09- 11- 2020 Batch: ROM1-ROM7(101-193) & ROME1

Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS NEET EXAM
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459 Physics + Chemistry + Biology
www.brilliantpala.org

PHYSICS - Laws of motion

1. The mass of a lift is 2000kg. When the tension in the supporting cable is 28000N, then its acceleration is
1) 30ms–2 downwards 2) 4ms–2 upwards 3) 4ms–2 downwards 4) 14ms–2 upwards

2. A force vector applied on a mass is represented as F  6iˆ  8jˆ  10kˆ and accelerates with 1m/s2. What
will be the mass of the body

1) 10 2kg 2) 2 10kg 3) 10kg 4) 20kg

3. A plumb line is suspended from a ceiling of a car moving with horizontal acceleration of a. What will be the
angle of inclindation with vertical

1) tan 1  a / g  2) tan 1  g / a  3) cos 1  a / g  4) cos 1  g / a 

4. A balloon with mass m is descending down with an acceleration a (where a < g). How much mass should
be removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration a

ma ma 2ma 2ma
1) 2) 3) 4)
ga ga ga ga
5. An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two are,
1 kg first part moving with a velocity of 12ms–1 and 2 kg second part moving with a velocity of 8ms–1. If the
third part flies off with a velocity of 4ms–1, its mass would be
1) 5 kg 2) 7 kg 3) 17 kg 4) 3 kg
6. In a rocket of mass 1000kg fuel is consumed at a rate of 40 kg/s. The velocity of the gases ejected from
the rocket is 5×104m/s. The thrust on the rocket is
1) 2×103N 2) 5×104N 3) 2×106N 4) 2×109N
7. A gun of mass 10kg fires 4 bullets per second. The mass of each bullet is 20g and the velocity of the bullet
when it leaves the gun is 300ms–1. The force required to hold the gun while firing is
1) 6 N 2) 8 N 3) 24 N 4) 240 N
8. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface with angle of inclination ‘  ’. The incline is given an
acceleration ‘a’ to keep the block stationary. Then a is equal to

1) g 2) g tan  3) g / tan  4) g cos ec 

9. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. If a force P is
applied at the free end of the rope, the force exerted by the rope on the block will be

Pm PM Pm
1) P 2) 3) 4)
Mm Mm Mm
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10. Two masses of 4kg and 5 kg are connected by a string passing through a frictionless pulley and are kept on
a frictionless table as shown in the figure. The acceleration of 5 kg mass is

1) 49m/s2 2) 5.44 m/s2 3) 19.5m/s2 4) 2.72m/s2

11. Two masses of 5kg and 10kg are connected to a pulley as shown. What will be the acceleration of the
system (g = acceleration due to gravity)

g g g
1) g 2) 3) 4)
2 3 4
12. Two block of masses 7kg and 5 kg are placed in contact with each other on a smooth surface. If a force
of 6 N is applied on the heavier mass, the force on the lighter mass is

1) 3.5N 2) 2.5N 3) 7 N 4) 5 N
13. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m, respectively, are connected by a massless and inextensible
string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in the figure. The magnitudes of
acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively

1) g,g/2 2) g/2,g 3) g,g 4) g/2,g/2

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14. Three blocks of mass 4kg, 2kg, 1kg respectively are in contact on a frictionless table as shown in the
figure. If a force of 14N is applied on the 4kg block, the contact force between the 4kg and the 2kg block
will be

1) 2N 2) 6N 3) 8 N 4) 14N
15. Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 3m are connected by strings, as shown in figure. After an upward
force F is applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant speed v. What is the net force on the
block of mass 2m (g is the acceleration due to gravity)

1) 6 mg 2) Zero 3) 2 mg 4) 3 mg
16. The force F acting on a particle of mass m is indicated by the force-time graph shown below. The change
in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8s is

1) 12 Ns 2) 6 Ns 3) 24 Ns 4) 20 Ns
17. A block is lying static on the floor. The maximum value of static frictional force on the block is 10N. If a
horizontal force of 8N is applied to the block, what will be the frictional force on the block
1) 2N 2) 18N 3) 8N 4) 10N
18. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass
m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction =  ). The pulley
is frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass m1 is
(Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)

