COPA TEST PAPER

Topic:- Computer Fundamental. Marks:- 30

1. UNIVAC is C) Ink-jet printer

A) Universal Automatic Computer D) Laser printer
B) Universal Array Computer
C) Unique Automatic Computer 8. Which of the following IC was used in third
D) Undervalue Automatic Computer generation of computers?
A) SSI
2. The basic operations performed by a B) MSI
computer are C) LSI
A) Arithmetic operation D) Both a and b
B) Logical operation
C) Storage and relative 9. Which of the following was a special purpose
D) All the above computer?
A) ABC
3. The two major types of computer chips are B) ENIAC
A) External memory chip C) EDVAC
B) Primary memory chip D) All of the above
C) Microprocessor chip
D) Both b and c 10. Which of the following storage devices can
store maximum amount of data?
4. Microprocessors as switching devices are for A) Floppy Disk
which generation computers B) Hard Disk
A) First Generation C) Compact Disk
B) Second Generation D) Magneto Optic Disk
C) Third Generation
D) Fourth Generation 11. High density double sided floppy disks could
store _____ of data
5. The brain of any computer system is A) 1.40 MB
A) ALU B) 1.44 GB
B) Memory C) 1.40 GB
C) CPU D) 1.44 MB
D) Control unit
12. Which of the following is not an input
6. Chief component of first generation device?
computer was A) OCR
A) Transistors B) Optical scanners
B) Vacuum Tubes and Valves C) Voice recognition device
C) Integrated Circuits D) COM (Computer Output to Microfilm)
D) None of above
13. When was vacuum tube invented?
7. To produce high quality graphics (hardcopy) A) 1900
in color, you would want to use a/n B) 1906
A) RGB monitor C) 1910
B) Plotter D) 1880
 B) Ink jet printer
14. Which of the following produces the best C) Plotter
quality graphics reproduction? D) Dot matrix printer
A) Laser printer
15. Computers with 80286 microprocessor is B) A memory
A) XT computer C) Input and output unit
B) AT comptuers D) All of the above
C) PS/2 computer
D) None of above 21. John Napier invented Logarithm in
A) 1614
16. Software in computer B) 1617
A) Enhances the capabilities of the hardware C) 1620
machine D) None of above
B) Increase the speed of central processing unit
C) Both of above 22. An integrated circuit is
D) None of above A) A complicated circuit
B) An integrating device
17. Abacus was the first C) Much costlier than a single transistor
A) electronic computer D) Fabricated on a tiny silicon chip
B) mechanical computer
C) electronic calculator 23. Which of the following is used as a primary
D) mechanical calculator storage device?
A) Magnetic drum
18. BCD is B) Hard Disks
A) Binary Coded Decimal C) Floppy
B) Bit Coded Decimal D) All of above
C) Binary Coded Digit
D) Bit Coded Digit 24. A byte consists of
A) One bit
19. Properly arranged data is called B) Four bits
A) Field C) Eight bits
B) Words D) Sixteen bits
C) Information
D) File 25. The term gigabyte refers to
A) 1024 bytes
20. A computer consists of B) 1024 kilobytes
A) A central processing unit C) 1024 megabytes
D) 1024 gigabyte
 MS Word
1. How many different positions can you set for c. 55
drop cap? d. 65
a. 1
b. 2 8. In a document what is the maximum number
c. 4 of columns that can be inserted in MS Word
d. 6 Table?
a. 35
2. How many ways you can save a document? b. 15
a. 3 c. 63
b. 4 d. 65
c. 5
d. 6 9. What is the maximum scale percentage
available in Scale drop down box?
3. What is the maximum number of lines you a. 500
can set for lines to drop box? b. 200
a. 3 c. 100
b. 5 d. 90
c. 10
d. 15 10. What is the maximum font size you can
apply for any character
4. Single spacing in MS-WORD document causes a. 163
____ point line spacing? b. 1638
a. 10 c. 16038
b. 12 d. None of above
c. 14
d. 16 11. Word, by default, places a tab stop at every
_____ mark on the ruler.
5. What is the default number of lines to drop a. .25"
for drop cap b. .5"
a. 3 c. .75"
b. 10 d. 1"
c. 15
d. 20 12. What is the default file extension for all
Word documents?
6. What is the maximum number of lines you a. .txts
can set for a drop cap? b. .word
a. 3 c. .docs
b. 10 d. .docx
c. 15
d. 20 13. The file type _____ indicates the file is a
Word document.
7. How many columns can you insert in a word a. .msw
document in maximum? b. .wor
a. 35 c. .wrd
b. 45 d. .doc
14. Which of the following button will allow you c. 12 and 72
to add, delete, or change records in your Data d. None of above
Source?
a. ‘Data Source’ button 21. What is the default font size of a new Word
b. ‘Edit’ button document based on Normal template in Word
c. ‘Edit Data Source’ button 2003?
d. ‘Data Editing’ button a. 10 pt
b. 12 pt
15. How much space in minimum must be c. 14 pt
provided between columns? d. None of above
a. 0"
b. 0.5" 22. The minimum number of rows and columns
c. 1" in MS Word document is
d. 1.5" a. 1 and 1
b. 2 and 1
16. What is the smallest width of a column? c. 2 and 2
a. 0" d. None of above
b. 0.5"
c. 1" 23. In mail merge operation which of the
d. 1.5" following might represent the main document?
a. A sales brochure
17. By default, your document prints with: b. A form letter
a. 1 inch top and bottom margins c. A database of Names and Addresses
b. a portrait orientation d. All of above
c. 1.25 inches left and right margins
d. all of the above 24. Pressing F8 key for three times selects
a. a word
18. Word is preset to use standard 8.5-by-11- b. a sentence
inch paper with _____ margins. c. a paragraph
a. 1-inch left, right, top, and bottom d. entire document
b. 1.25-inch left, right, top, and bottom
c. 1.25-inch left and right margins and 1-inch 25. What do you call ‘a collection of character
top and bottom and paragraph formatting commands’?
d. 1-inch left and right margins and 1.25-inch a. the defaults
top and bottom b. a template
c. a style
19. What is the default left margin in Word d. a boilerplate
2003 document?
a. 1" 26. What is a Document Outline View?
b. 1.25" a. A preview in a full screen
c. 1.5" b. A preview with margins
d. 2" c. A View with a margins and gutter
d. A view with a structure of heading at various
20. What is the smallest and largest font size levels
available in Font Size tool on formatting
toolbar? 27. Ctrl + Z
a. 8 and 72 a. Undo the last Action
b. 8 and 64 b. Redo the last Action
c. Add the new page
d. Paste the contents from clipboard 35. How many different documents you can
open at one time?
28. The _____ in the Resume Wizard dialog box a. No more than three
indicates the wizard is ready to create the b. Only one
document. c. As many as your computer memory will hold
a. Start panel d. As many as your taskbar can display
b. Address panel
c. Add/Sort Heading panel 36. Which of the following is the second step in
d. Finish panel creating a macro?
a. Start recording
29. What does Ctrl + = key effect? b. Using your mouse or keyboard, perform the
a. Superscript task you want to automate
b. Subscript c. Assign a keyboard shortcut to the macro
c. All Caps d. Give the macro a name
d. Shadow
43. When assigning a shortcut key to a symbol,
30. How can you make the selected character you should always try to select a key or key
super scripted combination that is:
a. Ctrl + = a. unassigned
b. Ctrl + Shift + = b. located on the ten-key pad section of your
c. Alt + Ctrl + Shift + = keyboard.
d. None of above c. assigned to another task.
d. from the same font family as the symbol.
31. When typing in a word field manually, what
must you press to insert the code’s braces? 37. Which feature is used to replace straight
a. Ctrl + F6 quotes with smart quotes as you type?
b. Ctrl + F9 a. Auto Correct as you type
c. Alt + F11 b. Auto Change as you type
d. Shift + F12 c. Auto Format as you type
d. Smart Tags as you type
32. What is the short cut key to open the Open
dialog box? 38. Which of the following command is not
a. F12 available in Tools menu?
b. Shift F12 a. Auto text
c. Alt + F12 b. Autocorrect
d. Ctrl + F12 c. Auto summarize
d. Macro
33. What is the shortcut key to split a table?
a. Ctrl + Alt + Enter 39. Word has a list of predefined typing,
b. Ctrl + Shift + Enter spelling, capitalization, and grammar errors that
c. Alt + Shift + Enter _____ can detect and correct.
d. Alt + Space + Enter a. AutoEntry
b. AutoCorrect
34. Which key is used to increase left indent? c. AutoAdd
a. Ctrl+I d. AutoSpell
b. Ctrl+M
c. Alt+I 40. Which option is not available in Insert Table
d. F10 Autofit behavior?
a. Fixed Column Width b. Pressing Alt+Shift+Enter
b. AutoFit to Contents c. Break command from Insert menu
c. Autofit to Window d. Both b and c
d. Autofit to Column
48. What is the default font used in MS Word
41. When you click on File menu in Word 2010, 2007 document?
it opens a. Times New Roman
a. File menu b. Arial
b. File Commands c. Calibri
c. Backstage View d. Preeti
d. File Ribbon
49. Word includes a series of predefined
42. Tabs stop position cannot be the following graphics called _____ that can be inserted into
alignment a Word document.
a. Decimal Alignment a. clip art
b. Center Alignment b. hyperlinks
c. Bar Alignment c. captions
d. Justify Alignment d. bookmarks

43. Ctrl + B 50. A (n) _____is a dot or other symbol

a. Search the selected text positioned at the beginning of a paragraph.
b. Paste the selected text a. bullet
c. Bold the selected text b. logo
d. Open the specified file c. cell
d. target
44. To move the cursor page to page of
document 51. Which of the following is not a type of page
a. Ctrl+PgDn margin?
b. Ctrl+PgUp a. Left
c. Both of above b. Right
d. None of above c. Center
d. Top
45. You can jump to the next column by
a. Clicking with your mouse on the next column 52. Ctrl + A
b. Press Alt + Down-arrow a. Align Right
c. Both of above b. Select All
d. None of Above c. Change font
d. Save document
46. Which of the following enables you to paste
data multiple times? 53. Which of the following is not on Home
a. Windows Clipboard ribbon?
b. Office Clipboard a. Columns
c. Both Windows & Office Clipboard b. Font color
d. None of the all c. Change Style
d. Font
47. You need to jump to the next column
breaking current column right at the cursor 54. Ctrl + E
position. How can you break column? a. Exit Application
a. Pressing Ctrl+Enter b. Select All
c. Clear All c. command bar
d. Align Center d. toolbar

55. Which would you choose to save a 62. What is the shortcut key you can press to
document with a new name? create a copyright symbol?
a. Press Ctrl+S a. Alt+Ctrl+C
b. Click File, Save b. Alt + C
c. Click Tools, Options, Save c. Ctrl + C
d. Click File, Save As d. Ctrl + Shift + C

56. You cannot close MS Word application by 63. What is the short cut key to open Font
a. Choosing File menu then Exit submenu dialog box?
b. Press Alt+F4 a. Ctrl + F
c. Click X button on title bar b. Alt + Ctrl + F
d. From File menu choose Close sub menu c. Ctrl + D
d. Ctrl + Shift + D
57. Which of the following option is not
available in Insert >> Picture ? 64. What is the shortcut key to "Center Align"
a. Chart the selected text?
b. Word Art a. Ctrl + C
c. Clip Art b. Ctrl + E
d. Graph c. Ctrl + F
d. None of above
58. Which option in File pull-down menu is used
to close a file in MS Word? 65. What is the shortcut key for Spelling Check
a. New in document?
b. Quit a. F7
c. Close b. Shift + F7
d. Exit c. Ctrl + F7
d. Alt + F7
59. Ctrl + O
a. Save Document 66. What is the shortcut key to Update Formula
b. Print Document in a table?
c. Close Document a. F9
d. Open Document b. Alt + F9
c. Ctrl + F9
60. Which feature do you use to create a d. Shift + F9
newspaper like document?
a. Bullets & numbering 67. What is the shortcut key for "Font" dialog
b. Tables box?
c. Columns a. Ctrl + F
d. Tab stops b. Ctrl + D
c. Ctrl + G
61. A _____ contains buttons, boxes, and d. None of the above
menus that allow tasks to be performed more
quickly than using the menu bar. 68. What is the shortcut key for "Find and
a. format bar Replace" dialog box?
b. status bar a. Ctrl + F
b. Ctrl + R
c. Ctrl + H
d. Ctrl + Shift + F 70. How can you access the font size tool on
formatting toolbar?
69. What is the shortcut key to "Insert a. Ctrl + S
Hyperlink" in a document? b. Ctrl + Shift + S
a. Ctrl + H c. Ctrl + P
b. Ctrl + L d. Ctrl + Shift + P
c. Ctrl + K
d. None of above

MS Excel
1 . W h a t i s ex t e n s io n o f f i l e s c r e at e d 6 . W h a t i s t h e u s e o f V L O O KU P
i n M S - E x ce l 9 7 - 2 0 0 3 f u n c t i o n i n M S E xc e l -
(a) .xlx ( a ) to g et t h e m ax v a lu e
( b ) . m sx ( b ) t o co p y a r o w
(c) .Dot ( c ) to f i n d t h i n g s i n a t a b l e
(d) .xls (d) None of these

2 . W h a t i s ex t e n s io n o f f i l e s c r e at e d 7 . W h i c h b u tt o n i n M S E x c e l t o
i n M S - E x ce l 2 0 0 7 -2 0 1 5 c a l c u l a t e t h e s um o f n u m b e r
( a ) T xt ( a ) A u to S u m
(b) XLS (b) Fill
( c ) XL S X ( c ) I n s e rt
(d) RTF (d) Merge

