Previous Year Question Paper

of

Examination

DBT BET JRF 2008

(Original Question Paper with Answer Key)
DEPARTMENT OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

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Biotechnology Eligibility Test (BET)
for DBT-JRF Award (2008-09)
Government of India, Ministry of Science & Technology,
Department of Biotechnology, New Delhi

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(Coordinated by University of Pune)

April 20, 2008 Total Marks – 300 Duration 10.00 a.m. - 12.30 p.m.

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N.B. 1) All questions in Section A are compulsory.
2) Answer any 50 questions from Section B.
3) In case more than 50 are attempted, first 50 will be considered.

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4) Each question carries 3 marks; for every wrong answer, one mark will be
deducted.

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5) Write your seat no. strictly inside the space provided on the Answer sheet.
6) Answers marked inside the question paper will not be evaluated.
7) Please return the question paper along with the Answer sheet.
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Instructions for filling the Answer sheet:
1) There is only one correct answer for each question and once a mark has been
made the same cannot be altered.
2) All entries in the circle must be made by BLACK ink Ball Point Pen only.
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Do not try to alter the entry.
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3) Oval should be darkened completely so that the numeral inside the oval is
not visible.
4) Do not make any stray marks for rough work on the sheet.
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5) Do not use marker, white fluid or any other device to hide the shading already
done.
6) More than one entry of an answer will be considered wrong, and negative
marking will be done as above.
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7) Mark your answer as shown in the example.

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Section A

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1. Virus-mediated transfer of cellular genetic (D) The sequence of the last 3 nt at the 3' end of all
material from one bacterial cell to another tRNAs is the same Ans. B
by means of virus particles is called:
(A) transduction 6. Collagen consists of 3 helical chains containing Glycine
(B) transposition and proline amino acids in each chain. The overall
structure of each polypeptide in the collagen molecule is
(C) transformation
a:

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(D) transfection Ans. A
(A) polyproline I
(B) polyproline II
2. The plasmid cloning vector pBR322 (C) α–helix

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contains ampR and tetR genes that confer (D) Polyglycine I
resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline, Ans. B
respectively. The tetR gene contains a site for 7. In nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy, the
the restriction endonuclease BamHI. absorption spectra result by the absorption of one of the

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pBR322 is first cleaved with BamHI, added following electromagnetic radiation by the spinning
to a BamHI restriction fragment from a nucleus:
different DNA molecule and the resulting (A) ultraviolet waves
mixture is treated with DNA ligase and used (B) infrared waves

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to transform E. coli cells. Under these (C) radiowaves
(D) microwaves Ans. C
conditions, which one of the following
statements is true? 8. A ribonuclase solution gave an absorbance of 1.0 at 278
(A) Tetracycline can then be used to
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nm in a UV spectrometer using a 1 cm quartz cuvette.
select for transformed E. coli Given that the molar extinction coefficient of the enzyme
carrying recombinant plasmids at 278 nm is 102 M-1cm-1, the concentration of the
(B) Tetracycline can then be used to enzyme would be:
select for transformed E. coli (A) 1 mM
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carrying non-recombinant plasmids (B) 20 mM
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(C) Tetracycline can then be used to (C) 10 mM

select for non-transformed E. coli (D) 100 mM Ans. C
(D) E. coli cells with recombinant
9. Two proteins have the same molecular mass as well as the
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plasmids will grow on both

same isoelectric point. The best way to separate them
tetracycline and ampicillin
Ans. B would be to use:
(A) Reverse phase chromatography
3. Which subunit of E. coli RNA polymerase is
(B) Gel filtration chromatography
responsible for gene selection?
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(C) Ion-exchange chromatography

(A) alpha
(D) Chromatofocusing. Ans. A
(B) beta
(C) omega
10. One strand of double-stranded DNA is mutated, changing
(D) sigma Ans. D all cytosines to uracils. After one round of replication of
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the mutated DNA strand, the melting temperature of the

4. Which one of the following radioisotopes
resulting DNA will:
does not emit β rays?
(A) be higher
(A) 14C
(B) be lower
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(B) 3H
(C) remain the same
(C) 32 P
(D) be double Ans. B
(D) 125I Ans. D
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11. Which type of restriction enzymes does not

5. Which of the statements about tRNAs is FALSE?
require ATP?
(A) All organisms have more than 20 tRNA genes
(A) Type I
(B) The three-dimensional structure of tRNAs looks
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(B) Type II
like a cloverleaf
(C) Type III
(C) tRNAs contain modified bases

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(D) Type IV (C) an anion-exchange matrix

Ans. B (D) a plant cell wall constituent
Ans. A
12. The Southern blotting technique is used for:

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18. Biological washing powders remove stains by
enzyme action. Which of the following
(A) the detection of RNA fragments on
combinations would be most effective in
membranes by specific radioactive
removing an egg stain?
antibodies
(B) the detection of DNA fragments on (A) Amylase and protease
membranes by a radioactive DNA (B) Catalase and lipase

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(C) Lipase and maltase
probe
(D) Lipase and protease
(C) the detection of proteins on membranes Ans. D
using a radioactive DNA probe
19. A tetanus booster shot results in the increased

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(D) the detection of DNA fragments on
membranes by specific radioactive production of:
antibodies (A) tetanus-specific NK cells
Ans. B (B) T cells that recognize tetanus toxoid
but not tetanus toxin
13. Which of the following is not found in an E.coli

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(C) antibodies which neutralize tetanus
replication fork?
toxin
(A) DnaA
(B) Primase (D) T-cells which kill Clostridium tetani

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(C) PCNA Ans. C
20. Allotypes are:
(D) Single-stranded DNA binding protein.
Ans. A
(A) antigenic determinants which
segregate within a species
14. Which of the following is changing the fastest
over evolutionary time? (B) critical to the function of the antibody
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(A) The amount of intergenic DNA combining site
(C) involved in specificity
(B) The order of genes on chromosomes
(D) involved in memory
(C) Microsatellites Ans. A
(D) Exon DNA sequences
Ans. C 21. ELISA:
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(A) results in cell lysis
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15. Superoxide dismutase is an important enzyme for

maintenance of red blood cells and is defective in (B) uses a radiolabeled second antibody.
(C) involves addition of substrate which is
some neurodegenerative diseases. What does this
converted to a colored end-product
enzyme do?
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(D) requires sensitized red blood cells

(A) catalyzes the conversion of O2- to Ans. C
H2O2 and O2
(B) creates superoxides by oxidizing 22. Which of the following is not a member of the
heme Immunoglobulin supergene family?
(A) Antibodies
(C) converts H2O2 to water and O2
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(B) lymphokines
(D) removes H2O2 by oxidizing
(C) TCR
glutathione and producing water
Ans. A (D) Fc receptor on leukocytes Ans. B
16. Which of the following conditions would NOT
23. Exchange of two non-homologous
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promote denaturation of double-stranded DNA?

chromosomes is known as:
(A) heating to 100 degrees Celsius
(A) Crossing over
(B) adding high concentrations of sodium citrate
(B) Reciprocal translocation
(C) decreasing the ionic strength of the
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solution (C) Inversion

(D) adding a protein that binds to single- (D) Duplication
Ans. B
stranded, but not to double-stranded
24. ESTs are obtained through:
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DNA Ans. B
(A) Genomic DNA library
(B) cDNA library
17. Carboxymethyl cellulose is:
(C) RT-PCR
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(A) a cation -exchange matrix

(B) a gel filtration matrix (D) Chromosome walking Ans. B

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25. Targetted suppression of gene expression is 31. The peptide bond is rigid because it is a:
achieved by: (A) single bond
(A) T-DNA insertion (B) partial double bond

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(B) EMS (C) double bond
(C) RNAi (D) triple bond Ans. B
(D) Gamma ray
Ans. C
32. If we increase the confidence limits then:
26. A set of two or more overlapping DNA (A) No change in significant result
fragments that form a contiguous stretch of (B) Statistically significant result may

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DNA is called: change to non-significant
(A) contigs (C) Non-significant result may change to
(B) BAC clones significant result
(C) YAC clones (D) No change in level of significance

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(D) map Ans. C
Ans. A
33. A woman has a color blind father but husband
27. A vector can accept an insert of 20 kb size with normal vision. What are the chances for
and the recombinant vector can be replicated their sons and daughters to be color blind?