1) g 1  2  / 3 2) g 1  2  / 2 3) g 1  g  / 9 4) 2g / 3
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19. The maximum speed that can be achieved without skidding by a car on a circular unbanked road of radius
R and coefficient of static friction  , is

1) Rg 2) Rg  3)  Rg 4) Rg

20. A car is moving along a straight horizontal road with a speed vo. If the coefficient of friction between the
tyres and the road is  , the shortest distance in which the car can be stopped is

2
v20 vo  vo  vO
1) 2) 3)   4)
2g g  g  

21. The backside of a truck is open and a box of 40kg is placed 5m away from the rear end. The coefficient
of friction of the box with the surface of the truck is 0.15. The truck starts from rest with 2m/s2 acceleration.
Calculate the distance covered by the truck when the box falls off
1) 20m 2) 30m 3) 40 m 4) 50 m
22. A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity  . A coin is placed at a distance r from the
centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is  . The coin will revolve with the record if

g 2 g
1) r  2) r  g 2
3) r  4) r 
2 g 2

23. A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity V. If  is the coefficient
of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time

1) V /  g  2) g / V 3) g / V 4) V / g

24. A given object takes n times as much time to slide down a 45° roung incline as it takes to slide down a
perfectly smooth 45° incline. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the incline is given
by

 1  1  1  1
1)  1  2  2) 3) 1  2  4)
 n  1 n2  n  1 n2

25. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination  is perfectly smooth while the lower half is rough. A body
starting from the rest at top comes back to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of friction for the lower half
is given by

1)   sin  2)   cot  3)   2 cos  4)   2 tan 

26. If the normal force is doubled, the coefficient of friction is

1) Not changed 2) Halved 3) Doubled 4) Tripled
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27. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure

The coefficient of static friction between the block and the cart is  . The acceleration  of the cart that
will prevent the block from falling satisfies

g mg g g
1)   2)   3)   4)  
  m 
28. Radius of the curved road on national highway is R. Width of the road is b. The outer edge of the road is
raised by h with respect to inner edge so that a car with velocity V can pass safe over it. The value of h is

V2b V V2R V2b

1) Rg 2) Rgb 3) g
4)
R

29. A particle is moving in a vertical circle. The tensions in the string when passing through two positions at
angles 30° and 60° from vertical (lowest position) are T1 and T2 respectively, then

1) T1  T2 2) T2  T1

3) T1  T2 4) Tension in the string always remains the same

30. A particle is kept at rest at the top of a sphere of diameter 42m. When disturbed slightly, it slides down. At
what height ‘h’ from the bottom, the particle will leave the sphere
1) 14m 2) 28m 3) 35m 4) 7m
CHEMISTRY: Thermodynamics

31. For a reversible reaction at equilibrium Ssystem  Ssurrounding is

1) >0 2) <0 3) 0 4)  0

32. The standard enthalpies of combustion of C(s), H2(g) and ethanol are –393.5, –286 and –1368 kJ respectively.
The heat of formation of ethanol is
1) –554 kJ/mol 2) +554 kJ/mol 3) + 277 kJ/mol 4) –277 kJ/mol
33. Enthalpy of vapourisation of benzene is 30.8kJ/mol at the normal boiling point at 80oC. Time required for
a 100W electric heater to vapourise 100g benzene at its boiling point (1W=1 Js–1)
1) 395 minutes 2) 51.3 minutes 3) 513 sec 4) 396 sec
34. Consider the reaction

4NO g   O 2 g   2N 2 O5 g  H  111kJ

If N2O5(s) is formed in the above reaction H will be (Given H for sublimation of N2O5(s) is 54 kJ)
1) –165 kJ mol–1 2) 945 kJ mol–1 3) 985 kJ mol–1 4) 845 kJ mol–1
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35. For the reaction