3 . M S - O f f ic e i s - 8 . W h a t i s t h e S h o r tcu t k ey fo r
( a ) A p p l i c a t io n S o ft wa r e " C u r r e n t D a t e" i n Ex ce l
( b ) S y s te m S o ft w a re (a) Ctrl + C
( c ) O p e ra t i n g S y st em (b) Ctrl + D
(d) All of above (c) Alt + ;
(d) Ctrl + ;
4 . W h i c h m e n u o p t io n i n M S E xc e l h a s
t h e o pt i o n t o " S o rt t he D at a " 9 . W h a t i s t h e S h o r tcu t k ey fo r
( a ) R ev i ew " C u r r e n t T im e " i n Ex ce l
( b ) D a ta (a) Ctrl + Shift + :
( c ) F o rm u l a (b) Ctrl + T
(d) Insert (c) Ctrl + D
(d) Ctrl + ;
5 . W h i c h i s t h e c o r rec t f o r m u l a fo r
S U M F u n c t io n i n M S Ex c e l . 1 0 . W h a t i s t h e s ho r tc u t to i n s e rt
( a ) / S UM ( A1 + A5 ) c o m m e n t i n M S Ex c e l
( b ) = S UM ( A 1 - A5 ) (a) Ctrl + F6
( c ) = S UM ( A1 : A5 ) (b) Alt + F8
( d ) + S UM ( A 1 : A 5 ) (c) Shift + F9
( d ) S h i f t + F2
1 1 . W h i c h f u n c t io n i n M S Ex c e l c o u n t s 1 8 . T h e So f t w a re w h i c h c o n t a i n s r o w s
t h e n u m b e r o f c h a r a ct e r s i n a C e l l a n d c o l u m n i s c a l le d -
(a) Len ( ) ( a ) Wo r d P r o c e s s i n g
(b) Length ( ) ( b ) D a ta b a s e
( c ) Co u n t ( ) ( c ) S p r e a d s h ee t
(d) LNG ( ) (d) None of these
Answer – (d) Len ( )
1 2 . W h a t o f t he s e is a s h o r tc u t to a d d 1 9 . Fo rm u l a s i n E xc e l S t a r t w it h -
a b o r d e r t o t h e s e l ec te d c e l l i n M S (a) +
Excel (b) #
(a) Ctrl + T (c) %
(b) Ctrl + B (d) =
(c) Shift + B
(d) Ctrl + Shift + & 2 0 . T o r e t u r n t he r em a i n d e r a f t e r a
n o . i s d i v i de d b y a d i v i s o r i n E xc e l
1 3 . W h a t i s t h e s ho r tc u t k ey o f ( a ) Ro u n d ( )
H y p e r l i n k i n Ex c e l (b) Mod ( )
(a) Ctrl + H (c) Fact ( )
(b) Ctrl + K (d) None of these
(c) Alt + S
(d) Alt + K 2 1 . Hy p e r l i n k s c a n b e
( a ) T ex t
1 4 . W h a t i s t h e S ho r tc u t k ey fo r ( b ) D r aw i n g
s e l e c t C o m p l et e R o w (c) Picture
(a) Shift + Space ( d ) A l l o f t h e a bo v e
(b) Ctrl + Space
(c) Alt + Space 2 2 . N OT , A N D , O R a nd X O R a re -
(d) None of these ( a ) R e l at i o n a l O p e r a to r
( b ) L o g i c a l O pe r a to r s
1 5 . W h a t i s t h e S ho r tc u t k ey fo r ( c ) A r i t hm e t ic O p e ra to r s
s e l e c t C o m p l et e Co l um n (d) None of these
(a) Shift + Space
(b) Ctrl + Space 2 3 . T h e s ho r t c u t k ey t o h i d e e n t i r e
(c) Alt + Space column
(d) None of these (a) Ctrl + H
(b) Ctrl + 0
1 6 . W h a t is t h e i n t e rs e c t io n o f a (c) Ctrl + -
c o l u m n a n d r o w o n wo r k s h ee t c a l l e d ? (d) None of these
( a ) Ro w
( b ) C o l um n 2 4 . W h i c h o f t h e f o l lo w i n g i s c o r re c t -
(c) Cell ( a ) = po we r (2 ^3 )
(d) Address ( b ) = po w er (2 * 3 )
( c ) = p o we r (2 ,3 )
1 7 . M S Ex c e l i s a - (d) None of these
( a ) Wo r d P r o c e s s i n g So f t wa r e
( b ) S p r e a d s h e et P r o gr a m 2 5 . W h a t i s t h e s ho r tc u t k ey to i n se r t
( c ) P r e se n t a t io n P ro gr a m a n e w c o m m e n t i n a ce l l ?
(d) None of these ( a ) A L T + F2
(b) Ctrl + F2
(c) Shift + F2 (c) Ctrl + R
(d) None of these (d) Ctrl + A

2 6 . W h a t i s t h e s ho r tc u t k ey to i n se r t 3 1 . W h a t i s t h e S ho r tc u t K ey fo r
n e w s h ee t i n c u r r e n t w o r k bo o k ? D e l et e (R o w , Co l um n )
(a) Shift + F11 (a) Ctrl + D
(b) Ctrl + F11 (b) Ctrl + R
(c) Atl + F11 (c) Ctrl + C
(d) None of these (d) Ctrl + -

2 7 . Ho w m a ny s h ee t s a r e t h e re , b y 3 2 . T h e S h o rt c u t K ey f o r H i d e R o w s
d e f a u l t , w he n w e c r ea t e a ne w e x ce l (a) Ctrl + 9
file ? (b) Ctrl + S
(a) 1 (c) Ctrl + H
(b) 2 (d) Ctrl + R
(c) 3
(d) 4 3 3 . T h e S h o rt c u t K ey f o r H i d e
Columns
2 8 . W h i c h s i g n d i s p l ay w h e n f o rm u l a (a) Ctrl + H
error in MS Excel (b) Ctrl + C
(a) $ (c) Ctrl + 9
(b) * (d) Ctrl + 0
(c) #
(d) \ 3 4 . T h e S h o rt c u t K ey f o r U n h i d e R o w s
(a) Ctrl + Shift + (
2 9 . W h a t i s t h e S ho r tc u t K ey o f (b) Ctrl + U
"AutoSum" (c) Ctrl + H
(a) Ctrl + = (d) Ctrl + R
(b) Alt + =
(c) Ctrl + A 3 5 . T h e S h o rt c u t K ey f o r U n h i d e
(d) Shift + = Columns
(a) Ctrl + H
3 0 . W h a t i s t h e S ho r tc u t K ey fo r (b) Ctrl + K
I n s e r t ( Ro w, Co l u m n ) (c) Ctrl + Shift + )
(a) Ctrl + + (d) Ctrl + Z
(b) Ctrl + C
 MS Power Point
1. Which file format can be added to a slide
PowerPoint show? b. An item on the slide that performs an action
a. .jpg when clicked
b. .giv c. The name of a motion path
c. .wav d. All of above
d. All of the above
8. If you have a PowerPoint show you created
2. In Microsoft PowerPoint two kind of sound and want to send using email to another
effects files that can be added to the teacher you can add the show to your email
presentation are message as a (an)
a. .wav files and .mid files a. Inclusion
b. .wav files and .gif files b. Attachment
c. .wav files and .jpg files c. Reply
d. .jpg files and .gif files d. Forward

3. Material consisting of text and numbers is 9. In order to edit a chart, you can
best presented as a. Triple click the chart object
a. A table slide b. Click and drag the chart object
b. A bullet slide c. Double click the chart object
c. A title slide d. Click the chart object
d. All of the above
10. to exit the PowerPoint
4. What is a motion path? a. click the application minimize button
a. A type of animation entrance effect b. click the document close button
b. A method of advancing slides c. double click the applications control menu
c. A method of moving items on a slide icon
d. All of the above d. double click the document control menu icon

5. What is a slide-title master pair?
a. The title area and text area of a specific slide
b. a slide master and title master merged into a
single slide
c. A slide master and title master for a specific
design template
d. All of above
6. Which of the following should you use if you
want all the slide in the presentation to
have the same “look”?
a. the slide layout option
b. add a slide option
c. outline view
d. a presentation design template
7. in the context of animations, what is a
trigger?
a. An action button that advances to the next
11. to preview a motion path effect using the
custom animation task pane, you should
a. click the play button
b. click the show effect button
c. double click the motion path
dd. all of above
12. You can create a new presentation by
completing all of the following except
a. Clicking the new button on the standard
toolbar
b. Clicking file, new
c. Clicking file open
d. Pressing ctrl + N
13. To select one hyperlink after another during
a slide presentation, what do you press?
a. Tab
b. Ctrl + K
c. Ctrl + h a. Add effect
d. All of above b. Emphasis
c. Animate now
14. special effects used to introduce slides in a d. All of the above
presentation are called
a. effects 21. What is the term used when a clip art image
b. custom animations changes the direction of faces?
c. transitions a. Group
d. present animations b. Flip
c. Rotate
15. You can edit an embedded organization d. All of the above
chart object by
a. Clicking edit object 22. the slide that is used to introduce a topic
b. Double clicking the organization chart object and set the tone for the presentation is called
c. Right clicking the chart object, then clicking the
edit MS-Organizaiton Chart object a. table slide
d. b and c both b. graph slide
c. bullet slide
16. The selected design template can be applied d. title slide
A) To current slide only
B) To all the slides 23. The effect applied to display when slides
C) To all the new presentation you create changes in slide show view is
D) All of above A) Slide Animation
B) Custom Animation
17. What is the term used when you press and C) Custom Transition
hold the left mouse key and more the D) Slide Transition
mouse around the slide?
a. Highlighting 24. Which of the following features should you
b. Dragging use when typing in the notes text box?
c. Selecting a. Slide show
d. Moving b. Insert
c. Slide maser
18. Which of the following toolbars provide d. Zoom
different options in various master views?
a. Common tasks toolbar 25. Which option allows you to select line,
b. Drawing toolbar curve, freeform or scribble tools?
c. Formatting toolbar a. Create effect
d. Standard toolbar b. Insert motion path
c. Draw custom path
19. How can you create a uniform appearance d. All of the above
by adding a background image to all slides?
a. Create a template 26. Which of the following should be used when
b. Edit the slide master you want to add a slide to an
c. Use the auto correct wizard existingpresentation?
d. All of the above a. File, add a new slide
b. Insert, New slide
20. Which option on the custom animation task c. File Open
pane allows you to apply a preset or custom d. File, New
motion path?
27. Which of the following is not one of d. All of the above
PowerPoint view ?
a. Slide show view 34. Which of the following views is the best
b. Slide view view to use when setting transition effects for
c. Presentation view all slides in a presentation?
d. Outline view a. Slide sorter view
b. Notes pages view
28. which of the following is the default page c. Slide view
setup orientation of slide in PowerPoint d. Outline view
a. Vertical
b. Landscape 35. Objects on the slide that hold text are called
c. Portrait a. Placeholders
d. None of above b. Object holders
c. Auto layouts
29. Want a PowerPoint photo album slide show d. Text holders
to play continuously?
a. Use random slide transitions 36. Which of the following provides a means of
b. Launch an online broadcast printing out feature notes with a miniature slide
c. Loop continuously on a printed page?
d. All of the above a. Slide with animation
b. Outline view
30. what is defined by the handout master? c. Notes page
a. Slide formatting d. Audience handout
b. Layout of audience handout notes
c. Handout content formatting for Microsoft 37. Which command brings you to the first slide
word export in your presentation?
d. All of above a. Next slide button
b. Page up
31. Which of the following tool enables you to c. Ctrl + Home
add text to a slide without using the d. Ctrl + End
standard placeholders?
a. Text tool box 38. In normal view, how can you quickly change
b. Line tool to handout master view?
c. Drawing tool a. Click the outline tab and select handout
d. Auto shapes tool master view
b. Press the shift key and click the handout
32. In notes master view, how do you modify master view button
the font size of text for all hte4 notes of a c. On the view menu, click slide sorter, and click
presentation? handouts.
a. Modify the slide design d. All of above
b. Modify the notes master layout
c. Modify the text within the body placeholder 39. how can you quickly reinstate a deleted
d. All of the above footer placeholder in master view?
a. Create a new slide master
33. Want your logo in the same position on b. Re-apply the footer placeholder
every slide, automatically? Insert it on the c. Re-apply the slide layout
a. Handout master d. All of the above
b. Notes master
c. Slide master 40. Which of the following can you use to add
times to the slides in a presentation? b. slide transition
a. Slide show menu c. custom animation
b. Rehearse timings button d. preset animation
c. Slide transition button
d. All of the above 47. Which of the following presentation
elements can you modify using the slide
41. To select all of the boxes of an organization master?
chart a. Slide comments
a. Clicking and edit and select all b. Slide transitions
b. Right click the chart background and then c. Speaker note font and color
click select all d. All of above
c. Press and hold the SHIFT key and click each
box 48. Which of the following provides a printed
d. All of above copy of your presentation?
a. Outline
42. You can show the shortcut menu during the b. Speaker notes
slide show by c. Audience handouts
a. Clicking the shortcut button on the d. All of the above
formatting toolbar
b. Right clicking the current slide 49. To add a header or footer to your handout,
c. Clicking an icon on the current slide you can use
d. a and b a. The title master
b. The slide master
43. Whidh of the following allow you to select c. The handout master
more than one slide in a presentation? d. All of above
a. Alt + Click each slide
b. Shift + drag each slide 50. Which of the following will not advance the
c. Shift + Click each slide slides in a slide show view?
d. Ctrl + Click each slide a. Esc key
b. The spacebar
44. The view that displays the slides on a c. The Enter key
presentation as miniature representations of d. The mouse button
the slides is called
a. slide show 51. In Microsoft PowerPoint in order to see all
b. slide sorter view the slides on one screen use
c. notes page view a. view, slide sorter
d. outline view b. view, slide
c. view, master
45. The PowerPoint view that displays only text d. view, slide show
(title and bullets) is
a. Slide show 52. What’s the best place to find animated
b. Slide sorter view images for your PowerPoint 2002 presentation?
c. Notes page view a. Microsoft online
d. Outline view b. Word clipart
c. PowerPoint tools and ins
46. In Microsoft PowerPoint the entry effect as d. All of the above
one slide replaces another in a show is called a
(an) 53.Which of the following toolbars provides
a. animation different options in various master views?
a. Common tasks toolbar c. Microsoft graph
b. Drawing toolbar d. Auto form
c. Formatting toolbar
d. Standard toolbar 61. Right clicking something in PowerPoint
a. Deletes the object
54.Which command brings you to the first slide b. Selects the object
in your presentation? c. Opens a shortcut menu listing for the object
a. Next slide button d. Nothing he right mouse button for operation
b. Page up
c. Ctrl + home 62. Ellipse Motion is a predefined ….
d. Ctrl + end a. Design template
b. Color scheme
55. The maximum zoom percentage in c. Animation scheme
Microsoft PowerPoint is d. None of these
a. 100%
b. 200% 63. We can replace a font on all slides with
c. 400% another font using the …. option
d. 500% a. Edit, Fonts
b. Tools, Fonts
56. PowerPoint 2000 has ……. Number of views c. Tools, Replace Fonts
a. 3 d. Format, Replace Fonts
b. 4
c. 5 64. Special effects used to introduce slides in a
d. 6 presentation are called
a. Effects
57. Animation schemes can be applied to ….. in b. Custom animations
the presentation c. Transitions
a. All slides d. Preset animations
b. Select slides
c. Current slide 65. PowerPoint can display data from which of
d. All of the above the following add-in software of MS Office
a. Equation editor
58. To insert a new slide in the current b. Organization chart
presentation, we can choose c. Photo album
a. Ctrl + M d. All of these
b. Ctrl + N
c. Ctrl + O 66. Which key on the keyboard can be used to
d. Ctrl + F view slide show
a. F1
59. Microsoft PowerPoint is a b. F2
a. Database program c. F5
b. Spreadsheet program d. F10
c. Presentation program
d. Word processing program 67. Which of the following fill effects can you
use for the slide background?
60. What is the name of the form used to input a. Gradient
chart values? b. Texture
a. Datasheet c. Picture
b. Microsoft Excel d. All of the above
 b. Presentation
68. A chart can be put as a part of the c. Design
presentation using d. Scheme
a. Insert -> Chart
b. Insert -> Pictures -> Chart 70. Which of the following are types of sound
c. Edit -> Chart files?
d. View -> Chart a. LOG files
b. DAT files
69. The arrangement of elements such as Title c. WAV files
and Subtitle text, pictures, tables etc. is called d. DRV files
a. Layout
 MS ACSESS