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in E. coli. In order to make complete gene
library of E. coli by using this vector,
minimum number of bacterial colonies
which must be present should not be less
(A) 1/2 for sons; 1/2 for daughters
(B) ¼ for sons; ¾ for daughters
(C) ½ for sons; zero for daughters
(D) Zero for sons; 3/4 for daughters

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Ans. C
than:
(A) 1.1 x 103 34. An isolated human population, with
(B) 4.1 x 103 approximately equal number of blue eyed and
(C) 2.1 x 104 brown eyed individuals, was killed due to
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(D) 1.5 x 104 earthquake. Only a few brown eyed people
Ans. A
remained to form the next generation. This kind
28. Scientist involved with “Golden Rice” of change in the gene pool is called
technology is: (A) Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium
(A) Norman Borlaug (B) blocked gene flow
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(B) I. Potrykus (C) bottleneck effect
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(C) M.S. Swaminathan (D) founder effect Ans. C

(D) G.S. Khush
Ans. B 35. Cystic fibrosis is due to:
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29. Haploid production by anther culture was (A) defective chloride channel
first demonstrated by: (B) defective LDL receptor
(A) Bhojwani (C) High levels of HDL
(B) Guha and Maheshwari (D) increased dopamine
(C) Murashige and Skoog Ans. A
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(D) Cocking Ans. B

36. HAT selection is based on:
(A) TK and HPRT genes
30. The DNA of temperate phage P4 is linear, (B) APRT and ATK genes
double stranded, 11.5 kb long and has (C) HK and AP genes
cohesive ends. Digestion with BamH1 yields (D) HAT gene.
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fragments 6.4, 4.1 and 1.0 kb in length. The
partial digestion with the same enzyme
yields fragments 10.5, 7.4, 6.4, 4.1, and 1.0
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Ans. A
37. The main difference between active transport
and facilitated diffusion is that:

kb in length. Circular P4 DNA made with
DNA ligase can be digested with BamH1 to
yield fragments in the DNA. What is the
order of fragments in DNA ?
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(A) in active transport, the molecules move
from areas of high concentration to
areas of low concentration
(B) carrier protein is involved only in case

(A) 6.4- 1.0- 4.1 of active transport

(B) 4.1- 6.4- 1.0 (C) in active transport, energy is consumed
(C) 1.0- 6.4- 4.1 to move molecules against a
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(D) 4.1- 1.0- 6.4 concentration gradient

Ans. C

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(D) in active transport, only water

molecules are transported 44. Addition of salt to a culture medium only allows
Ans. C the salt-tolerant bacteria to grow. This is an

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38. What is the correct order of molecular example of a:
weights? (A) Complex media
(A) Human ntibody>albumin> (B) Chemically defined media
insulin>glutathione (C) Selective media
(B) albumin>insulin>antibody> (D) Differential media Ans. C
glutathione

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(C) glutathione>insulin>albumin> 45. Long terminal repeats are found in:
antibody (A) proviral DNA
(D) insulin>antibody>glutathione> (B) retroviral RNA
albumin Ans. A (C) reoviral genome

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(D) influenza virus
39. Beaker A has 100 ml of a fluid at 800C and Ans. A
beaker B has 200 ml of the same fluid at 46. A signal sequence KDEL is removed from a ER
200C. If both the fluids are mixed, what resident protein. Assuming that there is no

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would be the resultant temperature of the change in tertiary structure of protein and on
mixture? other signal sequences present in protein, the
(A) 200C changed protein will now have following fate:
(B) 800C (A) It will remain in ER and be degraded

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(C) 400C (B) It will be targeted to Golgi apparatus
(D) 500C (C) It will be secreted outside the cell
Ans. C (D) It will be targeted to lysosome for
40. During batch fermentation lowest specific degradation
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growth rate is achieved during: Ans. C
(A) Exponential phase 47. “All living cells arise from preexisting cells” was
(B) Lag and stationary phase proposed in cell theory by:
(C) When cells are growing at their (A) Schleiden and Schwann
fastest pace (B) Rudolf Virchow
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(D) Throughout the fermentation (C) Dutrocht
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Ans. B (D) Pasteur Ans. D

41. In competitive inhibition
(A) Km increases, V max constant 48. Using deliberate attenuation approach Louis
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(B) Km decreases, Vmax constant Pasteur Produced vaccine against which

(C) Km constant, Vmax increases diseases?
(D) Km decreases, Vmax increases (A) Rabies
Ans. A (B) Tuberculosis
42. For a reaction to be spontaneous, (C) Anthrax
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(A) ∆G is negative (D) FMD

(B) ∆G is positive Ans. A
(C) ∆G = 0 49. What is PROSITE?
(D) ∆H increases (A) a database of protein structures
Ans. A
(B) a database of interacting proteins
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43. The dependence of molecular weight of (C) a database of protein motifs

protein molecule to the distance traveled in(D) (D) a search tool Ans. C
denaturing gel electrophoresis is: (E)
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(A) linear 50. Which is the best annotated database?

(B) cubic (A) Genbank
(C) logarithmic (B) PDB
(D) inversely related to the amount of (C) Prodom
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denaturant (D) Swissprot

Ans. D
Ans. C
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Section B
51. Protein sequence comparison is more regulates the lactose (lac) operon by:

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sensitive than nucleic acid sequence
(A) binding to the operator to turn on
comparison because:
transcription
(A) proteins are functional
(B) binding to the lac repressor to prevent
(B) proteins have definite three
transcription
dimensional structures
(C) combining with the catabolite activator
(C) the protein alphabet has more

letters than the nucleic acid
(D) codon bias
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protein (CAP) to form a complex that
enhances transcription upon binding to the
Ans. D promoter
(D) combining with the CAP to remove CAP's

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52. Sickle-cell anemia is an example of Single
inhibition of transcription
Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP) of Ans. C
57. Co-transport of nutrients across the intestinal cell
(A) A to T mutation membranes is an active process that can move

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(B) T to A mutation glucose against a concentration gradient. The energy
(C) G to C mutation requiring step for co-transport involves:
Ans. A
(D) C to G mutation (A) The Na+K+ATPase that pumps Na+ from the
cell into the lumen of the intestine

53. Which of the statements about translation is
FALSE?
(A) During translocation in the "hybrid
sites" model, the tRNA attached to
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the nascent polypeptide chain is in
the P site of the small subunit and the
A site of the large subunit
(B) Fusidic acid prevents the release of EF-
G-GDP from the ribosome
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(C) Puromycin leads to premature release of
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(B) The permease that allows glucose and Na+
into the cell requires ATP
(C) The permease that pumps glucose from the
cell into the blood requires ATP
(D) The Na+K+ ATPase that pumps Na+ from the
cell into the blood, maintaining low Na+
levels in the cell
Ans. D
58. The endogenous GTPase activity of G-proteins
serves to:

the polypeptide chain (A) stimulate the activity of enzymes by

(D) IF-3 preferentially binds to 30S producing energy
ribosomes Ans. A (B) synthesize cGMP as a second messenger
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(C) synthesize GTP as an energy source

54. For the folding of a linear polypeptide into a
compact tertiary structure, globular in nature, the
change in entropy is known to be negative. In
order for the folding process to be thermodyna-
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(D) hydrolyze GTP returning the G protein to a
pre-stimulated level of activity Ans. D
59. Cytochalasins are drugs that interfere with actin

miccally feasible, the overall change is enthalpy polymerization into microfilaments. If you add
based in intermolecular interaction should be: cytochalasin to cultured mammalian cells that have
(A) +Ve just begun mitosis what is most likely to happen?
(B) -Ve (A) The cells will arrest at mitotic metaphase
(C) Zero (B) The cells will cease metabolism and die
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(D) Endothermic (C) The cells will complete mitosis and arrest at
Ans.B
cytokinesis
55. If the equilibrium constant for a chemical (D) The cells will arrest at mitotic anaphase
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reaction at 20° C is 20, the standard free energy Ans. C

change associated with the reaction will be: 60. Which of the following is NOT a part of the methods
(A) -1.74 kcals used in single locus probe analysis of VNTR regions
(B) 1.74 kcals
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of human DNA?
(C) 0.76 kcals
(D) 0.12 kcals Ans. A (A) DNA extraction
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(B) Restriction endonuclease digestion of DNA

56. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) (C) Gel electrophoresis

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(D) Recombinant DNA (D) Viral oncogenes can act by increasing the
Ans. D activity of cellular tumor suppressor p53
61. Which of the following elements is Ans. C

NOT a characteristic of factor-
independent terminators in E.coli?
(A) a C-rich sequence
(B) an RNA sequence that can form a stem-loop
(C) a run of single-stranded U residues
(D) a GC rich sequence
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65. The insulin receptor functions as a:
(A) receptor with 7 transmembrane spanning
regions
(B) nuclear protein that acts as a transcription
factor
(C) receptor guanylate cyclase

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Ans. A (D) tyrosine kinase Ans. D
62. A covalently closed circular DNA containing a
single promoter is mixed with RNA polymerases that 66. Frameshift mutations are observed because the DNA
code is:

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open complexes form where 1 turn of DNA is
unwound. Which of the following statements will be (A) Comma-less
TRUE? Please note that L = linking number, T = (B) redundant
twist, and W = writhe. (C) anti-parallel
(A) L will decrease because T will (D) degenerate
Ans. A

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decrease by 1
(B) L will increase because W will 67. When synthetic mRNA consisting of alternating A
increase by 1 and C residues (ACACAC....) was translated in a
bacterial extract, only one kind of polypeptide

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(C) L will stay the same because T and
W will not change
(D) L will stay the same because an
increase in W will cancel out the
decrease in T
Ans. D
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63. The RNA from the ribosomes of E. coli has a GC
content of 51%. After infection with a phage
that has a GC content of 40%, you purify the
RNA, and run it on a density gradient, which
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gives you peaks at 23S, 16S, and 4S, plus a high
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consisting of alternating threonine and histidine
residues was made. When the base sequence was .
..AACAACAAC.... three different polypeptides were
formed :poiyasparagine, polythreonine and
polyglutamine. Hence we may conclude that one
codon for histidine is:
(A) ACA
(B) CAC
(C) AAC
(D) CAA

Ans. B
baseline between the 23S and 16S peaks. Which
of the following would you expect to see from 68. Hybrid dysgenesis is asymmetrical. It is induced by:
the analysis of the GC content of each fraction? (A) X male PM crosses
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(A) All the RNA will be 40% GC (B) P male x M female crosses
(B) The RNA in the 4S peak will be 40%GC, (C) M male x P female crosses
but everything else will be 51%GC (D) it is a random event, can occur in all the
(C) The RNA in the 23S, 16S and 4S three.
Ans. B
peaks will be 51%GC, but the
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material between 16S and 23S will
be 40%GC
(D) The RNA in the 23S, 16S an 4S peaks will
be 40%GC, but the material between 16S
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69. During RNA polymerase II transcriptional
initiation, phosphorylation of the following
factor is essential to commence
transcription:
(A) Polymerase II CTD

and 23S will be 51%GC

Ans. C (B) TFIID
64. Which of the following statements about tumor (C) TFIIH
suppressors is TRUE? (D) TFIIE Ans. A
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(A) Tumor suppressors are mutant tRNAs

that recognize stop codons 70. Typical nucleosomal organization of a gene
(B) Tumor suppressors are mutated viral is not found in:
(A) human liver nuclei
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versions of cellular proteins involved in

signal ransduction (B) malarial parasite
(C) Recessive mutations that inactivate (C) human sperm
the Rb tumor suppressor are found in (D) Neuron Ans. C
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families with high incidence of

retinoblastomas

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71. A mutational event inserts bases in the 72. In a temperature sensitive mutant bacteria, at
beginning of the coding sequence of a gene. non-permissive temperature, there are huge
The highest chance of the altered protein accumulation of Okazaki fragments. The

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being functional when the number of base(s) bacteria are mutant for:
inserted is: (A) DNA ploymerase I
(A) 1 (B) DNA topoisomerase I
(B) 2 (C) DNA ligase
(C) 3 (D) DNA gyrase Ans. C
(D) 4
Ans. C

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Answer questions 73-75 based on the information provided below:

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Researchers studying the regulation of a hormone-responsive gene isolated 750 base pairs of DNA
immediately preceding the start site of transcription (+ 1). They demonstrated that if these sequences are
cloned upstream of the bacterial chloramphenicol acetyltransferase (CAT) gene and the DNA then

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introduced into mammalian cells, CAT enzyme activity increases in response to hormone treatment. To
define the sequences involved in the regulation of this gene, they made a series of deletions containing
various lengths of the 5/ regulatory sequences. They cloned these truncated DNA fragments upstream of the

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CAT gene as shown in the figure below, introduced the constructs into the mammalian cells, and assayed
for the CAT enzyme activity in the absence (-) and presence (+) of hormone. The figure below gives the
results of a representative experiment.
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73. The maximal stimulation of CAT activity 75. A new construct was made that began at -
due to the addition of hormone is 742 and was identical to that shown in the
approximately: figures except that the sequences between -

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424 and -315 were inverted. In this new
(A) I-fold
(B) 10-folds construct, which of the following are closest
(C) 50-folds to the expected CAT activities in the
(D) 100-folds absence and presence, respectively, of
Ans. B
hormones?

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74. Assuming that there is a single hormone-
responsive regulatory element in the gene, (A) 5 units/50 units
that element is located between: (B) 5 units/25 units

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(A) -742 and 638 (C) 25 units/10 units
(B) -638 and -424 (D) 25 units/5 units
(C) -424 and -315 Ans. A
(D) -315 and -116

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Ans. D

Answer questions 76-78 based on the information provided below:

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A transcription factor Y (TFY) is examined for its DNA binding ability and its expression in
different cell lines. The specific DNA binding sequence has been determined and is used as a probe in an
electromobility shift (EMS) assay.
Specific antibody against TFY is used in Western blot analysis to check the subcellular
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localization of the protein. The EMS and Western blot results of TFY activity in muscle cells and nerve
cells are shown below.
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76. The EMS results suggest that:
(A) TFY is expressed only in the
muscle cells
(B) TFY binds DNA in the muscle
cells, but not in nerve cells
(C) TFY binds DNA in the nerve cells,
but not in muscle cells
(D) TFY is expressed only in the nerve
cells Ans. B
77. According to the results of the Western blot,
(A) TFY binds with DNA in nerve cells
(B) TFY is expressed only in muscle
cells
(C) TFY is expressed both in nerve and
muscle cells
(D) TFY binds with DNA in muscle
cells
Ans. C
78. It was observed that TFY activity is
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significantly blocked in the nerve cells in
comparison to muscle cells. Based on these
data, what could be most likely mechanism
of regulation of TFY in nerve cells?
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(A) Inhibition of transcription of TFY
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in the nucleus
(B) Inhibition of translation of TFY in
cytoplasm
(C) Inhibition of translocation of TFY
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to the nucleus
(D) Inhibition of translocation of TFY
to the cytoplasm
Ans. C
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79. Which of the following is not correct pair of
a metabolic pathway and its subcellular
location?
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(A) oxidative phosphorylation occurs in
mitochondria
(B) fatty acid synthesis occurs in
mitochondria
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(C) ganglioside degeneration occurs in
lysosomes
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(D) glycolysis occurs in mitochondria
Ans. B
80. A solution of a protein whose sequence
includes three tryptophan residues, no
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tyrosine residues, and no phenylalanine
residues has an absorbance of 0.3 at 280 nm
in a cell with a path length of 1 cm. Estimate
the concentration of the protein in units of
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molarity. If the protein has a molecular mass
of 100 kDa, estimate the concentration in
units of milligrams of protein per milliliter
of solution. (ε = 10000 M-1 cm-1):
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(A) 10 µM, I mg/mL
(B) 30 µM, 1 mg/mL
30 µM, 3 mg/mL
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(C)
(D) 10 µM, 3 mg/mL Ans. A
81. Repolarization after an action potential
occurs:
(A) through the opening of Na+
channels
(B) through the opening of Na+ and
closure of K+ channels
(C) through the closure of Na+ and
opening of K+ channels
(D) through the opening of Na+ and K+
channels
Ans. C
82. Chitosan, a derivative of chitin isolated from
Shrimps and marine crustaceans is being
used as a tool for drug and vaccine delivery.
It is a polymer of:
(A) acetylated β-(1-4)-linked D-
glucosamine
(B) acetylated N-acetyl-D-glucosamine
(C) deacetylated β-(1-4)-linked D-
glucosamine
(D) acetylated β-(1-4)-linked D-glucosamine and
acetylated N-acetyl-D- glucosamine
Ans. C
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83. The gene that increases susceptibility to (C) Mitochondrial conditions only
breast cancer is: affect muscle and nerve tissue