X 2 O 4( l )  2XO 2(g) ; U  2.1kcal mol 1 , S  20cal K 1mol 1 at 300K. Calculate G and predict whether
the reaction is spontaneous at 300K
1) –3.7 k cal spontaneous 2) –2.7 k cal spontaneous
3) –9.3 k cal spontaneous 4) +2.7 k cal Non spontaneous
36. Select the correct statement/statements from the following
i) If 1 mol HF acid (weak) neutralise with 1mol NaOH base (strong), heat released will always less than
57.1 kJ/mol
ii) The heat absorbed during the isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, against vaccum is zero
iii) Ideal gas expands reversibly and adiabatically, the entropy change of surrounding is zero

iv) Isothermal irreversible process, Stotal  0

1) i, ii, iii 2) ii, iii 3) ii, iii, iv 4) All of these

37. For a reaction, A  B  C  heat, S   ve the reaction

1) will be feasible at high temperature 2) will be feasible at all temperature

3) will be feasible at low temperature 4) will not occur in forward reaction
38. An exothermic reaction X  Y is spontaneous in the backward direction. What will be the sign of S for
the process X  Y ?

1) +ve 2) –ve 3) may be +ve or –ve 4) S will be zero

39. Pick out the wrong statement from the following
1) Internal energy change is purely a funciton of temperature
2) Entropy is a state function, its absolute value cannot be determined

5
3)  H (ionisation enthalpy) = ionisation energy(Eo) + RT
IE
2

4) All are correct statements

40. If the bond energy of X2(g), Y2(g) and XY(g) are in the ratio 1:2:4, H f of XY= –200kJ. Find the bond
energy of Y2
1) 180 kJ mol–1 2) 200 kJ mol–1 3) 160 kJ mol–1 4) 260 kJ mol–1
41. What are the correct signs of thermodynamic state functions in the dissolution of NH4Cl in water at laboratory
condition
1) H  ve, S  ve, G  ve 2) H   ve, S   ve, G   ve

3) H   ve, S   ve, G  ve 4) H   ve, S   ve, G   ve

42. The intensive properties among the following quantities are
a) Surface Tension b) Number of moles c) Refraction index d) Force
e) Concentration f) pH g) emf
1) a, b, c, f 2) a, c, e, f, g 3) a, c, e, f 4) All of these
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43. In a closed insulated container, a liquid is stirred with a paddle to increase the temperature which of the
following is true

1) U  0, w  0, q  0 2) U  0, w  0,q  0 3) U  w  0,q  0 4) U  w  0,q  0

44. The amount of heat released when 20ml of 0.5M NaOH is mixed with 100 ml of 0.1M HCl is x kJ. The
heat of neutralisation in kJ is
1) 50x 2) –50x 3) 100x 4) –100x
45. Free expansion of ideal gas under adiabatic condition

1) q  0, T  0, w  0 2) q  0, T  0, w  0

3) q  0, T  0, w  0 4) q  0, T  0, w  0

46. What will be the work done (in L atm), when 40g of Argon assuming ideal gas absorb heat and there is an
increasing temperature from 1072.5oC to 1073.5oC at constant pressure?

1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 12 20 6

15
47. At 27oC the reaction C6H 6 l   O  6CO2 g   3H 2O l  proceed spontaneously, because the magnitude
2 2 g 
of
1) H  TS 2) H  TS

3) H  TS 4) H  0and TS  O

2 2
48. For Zn Zn Ni Ni, Eocell  0.52V the maximum useful work that can be obtained from the cell in kJ is

1) –100 2) 50 3) 100 4) 175

49. Standard enthalpy change of neutralisation of strong acid and strong base is –57.1kJ. How much heat is
liberated when 200ml 0.6M CH3COOH react with 400ml 0.8M NaOH (dissociation energy of CH3COOH
= 17.1kJ equivalent–1)
1) 40 kJ 2) 4.8 kJ
3) 480 kJ 4) 20 kJ
50. The normal boiling point of a liquid X is 400K. Which of the following statement is true about the process.
X(l ) X(g) ?