1 . I n M S - A cc e s s p re s s C T R L + O t o C) =Add(A1+A2)
A ) O p e n a ne w d at a ba s e D ) =t o ge t h e r ( A1 : A2 )
B ) O p e n a n e x i st i n g d a t a b a s e
C ) E x i t M S - A cc e s s 8 . T h e re a r e t h r ee typ e s o f d a t a fo u n d
D ) No n e o f t he s e i n a s p r e a d s h ee t :
A ) N u m b e r s , f o rm u l a s, l a b e l s
2 . I n M S - A cc e s s t o o pe n a n e x i st i n g B ) D at a , w o r d s , n u m be r s
d a t a b a s e p r e ss C ) Wo r d s , n um b e r s , la b e l s
A ) C T RL + N D ) E q u a t io n s , d at a , nu m b e r s
B ) C T RL + O
C ) A L T+ F 4 9 . W h a t A r e T h e D i f f er e n t V i ew s To
D ) No n e o f t he s e Display A Table
A ) D a t as h e et V i ew
3 . I n M S - A cc e s s t o O pe n a co m b o bo x B) Design View
A ) F 4 o r AL T +D OW N AR R O W C ) P iv o t e T a b l e & P i v o t C h a rt V i ew
B ) D O W N A R RO W D) All Of Above
C ) P A GE D O W N
D) F9 1 0 . W h i c h O f T h e Fo l lo w i n g C re a t e s A
D r o p D o w n L i s t O f V al u e s To C h o o se
4 . I n M S - A cc e s s t o o pe n n e w d at a b a s e From?
press A) Ole Object
A ) C T RL + N B) Hyperlink
B ) C T RL + O C) Memo
C ) A L T+ F 4 D) Lookup Wizard
D ) No n e o f t he s e
1 1 . T h e Co m m a n d Cen t e r O f Ac c e ss
5 . W h i c h sy m b o l m u st a l l fo r m u l a F i l e T h a t A p p e a rs W he n Y o u C r e at e Or
begin with: O p e n T h e M s Ac c e ss D a t a b a se F i l e .
A) @ A ) D a t a b as e W i n d o w
B) = B ) Q u e ry W i n do w
C) + C) Design View Window
D) % D ) S w it c h b o a r d

6 . I n a n ex c e l s h e e t th e a c t iv e c e l l i s 1 2 . T h e T h i r d S ta g e In D e s i g n i n g A
indicated by: D a t a b a se I s W h e n We A n a l y z e O u r
A) A blinking border T a b l e s M o re C lo s e ly A n d C r e a t e A
B ) A d o t t e d bo r d e r _ _ _ __ _ __ _ __ Be t we en T a b l e s
C ) A d a r k w i d e bo a r de r A ) R e l a t io n s h i p
D ) No n e o f T he s e B) Join
C ) Q u e ry
7 . To a d d tw o c e l l s ( A1 a n d A 2 ) D ) No n e O f T h e se
t o g e t he r y o u u se t h e f o l l o w i n g
f o r m u l a: 1 3 . I n A D a ta b a s e T a b l e , T h e C a t e go ry
A ) A 1 p l u s A2 O f I n f o rm a t i o n I s C a l le d _ __ _ __ _ __ _
B ) = A 1 + A2 A) Tuple
B) Field
C ) R e co r d 2 0 . M i c ro so f t A cc e s s I s A
D) All Of Above A ) RD B M S
B ) O OD BM S
1 4 . T h i s Ke y U n i q u e ly I d e n t i f i e s E a c h C ) O RD BM S
R e co r d D ) Ne t wo r k D at a b a s e M o d e l
A ) P r im a r y Ke y
B ) K ey Re co r d 2 1 . D C L P ro v i d e s Co m m a n d s To
C ) U n i q u e Ke y P e r fo rm A c t io n s L i k e
D ) F i e l d N am e A ) C h a n g e T he S t r u c tu r e O f Ta b l e s
B ) I n s e r t, U p d a te O r D e l et e R e co r d s
1 5 . I t I s A n A s so c i at i o n E s t a b l i s h e d A n d D a t a V a l u es
B e t we e n Co m m o n C ) A u t h o r i z i n g A cc e ss A n d O t h e r
A) Line C o n t ro l Ov e r D a t a b ase
B ) R e la t i o n s h i p D ) No n e O f A b o v e
C ) P r i m a ry K e y
D ) R e co r d s 2 2 . T h e D a t a b a se L a ng u a g e T h a t
A l l o w s Y o u T o A c ce s s O r M a i n t a i n
1 6 . T h i s I s T he S t a g e I n D a t a b a se D a t a I n A D at a b a s e
D e s i g n W he r e O n e G at h e r s A n d L i st A ) D CL
A l l T h e N e ce s s a ry F i el d s F o r T he B) DML
D a t a b a se P ro je c t . C) DDL
A ) D at a D e f i n i t io n D ) No n e O f A b o v e
B ) D a t a Re f i n em e n t
C ) E st a b l i s h i n g R e l a t io n s h i p 2 3 . W h a t I s T h e M a x im u m L e n g t h A
D ) No n e O f T h e A b o v e T e x t F i e l d C a n Be ?
A) 120
1 7 . A D a ta b a s e L a n g u a g e C o n ce r n e d B) 255
W i t h T h e D e f i n i t i o n Of T h e W h o l e C) 265
D a t a b a se S t r u c t u re An d S c h e m a I s D) 75
_ _ _ __ _ __
A ) D CL 2 4 . W h i c h O f T h e Fo l lo w i n g I s No t A
B) DML D a t a b a se O b j ec t ?
C) DDL A) Tables
D ) A l l O f A bo v e B ) Q u e r ie s
C ) R e la t i o n s h i p s
1 8 . W h i c h O f T h e F i e ld H a s W i d t h 8 D ) R e p o rt s
B y t e s?
A) Memo 2 5 . A _ _ __ _ __ __ _ E na b l e s Yo u To
B ) N u m be r V i e w D a t a F ro m A T ab l e B a s e d O n A
C ) D a t e/ t im e S p e c i f i c C r i te r i o n
D ) Hy p e r l i n k A ) F o rm
B ) Q u e ry
1 9 . Fo l l o w i n g I s No t A D a t a b a se C ) M a c ro
Model D ) R e p o rt
A ) N e tw o rk D a t a b a s e M o d e l
B ) R e la t i o n a l D at a b as e M o d e l 2 6 . W h a t A re T h e C o lu m n s I n A
C ) O b j ec t O r i e n t e d D a t a b a s e M o de l M i c ro s o ft A c ce s s T a b l e C a l l e d?
D ) No n e A ) Ro w s
 B ) R ec o r d s D ) A l l O f A bo v e
C) Fields
D ) Co l um n s 3 3 . W h e n C re a t i n g A N e w T a b le W h i c h
M e t ho d C a n Be U se d T o C ho o s e F ie l d s
2 7 . W h i c h O f T h e Fo l lo w i n g I s No t A F r o m S t a n d a r d D at a ba s e s A n d T a b le s
T y p e O f M i c r o s o ft A cc e s s D a t a b a se A ) C r e at e T a b l e I n D e s i g n V i e w
O b j e c t? B ) C r ea t e T a b l e U s i n g W i z a r d
A) Table C ) C r ea t e T a b l e By En t e r i n g D a ta
B ) F o rm D ) No n e O f A b o v e
C ) Wo r k s he e ts
D) Modules 3 4 . I n T a b l e D e s i g n V ie w , W h i c h Ke y
C a n B e U se d To Sw i t ch B e t we e n T h e
2 8 . W h i c h O f T h e Fo l lo w i n g D a t a b a se F i e l d N a m es A n d P ro pe r t i e s P a n e ls ?
O b j e c t Ho l d D a t a? A) F3
A ) F o rm s B) F4
B ) R e po r t s C) F5
C ) Q u e r ie s D ) F6
D) Tables
3 5 . I n T a b l e D e s i g n V ie w W h a t A r e
2 9 . W h i c h O f T h e Fo l lo w i n g S to r e T h e F i r s t C o l um n O f Bu t t o n s U s e d Fo r
C o m m a n d T o R et r i e v e D a t a F r o m A ) I n d i c a t e P r im a ry Ke y
D a t a b a se ? B ) I n d i c a t e C u r r e n t Ro w
A ) F o rm s C ) Bo t h O f A b o v e
B ) R e po r t s D ) No n e O f A b o v e
C ) Q u e r ie s
D) Tables 3 6 . T h e D e f a u l t A n d M a x im u m S i z e O f
T e x t F i e l d I n A c ce s s
3 0 . W h i c h O f T h e Fo l lo w i n g D a t a b a se A ) 5 0 A n d 2 5 5 C h a r ac t e r s
O b j e c t P ro d u c e s T h e F i n a l R e s u l t To B) 8 And 1 Gb
P r e se n t ? C ) 2 6 6 C h a r a c te r s & 6 4 0 0 0
A ) F o rm s Characters
B ) R e po r t s D ) No n e O f A b o v e
C ) Q u e r ie s
D) Tables 3 7 . T h e S i z e O f Ye s No F i e l d I s A l w ay s
A) 1 Bit
3 1 . W h i c h O f T h e Fo l lo w i n g I s A B ) 1 B yt e
M e t ho d To C re a t e A N e w T a b le I n M s C ) 1 C h a r a c te r
A c c e s s? D) 1 Gb
A ) C r e at e T a b l e I n D e s i g n V i e w
B ) C r ea t e T a b l e U s i n g W i z a r d 3 8 . W h i c h O f T h e Fo l lo w i n g I s No t A
C ) C r ea t e T a b l e By En t e r i n g D a ta F i e l d T y p e I n A c c es s
D ) A l l O f A bo v e A) Memo
B ) H y p er l i n k
3 2 . T o C r e a te A N ew T a b l e , I n W h i c h C ) O le O b j ec t
M e t ho d Yo u D o n ’t N ee d T o S p e c i fy D) Lookup Wizard
T h e F i e l d Ty p e A n d S iz e ?
A ) C r e at e T a b l e I n D e s i g n V i e w 3 9 . T h e S i z e O f A F i e ld W i t h N u m be r
B ) C r ea t e T a b l e U s i n g W i z a r d D a t a T y p e C a n N o t Be
C ) C r ea t e T a b l e By En t e r i n g D a ta A) 2
 B) 4 C ) T h a t m e et a n y o f s e v e r a l c r i te r i a
C) 8 specified
D) 16 D) All of above

4 0 . W h i c h F i e l d Ty p e W i l l Yo u S e l ec t 4 6 . T h e o p e r a t io n o f c h e c k i n g i n p u t
W h e n C r e at i n g A N ew T a b l e I f Y o u d a t a a g a i n s t s p ec i f i ed c r i t e r i a i s
R e q u i r e To E nt e r L o ng T e x t I n T h a t k n o w n as ?
Field? A ) D at a V e r i f ic a t io n
A ) T ex t B ) D a t a V a l i d a t io n
B ) M em o C ) C ro s s C he c k
C ) C u r r e n cy D ) D a t a C o nt r o l
D ) Hy p e r l i n k
4 7 . So m e r u l es a r e s et i n d a t a b a s es to
4 1 . W h i c h F i e l d Ty p e C a n S t o re c h e c k a n d pe r m it o n l y co r r e ct v a l u e s .
P h o to s? W h a t i s t h i s f e at u r e ca l l e d ?
A) Hyperlink A ) D at a V e r i f ic a t io n
B ) O le B) Auditing
C ) Bo t h O f T h e se C a n B e U se d C ) D a t a F i l te r i n g
D ) Ac c e s s T a b l e s C a n’ t S to r e P h o t o s D ) D a t a V a l i d a t io n

4 2 . W h e n E n te r i n g F ie l d N a m e , H o w 4 8 . D a t a b a se a cc e s s l e v e l s a r e
M a n y C h a r ac t e rs Yo u C a n T y p e I n s p e c i f i e d so a s to d e fi n e w h o c a n
M a x im u m ? a c c e s s w h a t i n a d a t ab a s e . I t i s
A) 60 i d e n t i f i e d t h ro u g h
B) 64 A) User ID
C) 68 B ) P a s s wo r d
D ) A ny N u m be r O f C h a r a c t e r C) Status
D ) No n e o f a bo v e
4 3 . W h i c h o f t h e f o l lo w i n g d a t a b a se
o b j e c t i s c re a te d f i r s t b e f o re a n y 4 9 . W h a t i t i s c a l le d to p r e se n t
o t h e r c r e at e d ? i n f o r m at i o n i n a p a r t ic u l a r o r d e r
A) Table b a s e d o n n um e r i c o r a l p h a b e t i c a l
B ) F o rm value?
C ) R e po r t A ) S o rt i n g
D) Query B ) S e a rc h i n g
C) Arranging
4 4 . T h i s ty p e o f d a t ab a s e co n t a i n s D ) Cr o p p i n g
m u l t i p l e t a b l e s t h a t ar e co n n e c te d to
p r o d u c e co m b i n e d o u t p u t f r o m a l l 5 0 . A c o l le c t io n o f r e la t e d r ec o r d s i n
tables. database is known as a
A) Bound A) Table
B ) L i n ke d B) Database
C ) R e la t i o n a l C) File
D ) Jo i n e d D ) No n e o f a bo v e