om
(A) p53 (D) The risk of passing on a
(B) BRCA-1 mitochondrial condition to the
(C) Rb-1 next generation may be as high
(D) H-Ras as 100% Ans. D
Ans. B
90. Immuno-suppression is mediated by T-cells
84. In the urine of Burkitt’s lymphoma patient having:

.c
abnormal quantities of the following is (A) CD4+CD25-
detected (B) CD8+CD25-
(A) Bence-Jones Proteins (C) CD8+CD25+
(B) Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (D) CD4+CD25+ Ans. D

ss
(hCG)
(C) Carcinoembryonic antigen 91. The target cells for ADA gene therapy are:
(CEA) (A) bone marrow cells
(D) Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) (B) B-lymphocytes

la
Ans. A (C) Liver cells
85. What would be the functional consequence (D) Spleen cells Ans. A
for the immune system in a knock out mice
lacking β 2 microglobulin? 92. All of the following are angiogenic factors

yc
(A) Loss of TCR expression EXCEPT:
(B) Loss of phagocytic ability (A) VEGF
(C) Loss of structural integrity of (B) Ang-1
MHC II (C) Endostatin
og
(D) Loss of structural integrity of (D) Cox-2 Ans. C
MHC I
Ans. D 93. Acute graft versus host disease is mediated
86. Frequent development of primary tumours by:
of reticulo-endothelial system is due to: (A) Helper T cells
l
(A) Acquired haemolytic anemia (B) Cytotoxic T cells
io

(B) Hypergammaglobulinemia (C) NK Cells

(C) Corticosteroid abuse (D) B cells
Ans. B
(D) Impairment of CMI
Ans. D
yb

94. All of the following disorders can be

87. Negative selection of T-cells depends on: diagnosed prenatally by chorionic villus
(A) High affinity to self antigen sampling, EXCEPT:
(B) High affinity to thymosin (A) Downs syndrome
(C) Intermediate affinity to self (B) Alpha thalassemia
as

antigen (C) Tay Sach’s disease

(D) Low affinity to self MHC (D) Spina bifida Ans. D
Ans. A
88. Hemophilia A, a common X-linked bleeding 95. The germ layer that produces nervous
disorder is caused due to lack of function of system is:
.e

a gene for: (A) endoderm

(A) Factor VIII (B) mesoderm
(B) Factor VII (C) ectoderm
w

(C) Platelets (D) endoderm and mesoderm

Ans. C
(D) Fibrinogen
Ans. A 96. The rate of impulse conduction in a nerve
depends on:
w

89. Which one of the following statements is

(A) axon diameter and axon length
true for mitochondrial disease?
(B) axon length and number of
(A) Heteroplasmy
dendrites
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(B) Mitochondrial gene mutates less

(C) axon diameter and thickness of
often than nuclear gene myelination

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(D) myelination and nuclear size (A) many myelinated axons of

Ans. C different diameters as well as
97. Pain sensation is a subjective and conscious large number of unmyelinated

om
feeling. However, although the autonomic fibres
organs do not get represented in the cerebral (B) many unmyelinated fibres as well
cortex, one feels pain in those parts as well. as large number of myelinated
The reason is: axons of same diameter
(A) those parts receive less blood (C) only myelinated axons of same
supply diameter

.c
(B) increased pH in those parts (D) only unmyelinated axons of
(C) the pain is referred to other different diameter
Ans. A
parts of the body
(D) those organs are not 104. In a neuronal culture experiment the

ss
superficially located response gradually reduced when the
Ans. C neurons were exposed to increasing
98. Which one of the following is NOT a concentration of a chemical. However, if the
function of glia? cells were thoroughly washed and left for

la
(A) providing support to the neural sometime in normal medium and then the
tissue experiment was repeated, the cells started
(B) conduction of electrical signal responding similarly as before. Which of the
(C) myelination of neurons following could be the most probable

yc
(D) help in neuronal growth explanation?
Ans. B (A) increased apoptosis of the cells
99. At chemical synapse, communication (B) the cells were gradually necrosed
between two neurons is: in an exponential manner
og
(A) physical process (C) the pH of the medium was
(B) chemical process changed
(C) physico-chemico-physical (D) the receptors were desensitized/
process down-regulated Ans. D
(D) physico-chemico-mechanical
l
process 105. Under a condition (A) a neuron showed
io

Ans. C
transmembrane potential -50mV while after
100. Retrograde transport may be used for : some treatment (B) it was -70mV. Given
(A) nerve path tracing such a condition, which of the following
yb

(B) determining nerve fiber statements would be correct ?

diameter (A) condition (A) is hyperpolarized
(C) determining soma size state than condition (B)
(D) estimating number of dendrites (B) condition (A) needs higher
Ans. A intensity stimulation than
as

101. Which of these electrodes will be preferred condition (B) for inducing a
for intracellular potential recording? response
(A) glass capillary electrode (C) the treatment caused
(B) steel micro-electrode depolarization of the neuron
(C) copper micro-electrode (D) the treatment induced
.e

(D) solid glass electrode hyperpolarization Ans. D

Ans. A
102. Which of the following types of neurons 106. Which of the statements is true for matured
w

may be identified using Tyrosine human RBC? It

hydroxylase immunostaining ? (A) divides once a day
(A) Cholinergic (B) does not divide
(B) GABA-ergic (C) divides every 120 days
w

(C) Glutamateric (D) divides under stressful condition

(D) Aminergic Ans. B
Ans. D
107. The intervention by which a gadget e.g. an
w

103. Nerve is a bundle of fibres. In vertebrates it electrode may be accurately guided to a

contains:

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predefined region deep inside the brain is

known as: 115. Vitrification of cultured explants caused by:
(A) stereoscopy (A) low light irradiance, high

om
(B) stereotaxic surgery temperature and intensive
(C) craniotomy sterilization
(D) laparoscopy (B) high auxin , low temperature and
Ans. B high light irradiance
108. Hybridization between species followed by (C) higher agar, high nutrients and low
polyploidy or chromosome doubling is pH

.c
known as: (D) high pH, low temperature and high
(A) Autopolyploid micronutrient concentration
Ans. A
(B) Aneuploid
(C) Haploid 116. Which of the following objectives can not

ss
(D) Allopolyploid be achieved through use of cybrids ?
Ans. D
(A) Transfer of cytoplasmic male
109. Identify the hormone combination that sterility
induces shoot development in vitro (B) Recombination of cytoplasmic

la
(A) no auxin + average cytokinin genes with nuclear gene of another
(B) High auxin + no cytokinin species.
(C) high auxin + low cytokinin (C) Introgression of Chromosome
(D) low auxin + high cytokinin segment

yc
Ans. D
(D) Development of true hybrid line
110. C4 rice has been developed by transforming Ans. D
rice with 117. The most preferred choice for development
(A) PCPC of hybrid plants from a male sterile line
og
(B) PPDK would be:
(C) GS (A) Pollen culture
(D) Both PEPC and PPDK (B) Anther culture
Ans. D (C) Ovary culture
111. Stress signalling is mediated by: (D) Meristem culture Ans. C
l
(A) ABA
io