1) at 400K and 1 atm pressure G  0 2) at 400K and 2 atm pressure G   ve

3) at 400K and 0.1 atm pressure G   ve 4) All the above conditions are correct
51. 25% of energy is available for muscular work if 100KJ of muscular work is needed to walk 1km. What
is the maximum distance in (km) that a person will be able to walk after eating 144g glucose

Given that H glu cos e  3  103 KJmol 1

1) 7 km 2) 8km 3) 4 km 4) 6 km
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52. C D

A B

The direction of A to B is difficult hence it carried out by the following path given that

S  A  C   50, S(C  D)  30S(B  D)  20

The entropy change of the above process A  B

1) 100 2) –60 3) –100 4) 60
53. An ideal gas expands from 10–3m3 to 10–2m3 at 800K against constant pressure of 105 Nm–2. The work
done is
1) –103kJ 2) –102kJ 3) –0.9kJ 4) –900kJ
54. Among the following, select the path function /s
1) qp 2) qv 3) w 4) All of these
55. One mole of non-ideal gas undergoes a change of state (1 atm, 3L, 200K) to (4 atm 5L, 250K) with a
change in internal energy U  40L atm. The change in enthalpy is
1) 37 L atm
2) 47 L atm
3) 57 L atm
4) It cannot be find out because pressure is not constant

56. The enthalpy change on freezing of 1 mole water at 10oC to ice at –10oC. (  fus H  6.03kJmol at 0oC)

Cp[H2O(l)] = 75.83 J mol–1K–1

Cp[H2O(s)] = 36.8 J mol–1K–1
1) –6.15 kJ mol–1 2) –7.15kJ mol–1 3) 4.91kJ mol–1 4) –4.90 kJ mol–1
57. The temperature of a 5ml of strong acid increases by 5oC when 5ml of a strong base is added to it. If 10ml
of each are mixed, temperature should increase by
1) 10oC 2) 5oC 3) 15oC 4) Cannot be predicted
58. 4.48L of an ideal gas at STP requires 12 Cal to raise the temperature by 15oC at constant volume. The Cp
of the gas is (cal)
1) 4 2) 6 3) 5 4) 8
59. The free energy and entropy change in kJ/mol when liquid water boils at 1 atm are respectively (Latent
heat of vaporisation of water = 2.07kJ/g)
1) 0 and 0.1 2) 0.1 and 0 3) 0 and 0.9 4) 0 and 0.8
60. Standard enthalpy combustion of methanol, ethanol and propanol are –726, –1368 and –2010kJ mol–1
respectively then  c Ho of hexanol is