4 5 . T h e ‘ F i l te r b y s e l ec t i o n ’ a l lo w s 5 1 . A p a rt o f d a t a b a se t h a t s to r e s
y o u t o f i l t e r t h o se r ec o r d s c o m p l e te i n f o rm a t io n a b o u t a n e n t i ty
A ) T h a t m at c h t he s el e c t e d f ie l d s u c h a s em p l o y ee , s a le s , o r d e r s e t c .
B ) T h a t m a t c h t he c r it e r i a s p ec i f i e d A) File
 B ) R ec o r d
C) Field 5 7 . I n A cc e s s , t h i s o pe r a t i o n c o p ie s a
D) Query b a c k u p f i l e f ro m t h e s t o r a g e m e d i u m
b a c k o nt o t h e co m p u te r
5 2 . T o c r e at e t h i s, y o u e n t e r a n A ) R ec r e a te
e x p r e s s io n i n t he d e si g n g r i d t h a t B ) R es to r e
i n s t r u c t s A c ce s s t o p e r f o rm a C ) Co p y
calculation using the current field D ) St r u c t u r e
values.
A ) F o rm u l a te d f i e l d
B ) N u m e r i c f ie l d 5 8 . I f yo u m a k e a n i nv a l i d e n t ry i n t he
C ) F o rm u l a f ie l d I n p u t M a s k W i z a r d d ia l o g b o x , t h i s
D ) Ca l c u l a t e d f ie l d w i l l d i s p l a y t o a d v i s e y o u t h a t t he
e n t r y i s n o t co r r e ct
5 3 . T h e a s ce n d i n g o rd e r o f d at a A ) T ex t e r r o r
h i e r a r c h y i s? B ) V a l i d a t io n e r ro r
A ) B i t - B y t e - F ie l d - R e co r d - F i l e - C ) L it e r a l e r r o r
D a t a b a se D ) E n t r y e r ro r
B ) B i t - B y t e - R e co r d - F i e l d - F i l e -
D a t a b a se 5 9 . I n t h e Fo r m W i z a rd d i a l o g b o x ,
C ) By t e - B i t - F i e l d - R e co r d - F i l e - t h e f i e l d s f ro m t he s el e c t e d t a b l e a re
D a t a b a se d i s p l a y e d i n t h i s l i st b o x .
D ) B it - By te - F i e l d - R e co r d - A) All Fields
D a t a b a se - F i l e B ) A l l Re co r d s
C ) A v a i l a b l e Re c o r d s
5 4 . W h i c h o f t h e f o l lo w i n g d a t a b a se D ) Av a i l a b l e F ie l d s
o b j e c t c a n b e u s e d i f y o u n ee d to m a i l
t h e i n v o i c e to c u s to m e r s ? 6 0 . T h i s f o rm d i s p l a ys t h e f ie l d n a m e
l a b e l s d o w n t h e l e f t si d e o f t h e
A) A fo r m c o l u m n , w i t h t h e d ata f o r e a c h f ie l d
B) A Q ue r y j u s t to t h e r i g h t o f i t s c o r re s p o n d i n g
C) A re p o r t label.
D) A Table A) Tabular
B) Justified
5 5 . W h e n c re a t i n g a n i n p u t m a sk t h i s C ) Co l u m n a r
c h a r a c t e r d o es n o t r eq u i r e a n e n t ry , D ) D a t as h e e t
b u t i f a n e n t ry i s m a de i t m u s t b e a
letter from A-Z 6 1 . T h i s f o rm d i s p l a ys d a t a i n a t a b l e
A) ? l a y o u t w i t h f ie l d n am e l a b e l s ac r o ss
B) ! t h e to p o f t h e p a g e an d t h e
C) # c o r r es p o n d i n g d a t a in r o w s a n d
D) \ c o l u m n s u n d e r e ac h he a d i n g .
A ) C o l um n a r
5 6 . I n A cc e s s , t h i s d i sp l a y s t h e r e s u l t s B) Justified
o f a c a l c u l a t io n i n a qu e r y C ) D a t a s h ee t
A) Lookup field D) Tabular
B ) C a l c u l a te d f i e l d
C ) S o u rc e f ie l d 6 2 . T h i s f o rm d i s p l a ys m u l t i p l e
D ) C h i l d f ie l d r e c o r d s , o ne p e r ro w , i n t h e Fo r m
window 6 4 . W h i c h o f t h e f o l lo w i n g i s a
A ) D at a s h ee t d a t a b a s e m a n a g em e nt s y st em ?
B) Tabular A ) M S Wo r d
C ) Co l u m n a r B ) M S E x ce l
D ) J u s t i f ie d C ) O r ac l e
D) Lotus 1-2-3
6 3 . T h e f i l e e xt e n s io n f o r a n Ac c e ss
2 0 0 3 d at a b a s e is 6 5 . W h i c h o f t h e f o l lo w i n g co l u m n s
A ) E XE d o e s no t e x i s t i n M acr o D e s i g n
B) DOC w i n d o w?
C ) EX C A) Arguments
D) MDB B ) Co m m e n t s
C ) Co n d i t i o n s
D ) Ac t i o n s
 NETWORKING

1 . W h i c h a d d r e s s i s u se d i n a n i n t e r n et p r o c e s s i n g t h e ro u t i ng i n f o r m at i o n
e m p lo y i n g t he T CP / IP p r o to co l s ? i n c l u d e d i n t h e p a ck et .
a . p h y s i c a l a d d r e s s a n d l o g i c a l a d d r e ss a.bridge
b.port address b.firewall
c . s p e c i f i c a d d r e ss c.router
d . a l l o f t h e m e n t i o n ed d . a l l o f t h e m e n t io n ed

2 . W h i c h a d d r e s s i d e nt i f i e s a p ro ce s s 8 . A l i s t o f p ro to co l s us e d b y a s y st em ,
o n a ho s t? o n e p ro to co l p e r l ay er , i s c a l l e d
a.physical address a . p r o t o c o l a r c h i t ec t ur e
b.logical address b.protocol stack
c.port address c . p r o to c o l s u i t
d.specific address d.none of the mentioned

3 . T r a n sm i s s i o n d a t a ra t e i s de c i d e d 9 . N e t wo r k co n g e s t io n o c c u r s
by a . i n c as e o f t r a f fi c o v e r l o a d i n g
a . n e t wo r k l ay e r b . w h e n a sy s t em t e rm i n a t e s
b . p h y s i c a l l a y er c . w h e n co n n e c t io n b et w ee n t wo
c . d a t a l i n k l ay e r n o d e s te rm i n a t e s
d . t r a n s p o r t l ay e r d.none of the mentioned

4 . W h e n co l l ec t io n o f v a r i o u s
c o m p u t e r s s e em s a s in g l e c o h e re n t
s y s t em t o i t s c l i e n t , th e n i t i s ca l l e d
a . c o m p u t e r n et wo r k
b . d i s tr i b u t e d s y s t e m
c.both (a) and (b)
d.none of the mentioned
1 0 . W h i c h o n e o f t h e fo l l o w i n g
e x t e n d s a p r i v at e ne tw o r k a c ro s s
p u b l i c n e t wo r k s?
a . l o c a l a re a n et wo r k
b . v i r t u a l pr i v a t e n e tw o r k
c . e n t e r p r i s e p r i v a te ne t wo r k
d . s t o r a g e a r e a ne t wo r k

5 . W h i c h o n e o f t he fo l l o w i n g 1 1 . T h e s t r u ct u r e o r fo r m a t o f d a t a i s
c o m p u t e r ne t wo r k i s b u i l t o n t h e to p called
o f a no t h e r ne t wo r k? a.Syntax
a . p r i o r n e tw o rk b.Semantics
b . c h i e f n e t wo r k c.Struct
c . p r i m e ne t wo r k d.None of the mentioned
d . o v e r l ay n e tw o r k
1 2 . Co m m u n i c a t io n b et w ee n a
6 . B l u e to o t h i s a n e x am p l e o f c o m p u t e r a n d a k ey bo a r d i n v o l v e s
a.personal area network _ _ _ __ _ __ _ __ _ __ t r a ns m i s s io n
b . l o c a l a r e a n e tw o rk a.Automatic
c . v i r t u a l p r iv a t e n e two r k b.Half-duplex
d.none of the mentioned c.Half-duplex
d.Simplex
7 . A _ __ _ _ i s a de v i ce t h a t f o r w a r d s
p a c k e t s b e tw e e n ne tw o r ks b y 1 3 . T h e f i r s t Ne t wo r k w a s
a.CNNET 2 0 . A _ _ __ _ __ co n n e ct i o n p ro v i d e s a
b.NSFNET d e d i c a t e d l i n k be t wee n t wo d ev i ce s .
c.ASAPNET a.point-to-point
d . A R PA N E T b.multipoint
c.primary
1 4 . W h i c h o f t h i s i s no t a n e two r k d.secondary
e d g e d ev i c e?
a.PC 2 1 .D ev i c e s m ay b e a rr a n g e d i n a
b.Smartphones _ _ _ __ to p o lo g y .
c . S e r v e rs a.ring
d . S w i tc h b.mesh
c.bus
1 5 .D e l im i t i n g a n d s y nc h r o n i z a t i o n o f d.all of the above
d a t a e x c h a n g e i s p ro v i d e d b y
a.Application layer 2 2 . A _ _ __ _ __ i s a d a ta
b . S e s s i o n l ay e r c o m m u n i c at i o n s y s tem w i t h i n a
c.Transport layer b u i l d i n g , p l a n t , o r c am p u s , o r
d . L i n k l a y er b e t w ee n n e a r by b u i l d i n g s .
a . L AN
1 6 . T h e_ __ _ _ a d d r e s s i d e n t i f i e s a b.MAN
p r o c e s s o n a h o st . c.WAN
a.physical d.none of the above
b.IP
c.port 2 3 . W h i c h o f t h e fo l lo w i n g i s r e q u i r e d
d.specific t o co m m u n i c a t e b e twe e n tw o
c o m p u t e r s?
1 7 . T h e _ __ _ a d d re s s u n i q u e l y d e f i n e s a . c o m m u n i c at i o n s s o ft w a r e
a h o s t o n t h e I n te r n et . b . p r o t o co l
a.physical c . c o m m u n i c a t i o n h a rd w a r e
b.IP d.all of above including access to
c.port t r a n s mi s si o n m e d i u m
d.specific
24. What is NIC used for?
1 8 . I P v 6 h a s _ _ __ _ __ -b i t a d d r e s s e s . a . T o re m o te l y a c c es s P C
a.32 b.To connect computer to a network
b.64 c . I t i s u s e d i n j u n i p e r s r o u te r s fo r
c.128 g a t e w ay c a r d
d.variable d.None

1 9 . T h e M o b i l e A p p l i ca t i o n
P r o t o c o l ( M AP ) t y p i ca l l y r u n s o n to p
o f w h i c h p r o to co l ?
a . S N M P ( S im p l e Ne t wo r k M a n a g em e n t
Protocol)
b.SMTP (Simple Mail
Transfer Protocol)
c . S S 7 ( S i g n a l l i ng S y s te m 7 )
d . H T T P ( Hy p e r T e xt Tr a n s f e r P r o to co l )
2 5 . I n a t y p e o f c o m p ut e r n et wo r k ,
w h a t d o e s M A N s t a n ds f o r?
a . M a j o r a r e a n e tw o rk
b . M i n i a r e a n et wo r k
c . M e tr o p o l i t a n a r e a n e t w o r k
d . M i c r o a r e a ne t wo r k
2 6 . W h i c h o f t h e fo l lo w i n g i s n o t t h e
n e t wo r k e d g e d ev i c e?
a . S w i tc h
b.Server 3 3 . AD S L i s t h e a b b r ev i a t io n o f
c.PC a . A s y m m et r i c D u a l S ub s c r i b e r L i n e
d.MAC b . A s y m m et r i c D i g i t a l S y s t em L i n e
c . A s y m m e t r i c D u a l Sys t em L i ne
2 7 . W h i c h o f t h e fo l lo w i n g i s t h e t y pe d . A sy mm e t r i c D i g i t al S u b s c r i b e r Li n e
o f t h e co m p u te r n et wo r k?
a . M e t ro p o l it a n a r e a n e t wo r k (M A N ) 3 4 . T h e I n t e r n et i s a n e x am p l e o f
b . L o c a l a re a n et wo r k ( L A N ) a . C e l l s w it c h e d n et wo r k
c . P e r so n a l a re a n et wo r k (P A N ) b . c i r c u i t s w i tc h e d n e tw o r k
d.All of the above c . P ac k e t s w i tc h e d n e t w o r k
d.All of above
28.How many layers does OSI have?
a.4 3 5 . W h i c h o f t h e fo l lo w i n g i n c l u d e s
b.7 t h e b e n e f it o f t h e N et w o rk i n g ?
c.5 a.File Sharing
d.6 b . E a s i e r a c ce s s t o R es o u r c e s
c . E a s i e r B ac k u p s
2 9 . Co l l e ct i o n o f n et wo r k o r n et wo r k s d.All of the Above
is called
a.Intranet 3 6 . W h i c h o f t h e fo l lo w i n g i s n o t t h e
b.Internet N e t wo r k i n g D e v ic e s?
c . E x t r a n et a . G a t e w ay s
d . L A N n e t wo r k b.Linux
c . R o u t er s
3 0 . W h at i s t h e s i z e o f t h e IP v e r s io n d.Firewalls
4?
a . 2 2 by t e s 3 7 . We c a n d iv i d e t o da y ' s n e tw o rk s
b . 3 2 b i ts i n t o __ _ _ b r o a d c a t eg o r i e s b a se d o n
c . 3 2 by t es switching.
d . 9 9 b yt e s a.four
b.three
3 1 . W h at i s a F i r e w a l l i n C o m p u t e r c.five
N e t wo r k? d.two
a . T h e p h y s i c a l b o u n da r y o f N e tw o r k
b . A n o p e r a t i n g S y s t em o f Co m p u t e r 3 8 . A _ _ __ _ __ i s a d e v i c e t h a t
N e t wo r k o p e r a te s o n l y i n t h e p h y s i c a l l a ye r .
c . A sy st e m d e s i g n e d t o p r e v e n t a.passive hub
u n a u t h o r i z e d a c c es s b.repeater
d . A w e b b r o w s i n g S o ft w a r e c.bridge
d.router
3 2 . W h at i s t h e m e a n in g o f B a n d w i d t h
i n N e t wo r k? 3 9 . __ _ __ _ _ i s a f i rs t -g e n e r a t i o n
a . T r a n sm i s s i o n c a p a c i t y o f a c e l l u l a r p h o n e s y st em .
communication channels a.AMPS
b . C o n n e c t e d C o m p u te r s i n t h e b.D-AMPS
N e t wo r k c.GSM
c . C l a s s o f I P u s e d i n N e t wo r k d.none of the above
d.None of Above
4 0 . W h i c h p r o to co l a ss i g n s I P a d d r e s s C . G a t ew a y
t o t h e c l ie n t co n n e c te d i n t h e D . M o d em s
i n t e r n e t?
a.DHCP 4 7 . I n D S L t e l co p ro v id e s t h e se
b.IP s e r v i ce s
c.RPC a ) W i r e d p h o n e ac c e ss
d.none of the above b) ISP
c) All of the mentioned
4 1 . __ _ __ _ i s a n et wo r k t h a t c o v e r s d ) N o n e o f t h e m e n t io n e d
g e o g r a p h i c a re a s t h at a r e l a r g e r, s u c h
a s d i s t r i c t s o r c i t i es . 4 8 . P h y s ic a l o r l o g i ca l a r r a n g e m e n t o f
a.LAN n e t wo r k i s _ __ _ __ _ ___
b.MAN a) Topology
c.WAN b) Routing
d . N o n e o f t h e se c ) N e tw o rk i n g
d ) N o n e o f t h e m e n t io n e d
4 2 . H T TP i s t h e a c ro n y m o f . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
a . H y p e r T e x t T r a n s f er P r o t oc o l 4 9 . I n w h i c h to p o lo g y t h e r e is a
b . H y p e r T e st T r a n s fe r P ro to c o l c e n t r a l co n t ro l l e r o r h u b ?
c . H y p e r Te x t T r a n s po r t P ro to co l a) Star
d . H y p e r T ex t T r a n s p o r t P ro g r am b) Mesh
c) Ring
4 3 . Co m p u t e r Ne t wo rk i s d) Bus
A . C o l l ec t io n o f h a r d w a r e
c o m p o n e n ts a n d co m p u t e r s 5 0 . T h i s to p o lo g y re qu i r e s m u l t i p o i n t
B . I n t e r co n n e c te d b y c o m m u n i c a t io n c o n n e c t io n
channels a) Star
C . S h a r i n g o f re s o u rce s a n d b) Mesh
i n f o r m at i o n c) Ring
D. All of the Above d) Bus

