  v + v3 
2 v1  2 
=  2 
Sol.: 10[M1L12T1−2 ] = n2 [M2L22T2−2 ] v av
v + v3
v1 + 2
1 2 −2 2
1 kg   1m   1 s 
∴ n2 =
10   10 cm   30 s  2 v1v 2 + 2v1v 3
1 kg      v av =
2v1 + v 2 + v 3
2 −2
100 cm   1  38. Answer (4)
= 10 ×   × 
 10 cm   30  Hint: Distance can never be negative and
= 10 × 100 × 30 × 30 decreasing

= 9 × 105 units Sol.: v = 2t – 6 = 0 at t = 3 s

35. Answer (1)

Hint: [G] = [M–1L3T–2]
Sol.: t ∝ Ra Mb Gc At t = 3 s,
0 0 1 a
[M L T ] = [L] [M] [M L T ]b –1 3 –2 c x = –9 m,
[M0L0T1] = [Mb–c] [L3c+a] [T–2c] At t = 6 s
x=0m
–2c = 1, b – c = 0, 3c + a = 0
So, distance = 9 + 9 = 18 m
1 1 3
c= − , b+ =0, − +a =
0 39. Answer (3)
2 2 2
Hint & Sol.:
1 3
b= − a=
2 2

R 3/2
∴ t∝
M 1/2G1/2
36. Answer (2)
Hint: In multiplication or in division, the number of
significant figures in result must be same as that
of given number with the least significant figures.
0.301× 0.27
Sol.: = 0.071
1.149

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 1 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

40. Answer (2) 8

∴ L.C = 1MSD − MSD
Hint: The power in exponential function must be 10
dimensionless
1
Sol.: [Ct] = [M0L0T0] = MSD
5
[C] = [T–1]
A 1
= mm
 B  = [L] 5

 AC  1
∴  [LT −1]
= Side of cube = 10 mm + 2 ×
 B  5
41. Answer (2) = (10 + 0.4) mm = 1.04 cm
l Volume = (1.04)3
Hint: T = 2π
g
= 1.12 cm3 (upto 3 significant figure)
l
Sol.: T 2 = 4π2 43. Answer (2)
g
Hint & Sol.: The statement “science is not just a
4π2l 4 × 10 × 4
∴ g =2 = = 10.0 m/s2 collection of laws, a catalogue of unrelated facts.
T 16 It is a creation of human mind, with its freely
∆g ∆l 2∆T invented ideas and concepts” was given by Albert
and, = + Einstein.
g l T
 0.01 0.01  44. Answer (3)
⇒ =
∆g  + 2×  ×=
10 0.075 ≈ 0.1
 4.00 4.00  Hint & Sol.: In entire journey sum of kinetic
Hence g = (10.0 ± 0.1) m/s 2 energy and potential energy remains conserved
in absence of air.
42. Answer (3)
Hint: L.C. = 1 MSD – 1 VSD 45. Answer (3)
Sol.: 10 VSD = 8 MSD Hint & Sol.: The ratio of strength of strong
8 nuclear force to the strength of electromagnetic
1 VSD = MSD force is about 100 : 1.
10

[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (2) 49. Answer (3)
Hint: Number of degenerate orbitals in a
Hint: Fe : [Ar] 3d64s2
particular shell for one electron system is n2.
Sol.: He+ is one electron species. Sol.: Electronic configuration of Fe3+ : [Ar] 3d5
∴ Number of degenerate orbitals in the second
50. Answer (2)
shell = 22 = 4.
47. Answer (3) Hint: For Balmer series n1 = 2.
Hint: Spin quantum number will distinguish two Sol.:
electrons occupying the same orbital.
48. Answer (2) 5
Hint: 2πr = nλ 4
λ is de-Broglie wavelength
E
Sol.: r = a0n2 3
r5 = a052 = 25a0
2πr 2π × 25a0 2
λ= = = 10πa0
n 5 Number of spectral lines obtained = 3.