1) –2650 2) –3936 3) –3210 4) –3010

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BIOLOGY- Living world, Plant kingdom
61. The most obvious and technically complicated feature of all living organism is
1) Metabolism 2) Cellular organisation 3) Consciousness 4) All of the above
62. Given below are defined the various taxonomic aids used in taxonomy which facilitated the identification
and classification of organism. Which one of the following is wrong?
1) Key, catalogus, manuals and monographs are used for the identification of plants and animals
2) Herbarium is created to house live specimens of plant material
3) Museums are established to keep preserved specimens of plants and animals
4) Zoological parks are established to conserve and preserve live animals
63. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect
1) Taxonomic categories represents a group of organism sharing common features
2) Each recoganisable concrete objects which can be classified were given a rank or category
3) Taxonomic categories are distinct biological entities and merely morphological aggregates
4) Each catogory represents a rank and is commonly termed as taxon
64. True regeneration is seen in which of the following organism
1) Hydra 2) Spirogyra 3) Planaria 4) Protonema of mosses
65. Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive events in
1) Bacteria 2) Yeast 3) Diatoms 4) All of the above
66. Which one is correct about species
a) Species is a group of interbreeding organism
b) Species is the only category that has a real existance
c) One can able to distinguish one species from other closely related species based on distinct morpho-
logical difference
d) organism having maximum similarity is in species
1) Only a and d are correct 2) Only a, b and d are correct
3) Only a and b are correct 4) All the statements are correct
67. Match column-I and II and choose the correct combination
Column-I Column-II
a) Multiply by fragmentation 1) Only in living organism
b) Metabolism 2) Use of various organism
c) Accumulation of materials on the surface 3) Filamentous algae
d) Earliest classification 4) Non living object
1) a  3; b  1; c  4; d  2 2) a  4; b  2; c  3; d  1
3) a  2; b  3; c  1; d  4 4) a  1; b  4; c  2; d  3
68. Organisms are in the same order but not in the same genus, it may belong to same
1) Species 2) Family 3) Variety 4) Both 1 and 3
69. Taxonomic key is one of the taxonomic tool in the identification and classification of plant and animals. It
is used in the preparation of
1) Flora 2) Monographs 3) Both 1 and 2 4) None of these
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70. Study the statements and select the correct statement/s
a) Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr
b) Photo period does not affect the reproduction of plant
c) Binomial nomenclature system was given by R.H. Whittaker
d) In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonimous with growth
1) a and b correct 2) a and c correct 3) a and d correct 4) c and d correct
71. Label of a herbarium sheet, does not carry information of
1) Local names 2) Height of the plant 3) Date of collection 4) Name of collector
72. Which covers the largest number of organisms
1) Genus 2) Family 3) Phylum 4) Class
73. Which of the following is less general in characters as compared to family
1) Phylum 2) Genus 3) Class 4) Division
74. The Indian Botanical Garden is located at
1) Dehradun 2) Lucknow 3) Kolkata 4) Chennai
75. Match the column and choose the correct combinations from the options given
a) Wheat 1) Primata
b) Mango 2) Diptera
c) Housefly 3) Sapindales
d) Man 4) Poales
1) a  1; b  2; c  4; d  3 2) a  4; b  3; c  2; d  1
3) a  2; b  4; c  1; d  3 4) a  3; b  4; c  2; d  1
76. Scientific study of diverstiy of organisms and their evolutionary relationship is called
1) Systematics 2) Anatomy 3) Morphology 4) Taxonomy
77. Grouping of organisms of any rank with similar traits is
1) Species 2) Taxon 3) Category 4) Family
78. Species is a group of individuals that
1) Are reproductively isolated among themselves
2) Cannot interbreed
3) Can interbreed
4) Can interbreed with individual of other species
79. A taxonomist identified a collection of organism it includes. Cat, Lion, Tiger, Dog, Wolf and Leopard.
The higher category in which only these are included is
1) Species 2) Genus 3) Family 4) Order
80. In plant kingdom families are characterised on the basis of
1) Only based on floral characteristic
2) Only based on vegetative characteristics
3) Based on vegetative and reproductive characteristics
4) Only based on number of anther
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81. Identify the mismatched pair
1) Higher category - Greater will be the diveristy
2) Lower the taxon - More the characteristic members share
3) Order - Less in number of similarity as compared to division
4) Taxa - Scientific term for categories
82. The common characteristic between Lion and Tiger will be maximum at the level of their
1) Order 2) Genus 3) Division 4) Family
83. Which of the following statements are correct about taxonomical aids is/are true
A) Keys are used to identify plants and animals based on similarity and differents
B) Flora contains the account of habitat and distribution of plants in a given area
C) Flora provide an index to the plant species found in a particular area
D) Monographs provide information for identification of name of species found in an area
1) A and B only correct 2) A, B and C are correct
3) A and D only correct 4) All statements are correct
84. Match the items given in Column-I with those in Colum-II and select the correct option given below

Column-I Column-II

i) It is a place having a collection of preserved plants

a) Herbarium
and animals
ii) A list that enumerates methodically all the species
b) Key found in an area with brief description aiding
identification
iii) Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens
c) Museum
mounted on sheets are kept
iv) A booklet containing a list of characters and their
d) Catalogue alternates which are helpful in identificaiton of various
taxa.

1) a  i; b  iv; c  iii; d  ii 2) a  iii; b  ii; c  i; d  iv

3) a  ii; b  iv; c  iii; d  i 4) a  iii; b  iv; c  i; d  ii
85. Which of the following is false statement
1) New systematics was introduced by Julian Huxely
2) The study of diversity of organisms and their relationship is called systematics
3) Name of author who first described a plant is written after specific epithet in full form
4) The study of evolutionary relationship between organism is called phylogeny
86. In plant taxonomy , Classes with a few similar characters are assigned to a higher category called
1) Kingdom 2) Order 3) Phylum 4) Division
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87. Which of the following statement is incorrect

1) Lion, Tiger, and Leopard belonging to same genus

2) A class include related orders

3) In the taxonomic hierarchy from species to kingdom , number of common characters goes on in-
creasing