4 4 . D H C P i s t he a b b r ev i a t io n o f 5 1 . D a t a c o m m u n i c a t io n s ys t em
A . D y n am i c H o st Co n t r o l P ro to c o l w i t h i n a b u i l d i n g o r ca m p u s
B . D y n a mi c H o s t C o nf i g u r a ti o n i s _ _ _ __ _ __
Protocol a ) L AN
C . D y n a m ic H y p e r C o n t r o l P r o t o c o l b) WAN
D . D y n am i c Hy p e r Co n f i g u r a t i o n c) MAN
Protocol d ) N o n e o f t h e m e n t io n e d

4 5 . W h a t i s t h e s i ze o f M A C A d d r e ss ? 5 2 . _ _ __ _ __ a l lo w s yo u to co n n e c t
A. 16-bits a n d l o g i n to a re m o te c o m p u t e r
B . 3 2 - b i ts a) Telnet
C . 4 8 - bi t s b) FTP
D. 64-bits c ) H T TP
d ) N o n e o f t h e m e n t io n e d
4 6 . W h i c h o f t h e f o l lo w i n g c a n be
S o f t w a re ?
A . R o u t er s
B . Fi r ew a l l s
 HTML MCQ
1 . H T M L st a n d s fo r ? 8 . W h a t a r e E m pt y e le m e n t s a n d i s i t
A . H y p e r T ex t M a r k u p L a n g u a g e valid?
B.High Text Markup Language A . N o , t h er e i s n o s uch t e rm s a s
C . H y p e r T a b u l a r M a r ku p E m p ty E l em e n t
Language B . E m p ty e l em e n t s a re e l em e n t
D.None of these with no data
C . N o , i t i s no t v a l i d to u s e
2 . w h i c h o f t h e fo l l o w i n g t a g i s u se d E m p ty E l em e n t
to mark a begining of paragraph ? D . N o n e o f t h e se
A. <TD>
B. <br> 9 . W h i c h o f t he fo l l o w i n g a t t r i b u t es
C. <P> o f te x t bo x c o nt r o l a ll o w t o l i m it t h e
D . < TR > m a x im u m c h a r a ct e r?
A. size
3 : F r o m w h i c h t a g des c r i p t i v e l i s t B. len
starts ? C . m a x le n g t h
A. <LL> D . a l l o f t h es e
B. <DD>
C. <DL> 1 0 . W e b p a g e s s t a rt s w i t h w h i c h o f
D . <D S > t h e f o l lo w i n g t a g ?
A . < B o dy >
4 . C o rr e c t H TM L t a g fo r t h e l a r g e st B . < T i t le >
heading is C. <HTML>
A. <head> D . < Fo r m >
B. <h6>
C. <heading> 1 1 . H TM L i s a s u b s e t o f
D. <h1> A. SGMT
B. SGML
5 . T h e a t t r i b u te o f < fo r m > t a g C. SGMD
A . M e t ho d D . N o n e o f t h e se
B. Action
C. Both (a) & (b) 1 2 . W h i c h o f t h e f o l lo w i n g i s a
D . N o n e o f t h e se c o n t a i n e r?
A . < S E L E CT >
6 . M a rk u p t a g s t e l l t h e we b b r o w s e r B . < B OD Y >
A . H o w t o o r g a n i z e t he p a g e C . < I N P U T>
B. How to display the page D . Bo t h ( a ) a n d ( b )
C . H o w t o d i s p l a y m es s a g e b o x
on page 1 3 . Co r r ec t H TM L to le f t a l i g n t h e
D . N o n e o f t h e se c o n t e nt i n s i d e a t a b le c e l l is
A . < t d l e f t>
7 . ww w i s b a s e d o n wh i c h m o d e l ? B . < t d r a l i g h = " l e ft " >
A. L o ca l - s e rv e r C . < t d a l i g n = " l e f t" >
B. C l i e n t - s e rv e r D . < t d le f t a l i g n >
C. 3-tier
D. N o n e o f t h e se
1 4 . T h e t a g w h i c h a l lo w s y o u to r es t C . b o t h ( a) a n d ( b )
o t h e r HT M L t a g s w i t hi n t h e D . n o n e o f t h e se
d e s c r i p t i o n is
A. <TH> 19. The l a te s t HT M L st a n d a r d i s
B . < TD > A. XML
C. <TR> B. SGML
D . < C AP T I O N > C. H T M L 4 .0
D. H TM L 5 . 0
1 5 . < B a s e> t a g is d e s ig n e d t o a p pe a r
o n l y b et we e n 2 0 . T h e te x t i n s i d e t he < TE X T A R E A >
A. <HEAD> t a g wo r k s l ik e
B . < T I TL E > A . < P > f o rm at t e d t e xt
C . < B OD Y > B . < T > f o rm a tt e d te x t
D . < F O RM > C . < P RE > fo rm a t te d te x t
D . n o n e o f t h e se
H o w c a n y o u o p e n a li n k i n a
n e w b r o w s er w i n do w? 2 1 . W h a t i s t h e c o r r ec t H TM L fo r
A . < a h r e f = " u r l" t a rg e t = a d d i n g a b a c k g r o u n d c o lo r ?
" n e w "> A.
B . < a h r e f = " u r l " t a r ge t = < b a c k g r o u n d >y e l lo w <B a c k g r o u n
"_blank"> d>
C . < a h r e f = " u r l " . ne w> B . < b o d y co l o r = "y e l lo w ">
D . < a h r e f = " u r l " t a r ge t C . < b o d y b g co l o r = "y e l l o w ">
= " o p e n" > D . < bo d y b g =" ye l l o w" >

A m u c h b et t e r a p p r o ac h t o 2 2 . M a i n co n t a i n e r f o r < T R> , <T D >

e s t a b l i s h t h e b a s e U RL i s to u se and <TH> is
A . B A S E e l em e nt A. <TABLE>
B . H E A D e l em e n t B . < G R O UP >
C . b o t h ( a) a n d ( b ) C . < D A T A>
D . n o n e o f t h e se D . A l l o f t h e se

1 6 . T h e t a g u se d to c re a t e a n e w l i s t 23. The bo d y ta g u s u a l l y u s e d a ft e r
i t e m a n d a l so i n c l u d e a h y p e r l i n k i s A. Title tag
A. <LI> B. HEAD tag
B. <DL> C. EM tag
C. <DD> D. F O RM t a g
D . < UL >
2 4 . Ho w c a n yo u m a ke a n e -m a i l l i n k?
1 7 . W h i c h o f t h e t a g is u s e d to A . < m a i l h re f +" x xx @y . c o m ">
c r e a t es a n um b e r l i st? B . < a h r e f = "m a i l to :
A. <LI> x x x @ y .c o m ">
B. <OL> C . < a h r e f = "x x x @y . co m " >
C . < L I > a n d < OL > D . Bo t h ( b ) a n d ( c )
D . N o n e o f t h e se
2 5 . W h i c h t a g c r e a te s a n u m b e r/ o r d e r
1 8 . < I N P U T> i s list?
A . f o rm a t t a g A. <UL>
B . e m pt y t a g B. <OL>
 C . < O T> c . < t i t le >
D . N o n e o f t h e se d. <body>

2 6 . Sy m bo l u s e d a t t h e b e g i n n i n g o f 3 1 . W h i c h t a g i n se r t s a l i n e
t h e h r e f t e xt i s h o r i z o n t a l ly o n yo u r w e b p a g e?
A. #
B. $ a. <hr>
C. & b. <line>
D. ^ c. < l i n e d i r ec t i o n= " h o r i z o n t a l " >
d. <tr>
2 7 . W h i c h o f t h e f o l lo w i n g i s a V a l i d
N a m e? 3 2 . W h a t s ho u l d b e th e f i r s t t a g i n
A . < _ p e r so n > a n y H TM L do c um e n t?
B . < 1 2 3 pe r so n >
C. Both (a) and (b) a. <head>
D . N o n e o f t h e se b. < t i t l e>
c. < h tm l >
2 7 . Ho w c a n y o u o p en a l i n k i n a n ew d. < d o c um e n t >
b r o w s e r w i n do w?
a . < a h r e f= " u r l " n ew > 3 3 . W h i c h t a g a l lo ws y o u t o a d d a ro w
b . < a h r e f =" u r l " t a r get = " n ew " > i n a t a b l e?
c . < a h r e f= " u r l "
t a r g e t =" _ b l a n k "> a. <td> and </td>
d . < a h r e f =" u r l " t a r get = " " > b. <cr> and < / c r>
c. <th> and </th>
28. A webpage displays a d. <tr> and </tr>
p i c t u r e . W h a t t a g w as u s e d to d i s p l a y
t h a t p i c t u r e? 3 4 . W h a t i s t h e c o r rec t H TM L t a g fo r
i n s e r t i n g a l i n e b re a k?
a. picture a. <br>
b. image b. <lb>
c.img c . < b r e a k>
d. src d. <newline>

2 9 . < b > t a g m ak e s t he e n c lo s e d t e xt 3 5 . W h i c h t a g c r e a te s a c h e ck b o x fo r
b o l d . W h a t i s o t h e r ta g t o m ak e t e xt a f o rm i n H TM L ?
bold? a . < c h e ck b o x>
b . < i n p u t t y p e= " c h eck b o x ">
a. < s t ro n g > c . < i n p u t = c h ec k b o x >
b. <dar> d . < i n p u t c h e c k bo x >
c. <black>
d. < e m p> 3 6 . T o c r e at e a c o m bo b o x ( d ro p
d o w n bo x ) w h i c h t a g w i l l yo u u s e?
3 0 . T a g s a n d te x t t h at a r e no t d i re c t ly a . < s e l ec t >
d i s p l a y e d o n t h e p a ge a r e w r i tt e n i n b. <list>
_ _ _ __ se c t io n . c . < i n p u t ty p e = " d ro pd o w n " >
d . a l l o f a bo v e
a . < h t m l>
b. <head> 3 7 . W h i c h o f t h e f o l lo w i n g i s no t a
pair tag? d i s p l a y e d o n t h e p a ge a r e w r i tt e n i n
a. <p> _ _ _ __ se c t io n .
b. < u > a . < h t m l>
c. <i> b. <head>
d. <img> c . < t i t le >
d. <body>
3 8 . H TM L d o c um e nt s a r e s av e d i n
a . S p e c i a l b i n a r y fo rm a t 4 5 . W h i c h t a g i n se r t s a l i n e
b. Machine language codes h o r i z o n t a l ly o n yo u r w e b p a g e?
c . A S C I I t e xt a. <hr>
d. None of above b. <line>
c . < l i n e d i r ec t i o n= " h o r i z o n t a l " >
3 9 . T h e r e a r e _ _ __ d if f e r e n t o f d. <tr>
h e a d i n g t a g s i n H TM L
a. 4 4 6 . W h a t s ho u l d b e th e f i r s t t a g i n
b. 5 a n y H TM L do c um e n t?
c. 6 a. <head>
d. 7 b . < t i t l e>
c . < h tm l >
4 0 . W h i c h o f t h e f o l lo w i n g i s no t a d . < d o c um e n t >
style tag?
a. <b> 4 7 . W h i c h t a g a l lo ws y o u t o a d d a ro w
b. <tt> i n a t a b l e?
c. <i> a. <td> and </td>
d . A l l o f a bo v e a r e s ty l e ta g s b . < c r > a n d < / c r>
c. <th> and </th>
4 1 . T h e wa y t h e b ro ws e r d i s p l a y s t h e d. <tr> and </tr>
o b j e c t c a n b e m o d i f i ed b y _ __ _ _
a. attributes 4 8 . H TM L d o c um e nt st a r t a n d e n d
b . p a r a m e te r s w i t h w h i c h t a g p a i r s?
c. modifiers a . < H E A D > … . </ H E AD >
d. None of above b . < B O D Y >… . </ B OD Y >
c . < H TM L >… . </ H TM L >
4 2 . W h i c h o f t h e f o l lo w i n g H TM L c o de d . < W E B >… . </ WE B >
is valid?
a . < f o n t co l o u r =" r e d "> 4 9 . I n S a te l l i t e b a s e d c o m m u n i c a t io n ,
b . < f o n t c o lo r =" r e d " > V S A T s t a n d s fo r ?
c . < r e d >< f o n t> a . V e r y Sm a l l A pe r t u re T e rm i n a l
d . A l l o f a bo v e a r e s ty l e ta g s b . V a r y i n g S i z e A p e r tu r e T e rm i n a l
c . V e r y S m a l l A n a lo g T e rm i n a l
4 3 . < b > t a g m ak e s t he e n c lo s e d t e xt d. None of the above
b o l d . W h a t i s o t h e r ta g t o m ak e t e xt
bold? 5 0 . O u t l o o k E x p r e ss is a _ __ _ __ __ _
a . < s t ro n g > a . E - M a i l C l ie n t
b. <dar> b . B r o w se r
c. <black> c. SearchEngine
d . < e m p> d. None of the above