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51. Answer (2) 56. Answer (2)

Hint: K(19) → 1s 2 2s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p 6 4s1 Hint: p-orbitals, dx2 − y2 and dz2 orbitals are

Sol.: Valence electron is present in 4s orbital. oriented along the axes.

1 57. Answer (3)
∴ n = 4, l = 0, m = 0 & s = + Hint: Mole fraction of ethanol
2
52. Answer (4) mole of ethanol
=
mole of ethanol + mole of H2O
1  1 1
= RH  2 − 2 
Hint:
λ  n1 n2  Sol.: Mole of ethanol = 4.45
Mass of H2O = 1000 g
Sol.: For first line in Lyman series.
1000
n1 = 1, n2 = 2 Mole of H2O = = 55.55
18
1 1 1 
= RH  2 − 2  4.45
λ 1 2  Mole fraction of ethanol =
4.45 + 55.55
1  4 − 1
or, = RH   4.45
λ  4  = = 0.074
60
4
or, λ= 58. Answer (4)
3 RH ∆
Hint: CaCO3  → CaO + CO2
53. Answer (3)
20 10
h =
Sol.: Mole of CO2 produced =
Hint: ∆x ⋅ ∆p ≥ 44 22
4π
10
Sol.: ∆x = 2∆p Mole of CaCO3 decomposed =
22
h
2∆p ⋅ ∆p = 10
4π =
Mass of CaCO3 decomposed × 100
22
h
( ∆p)2 = = 45.45 g
8π
45.45
% purity of CaCO3= × 100= 90.9%
1 h 50
∆p =
2 2π 59. Answer (2)
1 h Mole
m∆v = Hint: Molarity(M) =
2 2π V(l)
1 h Sol.: m mol of H2SO4 = 200 × 0.5 = 100 m mol
∆v =
2m 2π Mass of H2SO4 in 200 ml 0.5 M H2SO4
54. Answer (3) = 100 × 98 × 10–3 = 9.8 g
c 50 g H2SO4 is present in 100 g of solution.
Hint: E = h
λ 9.8 g H2SO4 is present in
100
× 9.8 =
19.6 g
1 50
Sol.: E1 ∝ solution.
λ1
60. Answer (2)
E1 λ 2 Hint: Hund’s rule.
=
E2 λ1 61. Answer (1)
λ1 E2 25 5 Hint: Radial node = n – l – 1
Or, = = =
λ 2 E1 20 4 Angular node = l
55. Answer (1) Sol.: Radial nodes in 5dxy orbital = 5 – 2 – 1 = 2
Hint: Number of orbitals in nth shell is n2. Angular node = 2

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 1 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