4) Solanaceae, Convolvulaceae are belonging to the Polymoniales

88. Which of the following statement is not true about zoological park

1) It helps us to learn food habits of animals

2) It is a place of recreation

3) It is an example for In- situ conservation

4) It is a taxonomical aid

89. Numerical taxonomy is also called

1) Phenetics 2) Cladistics 3) Systematics 4) Phylogeny

90. Read the following statements A and B and select the correct option

(A) Cellular organization of the body is the defining feature of life forms

(B) Metabolic reaction cannot be demonstrated out side the body in a cell free system

1) Both A and B correct 2) Both A and B wrong

3) A correct B wrong 4) A wrong B correct

91. Equal weightage for each and every character, is an advantage for taxonomist in the following system /
approach

1) Chemotaxonomy 2) Cytotaxonomy 3) Numerical taxonomy 4) Phylogenetics

92. Which one is wrongly matched

1) Uniflagellate gametes - Polysiphonia 2) Biflagellate zoospores - Brown algae

3) Gemma cup - Marchantia 4) Unicellular organism - Chlorella

93. Which of the following statement is correct

1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperm

2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while salvinia is homosporous

3) Horsetails are gymnosperms

4) Stems are usually unbranched in both cycas and pinus

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94. Winged pollen grains are present in

1) Mustard 2) Cycas 3) Mango 4) Pinus

95. Which one of the following statement is wrong

1) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria

2) Laminaria and sargassum are used as food

3) Algae increases the dissolved O2 content in the immediate aquatic environment

4) Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageen from brown algae

96. In bryophytes and pteridophytes transport of male gamete requires

1) Birds 2) Water 3) Wind 4) Insects
97. Read the following statement

Statement A: Haplontic life cycle is present only in algae among the five divisions in plant kingdom

Statement B: Plants which exhibit haplo-diplontic life cycle and diplontic life cycle have zygotic meiosis in
their life cycle

1) Statement A and B are correct 2) Statement A is correct B is wrong

3) Statement A is wrong B is correct 4) Statement A and B are wrong

98. Which among the following is common to Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo

1) Presence of vascular tissue 2) Presence of archegonia

3) Independent gametophyte 4) Siphonogamous fertilization

99. The first successive land plants originated on earth crust are

1) Bryophytes 2) Pteridophytes 3) Gymnosperms 4) Angiosperms

100. Protonema developed from spore in mosses represent

1) Leafy gametophyte 2) Creeping, filamentous gametophyte

3) Leafy sporophyte 4) Creeping filamentous sporophyte

101. Read the following statement

Statement A: In pteridophytes, both sporophyte and gametophyte possess true root

Statement B: In pteridophyte, xylem component is tracheid in most members, and sieve element is the
phloem component

1) Statement A and B are correct 2) Statement A is correct statement B is wrong

3) Statement A is wrong, statement B is correct 4) Statement A and B are wrong

102. Polysulphate esters found in the cell wall of

1) Green algae 2) Brown algae 3) Red algae 4) All algae

FT21C/TP/PCB 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
103. Match the specialities of gamete/spore given in coloumn I with that of their occurence in coloumn II

Column I Column II

A) Non-motile gamete 1. Green algae

B) Biflagellate antherozoid 2. Ferns

C) Multiflagellate antherozoid 3. Brown algae

D) Two laterally attached dissimilar flagella 4. Red algae

E) 2-8 apical flagella for zoospore 5. Mosses

1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5 2) A-4, B-5, C-2, D-3, E-1

3) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2, E-1 4) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1, E-4