4 4 . T a g s a n d te s t t h a t a r e no t d i r ec t l y
5 1 . T e xt w it h i n < EM > … </ EM > t a g i s 57. What is an ISP?
d i s p l a y e d a s _ _ __ _ ___ a . I n t e r n e t Sy s t em P ro t o co l
a. bold b . I n t e r n a l S y s te m P ro g r a m
b. italic c . I n t e r n e t S e rv i c e P ro v i d e r
c. list d. None of the above
d. indented
5 8 . W h i c h o f t h e f o l lo w i n g i s v a l i d IP
5 2 . T e xt w it h i n < S T RO N G > … address?
< / S T RO N G > t a g i s d i sp l a y e d a s a . 9 8 4 . 1 2 . 7 8 7 .7 6
_ _ _ __ _ __ b. 192.168.321.10
a. bold c . 1 . 8 8 8 .2 3 4 . 3 4 5 6
b. italic d. 192.168.56.115
c. listd
d. indented 5 9 . W h i c h i s no t a d o m a i n n am e
e x t e n s io n
5 3 . W h i c h t a g i s u s e d t o d i s p l ay t he a. mil
large font size? b. org
a . < L A R GE > </ L AR G E > c. .int
b . < B I G > </ B I G > d. .com
c . < S I Z E > </ S I Z E >
d . < F O N T > </ F O N T> 6 0 . W h a t i s a F TP p ro g r a m u s e d f o r?
a . T r a n s f e r f i le s to a nd f r o m a n
5 4 . < S C R I P T > … < / S C RI P T > t a g c a n be I n t e r n e t Se r v e r
p l a c e d w i t h i n _ _ __ _ __ _ b . D e s i g n i n g a we b s i te
a. Header c . C o n n e ct i n g to t h e in t e r n e t
b. Body d. None of the above
c. both A and B
d. none of the above 6 1 . C ho o s e t h e co r r ect H T M L ta g f o r
t h e l a r g e st h e a d i n g ?
5 5 . u s i n g <P > t a g w i l l a. <H1>
a . s t a r t a n e w p a r a g ra p h b. <H6>
b. break the line c. <H10>
c . e n d t h e c u r r e n t p ar a g r a p h d. <HEAD>
d. none of the above
6 2 . O u t p u t o f XM L d o c u m e n t c a n b e
5 6 . W h a t i s I n t e r n e t E x p l o r e r? viewed in a
a. An Icon a . W o r d P ro c es s o r
b . A F i l e M a n a ge r b. Web browser
c. A Browser c . N o te p a d
d . T h e I n t e r n et d. None of the above
 JavaScript
1. Why so JavaScript and Java have similar 7. What should appear at the very end of your
name? JavaScript?
A. JavaScript is a stripped-down version of Java The <script LANGUAGE="JavaScript">tag
B. JavaScript's syntax is loosely based on Java's A. The </script>
C. They both originated on the island of Java B. The <script>
D. None of the above C. The END statement
D. None of the above
2. When a user views a page containing a
JavaScript program, which machine actually 8. Which of the following can't be done with
executes the script? client-side JavaScript?
A. The User's machine running a Web browser A. Validating a form
B. The Web server B. Sending a form's contents by email
C. A central machine deep within Netscape's C. Storing the form's contents to a database file
corporate offices on the server
D. None of the above D. None of the above

3. ______ JavaScript is also called client-side 9. Which of the following are capabilities of
JavaScript. functions in JavaScript?
A. Microsoft A. Return a value
B. Navigator B. Accept parameters and Return a value
C. LiveWire C. Accept parameters
D. Native D. None of the above

4. __________ JavaScript is also called server- 10. Which of the following is not a valid
side JavaScript. JavaScript variable name?
A. Microsoft A. 2names
B. Navigator B. _first_and_last_names
C. LiveWire C. FirstAndLast
D. Native D. None of the above

5. What are variables used for in JavaScript 11. ______ tag is an extension to HTML that can
Programs? enclose any number of JavaScript statements.
A. Storing numbers, dates, or other values A. <SCRIPT>
B. Varying randomly B. <BODY>
C. Causing high-school algebra flashbacks C. <HEAD>
D. None of the above D. <TITLE>

6. _____ JavaScript statements embedded in an 12. How does JavaScript store dates in a date
HTML page can respond to user events such as object?
mouse-clicks, form input, and page navigation. A. The number of milliseconds since January
A. Client-side 1st, 1970
B. Server-side B. The number of days since January 1st, 1900
C. Local C. The number of seconds since Netscape's
D. Native public stock offering.
D. None of the above
13. Which of the following attribute can hold
the JavaScript version?
A. LANGUAGE
B. SCRIPT
C. VERSION
D. None of the above
14. What is the correct JavaScript syntax to
write "Hello World"?
A. System.out.println("Hello World")
B. println ("Hello World")
C. document.write("Hello World")
D. response.write("Hello World")
15. Which of the following way can be used to
indicate the LANGUAGE attribute?
A. <LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion">
B. <SCRIPT LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion">
C. <SCRIPT LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion">
JavaScript statements…</SCRIPT>
D. <SCRIPT LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion"!>
JavaScript statements…</SCRIPT>
16. Inside which HTML element do we put the
JavaScript?
A. <js>
B. <scripting>
C. <script>
D. <javascript>
17. What is the correct syntax for referring to
an external script called " abc.js"?
A. <script href=" abc.js">
B. <script name=" abc.js">
C. <script src=" abc.js">
D. None of the above
18. Which types of image maps can be used
with JavaScript?
A. Server-side image maps
B. Client-side image maps
C. Server-side image maps and Client-side
image maps
D. None of the above
19. Which of the following navigator object
properties is the same in both Netscape and IE?
A. navigator.appCodeName
B. navigator.appName
C. navigator.appVersion
D. None of the above
20. Which is the correct way to write a
JavaScript array?
A. var txt = new Array(1:"tim",2:"kim",3:"jim")
B. var txt = new
Array:1=("tim")2=("kim")3=("jim")
C. var txt = new Array("tim","kim","jim")
D. var txt = new Array="tim","kim","jim"
21. What does the <noscript> tag do?
A. Enclose text to be displayed by non-
JavaScript browsers.
B. Prevents scripts on the page from executing.
C. Describes certain low-budget movies.
D. None of the above
22. If para1 is the DOM object for a paragraph,
what is the correct syntax to change the text
within the paragraph?
A. "New Text"?
B. para1.value="New Text";
C. para1.firstChild.nodeValue= "New Text";
D. para1.nodeValue="New Text";
23. JavaScript entities start with _______ and
end with _________.
A. Semicolon, colon
B. Semicolon, Ampersand
C. Ampersand, colon
D. Ampersand, semicolon
24. Which of the following best describes
JavaScript?
A. a low-level programming language.
B. a scripting language precompiled in the
browser.
C. a compiled scripting language.
D. an object-oriented scripting language.
25. Choose the server-side JavaScript object?
A. FileUpLoad
B. Function
C. File
D. Date
26. Choose the client-side JavaScript object?
A. Database
B. Cursor thenexecute this codeend if
C. Client B. if (conditional expression is true)execute this
D. FileUpLoad codeend if
C. if (conditional expression is true) {then
27. Which of the following is not considered a execute this code>->}
JavaScript operator? D. if (conditional expression is true) then
A. new {execute this code}
B. this
C. delete 34. How to create a Date object in JavaScript?
D. typeof A. dateObjectName = new Date([parameters])
B. dateObjectName.new Date([parameters])
28. ______method evaluates a string of C. dateObjectName := new Date([parameters])
JavaScript code in the context of the specified D. dateObjectName Date([parameters])
object.
A. Eval 35. The _______ method of an Array object
B. ParseInt adds and/or removes elements from an array.
C. ParseFloat A. Reverse
D. Efloat B. Shift
C. Slice
29. Which of the following event fires when the D. Splice
form element loses the focus: <button>,
<input>, <label>, <select>, <textarea>? 36. To set up the window to capture all Click
A. onfocus events, we use which of the following
B. onblur statement?
C. onclick A. window.captureEvents(Event.CLICK);
D. ondblclick B. window.handleEvents (Event.CLICK);
C. window.routeEvents(Event.CLICK );
30. The syntax of Eval is ________________ D. window.raiseEvents(Event.CLICK );
A. [objectName.]eval(numeriC.
B. [objectName.]eval(string) 37. Which tag(s) can handle mouse events in
C. [EvalName.]eval(string) Netscape?
D. [EvalName.]eval(numeriC. A. <IMG>
B. <A>
31. JavaScript is interpreted by _________ C. <BR>
A. Client D. None of the above
B. Server
C. Object 38. ____________ is the tainted property of a
D. None of the above window object.
A. Pathname
32. Using _______ statement is how you test B. Protocol
for a specific condition. C. Defaultstatus
A. Select D. Host
B. If
C. Switch 39. To enable data tainting, the end user sets
D. For the _________ environment variable.
A. ENABLE_TAINT
33. Which of the following is the structure of an B. MS_ENABLE_TAINT
if statement? C. NS_ENABLE_TAINT
A. if (conditional expression is true) D. ENABLE_TAINT_NS
 added to prefs.js?
40. In JavaScript, _________ is an object of the A. user_pref("
target language data type that encloses an javascript.console.open_on_error", false);
object of the source language. B. user_pref("javascript.console.open_error ",
A. a wrapper true);
B. a link C. user_pref("javascript.console.open_error ",
C. a cursor false);
D. a form D.
user_pref("javascript.console.open_on_error",
41. When a JavaScript object is sent to Java, the true);
runtime engine creates a Java wrapper of type
___________ 47. To open a dialog box each time an error
A. ScriptObject occurs, which of the following is added to
B. JSObject prefs.js?
C. JavaObject A. user_pref("javascript.classic.error_alerts",
D. Jobject true);
B. user_pref("javascript.classic.error_alerts ",
42. _______ class provides an interface for false);
invoking JavaScript methods and examining C. user_pref("javascript.console.open_on_error
JavaScript properties. ", true);
A. ScriptObject D. user_pref("javascript.console.open_on_error
B. JSObject ", false);
C. JavaObject
D. Jobject 48. The syntax of a blur method in a button
object is ______________
43. _________ is a wrapped Java array, A. Blur()
accessed from within JavaScript code. B. Blur(contrast)
A. JavaArray C. Blur(value)
B. JavaClass D. Blur(depth)
C. JavaObject
D. JavaPackage 49. The syntax of capture events method for
document object is ______________
44. A ________ object is a reference to one of A. captureEvents()
the classes in a Java package, such as B. captureEvents(args eventType)
netscape.javascript . C. captureEvents(eventType)
A. JavaArray D. captureEvents(eventVal)
B. JavaClass
C. JavaObject 50. The syntax of close method for document
D. JavaPackage object is ______________
A. Close(doC.
45. The JavaScript exception is available to the B. Close(object)
Java code as an instance of __________ C. Close(val)
A. netscape.javascript.JSObject D. Close()
B. netscape.javascript.JSException
C. netscape.plugin.JSException 51. <script type="text/javascript">x=4+"4";
D. None of the above document.write(x);</script>
Output------?
46. To automatically open the console when a A. 44
JavaScript error occurs which of the following is B. 8
C. 4 A. It refers current object
D. Error output B. It referes previous object
C. It is variable which contains value
52. Is it possible to nest functions in JavaScript? D. None of the above
A. True
B. False 58. In JavaScript, Window.prompt() method
return true or false value ?
53. <script> A. False
document.write(navigator.appCodeName); B. True
</script>
A. get code name of the browser of a visitor 59. <script language="javascript">
B. set code name of the browser of a visitor function x()
C. None of the above {
document.write(2+5+"8");
54. Scripting language are }
A. High Level Programming language </script>
B. Assembly Level programming language A. 258
C. Machine level programming language B. Error
C. 7
55. Which best explains getSelection()? D. 78
A. Returns the VALUE of a selected OPTION.
B. Returns document.URL of the window in 60. <script type="text/javascript">
focus. var s = "9123456 or 80000?";
C. Returns the value of cursor-selected text var pattern = /d{4}/;
D. Returns the VALUE of a checked radio input. var output = s.match(pattern);
document.write(output);
56. Choose the client-side JavaScript object: </script>
A. Database
B. Cursor A. 9123
C. Client B. 91234
D. FileUpLoad C. 80000
D. None of the above
57. What is mean by "this" keyword in
javascript?
 VBA
1. Which language is not a true object-oriented a.) Form Properties
programming language? b.) Reference Folder
a.) VB.NET c.) Form File
b.) VB 6 d.) Assemble File
c.) C++ e.) All are part of the solution explorer.
d.) C#
e.) Java 8. Which is true about the name and text
property of a control?
2. A GUI: a.) They are the same when the control is first
a.) uses buttons, menus, and icons. created.
b.) should be easy for a user to manipulate. b.) The text property changes to match any
c.) stands for Graphic Use Interaction. changes in the name property.
d.) Both a and b. c.) The name property changes to match any
e.) All of the above. changes in the text property.
d.) They are never the same unless the
3. Visual Studio .NET provides which feature: programmer makes it that way.
a.) debugging. e.) They are not allowed to be the same and an
b.) application deployment. error will occur if they are.
c.) syntax checking.
d.) Both a and b. 9. For which task does the IDE provide multiple
e.) All of the above. ways to accomplish the task?
a.) Putting a control on the form
4. What does IDE stand for? b.) Running the program
a.) Integrated Development Environment c.) Activating the property window for a control
b.) Integrated Design Environment d.) Both a and b.
c.) Interior Development Environment e.) All of the above.
d.) Interior Design Environment
e.) None of the above. 10. Which are the standard prefixes for the
Button and Combo box controls respectively?
5. Which type of project can a developer choose a.) btn and chb
in the New Project dialog box? b.) btn and cbo
a.) Visual Basic Projects c.) bto and chb
b.) Visual C# Projects d.) bto and cbo
c.) Visual C++ Projects e.) cmd and cbo
d.) Both a and b.
e.) All of the above. 11. Which are the standard prefixes for the text
box and label controls respectively?
6. Which is not a main component of the Visual a.) tex and lbl
Studio IDE b.) tex and lab
a.) Solution Explorer c.) txb and lbl
b.) Tool Box d.) txb and lab
c.) Start Menu e.) txt and lab
d.) Designer Window
e.) Properties Window 12. Which task is accomplished in the Code
editor?
7. Which does the solution explorer not display? a.) Adding forms to the project
b.) Adding controls to the form c.) has the System.Form namespace for classes
c.) Adding event procedures to the form used in Windows-based application.
d.) Both a and b. d.) Both a and b.
e.) All of the above. e.) All of the above.