(B) GA 118. The transplastomic lines bear no risk of

(C) Both the above gene escape through pollens because:
(D) None of the above (A) Pollens degenerate before
Ans. A
yb

fertilization
112. The first commercially released GM crop in (B) Transformed mitochondrial DNA is
India is: lost during pollen maturation
(A) Cotton expressing cryIAb gene (B) (C) Transformed chloroplast DNA is
Brinjal expressing cry1Ab gene lost during pollen maturation
as

(C) Corn expressing cryIAb gene (D) Transformed genomic DNA is

(D) Cotton expressing cryIAc gene maternally inherited Ans. C
Ans. A
113. Biodiesel is produced by: 119. A cross between two true breeding lines one
(A) Transesterification with dark blue flowers and one with bright
.e

(B) Fermentation white flowers produces F1 offspring that are

(C) High pressure oxidation light blue. When the F1 progeny are selfed a
(D) Esterification 1:2:1 ratio of dark blue to light blue to white
Ans. A
w

flowers is observed) What genetic

114. A pair of genes in two organisms of phenomenon is associated with these
different species which are similar and they results?
are strongly predicated to have the same (A) epistasis
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function is known as: (B) incomplete dominance

(A) homologous genes (C) co-dominance
(B) Orthologous genes (D) inbreeding depression Ans. B
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(C) Paralogous genes

(D) Isoforms Ans. B

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120. Mutations which occur in vegetative parts
during growth which do not go on to form
gametes can be classified as:
(A) auxotrophic mutations
(B) somatic mutations
(C) morphological mutations
(D) oncogenes Ans. B
121. Arabidopsis is advantageous for plant
genetic research because:
(A) it is commercially important as a
food crop
(B) it is having longer life cycle
(C) it is a small plant with a small
genome size which can be raised
inexpensively
(D) it is a close relative of corn and
results with this species can be
applied to problems in corn
Ans. C
122. DNA polymerase processivity:
(A) is a measure of the number of
nucleotides joined before the
polymerase dissociates
(B) is determined by the ability of the
og
enzyme to also have nuclease
activity
(C) is a measure of thermal stability
of the enzyme.
(D) is a measure of rate of elongation
l
of newly synthesized strands
io
Ans. A
123. Dye injected into a plant cell might be able
to enter an adjacent cell through a:
yb
(A) tight junction.
(B) microtubule.
(C) desmosome.
(D) plasmodesma Ans. D
as
124. The most dominant trait incorporated in
transgenic plants worldwide is:
(A) Insect resistance
(B) yield
(C) nutritional quality
.e
(D) herbicide tolerance
Ans. D
125. Clean gene technology in developing
w
transgenic plants means:
(A) transgenic plants without marker
genes
(B) transgenic plants with provision
w
of removing marker gene after
transformation
(C) plant obtained with conventional
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breeding approach
Ans. B
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(D) transgenic plants obtained
through plastid transformation
om
126. Transformation method which avoids use of
plant tissue culture technique is:
(A) electroporation
(B) biolistic
(C) In planta
(D) Microinjection
Ans. C
.c
127. Which of the following is an example of
GURT?
(A) Hybridoma technology
ss
(B) PCR technology
(C) Terminator technology
(D) Transgenic technology
Ans. C
la
128. Tobacco leaf discs are transferred with
Agrobacterium tumefaciens strain
containing binary vector (GUS as reporter
gene) with selectable marker neo
yc
(kanamycin resistant gene) and then
regenerated to the plants. The plants are
kanamycin resistant but leaf tissues are
negative to GUS assay. The explanation is:
(A) the plants are transformed for
both the genes but GUS gene is
turned off.
(B) the plants are transformed to only
neo genes not the GUS genes
(C) the plants are not transformed at
all, but the development of
kanamycin resistance is due to
somaclonal variation
(D) all of the above
Ans. D
129. Some of the genes from viruses introduced
into plants in fully functional form often
exhibit Mendelian inheritance, because:
(A) the genes are stably integrated in
chromosomes
(B) the genes are stably maintained
in vectors
(C) the genes are co- expressed with
chromosomal genes
(D) the genes are not interrupted by
introns
Ans. A
130. Which of the following techniques can be
utilized to measure the rate of diffusion of
membrane proteins?
(A) Patching and capping
(B) Immunodiffusion
(C) Patch-clamp
(D) FRAP Ans. D
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131. A researcher made an interesting (C) Ficks law

observation about a protein made by the (D) Stokes law
Ans. A
rough ER and eventually used to build a

om
cell's plasma membrane. The protein in the 137. Sedimentation constant (S) is the ratio of:
membrane was slightly different from the (A) Rate of sedimentation to
protein made in the ER. The protein was acceleration due to gravity
probably changed in the: (B) Rate of sedimentation to angular
(A) Golgi apparatus. acceleration
(B) Smooth ER. (C) Rate of sedimentation to relative

.c
(C) Mitochondrion. acceleration
(D) Nucleus (D) Velocity of sedimentation to
Ans. A
acceleration due to gravity
132. A particular enzyme loses its activity if just Ans. B

ss
stored in normal saline. However, if normal 138. The oxygen solubility in a bioreactor
saline contains 10 mM 2-mercaptoethanol, a depends upon:
reducing agent the enzyme retains its (A) Agitation
activity. What can you conclude about the (B) Aeration

enzyme from above?
(A) It has methionine residues that
are necessary for activity
(B) It has sulphydryl groups that are
la
(C) Both Agitation and Aeration
(D) Viscosity and surface tension
Ans. C
139. In which type of elution technique, there is

necessary for activity
(C) It has disulphide bonds that are
necessary for activity
(D) It has histidine residues that are
og
necessary for activity
Ans. B
133. The major contribution to the stability of
Watson-Crick structure of DNA in aqueous
solution comes from:
l
(A) hydrogen bonds between Watson
io
yc
no change in gradient with respect to time?
(A) Isocratic elution technique
(B) Stepwise elution technique
(C) Linear elution technique
(D) Exponential elution technique
Ans. A
140. For 100% purity of peak recovery in
chromatography, the desired resolution
factor (Rs) is:
(A) Rs=0.99

–Crick base pairs (B) Rs= 1

(B) stacking interaction of bases (C) Rs=1.5
(C) counter-ion condensation on (D) Rs= infinity Ans. C
yb

phosphates
(D) entropic contribution 141. One of the these purification steps requires
Ans. B
initial high ionic strength in sample
134. Optimum bead loading for cell disruption in (A) Ion exchange chromatography
a bead mill is: (B) Hydrophobic interaction
as

(A) 40-50% chromatography

(B) 75-85% (C) Chromatofocusing
(C) 60-70% (D) Preparative chromatography Ans. B
(D) 55-65%
Ans. B 142. The bioprocess model that differentiates
.e

135. Driving force for a membrane process is cells on the basis of morphology and /or
only the concentration difference in the size distribution is:
case of:
(A) Structured model
w

(A) Reverse osmosis

(B) Unstructured model
(B) Ultrafiltration
(C) Segregated model
(C) Microfiltration
(D) Non-segregated model Ans. C
(D) Dialysis
w

Ans. D
136. The basic equation characterizing filtration 143. Unit of second order rate constant is:
is governed by: (A) mol L-1 S-1
w

(A) Darcy’s law (B) sec-1

(B) Fourier law (C) mol-1 L S-1

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(D) mol-2 L2 S-1 Ans. C

(B) Contains large amount of organic
compounds
144. The E.coli concentration in a growth (C) Contains large amount of organic

om
medium is 0.6 g/l . The respiration rate of compounds that are not easily
E.coli at this condition in 0.6 g/l. h. biodegradable
What will be the oxygen uptake rate? (D) Contains no organic compounds
(A) 36 g/g.h Ans. C
(B) 36 g/l.h 150. For running a Continuous Stirred Tank
(C) 0.1 g/g.h Reactor, critical dilution rate is:

.c
(D) 0.01 g/l h (A) Equal to the washout rate
Ans. D
(B) Less than the washout rate
145. In equilibrium condition of the Freundlich (C) Higher than the washout rate
adsorption isotherm: (D) Unpredictable Ans. B

(A) The solid loading increases with
the increase of equilibrium
concentration
(B) The solid loading decreases with
ss
151. In continuous sterilization process, fluid
flows through the holding section where
there is:

la
the increase of equilibrium
concentration
(C) The solid loading takes place
independent of the increase of
(A) A positive axial dispersion value
(B) A negative axial dispersion value
(C) Axial dispersion is zero
(D) No relationship between axial

yc
equilibrium concentration dispersion and fluid flow
Ans. C
(D) The solid loading initially
decreases and then increases 152. The physical significance of specific growth
Ans. A
rate constant is:
og
146. In an enzyme catalyzed reaction, Km = (A) Rate at which the organism is
4×10-5 µmol/l, and the rate of reaction (V) growing
at substrate concentration [S] = 1.2×10-2 (B) Fraction per unit growth of
M is 80 µmol/l-min. Assume no inhibitor microorganism per unit time
is present. Vmax is practically equal to: (C) Grams of cell formed per grams
l
(A) 40 µmol/l-min cell mass per unit time
io

(B) 80 µmol/l-min (D) Gram of cells formed per unit time

(C) 120 µmol/l-min Ans. C
(D) 4.8 × 102 µmol/l-min Ans. B 153. Supercritical fluid (SCF) extraction is much
yb

better than normal solvent extraction. This is

147. Immobilization of microbial cells: because:
(A) Increases apparent Ks (A) SCF is non –toxic
(B) Decreases apparent Ks (B) Diffusivity is much higher than
(C) Has no effect on Ks normal solvent
as

(D) Increases cell’s affinity for the (C) Handling of SCF is much easier
substrate Ans. A (D) SCF viscosity is higher than normal
solvent and hence extraction is
148. In the Dynamic gassinol method, the Ans. B
better
volumetric oxygen transfer coefficient (KLa)
.e

is given by: 154. Growth yield coefficient is defined as:

(A) X- intercept (A) Cell mass formed: substrate utilized
(B) Y- intercept (B) Substrate utilized: cell mass formed
w

(C) Slope (C) Product formed: cell mass formed

(D) Inverse of Y- intercept (D) Carbon dioxide produced to
Ans. C
substrate utilized
149. The ratio of BOD/COD is approximately Ans. A
w

0.5. When this ratio falls below 0.3, it 155. Anticancer vitamin is:
signifies that it: (A) Retinol
(A) Contains large amount of (B) Phylloquinone
w

microorganism (C) Thiamine

(D) Pyridoxine
Ans. A

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(C) Scenodesmus
156. If the rate of product formation is (D) Spirulina
Ans. D
approximately proportional to the rate of cell

om
growth, then this pattern of product 162. The origin of tetradotoxin in mollusks is:
formation is referred to as: (A) endogeneous
(A) Non-growth associated (B) exogeneous
(B) Growth associated (C) symbiotic microorganisms
(C) Uncoupled (D) all the above
(D) Metabolically uncoupled Ans. D
Ans. B

.c
163. Which of the following commercially
157. The viscosity of a fluid decreases with available cancer drug is obtained from
increasing stirrer speed. This fluid would be marine source?
best described as being: (A) Bleomycin

ss
(A) Newtonian (B) AraC
(B) Pseudoplastic (C) Cisplatin
(C) Dilatant (D) Vinblastin
(D) Thixotropic Ans. B
Ans. B

la
164. Spores of Gracilaria settle on hard
158. The addition of acid to maintain the pH at 2 substrate, begin to germinate by cell
–2.6 in the filtered fermentation broth division within:
before penicillin extraction is carried out (A) 12hrs

yc
to extract maximum amount of penicillin (B) 20hrs
in solvent phase. The pH is adjusted to (C) 48hrs
2 – 2.6 because this helps: (D) 24hrs
Ans. D
(A) In precipitation of proteins
og
(B) In maintaining penicillin in 165. The waves which generally occur during
aqueous phase hurricanes are called:
(C) In maintaining penicillin in organic (A) seismic sea waves
phase (B) storm waves
(D) In reducing the bacterial (C) tsunami
l
contamination (D) both (A) and (B)
io

Ans. C Ans. D
159. The advantage of counter current flow in 166. Heparin is a:
the heat exchanger is always desirable as in (A) lipopolysaccharide
yb

counter current system: (B) glycated lipopolysaccharide

(A) Temperature control is easier
(B) Area required for heat transfer
less
(C) Fluid flow is easy
as
(C) sulphated polysaccharide
is (D) sulphated lipopolysaccharide
Ans. D
167. Eutrophication in coastal water results in

(D) Terminal temperature difference is the following phenomenon:

less (A) red tide
Ans. B (B) diurnal tide
160. Which of the following is the name of the (C) mixed tide
satellite developed recently to scan (D) neap tide Ans. A
.e

the oceans around the country?

(A) INSAT-2D 168. Barophiles are capable of growth up to:
(B) INSAT-1B (A) 100 to 200 atm
w

(C) INSAT-2E (B) 700 to 800 atm

(D) Aryabhatta (C) 500 to 600 atm
Ans. C (D) 1 to 100 atm
Ans. C
161.Which one of the following algae is a
w

wonder crop with about 70% protein 169. The most abundant group of organisms
even surpassing famous Soya bean in food inhabiting hydrothermal vents are:
value? (A) Sulphate reducing bacteria
w

(A) Chlorella (B) Chemoautotrophic sulphur bacteria

(B) Dunaliella

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(C) Sulphur oxidizing (B) luminescent bacteria

chemolithotrophs (C) non-methanogenic bacteria
(D) Nitrifiers (D) sea weeds
Ans. C Ans. D

om
170. Deep sea hydrothermal vents are habitats 177. The repeating galactose units of all
where the primary producers are: carrageenans is joined by:
(A) Organotrophic bacteria
(A) α 1-3 glycosisdic linkages
(B) Chemolithotrophic bacteria
(B) β 1-4 glycosisdic linkages
(C) Chemoorganotrophs
(C) both (A) and (B)

.c
(D) Methylotrophs
Ans. B (D) none
Ans. C
171. Giant tube worms receive their nutrition
178. Fish can survive inside a frozen lake
(A) through unusual haemoglobins

ss
because:
which bind H2S as well as O2,
(A) Fish hibernate in ice
transport to the trophosome and
(B) Fish are warm blooded animals
release to bacterial symbionts
(C) Ice is a good counductor of heat
(B) from methanotrophic symbionts
(D) Water near the bottom does not

la
living in symbiotic association
freeze. Ans.D
(C) from thermophilic prokaryotes
which reside in smoker chimneys
179. The virus-host surface interaction is a:
(D) through normal haemoglobin

yc
(A) Specific event
Ans. A (B) Non-specific event
172. The lux gene from Vibrio fischeri has been
(C) Random attachment
used to make glowing tobacco plants. This
(D) Natural event Ans. A
gene is involved in:
og
(A) Bioluminescence
180. Which one of the following tests is not
(B) Photosynthesis
suitable for immunocytochemical studies of
(C) Phosphorescence
pathogens?
(D) Fluorescence Ans. A (A) Immunofluorescence
l
(B) Immunoperoxidase
173. Hydrocolloids extracted from seaweeds
io

(C) Immunoelectrophoresis
have attained commercial significance
(D) Immunoelectronmicroscopy Ans. C
specially as:
(A) Detergents
181. The insertion of foreign DNA into non-
yb

(B) Biofuels
essential region of vaccinia virus can be
(C) Food additives
achieved by:
(D) Laboratory chemicals Ans. C (A) Homologous recombination
(B) Heterologous recombination
174. ___________ is used in the production of
as