104. Observe the following diagram and identify the labelled parts

1) A-root; B-Gametophyte; C-Seta;D-Capsule

2) A-rhizoid; B-sporophyte; C-Foot; D-Operculum
3) A-rhizoid; B-Gametophyte; C-Seta; D-Capsule
4) A-root; B-Gametophyte; C-Foot; D-Sporogonium
105. If the number of chromosome in one cell of prothallus of a fern is 24; what will be the number of chromosome
in the spore and zygote respectively
1) 24 each 2) 12 and 24 3) 48 each 4)24 and 48
106. Gametophyte is totally dependent on sporophyte in the following plant group
1) All vascular plant 2) All embryophyte 3) All spermatophyte 4) All cryptogams
107. Which among the following pteridophyte produces dioecious gametophyte
1) Lycopodium & Pteris 2) Selaginella and salvinia
3) Adiantum & Pteris 4) Psilotum and Adiantum
108. Read the following statement
Statement A: The gametophyte of bryophyte is larger than the gametophyte of angiosperm
Statement B: The sporophyte of bryophyte is smaller than the sporophyte of gymnosperm
1) Statement A and B are correct 2) Statement A is correct, B is wrong
3) Statement A is wrong, B is correct 4) Statement A and B is wrong
FT21C/TP/PCB 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
109. Observe the following pictures illustrating a genus under bryophyte

(a) (b)
1) A-Male thallus of Marchantia B-Female thallus of Marchantia
2) A-Female thallus of Marchantia B- Male thallus of Marchantia
3) A- Male thallus of Funaria B - Female thallus of Marchantia
4) A-Female thallus of Funaria B - Male thallus of Funaria
110. Which among the following feature / features are typical to gymnosperms
(i) Orthotropous ovule (ii) Naked ovules
(iii) Triploid endosperm (iv) Absence of archegonia
(v) Anemophilous pollination (vi) Soft wood
1) i, ii, iii, iv 2) iii, iv, v, vi 3) i, ii, v, vi 4) i, iv, v, vi
111. In which among the following algae, plant body is differentiated into holdfast, stipe and frond
1) Green algae 2) Brown algae 3) Red algae 4) Blue green algae
112. Following table is giving some differences between cycas and pinus; how many among the comparison
points are not correct
Cycas Pinus
1) Monoecious Dioecious
2) Presence of coralloid root Presence of mycorrhiza
3) Stem is unbranched Stem is branched
4) Motile sperms Non-Motile sperms
5) Megasporophylls are compactly arranged into cones Megasporophylls are loosely arranged
6) Leaves are reduced into needles Leaves are pinnately compound
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
113. Which among the following is a ‘true moss’
1) Cord moss 2) Irish moss 3) Club moss 4) Spike moss
FT21C/TP/PCB 16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
114. Identify the wrong option below regarding the type of pigment as well as reserve food regarding different
classes of algae / other plant
1) Green algae  Chlorophyll a,b; starch
2) Red algae  chlorophyll a,d; Floridean starch
3) Brown algae  Chlorophyll b,c; Glycogen
4) Angiosperm  Chlorophyll a,b; Starch
115. Which among the following sentence is wrong about pteridophytes
1) Their gametophyte require, cool, damp shady places to grow
2) In majority of pteridophytes gametophytes are monoecious
3) In some pteridophytes, the development of zygote into young embryos take place within the female
gametophyte; it is precursor of the seed habit
4) The sporophyte is not free living, but attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte and derives nourishment
from it
116. Usually ferns are the first plant group emerging above the soil after a forest fire. It is primarly because of the
presence of
1) Rhizome as stem 2) Prothallus as gametophyte
3) Sporophyte as dominant phase 4) Presence of vascular tissue
117. The endosperm in gymnosperm is
1) Haploid and is product of fertilization 2) Haploid and is not a product of fertilization
3) Triploid and is product of fertilization 4) Triploid and is not a product of fertilization
118. Haplo-Diplontic life cycle is not present in following set of plants
1) Polysiphonia, Ectocarpus 2) Adiantum, Pteris
3) Funaria, Sphagnum 4) Fucus, Cycas
119. Variation in the shape of chloroplast is found in
1) Algae 2) Bryophyte 3) Pteridophyte 4) Gymnosperms
120. Both gametophyte and sporophyte are independent in the following class
1) Liverworts 2) Mosses 3) Ferns 4) Conifers

Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459
www.brilliantpala.org
Batch: ROM1-ROM7(101-193) & ROME1
09- 11- 2020
REPEATERS NEET EXAM
P + C + B - Key with Hints

PHYSICS - Laws of motion

1. 2

2. 1

3. 1

4. 3

5. 1

6. 3
FT21C/TP/PCB 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

7. 3

8. 2

9. 3

10. 2

11. 3

12. 2

13. 2

14. 2

Let R be the contact force between 4 kg and 2 kg blocks. The free body diagram of 4kg block is
as shown in the figure
FT21C/TP/PCB 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