62. Answer (3) 70. Answer (1)

Hint: Number of electrons ejected in photoelectric Hint: Calculate mole of C, H and O.
effect is proportional to the intensity of the light. Sol.: Elements Mass percentage Mole Mole ratio
C 41.4 3.45 1
63. Answer (4) H 3.4 3.4 1
Hint: The orbital will be filled according to (n + l) O 55.2 3.45 1
rule. Empirical formula of the compound is CHO.
64. Answer (2) 71. Answer (2)
Hint: SI unit of amount of substance is mole.
n2
Hint: rn α 72. Answer (3)
Z Hint: 1 mole of NO2 will occupy 22.4 L at STP.
Sol.: r2 (H) α (2)2 …(1) =
Sol.: Density
Molar mass 46
= = 2.05 g/L
Molar volume 22.4
(3)2
r3 (Li2+ ) α …(2) 73. Answer (2)
3 Hint: H2 is limiting reagent.
r2 (H) 4 Sol.: N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
∴ 2+
=
r3 (Li ) 3 42
Mole of N2 taken = = 1.5
28
65. Answer (4)
7.2
Hint: For n = 1, l = 0. Mole of H2 taken= = 3.6
2
66. Answer (2) 3.6 mole of H2 will require 1.2 mole of N2 for
complete reaction.
Hint: P.E. = 2 Etotal
∴ H2 is limiting reagent.
Z2
Sol.: Etotal = −13.6 × 2 eV 2
Mole of NH3 produced = × 3.6 =2.4
n 3
(1)2 74. Answer (4)
P.E. = 2 × −13.6 × 2 eV = −6.8 eV Hint: Valence electrons in one oxygen atom is 6.
(2)
6.4
67. Answer (1) Sol.: Mole of oxygen atom = = 0.4
16
Hint: For n = 4; l = 0, 1, 2, 3 Mole of valence electrons = 0.4 × 6 = 2.4
Sol.: l = 0, 1, 2, 3 respectively represent s, p, d Number of valence electrons = 2.4 NA
and f orbitals There are four orbitals, one each in 75. Answer (2)
s, p, d and f sub shell having m = 0. Σ% × M
Hint: Average atomic mass =
∴ Maximum number of electrons = 4 × 2 = 8 100
68. Answer (4) Sol.: Average atomic mass of element X
41× 30 + 43 × 70 1230 + 3010
Hint: Characteristics of cathode rays does not = = = 42.4 u
depend upon the material of cathode used. 100 100
76. Answer (4)
69. Answer (1)
Z2
Mole of state solute Hint: E = −13.6 2 eV
Hint: Molality (m) = n
Mass of solvent (kg)
(2)2 54.4
Sol.: Mass of solute = 15 g Sol.: E = −13.6 × 2 eV = − 2 eV
n n
15 1 77. Answer (3)
Mole of solute = =
60 4 Hint: Write electronic configuration of chromium
(Cr).
Mass of solvent = (100 – 15) = 85 g
Sol.: Cr(24) → 1s 2 2s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p 6 4s13d 5
1× 1000
= = 2.94 m
molality Number of unpaired electrons = 6
4 × 85

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 Test - 1 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

78. Answer (1) 6.63 × 10−34

Sol.:=
λ m 6.63 × 10 −34 m
=
Hint: 2C2H6 + 7O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O 5 × 10−3 × 200
84. Answer (2)
3000
=
Sol.: Mole of ethane = 100 Hint.: Three dimensional shape of an atomic
30
orbital can be given by using Azimuthal quantum
7 number.
Mole of O2 = × 100 =350
2 85. Answer (3)
Mass of O2 = 350 × 32 =11200 g = 11.2 kg Hint: Maximum of two electrons can be
accommodated in an orbital.
79. Answer (2) 86. Answer (3)
Hint: 1 mol of N2 occupies 22.4 L at STP. c
Hint: E = h
Sol.: 100 L of air contains 78 L of N2. λ

78 × 10 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 J

10 L of air contains = 7.8 L N2 Sol.: E =
100 300 × 10−9
= 6.63 × 10–19 J
7.8
Mole of N2 at STP = = 0.35 87. Answer (3)
22.4
Hint: Orbital angular momentum (L)
Molecules of N2 = 0.35 NA
= l(l + 1) 
80. Answer (4)
Sol.: For f-orbital, l is 3
Hint: Each biomolecule should contain one Fe2+
ion. L= 3(3 + 1)  = 12 

Sol.: One mole of biomolecule will contain one 88. Answer (2)
mole of Fe2+ ions. Hint: No. of molecules = mole × NA
0.2 g of Fe2+ is present in 100 g of biomolecule 40
=
Sol.: Molecules of SO3 = NA 0.5 NA
80
100 × 56
56 g of Fe2+ is present in = 28 × 1000 32
0.2 Molecules of=
CH4 = NA 2 NA
16
= 28000 g mol–1 of biomolecule.
3
Molecular mass = 28000 u. =
Molecules of H2 = NA 1.5 NA
2
81. Answer (2) 28
Molecules=
of N2 = NA 1 NA
Hint: The species which does not contain 28
unpaired electron will be diamagnetic 89. Answer (4)
+ 2 2 6 2 6 10 Given mass
Sol.: Cu : 1s 2s 2 p 3s 3 p 3d Hint: Mole =
Molar mass
82. Answer (2)
x
Sol.: Mole of H2 =
Mole of solute 2
Hint: Molarity (M) =
Volume of solution (L) 2x
Mole of CO =
3.01× 10 21 28
Sol.: Mole of glucose= = 5 × 10−3
6.02 × 1023 Mole of H2 x 28 7
= × =
Mole of CO 2 2x 1
5 × 10−3 × 1000
=
Molarity = 0.01 M 90. Answer (3)
500 Hint: One mole of H2O contains 3 mole atoms.
83. Answer (3) Sol.: Mole of H2O molecules = 0.5
h Mole of atoms of H2O = 0.5 × 3 = 1.5
Hint: λ =
mv Number of atoms = 1.5 × 6.0 × 1023 = 9.0 × 1023