(C) Conjugation
explosives. Ans. A
(D) Hybridization
(A) Carrageenan
(B) Alginate
182. Antiviral cellular immunity is
(C) agar
predominantly mediated by:
(D) xanthine
.e

Ans. B (A) CD 8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes

175. Nutraceuticals available in the market from (B) Natural killer cells
marine sources are largely from (C) CD4+ T lymphocytes
w

(A) bacteria (D) Dendritic cells Ans. A

(B) fungi
(C) diatoms 183. Activation of classical pathway of
(D) macro algae
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complement requires:
Ans. D
(A) Antigen-antibody reaction
176. ___________ are being cultured and (B) Properdine
harvested as a source of biofuels: (C) Interleukin
w

. (D) Interferon Ans. A

(A) anaerobic bacteria

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184. Bovine group A rotavirus contains: (B) 30 to 45 days

(A) ss RNA (C) 40 to 50 days
(B) ds RNA (D) 10 to 15 days Ans. A

om
(C) ss DNA
(D) ds DNA 193. One of the following diseases has been
Ans. B
eradicated from India:
185. Use of 2-deoxy adenosine in semen sample (A) Sheep pox
may: (B) PPR
(A) Decrease sperm motility (C) Rinderpest

.c
(B) Increase sperm motility (D) BQ
(C) Inactivate sperms Ans. C
(D) Separate head of sperm from the 194. BSE is caused by:
tail (A) Prion

ss
Ans. B
(B) Viroid
186. In cows, before embryo transfer, they are (C) RNA virus
grown upto: (D) Mycoplasma Ans. A
(A) Mid morula stage

(B) Late morula stage
(C) Very early morula stage
(D) Blostocyst stage
la
195. Fertilized single cell cattle egg is what type
of stem cell?
Ans. D (A) Totipotent stem cell
(B) Pluripotent stem cell

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187. Capacitation of sperm takes place in the (C) Multipotent stem cell
reproductive tract of cows due to (D) None of the above Ans. A
presence of :
(A) Amino acids 196. β-lactoglobulin promoter is used for
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(B) Proteins expression of gene in:
(C) Galactosamine (A) Liver
(D) Glycosaminoglycan Ans. D (B) Spleen
(C) Mammary gland
188. Sperm DNA is covered by: (D) D. Lymphnode Ans. C
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(A) Lipid
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(B) Protamines 197. Which one of the following virus vectors

(C) Carbohydrate has been used for development of
(D) Histones bluetongue virus particle like recombinant
Ans. B
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vaccine?
189. One of the following is not a viral disease (A) AcNPV
of sheep: (B) BmNPV
(A) FMD (C) HSV
(B) PPR (D) VSV Ans. A
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(C) Bluetongue
(D) Haemonchosis Ans. D 198. Which one of the following is connected
with ‘Ranikhet disease’?
190. Nili Ravi is a breed of: (A) Poultry
(A) Cattle (B) Cows
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(B) Sheep (C) Fishes

(C) Goat (D) Sheep Ans. A
(D) Buffalo
Ans. D
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199. For searching a query sequence with a

191. Average gestation period of cow is database, which of the following statement
(A) 280 days is correct?
(B) 245 days (A) Nucleotide query against a
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(C) 310 days nucleotide sequence database is

(D) 325 days done by blastp
Ans. A (B) Protein query against a translated
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192. Cow comes in heat every: nucleotide sequence database is

(A) 19 to 20 days done by blastp

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(C) Translated nucleotide query against (D) n x (m+1) Ans. B

a protein database is done by blastx
(D) Protein query against a protein 207. In a PHYLIP output, the first line is two

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database is done by tblastn numbers, what do they indicate?
Ans. C (A) Number of sequences, length of
200. Which is the default scoring matrix used in alignment
BLAST? (B) Length of alignment, number of
(A) PAM62 sequences
(B) BLOSUM 62 (C) Number of gaps, number of

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(C) BLOSUM 60 sequences
(D) BLOSUM 80 Ans. B (D) Number of sequences, number of
gaps Ans. A
201. PAM matrices are derived by noting

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evolutionary changes in protein sequences 208. BLAT is used to find:
that are more than: (A) regions of higher identity within
(A) 80% similar genomic assemblies
(B) 60% similar (B) regions of higher differences within

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(C) 40% similar genomic assemblies
(D) 25% similar Ans. A
(C) folds in a RNA sequence
(D) secondary structures in a given
202. Which alignment is used to predict whether protein

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Ans. A
two sequences are homologous or not?
(A) Local 209. Homology modeling may be distinguished
(B) Global from ab initio prediction because:
(C) Pair-wise (A) Homology modeling requires a
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(D) Multiple model to be built
Ans. B (B) Homology modeling requires
203. In Molecular Dynamics simulation, the alignment of a target to a template
dependence is on: (C) Homology modeling is usefully
(A) only position applied to any protein sequence
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(B) only momentum (D) The accuracy of homology
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(C) both position and momentum modeling is independent of the

(D) either position or momentum percent identity between the target
Ans. C and the template Ans. B
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204. In phylogenetic analysis, maximum

likelihood method is chosen when the 210. Molecular Dynamics simulation is carried
sequences have: out for:
(A) strong similarity (A) Obtaining ensemble of structures at
(B) local similarity physiological condition
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(C) medium level similarity (B) Obtaining the structure at global

(D) no clear identifiable similarity energy minimum
Ans. D
(C) Fitting prospective drug candidate
205. The method of maximum parsimony is also molecules to a receptor
known as: (D) Modeling a protein structure from
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(A) maximum evolution method sequence alone Ans. A

(B) minimum evolution method
(C) zero evolution method 211. A left handed alpha helix falls in the
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(D) moderate evolution method Ramachandran plot under:

Ans. B
206. In Needleman Wunsch algorithm of (A) allowed region
pairwise alignment of sequences with
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(B) partially allowed region

lengths n and m, the computational time is (C) disallowed region
proportional to: (D) line joining allowed and partially
(A) n x m allowed region
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(B) (n+1) x (m+1) Ans. B

(C) n + m

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212. The Greek key motif is composed of: (B) domains, superfamilies, folds,
(A) Four alpha helices families, classes
(B) Three alpha helices and one beta (C) superfamilies, folds, families,

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strand domains, classes
(C) Two alpha helices and two beta (D) Classes, folds, superfamilies,
strands families, domains
Ans. C
(D) Four beta strands
Ans. D 218. Which of the following cases are commonly
213. Which of the following statements is true used?

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regarding a secondary amide? (A) gap opening penalty = -2, gap
extension penalty = -0.5
(A) It can only participate in hydrogen (B) gap opening penalty = -0.5, gap
extension penalty = -2.0.

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bonding as a hydrogen bond donor
(B) It can only participate in hydrogen (C) gap opening penalty = -100, gap
bonding as a hydrogen bond extension penalty = 0
acceptor (D) gap opening penalty = -100, gap
(C) It can participate in hydrogen extension penalty = -100
Ans. D

bonding both as a hydrogen bond
donor and a hydrogen bond
acceptor
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219. The description of a new organism
identified must be submitted to a Journal
and the name validated before it is

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(D) It cannot participate in hydrogen
bonding at all formally accepted as a new taxon of
Ans. C
prokaryotes. The Journal is:
(A) Bergey’s Manual
214. If systematic conformational search is
performed for a molecule with six rotatable (B) International Journal of Systematic
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bonds and step size is 30 degree then and Evolutionary Microbiology
(C) The Prokaryotes
number of conformers will be:
(D) Applied and Environment
(A) 1, 895, 672
Microbiology Ans. A
(B) 2, 985, 984
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(C) 2, 008, 672
220. The Omph protein is a type of porin,
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(D) 1, 895, 760 Ans. B

synthesized in bacterial cells grown under a
pressure of
215. Which of the following amino acids are
(A) One atmosphere
more likely to occur in alpha helices?
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(B) 100 to 200 atm