15. 2

16. 1

17. 3

18. 1

19. 4

20. 1
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21. 1

22. 4
FT21C/TP/PCB 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

23. 1

24. 1

25. 4

26. 1

27. 4

28. 3

29. 3

30. 3
FT21C/TP/PCB 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
CHEMISTRY: Thermodynamics

31. 3 In a reversible reaction at equilibrium Stotal  0

32. 4  f H o    c H oreac tan ts    c H oproducts

33. 4
34. 2
35. 2

36. 3 (i) Even though HF acid is weak  neutra H o  57.1kJ because F– is highly hydrated
(ii) for isothermal

Pext  0, w  0

 U=q + w q=0

 

iii) Adiabatically reversible

q rev
Ssystem  q rev  0 ; Ssurrounding = Ssystem in a reversible process
T

iv) Irreversible process Stotal  0

37. 4 The forward reaction is endothermic
H   ve, S   ve

G   H  T S
  
 ve

38. 2 Backward is G   ve

forward is G   ve

G  H  TS
 ve  ve (  ve)

39. 2 Fact
40. 3 Bond dissociation energy order

X2 Y2 XY
1: 2: 4
a 2a 4a

1 X 2  1 Y2  1XY
2 2

 f H o   BE r   B.E p
FT21C/TP/PCB 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
41. 3 Dissolution of NH4Cl in water is endothermic

H   ve
G   ve
S   ve

42. 2 Facts
43. 3 Fact

100  0.1
44. 4  xKJ   Ho  100x
1000
45. 1 Fact
46. 2 Significance of R in mayers relation, it is the workdone when 1 mole of ideal gas increase by 1o

Cp  C v  R

R=0.0821 Lit atm

47. 3 It combustion rn H   ve
n(g) product < n(g) reactant S   ve

48. 3 G o  nFE ocell

Useful work done   G o  =100

49. 2 Heat liborated per eq = (57.1 – dimolecular energy) = 40 KJ/eq

200  0.6
heat liborated for the reaction   40
1000
50. 4 Fact
51. 4 180 
combustion
 3  103 KJ liberated

144g  x

x  25
100 energy required for muscular work

25
x
Maximum distance cover - 100  6Km
100

AC CD DB (given)

52. 4
50  30  20 BD
=+60
53. 3    Pex 

q p  H 
54. 3  state function
q v  U 

 only path function

FT21C/TP/PCB 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
55. 3 For non ideal gas

H  U  P2 V2  P1V1

 40  (4  5  1 3) =57 L atm

56. 2 H 2O(l)  H 2O (l)  H 2O (s)  H 2O(s) for 1 mole

H total  C p H 2O  l T  H freezing  C p H 2 Os  T

=–753+–6030+–368
= –7151×10–3
= –7.151KJ
57. 2 Change in temperature is same, when specific heat is same (specific heat is a intensive property)
58. 2 q v  nC v T

12=0.2×Cv×15 Cp-Cv=R
Cv=4 Cp=6

59. 1 H 2O  H 2Oat1atm100o C

G  0 for equilibrium

 v H 2.07  18
 vS  
T 373K
60. 2 CH3OH, C2H5OH, C3H7OH are homologous
 gradation of combustion value is
1368–726=642
–726+5×–642= –3936

BIOLOGY- Living World, Plant kingdom

61. 3 71. 2 81. 3 91. 3 101. 3 111. 2

62. 2 72. 3 82. 2 92. 1 102. 3 112. 3

63. 3 73. 2 83. 2 93. 1 103. 2 113. 1

64. 3 74. 3 84. 4 94. 4 104. 3 114. 3

65. 4 75. 2 85. 3 95. 4 105. 4 115. 4

66. 4 76. 1 86. 4 96. 2 106. 3 116. 1

67. 1 77. 2 87. 3 97. 2 107. 2 117. 2

68. 2 78. 3 88. 3 98. 2 108. 1 118. 4

69. 3 79. 4 89. 1 99. 2 109. 2 119. 1

70. 3 80. 3 90. 3 100. 2 110. 3 120. 3