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021
[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (1)
Sol.: – Meiosis conserve chromosomes number
constant across the generations.
– It increases genetic variability.
– It may occur in zygote or during gamete
formation or spore formation.
– It takes place in diploid cells.
92. Answer (1)
Sol.: Lampbrush chromosomes are present in
primary oocyte nuclei of vertebrates as well as
invertebrates.
93. Answer (1)
Hint : In nucleolus, precursor of ribosome are
formed.
Sol.: Ribosomes are related to protein synthesis.
The cells which are actively involved in protein
synthesis, have larger and more numerous
nuclei.
94. Answer (4)
Hint : In eukaryotes, basal body exhibit 9 + 0
arrangement of microtubules like centriole.
Sol.: It is chiefly made up of tubulin proteins.
Flagellin is found in flagella of prokaryotes
95. Answer (2)
Sol.: Pigment chlorophyll remain present in
thylakoid not in stroma.
Rest of the statements are correct.
96. Answer (3)
Hint : Number of generations (n) of mitosis = (2)n
Sol.: 128 = (2)n
⇒ n=7
97. Answer (1)
Sol.: Phragmoplast is formed by Golgi complex.
98. Answer (4)
Sol. : Mitosis is helpful in growth, healing and
regeneration, repair and maintenance of cell size.
99. Answer (2)
Hint : Amitosis is direct cell division.
Sol.: In direct cell division, nucleus of cell
elongates and gradually splits into two daughter
nuclei. Therefore, spindle formation does not
occur.
100. Answer (3)
Sol. : Intrameiotic interphase or interkinesis is a
metabolic stage between telophase I and
prophase II. During this phase centriole replicates
but replication of DNA does not occur.
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101. Answer (3)
Hint : The final stage of prophase I is marked by
terminalisation of chiasmata.
Sol.: Final stage of prophase I is diakinesis.
102. Answer (4)
Hint : Microtubules form spindle fibres in
eukaryotic cells.
Sol.: Microtubules are made up of tubulin protein.
103. Answer (3)
Hint : A pair of homologous chromosomes is
called a bivalent.
Sol.: During pachytene stage bivalent becomes
distinct. It consists of 4 chromatids and two
centromeres.
104. Answer (3)
Hint : Site for attachment of spindle fibre is a
proteinaceous disc in centromere region.
Sol.: This proteinaceous disc is called
kinetochore.
105. Answer (3)
Sol.: Nucleolus is the site for r-RNA synthesis.
106. Answer (2)
Sol.: Sphaerosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes.
These are found in abundance in endosperm
cells of seeds, thus are believed to be plant
lysosome.
107. Answer (1)
Hint : Lysosome is considered as suicidal bag of
cell.
Sol.: Lysosomes are rich in hydrolytic enzymes
function at acidic pH i.e., acid hydrolases.
108. Answer (1)
Hint : During cytokinesis in animal cells, cell plate
is not formed.
Sol.: In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by
furrow formation with the help of microfilaments.
109. Answer (3)
Hint : Intermediate phase between prophase and
metaphase is known as transition phase.
Sol.: Given diagram shows transition to
metaphase because chromosomes are going to
align at metaphasic plate.
110. Answer (2)
Sol.: Genetic material (DNA) duplication takes
place during S-phase (synthesis phase).
 Test - 1 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