(A) A,E,L,M
(B) P,G,Y,S (C) 500 to 600 atm
(C) A,G,Y,W
(D) A,C,G,S (D) 600 to 700 atm
Ans. D
Ans. A
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216. The alpha helix can be called a 3.613 helix . 221. Gasohol in USA is produced by adding
The numbers refer to: 10% ethanol to lead-free gasoline. The
(A) the number of residues and the combustion of gasohol produces:
pitch of the helix (A) lower amounts of CO and nitrogen
oxides than pure gasoline
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(B) the number of residues and number

of atoms in the helix (B) lower amounts of CO2 and higher
(C) the number of residues in a turn of amounts of SO2 than pure gasoline
the helix and the number of atoms (C) lower amounts of CO2 and CO
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in the hydrogen bond ring than pure gasoline

(D) the number of turns and diameter (D) higher amounts of CO2 and CO
Ans. C
of the helix than pure gasoline
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222. Some extremophiles produce extremozymes

217. Arrange the following in hierarchical top to which have major industrial application as
bottom order as is done in SCOP: (A) many industrial processes operate
best at high temperatures
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(A) Classes, domains, superfamilies,

folds, families (B) they have high specificity and their
ability to distinguish between chiral

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isomers enable them to function in globin locus. The LOD score at b=0 is
extremes environment negative infinity. The LOD score at b=0.01
(C) they are always produced by is -4.5. You conclude that the disorder in

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hyperthermophiles this family:
(D) many bioprocesses operate at low pH (A) Is due to a point mutation in the β-
Ans. B globin gene
223. The main pacemaker for endogenous (B) Is due to a mutation in a gene on
rhythms (Circadian rhythms) is the: chromosome 11, 10cM centromeric β-
(A) Zeitgeber globin

.c
(B) Suprachasmatic nucleus (C) Is not due to a β-globin gene mutation
(C) Optic chiasm (D) Is an acquired disorder due to a somatic
(D) Core body temperature gene mutation
Ans. B Ans. C

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224. Epulopiscium fishelsoni whose length 230. A catalyst is one which speeds up the
ranges from 200-500 µm belongs to the reaction by:
microbial group: (A) The enthalpy of the reaction
(A) Microalgae (B) Decreasing the free energy of the

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(B) Fungi reaction
(C) Protozoa (C) Increasing the kinetic energy of the
(D) Bacteria Ans. D reaction

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(D) Decreasing the activation energy of the
225. Agar-agar is a polymer of: reaction
(A) Glucose Ans. D
(B) Sulphated sugar
(C) Pectin 231. Transfer of T-DNA from Ti-plasmid into
og
(D) Protein plant cells is mediated by:
Ans. B
(A) MOB-gene
226. The most uncommon characteristic of (B) Nif gene
marine microorganisms is: (C) Vir gene
(D) Octopine gene
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(A) They require low nutrients Ans. C
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(B) They are slow growing

(C) 95% are gram negative 232. During RNA polymerase II transcription
(D) They do not exhibit pleomorphism initiation, phosphorylation of the following
Ans. D factor is essential to commence
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227. Which of the following statements is false transcription:

when describing SWISS-PROT ? (A) Polymerase II CTD
(A) It is a curated protein sequence (B) TFIID
database (C) TFIIH
(D) TFIIE Ans. A
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(B) Data is redundant

(C) Provides a high level of annotations
(D) It is maintained by Swiss Institute of 233. In human genome, approximately--------of
Bioinformatics and EBI the DNA codes for proteins:
Ans. B (A) 10%
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228. Threading approaches can be used to: (B) 2%

(A) Predict secondary structures of (C) 50%
proteins (D) 20%
Ans. B
(B) Build phylogenetic trees
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(C) Identify distantly related structural 234. A linear fragment of DNA will be unstable
homologs of proteins if it carries:
(D) To check the fitness of a modeled (A) Two origins of replication
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protein structure (B) Two centromeres

Ans. C
(C) Two telomeres
229. Linkage analysis is performed in a large (D) Two selection markers
Ans. B
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family with an autosomal hemolytic anemia,

235. A restriction endonuclease recognizes a 8
using a polymorphic marker within the β-
bp unbiased conserved sequence as its

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cleavage site. How many probable site(s) (B) Absence of polyadenylation at the
can be present in a 70 kb DNA fragment ? 3’end of the transcript
(A) 2 (C) Codon bias

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(B) 1 (D) Lack of splicing machinery in E. coli.
(C) 4 Ans. C
(D) 6 Ans. B 242. The genomic DNA fraction which has
highest value of cot ½ on Cot curve
236. Typical nucleosomal organization of gene is represnts:
not found in the nuclei of: (A) Highly repetitive DNA

.c
(A) Human liver cells (B) Moderately repetitive DNA
(B) Muscle cell (C) Minisatellite DNA
(C) Human sperm (D) Unique DNA Ans. D
(D) Neural cells

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Ans. C
243. The best method to permeabilize yeast cells
237. Which of the following organelles is chemically is to use:
surrounded by a single membrane? (A) EDTA and Lysozyme
(A) Chloroplast (B) β-(1,3) glucanase and protease

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(B) Mitochondria (C) β -(1,6) glucanase
(C) Peroxisomes (D) Alkaline hydroxylase
(D) Nucleus Ans. B
Ans. C

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244. Asparaginase is used as an:
238. If a DNA sequence predominantly contains (A) Anti-tumor agent
alternating pyrimidines and purines, which (B) Anti-tuberculosis agent
of the following DNA structures is highly (C) Anti-malarial agent
favored ? (D) Anti-diabetic agent Ans. A
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(A) A-DNA
(B) B-DNA 245. Which of the following will have the largest
(C) Z-DNA interfacial area per unit volume ?
(D) A-B-DNA (A) A bubble with a diameter of 1 mm
Ans. C
(B) A bubble with a diameter of 2 mm
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239. In a temperature-sensitive mutant bacteria, (C) A bubble with a diameter of 3 mm
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at non-permissive temperature, there are (D) A bubble with a diameter of 4 mm Ans. A

huge accumulation of Okazaki fragments.
The bacteria are mutant for: 246. Mr. B and Mrs. B have a 2 month-old baby
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(A) DNA polymerase with Down’s syndrome. Her Karyotype is

(B) DNA topoisomerase I showing translocation variety of Down’s
(C) DNA ligase syndrome. Which of the following
(D) DNA gyrase Ans. C investigations will you advise to the parents
before next pregnancy ?
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240. Which among the following enzymes is not (A) Triple test
a component of nitrogen assimilation (B) α-foetoprotein analysis
complex ? (C) Karyotyping
(A) Nitrate reductase (D) β-hCG analysis Ans. C
(B) Glutamate synthase
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(C) Lactate dehydrogenase 247. Occurrence of TB in HIV patients suggests

(D) Glutamine synthetase the potent protective role played by:
Ans. B
(A) NK cells in healthy individuals
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241. A cDNA encoding an eukaryotic gene
was ligated to an expression vector which
was then introduced into E.coli for
expression of protein. However, the
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(B) NKT cells in healthy individuals
(C) CD3+ T cells in healthy individuals
(D) CD4+ T cells in healthy individuals Ans. D

experiment resulted in poor expression of

inactive form of the protein, which could be
due to:
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(A) Absence of capping at the 5’end of

the transcript

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248. Which of the following types of neurons is

primarily lost in Parkinson’s disease?
(A) Dopaminergic neurons in the

om
substantia nigra
(B) Cholinergic neurons in the brain
stem
(C) Noradrenergic neurons in the
cerebellum
(D) GABA-ergic neurons in cortex

.c
Ans. A
249. The term k in the following energy
expression E = ½ k (theta-thetao)2
represents:

ss
(A) Van der Waals interaction
(B) Stretching constant for bond angle
variation
(C) Torsonal potential

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(D) Kinetic energy of an atom
Ans. B
250. “Heyflick’s limit refers to which one of the
following phenomena?

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(A) DNA repair
(B) Cell senescence in vitro
(C) Protein synthesis
(D) RNA transport
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Ans. B

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