13. Which is not a feature of a GUI that makes 19. Which is not a property of the Common
learning a program easy for users? control class?
a.) Online help a.) Show
b.) WYSIWYG formatting b.) BackColor
c.) Dialog boxes c.) Font
d.) Detailed key strokes and commands d.) ForeColor
e.) Icons e.) Name

14. An object is composed of: 20. Which property determines whether a

a.) properties. control is displayed to the user?
b.) methods. a.) Hide
c.) events. b.) Show
d.) Both a and b. c.) Visible
e.) All of the above. d.) Enabled
e.) Cursor
15. Which statement about objects is true?
a.) One object is used to create one class. 21. The Button control can be activated:
b.) One class is used to create one object. a.) programmatically through the click event.
c.) One object can create many classes. b.) by clicking the button with the mouse.
d.) One class can create many objects. c.) with the form’s DefaultButton property.
e.) There is no relationship between objects d.) Both a and b.
and classes. e.) All of the above.

16. Which is not true about forms and controls 22. The CancelButton property belongs to which
in Visual Basic? object?
a.) They are pre-built. a.) Button
b.) They are graphical objects. b.) Form
c.) New versions of the classes must be created c.) Label
with each project. d.) TextBox
d.) Buttons can be created with the drag and e.) Timer
drop method.
e.) All of the above are true. 23. A click event procedure stud for the label
control can be created by:
17. Which is an example of Visual Basic Objects? a.) selecting the object and event from the
a.) Control objects code editor window’s drop-down boxes.
b.) ASP.NET b.) typing the code in the code editor window.
c.) ADO.NET c.) by double clicking the control.
d.) Both a and b. d.) Both a and b.
e.) All of the above. e.) All of the above.

18. The .Net class library: 24. In event-driven programming an event is

a.) contains over 25,000 classes. generated by:
b.) uses namespaces to manage all of the a.) the system.
classes. b.) a user’s action.
c.) the program itself. b.) Design
d.) Both a and b. c.) Implementation
e.) All of the above. d.) Maintenance
e.) Documentation
25. Which is not a common control event?
a.) Click 31. Which is not an integer data type?
b.) SingleClick a.) Single
c.) DoubleClick b.) Byte
d.) MouseMove c.) Short
e.) MouseDown d.) Integer
e.) Long
26. The Tick event is found only in which
object? 32. Which is a numeric data type?
a.) Form a.) Floating point
b.) Button b.) Integer
c.) TextBox c.) Boolean
d.) Label d.) Both a and b.
e.) Timer e.) All of the above.

27. The Activated event is found only in which 33. Which sequence of char data types is listed
object? from lowest to highest?
a.) Form a.) a, A, z, Z
b.) Button b.) a, z, A, Z
c.) TextBox c.) A, a, Z, z
d.) Label d.) A, Z, a, z
e.) Timer e.) z, a, Z, A

28. The Rnd statement will generate a(n): 34. The Date data type does not hold which
a.) decimal value between 0.01 and 1.00. type of information.
b.) integer value between 0.01 and 1.00. a.) Seconds
c.) decimal value between 0.0 and 1.0. b.) Hours
d.) integer value between 0.0 and 1.0. c.) Days
e.) decimal value between 0.0 and up to 1.0, d.) Months
but not including 1.0. e.) Quarters

29. The analysis phase of software development 35. The Boolean data type:
involves: a.) is unsigned.
a.) collecting the requirements about what the b.) has two states.
program will accomplish. c.) is displayed by the program as yes or no.
b.) creating a detailed plan on how the d.) Both a and b.
program will accomplish the requirements. e.) All of the above.
c.) writing the software with a program such as
VB.NET. 36. Which is a valid statement for declaring a
d.) Both a and b. variable?
e.) All of the above. a.) Const Form As Integer
b.) Const myForm As Integer
30. Which phase of project development c.) Dim Form As Integer
typically costs the most? d.) Dim myForm As Integer
a.) Analysis e.) All of the above.
37. VB.Net identifiers: 43. The left side of an assignment statement
a.) are case sensitive. will hold:
b.) can begin with an underscore. a.) a variable.
c.) can begin with a number. b.) an object property.
d.) Both a and b. c.) an expression.
e.) All of the above. d.) Both a and b.
e.) All of the above.
38. The name of a constant:
a.) must both begin with a letter and be all 44. The right side of an assignment statement
upper case. will hold:
b.) does not have to begin with a letter but a.) a variable.
must be all upper case. b.) an object property.
c.) must begin with a letter but can be upper or c.) an expression.
lower case. d.) Both a and b.
d.) does not have to begin with a letter and be e.) All of the above.
either upper or lower case.
e.) None of the above. 45. Which function will return the monthly
payments of a loan?
39. The proper operator precedence, from first a.) Pay (Rate, PV, Nper)
to last, is: b.) Pmt (Rate, Nper, PV)
a.) logical, comparison, and arithmetic. c.) FV (Rate, Nper, Pmt)
b.) arithmetic, comparison, and logical. d.) FV (Rate, Nper, PV)
c.) arithmetic, logical, and comparison. e.) None of the above.
d.) comparison, arithmetic, and logical.
e.) logical, arithmetic, comparison. 46. Which function returns the numbers
represented in the string “$56.7”?
40. With A = False and B = True, which a.) Abs
statement evaluates as True? b.) CDbl
a.) A AND A c.) Int
b.) A AND B d.) Rnd
c.) B AND A e.) Val
d.) B AND B
e.) None are true. 47. What will the function Val ($165.30) return?
a.) 0
41. With A = False and B = True, which b.) 165
statement evaluates as False? c.) 165.30
a.) A OR A d.) $165.30
b.) A OR B e.) An error
c.) B OR A
d.) B OR B 48. Which function displays a pop-up window?
e.) None are true. a.) MsgBox
b.) InputBox
42. Which operator is evaluated first? c.) TextBox
a.) NOT d.) Both a and b.
b.) AND e.) All of the above.
c.) XOR
d.) OR 49. Which is true about the prompt argument?
e.) They are always evaluated left-to-right.
a.) It can be made of multiple values e.) All of the above.
concatenated into one string.
b.) It can include the vbCrLf constant. 55. Which method of a ListBox will remove just
c.) It can include the ampersand symbol to one item at a time?
concatenate strings. a.) Items.RemoveAt
d.) Both a and b. b.) Item.RemoveAt
e.) All of the above. c.) Items.ClearAt
d.) Item.ClearAt
50. In order to process a number typed in a e.) Items.Clear
TextBox the programmer must:
a.) use the Val function to convert the Text 56. The Items property of a ComboBox:
value. a.) is a collection of items.
b.) use the CDbl function to convert the Text b.) is the same as the Items property of a
value. ListBox.
c.) use the IsNumeric function to convert the c.) contains methods and properties.
Text value. d.) Both a and b.
d.) Both a and b. e.) All of the above.
e.) All of the above.
57. Which value for the ComboBox
51. Which TextBox method does not use the DropDownStyle property allows a user to type
clipboard? in data?
a.) Clear a.) DropDown
b.) Copy b.) DropDownSimple
c.) Cut c.) DropDownList
d.) Paste d.) Both a and b.
e.) All of these methods use the clipboard. e.) All of the above.

52. Which TextBox property should always be 58. Which two controls combined to form the
changed first? ComboBox control?
a.) AcceptsReturn a.) ListBox and TextBox
b.) BorderStyle b.) ListBox and InputBox
c.) Font c.) ListBox and MsgBox
d.) Name d.) Label and TextBox
e.) Text e.) Label and InputBox

53. Which is not a valid value for the ListBox 59. When a condition in an If…Then statements
SectionMode Property? tests true:
a.) None a.) the next Else statement is activated.
b.) One b.) the next If statement is activated.
c.) MultiSimple c.) the next Then statement is activated.
d.) MultiExtended d.) the End If statement is activated.
e.) All of the above. e.) a condition can never test true.

54. Setting the SelectedIndex property of a 60. The End If statement is required:
ListBox to -1 will: a.) in all If…Then statements.
a.) cause an error. b.) in all Multi-line statements with Else.
b.) cannot be done. c.) in Single Line statements.
c.) de-select any selected item. d.) Both a and b.
d.) Both a and b. e.) All of the above.
 Tally
1. Employee salary details are shown in C) Group
A) Attendance sheet D) None of these
B) Gratuity papers
C) Exact reports 9. The options ? use common narration? and ?
D) Pay roll narration each entry? appear
A) Account creation screen
2. Salary comes under Head B) Voucher entry screen
A) Direct expense C) F11 accounting features
B) current liability D) Voucher type creation screen
C) Indirect expense
D) Current asset 10. Predefined groups are also called as
A) Main group
3. Vouchers can be displayed in B) Primary group
A) Accounts info C) Statutory group
B) Day book D) Parent group
C) inventory info
D) Ledger 11. Which of the following is not a disadvantage
of introducing computerized accounting system
4. Professionals usually maintain accounts as A) Possible demotivation through reundance
A) Accounts with inventory B) High expenditure on set up
B) accounts only C) Saving made on labour cost
C) Normal accounting D) Required staff training
D) payroll accounting
12. Transfer from main cash to petty cash you
5. A company can be deleted only in require to pass
A) Display A) Voucher
B) alter B) Payment
C) delete C) Contra
D) Create D) Receipt

6. Company features in tally includes 13. Income tax number of the company will
A) Accounting features appear in which report
B) Inventory features A) Cash/bank book
C) Statutory features B) Profit and loss a/c
D) all of the above C) Reminder letter
D) None of these
7. Integrated accounts with inventory is
available in 14. Patent account falls under
A) F12 configuration A) Investments
B) f11 features B) Liabilities
C) inventory info C) Current assets
D) accounts info D) None of these

8. Collection of ledgers of same nature is called 15. Drawings account is to be created by linking
A) Vouchers with
B) asset A) Capital
B) Current asset A) Posting
C) Current liability B) Journalizing
D) Drawings C) Balancing
D) Accounting
16. Transactions are firstly entered in:
A) Journal 24. is the expense which is unpaid at
B) Ledger the end of the accounting period
C) Trial balance A) Outstanding expenses
D) None of these B) Prepaid expenses
C) Proposed expenses
17. A trial balance is prepared D) Working capital
A) To prepare p &l a/c
B) To test the arithmetical accuracy 25. is an example for tangible assets
C) For making adjustments A) Furniture
D) To balance the a/c B) Debtors
C) Patent
18. Capital is treated as liability because of D) Discount on issue of shares and debentures
A) Dual aspect concept
B) Money measurement concept 26. Which account is the odd one
C) Matching concept A) Furniture
D) Entity concept B) Land and buildings
C) Stock of raw materials
19. are the liabilities which are payable D) Plant and machinery
after a long period
A) Fixed liabilities 27. Which of the following is the example of
B) Miscellaneous expenditure external users of accounting information
C) Current liabilities A) Government
D) Contingent liabilities B) Owners
C) Management
20. is an example for long term liabilities D) Employee
A) Creditors
B) Debentures 28. A is sent to a customer when he
C) Overdraft returns the goods
D) Bills payable A) Debit note
B) Credit note
21. is the collection of all accounts C) Proforma invoice
A) Journal D) Bill
B) Voucher
C) Invoices 29. A is sent to the seller when he is
D) Ledger taken back the sold goods
A) Debit note
22. is the book of original entry B) Credit note
A) Journal C) Proforma invoice
B) Voucher D) Bill
C) Invoices
D) Ledger 30. Which of the following is not a transaction
A) Goods are purchased on cash basis for rs
23. The process of ascertaining the balance of a 1000
particular account on a given date is B) Salaries paid for the month of may 2009
C) Land is purchased for rs 10 lakhs D) Fixed asset
D) An employee is dismissed from the job
38. Taxes paid come under which group
31. Bank account is A) Capital
A) Personal account B) Loans and liabilities
B) Real account C) Direct expenses
C) Nominal account D) Duties and taxes
D) Intangible real account
39. Accounting principles are divided into two
32. Income earned but not received is known types. These are
as A) Accounting concepts
A) Advance income B) Accounting conventions
B) Proposed income C) Accounting standard
C) Earned income D) 1 and 3 both
D) Accrued income
40. The term current assets does not
33. refers the amount invested by the include
owner into business A) Debtors
A) Loan B) B/r
B) Advance C) Stock
C) Capital D) Goodwill
D) Prepaid expenses
41. There are predefined ledgers
34. is the major source of revenue of A) One
any business B) Three
A) Investment C) Two
B) Advances D) Four
C) Loan
D) Sales 42. Closing stock come under
Answer : D A) Current asset
B) Fixed asset
35. Assets acquired for long term use in the C) Stock in hand
business are called D) Direct income
A) Fixed assets
B) Current assets 43. E-mail can be used to
C) Fictitious assets A) Send mail directly from tally screen
D) Liquid asset B) To send e-mail
C) Download information
36. A person who owes money to the business D) Access help
is a
A) Debtor 44. In tally screen right extreme
B) Creditor displays
C) Investor A) Selected companies
D) Supplier B) Current date
C) Gate way of tally
37. Accrued income comes under D) Button bar
A) Current liability
B) Capital 45. Capital of the company is included under
C) Current asset A) Capital account
B) Fixed liabilities 48. To activate cost centre and cost category
C) Loans and advances feature we have to select
D) Current liabilities A) Configuration
B) F 11 features
46. Carriage inwards can be included in C) Group creation
A) Direct expenses D) Voucher creation
B) Indirect expenses
C) Current liability 49. The left hand side of tally screen shows
D) Misc Expenses A) Current date
B) Last entered voucher
47. The branch of accounting which analyses C) Gate way of tally
and interprets the overall data is D) List of selected companies
A) Financial accounting
B) Cost accounting 50. Credit note is used for entering
C) Management accounting A) Purchases
D) None of these B) Sales
C) Purchase return
D) Sales return
 E COMMERCE
Introduction To E Commerce