111. Answer (3) Sol.: Acrocentric chromosome – J shaped

Hint : Mitochondria, chloroplast and Golgi bodies Telocentric chromosome – I shaped
duplicate during gap between S-phase and In telocentric chromosomes, position of
M-phase. centromere is terminal.
Sol.: These cell organelles duplicate during G2 121. Answer (3)
phase of interphase.
Sol.: In plants, Golgi apparatus is made up of
112. Answer (2) unconnected units called dictyosome.
Hint : It is preparatory phase of cell cycle. 122. Answer (1)
Sol.: Interphase is preparatory phase of cell cycle Sol. : Intrinsic protein – Cell membrane.
known as biosynthetic phase because cell
duplicates its organelles and replicates its DNA Porin – It is a type of protein
during this phase. found in outer membrane
of mitochondria.
113. Answer (4)
Nexin protein – Found in eukaryotic
Hint : Leucoplasts are related to storage of food. flagella
Sol.: Aleuroplast is a type of leucoplast, stores Sedimentation – Indirect measure of
protein not starch.
coefficient density and size.
Rest of the statements are correct.
123. Answer (1)
114. Answer (4)
Hint: Analogous organelles may differ in origin &
Hint : Electron Transport System (ETS) takes
structure but are similar in function.
place in the inner membrane of mitochondria.
Sol.: Mesosome is analogous to mitochondria
Sol.: Oxysome is related to ATP synthesis,
because both are involved in respiration.
therefore enzymes and electron carriers for
formation of ATP are present in the inner 124. Answer (4)
membrane of mitochondria. Sol.: Outer nuclear membrane is often connected
115. Answer (4) to ER.
Sol.: Ribosomes attach with ER by their larger 125. Answer (3)
sub-unit and ribophorin. Sol.:
Rest of the statements are correct. – Ribosome is the only cell organelle found in
116. Answer (2) both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.
Sol.: Cell wall allows materials to pass freely in – Fimbriae are fine bristle like structures of
and out of the cell. Hence cell wall is completely bacteria, which help in attachment with
permeable. substratum.
117. Answer (1) 126. Answer (3)
Hint: Core of flagella is called axoneme which Hint: Cell wall protects cell from mechanical
remain surrounded by membrane. injury.
Sol.: Axoneme exhibit 9 + 2 arrangement of Sol.: Cell growth, formation of intercellular
microtubules. junctions and endocytosis are functions which are
118. Answer (1) related to fluid nature of cell membrane.
Hint: TCA cycle/Krebs cycle which operates in 127. Answer (2)
mitochondria is part of aerobic respiration. Hint: RER is the site of protein synthesis.
Sol.: TCA cycle/Krebs cycle occurs in matrix of Sol.: RER is frequently found in cells which are
mitochondria, therefore mitochondria is site of actively involved in protein synthesis and
aerobic respiration. secretion.
119. Answer (1) 128. Answer (4)
Sol.: Theodore Schwann was a British zoologist. Hint: Prophase follows interphase during which
120. Answer (2) DNA molecules are not distinct but interwined.
Hint: Chromosomes acquire different shapes Sol.: During prophase, condensation of
during anaphase. chromosomal material begins.

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129. Answer (3) 137. Answer (3)

Hint: A meiocyte has double the number of Hint: It is a hormone.
chromosomes than its meiotic products. Sol.: Sweat, sebum and saliva are secretions of
Sol.: Cell A : 32 chromosomes and 60 pg DNA in exocrine glands i.e. they have ducts.
G1 phase. 138. Answer (4)
After replication during S-phase Hint: These are also called Zona occludens.
Cell A : 32 chromosomes and 120 pg DNA in G2 Sol.: Tight junctions occur in apical part of
phase. epithelial tissue and stop substances from leaking
130. Answer (3) across the tissue.
Hint: This is the phase of meiosis characterised 139. Answer (2)
by reduction in number of chromosomes. Hint: Loose connective tissue.
Sol.: During anaphase I, homologous Sol.: Mast cells of areolar tissue are rich in
chromosomes separate from each other but there granules of histamine, serotonin and heparin.
is no splitting of centromere. 140. Answer (2)
131. Answer (1) Hint: These cells are enclosed in cavities called
Hint : Double metaphasic plate is formed during lacunae.
metaphase I. Sol.: Lamellae are found in bone only. Lacunae
Sol.: are common to both bone and cartilage.
 Long lasting diplotene – Dictyotene 141. Answer (3)
 Appearance of chromosomes – Spireme Hint: It belongs to category of specialised
connective tissue.
like a ball of wool stage
Sol.: Bone helps to support weight.
 Reduction of chromosome – Anaphase I
142. Answer (1)
number
Hint: These constitute more than one half of the
132. Answer (3) volume of neural tissue in our body.
Hint : During this phase chromatids move Sol.: Nissl’s granules are site of protein synthesis
towards the pole. and are absent in axon part of a neuron.
Sol.: In anaphase of mitosis, centromeres split 143. Answer (3)
into two.
Hint: These are skeletal muscle fibres.
133. Answer (4) Sol.: Cardiac muscle fibres show branched
Hint : Gas vacuoles are non-membrane bound appearance.
structures. 144. Answer (2)
Sol.: Gas vacuoles are found in BGA and purple Hint: Cardiac muscle fibres.
and green photosynthetic bacteria.
Sol.: Intercalated discs are fusion points that
134. Answer (2) allow the cells to contract as a unit.
Sol.: Rudolf Virchow modified cell theory and 145. Answer (3)
gave it final shape. Now cell theory is understood
Hint: Fusiform fibres.
as
Sol.: Smooth muscle fibres are involuntary fibres
(i) All living organisms are composed of cells
with cell junctions.
and products of cells.
146. Answer (1)
(ii) All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
Hint: Identify regions where cartilage is found.
135. Answer (4)
Sol.: Elastic cartilage is present in tip of nose and
Sol.: Anton Von Leeuwenhoek first saw and outer ear joints.
described a living cell.
147. Answer (2)
136. Answer (4)
Hint: Excitability is a property of this tissue.
Hint: Presence of keratin makes the surface
impermeable to water. Sol.: Wall of blood vessels contain a layer of
smooth muscle fibres which exhibit excitability
Sol.: Skin is lined by dry, keratinized epithelium. and contractility.