1. Sale or purchase of items without (d) C2C or Consumer to Consumer

physically visiting a shop is called .
(a) E-Commerce General Questions On E Commerce
(b) Point of Sale (POS)
(c) Goods and Services 1. is the trading of goods and items through the
(d) Disposal Internet.
(a) E-Trade
2. E-Commerce may be carried out (b) E-Commerce
using modes. (c) E-Network
(a) SMS/ phone conversation (d) none of them
(b) Web
(c) email 2. What is the full form of B2B?
(d) all of them (a) Bihar to Bihar
(b) Bombay to Bombay
Types Of E-Commerce (c) Business to Business
(d) none of them
1. When the seller and the buyer are both
business firms, it is called model of E- 3. What is the full form of B2C?
Commerce. (a) Bihar to Chandigarh
(a) C2B or Consumer to Business (b) Bombay square to Chandigarh
(b) B2C or Business to Consumer (c) Business to Consumer
(c) B2B or Business to Business (d) none of them
(d) C2C or Consumer to Consumer
4. What is the full form of ALE in ecommerce?
2. When the seller is a business and the is an (a) Application Link Embedding
individual consumer, it is called model of E- (b) Application Link Electronics
Commerce. (c) Application Leakage Enabling
(a) C2B or Consumer to Business (d) none of them
(b) B2C or Business to Consumer
(c) B2B or Business to Business 5. What is the full form of EDI in ecommerce?
(d) C2C or Consumer to Consumer (a) Electronic Detailed International
(b) Electronic Data Interchange
3. When the seller is an individual and the buyer (c) Electronic Digital Interchange
is a business firm, it is called model of E- (d) none of them
Commerce.
(a) C2B or Consumer to Business 6. Which e-commerce software requires initial
(b) B2C or Business to Consumer one time password investment of licensing fee?
(c) B2B or Business to Business (a) OnPromise
(d) C2C or Consumer to Consumer (b) SaaS
(c) Open Source
4. When the seller and the buyer are both (d) none of them
individuals, it is called model of E-Commerce.
(a) C2B or Consumer to Business 7. Which of the following is a cloud based
(b) B2C or Business to Consumer eCommerce platform (applications are hosted
(c) B2B or Business to Business
and managed in service providers datacentre, 14. Which of the following ecommerce
subscribed on payment basis)? platforms allows consumers to buy goods
(a) OnPromise directly from seller over the Internet?
(b) SaaS (a) e-webshop
(c) Open Source (b) e-shopping
(d) none of them (c) e-webstore
(d) all of them
8. Which of the ecommerce software is free of
charge (no licensing fee)? 15. Which software model allows
(a) OnPromise accumulation of a list of items before making
(b) SaaS the online purchase?
(c) Open Source (a) online shopping
(d) none of them (b) e-shopping
(c) shopping cart
9. What is the full form of C2B? (d) none of them
(a) Chandigarh to Bihar
(b) Chandigarh to Bombay square 16. What is the name of front page of a web
(c) Consumer to Business store accessed by visitors to the online shop?
(d) none of them (a) storefront
(b) webfront
10. What is the full form of CRM in ecommerce? (c) e-store
(a) Crime Report Management (d) none of them
(b) Customer Relationship Management
(c) Consumer Resource Management 17. If a company sends bills over the Internet
(d) none of them and consumers pay the bills online, it is called .
(a) Internet billing
11. What is the term given to e-commerce site (b) web billing
where product and inventory information is (c) electronic billing
provided by multiple third parties? (d) none of them
(a) online marketplace
(b) online e-commerce 18. Which parties are involved in electronic
(c) e-marketplace billing?
(d) none of them (a) billers
(b) bankers
12. In an on line marketplace, transactions are (c) consolidators
processed by . (d) all of them
(a) marketplace operator
(b) customer 19. What is the full form of BPP in ecommerce?
(c) seller (a) Biller Payment Provider
(d) none of them (b) Biller Provision Provider
(c) Biller Payment Protector
13. Example of an online marketplace are. (d) none of them
(a) eBay
(b) Snapdeal 20. What is the full form of BSP in ecommerce?
(c) Flipkart (a) Biller Service Protector
(d) all of them (b) Biller Service Provider
(c) Biller Service Packer
(d) none of them
21. What is the full form of CSP in ecommerce? (c) 85.60 × 53.98m
(a) Card Service Provider (d) none of them
(b) Customer Service Provider
(c) central Service Provider 29. The default period of loan for a credit card
(d) none of them holder is days.
(a) 55
22. What is the full form of ACH in ecommerce? (b) 50
(a) Association of Clearing Houses (c) 58
(b) Anonymous Cleansing House (d) none of them
(c) Automatic Clearing House
(d) none of them 30. A partial payment of loan in case of charge
cards may attract .
23. What is the full form of BITS in ecommerce? (a) bonus
(a) Bihartiya Institute of Technology & Society (b) late fee
(b) Banking Industry Technology Secretariat (c) interest
(c) Banking Institute of Technology & Society (d) none of them
(d) none of them
31. In which card, a card holder is not required
24. Which system facilitates the adoption to make payments every month?
of electronic payment for online transactions? (a) charge
(a) motivated electronic purchase system (b) credit
(b) electronic payment system (c) debit
(c) online payment system (d) none of them
(d) none of them
32. In which card, funds are directly withdrawn
25. What is the fill form of CVN in ecommerce? from his bank account for each payment made
(a) Card Verification Number through the card?
(b) Commerce Verified Number (a) debit
(c) Consumer Verified Number (b) credit
(d) none of them (c) ATM
(d) none of them
26. In system, payment gateway allows the
consumer to specify the bank from which 33. What is the full form of ATM?
payment should be made. (a) Any Time Money
(a) e-pay banking (b) Automated Transaction Management
(b) e-commerce banking (c) Automated Teller Machine
(c) net banking (d) none of them
(d) none of them
34. Which card cannot be used for cash
27. What can be used by a consumer and withdrawal?
accepted by a merchant for making payments? (a) ATM
(a) merchant card (b) charge
(b) payment card (c) debit
(c) visiting card (d) none of them
(d) none of them
35. Which cards have a monetary value store on
28. What is the size of payment card? the card itself?
(a) 85.60 × 53.98cm (a) ATM
(b) 85.60 × 53.98mm (b) charge
(c) stored-value (a) magnetic strip
(d) none of them (b) embossing
(c) smart
36. Which cards are not issued in the name of (d) none of them
any individual?
(a) ATM 39. Which card contains a chip having
(b) stored value embedded integrated circuit which can
(c) debit process data?
(d) none of them (a) magnetic strip
(b) embossing
37. Which cards are commonly used to buy (c) smart
gasoline (petrol), diesel and other fuels? (d) none of them
(a) fleet/fuel
(b) ATM 40. Which of the following authenticates and
(c) credit handles credit card payment for eCommerce?
(d) none of them (a) payment gateway
(b) e-commerce gateway
38. Which cards store card data that can be (c) software gateway
read by physical contact and swiping past a (d) none of them
reading head?
 Cyber Security
1. Why would a hacker use a proxy server? A. Reconnaissance
A. To create a stronger connection with the B. Maintaining Access
target. C. Scanning
B. To create a ghost server on the network. D. Gaining Access
C. To obtain a remote access connection.
D. To hide malicious activity on the network. 8. Attempting to gain access to a network using
an employee’s credentials is called the
2. What type of symmetric key algorithm using _____________ mode of ethical hacking.
a streaming cipher to encrypt information? A. Local networking
A. RC4 B. Social engineering
B. Blowfish C. Physical entry
C. SHA D. Remote networking
D. MD5
9. Which Federal Code applies the
3. Which of the following is not a factor in consequences of hacking activities that disrupt
securing the environment against an attack on subway transit systems?
security? A. Electronic Communications Interception of
A. The education of the attacker Oral Communications
B. The system configuration B. 18 U.S.C. § 1029
C. The network architecture C. Cyber Security Enhancement Act 2002
D. The business strategy of the company D. 18 U.S.C. § 1030
E. The level of access provided to employees
10. Which of the following is not a typical
4. What type of attack uses a fraudulent server characteristic of an ethical hacker?
with a relay address? A. Excellent knowledge of Windows.
A. NTLM B. Understands the process of exploiting
B. MITM network vulnerabilities.
C. NetBIOS C. Patience, persistence and perseverance.
D. SMB D. Has the highest level of security for the
organization.
5. What port is used to connect to the Active
Directory in Windows 2000? 11. What is the proper command to perform an
A. 80 Nmap XMAS scan every 15seconds?
B. 445 A. nmap -sX -sneaky
C. 139 B. nmap -sX -paranoid
D. 389 C. nmap -sX -aggressive
D. nmap -sX -polite
6. To hide information inside a picture, what
technology is used? 12. What type of rootkit will patch, hook, or
A. Rootkits replace the version of system call in order to
B. Bitmapping hide information?
C. Steganography A. Library level rootkits
D. Image Rendering B. Kernel level rootkits
C. System level rootkits
7. Which phase of hacking performs actual D. Application level rootkits
attack on a network or system?
13. What is the purpose of a Denial of Service
attack?
A. Exploit a weakness in the TCP/IP stack
B. To execute a Trojan on a system
C. To overload a system so it is no longer
operational
D. To shutdown services by turning them off
14. What are some of the most common
vulnerabilities that exist in a network or
system?
A. Changing manufacturer, or recommended,
settings of a newly installed application.
B. Additional unused features on commercial
software packages.
C. Utilizing open source application code
D. Balancing security concerns with
functionality and ease of use of a system.
B. Comparing the TTL values of the actual and
spoofed addresses
C. Implementing a firewall to the network
D. Identify all TCP sessions that are initiated but
does not complete successfully
20. Why would a ping sweep be used?
A. To identify live systems
B. To locate live systems
C. To identify open ports
D. To locate firewalls
21. What are the port states determined by
Nmap?
A. Active, inactive, standby
B. Open, half-open, closed
C. Open, filtered, unfiltered
D. Active, closed, unused

15. What is the sequence of a TCP connection? 22. What port does Telnet use?
A. SYN-ACK-FIN A. 22
B. SYN-SYN ACK-ACK B. 80
C. SYN-ACK C. 20
D. SYN-SYN-ACK D. 23

16. What tool can be used to perform SNMP 23. Which of the following will allow
enumeration? footprinting to be conducted without
A. DNSlookup detection?
B. Whois A. PingSweep
C. Nslookup B. Traceroute
D. IP Network Browser C. War Dialers
D. ARIN
17. Which ports should be blocked to prevent
null session enumeration? 24. Performing hacking activities with the intent
A. Ports 120 and 445 on gaining visibility for an unfair situation is
B. Ports 135 and 136 called ________.
C. Ports 110 and 137 A. Cracking
D. Ports 135 and 139 B. Analysis
C. Hacktivism
18. The first phase of hacking an IT system is D. Exploitation
compromise of which foundation of security?
A. Availability 25. What is the most important activity in
B. Confidentiality system hacking?
C. Integrity A. Information gathering
D. Authentication B. Cracking passwords
C. Escalating privileges
19. How is IP address spoofing detected? D. Covering tracks
A. Installing and configuring a IDS that can read
the IP header
26. A packet with no flags set is which type of A. Port, network, and services
scan? B. Network, vulnerability, and port
A. TCP C. Passive, active, and interactive
B. XMAS D. Server, client, and network
C. IDLE
D. NULL
34. Enumeration is part of what phase of ethical
27. Sniffing is used to perform ______________ hacking?
fingerprinting. A. Reconnaissance
A. Passive stack B. Maintaining Access
B. Active stack C. Gaining Access
C. Passive banner grabbing D. Scanning
D. Scanned
35. Keyloggers are a form of ______________.
28. Phishing is a form of A. Spyware
____________________. B. Shoulder surfing
A. Spamming C. Trojan
B. Identify Theft D. Social engineering
C. Impersonation
D. Scanning 36. What are hybrid attacks?
A. An attempt to crack passwords using words
29. Why would HTTP Tunneling be used? that can be found in dictionary.
A. To identify proxy servers B. An attempt to crack passwords by replacing
B. Web activity is not scanned characters of a dictionary word with numbers
C. To bypass a firewall and symbols.
D. HTTP is a easy protocol to work with C. An attempt to crack passwords using a
combination of characters, numbers, and
30. Which Nmap scan is does not completely symbols.
open a TCP connection? D. An attempt to crack passwords by replacing
A. SYN stealth scan characters with numbers and symbols.
B. TCP connect
C. XMAS tree scan 37. Which form of encryption does WPA use?
D. ACK scan A. Shared key
B. LEAP
31. What protocol is the Active Directory C. TKIP
database based on? D. AES
A. LDAP
B. TCP 38. What is the best statement for taking
C. SQL advantage of a weakness in the security of an IT
D. HTTP system?
A. Threat
32. Services running on a system are B. Attack
determined by _____________. C. Exploit
A. The system’s IP address. D. Vulnerability
B. The Active Directory
C. The system’s network name 39. Which database is queried by Whois?
D. The port assigned A. ICANN
B. ARIN
33. What are the types of scanning? C. APNIC
D. DNS A. Web-based
B. Human-based
40. Having individuals provide personal C. User-based
information to obtain a free offer provided D. Computer-based
through the Internet is considered what type of
social engineering?