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 Test - 1 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)
148. Answer (4)
Hint: Tissues are organised in specific
proportions and patterns to form an organ.
Sol.: All types of tissues are present in organs
such as stomach, heart, lung and kidney.
149. Answer (2)
Hint: Glandular cells are specialised for
secretion.
Sol.: Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get
specialised for secretion and form glandular
epithelium.
150. Answer (3)
Hint: Cells of a tissue perform similar functions.
Sol.: Cells of a tissue must recognise each other
to form a layer of cells.
151. Answer (3)
Hint: Upon loss of weight, the size of adipocytes
decreases.
Sol.: Fat storing cells are called adipocytes.
These cells increase/decrease in size depending
on fat reserve.
152. Answer (2)
Hint: Column like-cells with basal nuclei are
present here.
Sol.: Surface lining of stomach is composed of
simple columnar epithelium.
153. Answer (3)
Hint: Defense against abrasion.
Sol.: Surfaces requiring protection are lined by
multi-layered epithelium/compound epithelium.
154. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a carbohydrate.
Sol.: DNA contains pentose sugar called
deoxyribose. Peptide bond is a feature of
proteins. Uridine is found in RNA. Thiamine is a
vitamin.
155. Answer (4)
Hint: It is a polymer of glucose.
Sol.: Proteins (insulin and GLUT 4) are
heteropolymers as are nucleic acids.
156. Answer (2)
Hint: They are components of cell membranes.
Sol.: A = water, B = proteins, C = Nucleic acids
D = Carbohydrates, E = Lipids, F = Ions
157. Answer (4)
Hint: Primary metabolites have identifiable
functions in physiological processes.
Sol.: Lectin such as Concanavalin A is a
secondary metabolite.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021
158. Answer (4)
Hint: Feedback inhibition.
Sol.: Product concentration affects activity of
allosteric enzyme.
159. Answer (2)
Hint: Increased amount of substrate is required to
overcome the competitive inhibition.
Sol.: Km value increases while Vmax remains
unaffected in case of competitive inhibition.
160. Answer (2)
Hint: Its side chain is a ‘methyl’ group.
Sol.: Tyrosine, tryptophan and phenylalanine are
aromatic amino acids. Alanine has the given
structure.
161. Answer (1)
Hint: Identify a nitrogenous base.
Sol.: Uridylic acid is a nucleotide of uracil.
162. Answer (4)
Hint: T, L, I, V, W, F, K and M are simple
alphabetic codes of essential amino acids.
Sol.: Leucine, isoleucine, valine, tryptophan,
phenylalanine, lysine and methionine are
essential to man.
163. Answer (2)
Hint: α-carbon of these biomolecules usually
have four different substituents.
Sol.: Glycerol is trihydroxypropane.
164. Answer (1)
Hint: Glycogen can be stored in human liver.
Sol.: Chitin is structural homopolysaccharide of
N-acetylglucosamine.
165. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a polymer of fructose.
Sol.: Inulin is obtained from roots of plants like
Dahlia.
166. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a sugar obtained from sugarcane.
Sol.: Reducing sugars have free aldehyde or keto
group to oxidise cupric ions to cuprous form.
167. Answer (4)
Hint: Applying Chargaff's rule.
Sol.: [A] = [T] = 30%, ∴ [C] = [G] = 20%. Total
purine and pyrimidine content is 50% each. Sugar
and phosphate form the backbone in DNA.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021
168. Answer (2)
Hint: ‘R’ is represented by – CH2OH.
Sol.: Serine is classified as alcoholic amino acid.
Cysteine is a sulfur containing amino acid.
169. Answer (4)
Hint: Elimination of this moiety is seen during
formation of glycosidic bond.
Sol.: Water is lost during formation of
biomolecules by dehydration.
170 Answer (3)
Hint: Functional group is aldehyde in many
sugars.
Sol.: Functional group in glycogen like sugars is
aldehyde (carboxyl or carbonyl ‘C’ atom) and
hydroxyl group.
171. Answer (4)
Hint: ATP has ribose sugar.
Sol.: Adenosine triphosphate i.e. ATP is found in
RNA. DNA has deoxyribose.
172. Answer (3)
Hint: Cellulose is most abundant biomolecule on
earth.
Sol.: β-glucose is the monomer of cellulose.
N – acetylglucosamine (NAG) is the monomer of
chitin. ATP is energy currency of cell.
173. Answer (1)
Hint: Biocatalysts are enzymes.
Sol.: They are mostly proteinaceous. They work
optimally at different pH. They alter the rate of the
reaction but not the equilibrium constant of the
reaction.
174. Answer (2)
Hint: Competitive inhibitors resemble the
substrate.
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Test - 1 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)
Sol.: Succinate is the substrate of enzyme
succinic dehydrogenase while oxaloacetate is the
product formed.
175. Answer (2)
Hint: Holoenzyme is another term for conjugated
proteins working as enzymes.
Sol.: Protein part of holoenzyme is called
apoenzyme. Tightly bound organic cofactor is
prothetic group.
176. Answer (3)
Hint: These enzymes require water for
functioning.
Sol.: Hydrolytic enzymes are classified in class III
as per IUB i.e. hydrolases.
177. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify an inorganic cofactor.
Sol.: Zinc ions are essential as a cofactor for the
proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase.
178. Answer (1)
Hint: This bond is a property of molecules
constituting genetic material.
Sol.: DNA and RNA both serve as genetic
material in organisms. Their nucleotides are
linked by phosphodiester bonds.
189. Answer (2)
Hint: These are not strictly biomacromolecules.
Sol.: Lipids are not polymers. Amino acids,
monosaccharides and nucleotides are monomers
available for proteins, polysaccharides and
nucleic acids respectively.
180. Answer (3)
Hint: This sugar is abundant in corn and grapes.
Sol.: Fructose is six carbon sugar with keto
group. Ribose and deoxyribose are five carbon
sugars with aldehyde group.