Electricity, Electronics & Control Engineering 08_25_2015.

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Electricity, Electronics and Control Engineering

QMED
1. (1.1.4.3.3-2) The winch shown in the illustration will operate normally in all speeds in both
directions, with the exception that it will not accelerate into 'fifth point' hoist or 'fifth point' lower.
What would be a possible cause? Illustration EL-0102
(a) master switch contacts ‘MS 8' are welded closed
(b) time delay relay '3T' coil is open-circuited
(c) master switch contact 'MS 7’ fails to close
(d) the contactor '5A' coil is open-circuited

2. (1.1.4.3.3-1) Which of the following conditions will occur if the brake solenoid coil burns out on a
cargo winch with an electrical brake?
(a) Nothing will happen; the winch will continue to operate as usual.
(b) The motor will overspeed and burn up.
(c) The brake will be set by spring force.
(d) The load suspended from the cargo boom will fall.

3. (1.1.6.2.1-4) When a hydrometer indicates specific gravity what is being compared?

(a) mass of substance measured with the density of the same substance
(b) density of a substance in water with the density of the same substance in air
(c) differences in weight between water and the mass of the liquid being measured
(d) buoyancy of the indicator in the liquid being measured as compared to water

4. (1.1.6.2.1-1) Which of the following statements concerning the specific gravity of a battery electrolyte
is true?
(a) The temperature does not affect the specific gravity of the electrolyte.
(b) The most accurate hydrometer reading is obtained immediately after water is added.
(c) The specific gravity reading is lowered when the electrolyte temperature has increased.
(d) The electrolyte becomes less dense when it is cooled.

5. (1.1.6.2.1 -3) Why should battery rooms be well ventilated during the charging process?
(a) highly poisonous gas is produced
(b) highly combustible oxygen gas is produced
(c) highly explosive hydrogen gas is produced
(d) corrosive gases are produced

6. (1.1.6.2.1-7) Under normal conditions, storage batteries used for starting the emergency diesel-
generator are maintained in a charged state by which of the following methods?
(a) Trickle charging
(b) Reverse charging
(c) Fast charging
(d) Equalizing charge

7. (1.1.6.2.1-5) When a battery is continuously exposed to low temperatures, what is the best
procedure to keep it from freezing?
(a) keep the battery fully charged
(b) disconnect the battery
(c) remove the battery caps
(d) securely cover the battery

8. (1.1.6.2.1-6) Why should a breakable, mercury-filled thermometer NOT be used in a lead-acid

battery to measure electrolyte temperature?
(a) accidental breakage can cause corrosion on the battery terminals
(b) accidental breakage can cause rapid oxidation of battery plates
(c) accidental breakage can cause severe sparking and explosions
(d) accidental breakage can cause violent gassing at the positive plates

9. (1.1.3.1.1-6) Compared to conventional alternators, brushless alternators are designed to operate

without the use of what?
(a) voltage regulators
(b) rectifiers
(c) slip rings and commutators
(d) exciters

10. (1.1.3.1.1-7) In a conventional AC generator utilizing brushes, direct current from the exciter output
is passed through the windings of the main field rotor by what means?
(a) by means of a commutator
(b) by means of rotating bar magnet
(c) by means of slip rings
(d) to minimize the danger of arc over

11. (1.1.3.1.1-1) Why are space heaters provided on larger generators?

(a) maintain rotor and stator winding temperatures above the dew point to prevent the formation
of condensation
(b) prevent condensation in the lube oil
(c) prevent electrolysis due to condensation in the bearings
(d) keep the machine at ambient temperature of the machinery space

12. (1.1.3.1.1-5) Of the listed factors that influence the amount of RMS voltage induced in the windings
of an AC generator operating at a constant 60 Hz frequency, which factor is variable during
generator operation?
(a) the number of armature coil turns in series per winding
(b) the number of field coil turns in series per winding
(c) the rotational speed at which the magnetic field passes across the stator winding
(d) the strength of the rotating magnetic field

13. (1.1.3.1.1-2) Which of the following statements is true concerning all rotating-field three-phase
alternators?
(a) Each has three separate but identical, interconnected stator windings (one for each phase)
acted on by three separate but identical, interconnected systems of rotating magnets (one for
each phase).
(b) Each has one stator winding acted on by three separate but identical, interconnected systems
of rotating magnets (one for each phase).
(c) Each has three separate but identical, interconnected stator windings (one for each phase)
acted on by one system of rotating magnets.
(d) Each has one stator winding acted on by one system of rotating magnets.

14. (1.1.10.1.2-3) For what purpose are time delayed or delayed action-type fuses used?
(a) permit momentary overloads without melting
(b) prevent opens in motor circuits
(c) guard lighting and electronic circuits
(d) prevent grounds in branch circuits

15. (1.1 .10.1.2-4) Which of the following precautions should be taken when a blown fuse, rated at 10
amperes, is replaced?
(a) Fuses of 10 ampere rating and less are virtually harmless when energized and may be
handled freely.
(b) Use needle-nose pliers to remove fuse from the circuit.
(c) Short out the fuse before removing it from the circuit.
(d) Replace blown fuse with one of equal voltage and ampere capacity.
16. (1.1.10.1.2-7) In a dual element time delay cartridge-type fuse, what type of protection is provided for
motor applications?
(a) short-circuit protection using a spring loaded soldered joint AND sustained overload protection
using a fusible link
(b) sustained overload protection using a spring loaded soldered joint only
(c) short-circuit protection using a fusible link AND sustained overload protection using a spring
loaded soldered joint
(d) short-circuit protection using a fusible link only

17. (1.1.10.1.2-6) In a single element cartridge-type fuse, what type of protection is provided for lighting
and general power applications?
(a) short-circuit protection using a fusible link
(b) sustained overload protection using a spring loaded soldered joint
(c) sustained overload protection using a fusible link
(d) short-circuit protection using a spring loaded soldered joint

18. (1.1.10.1.2-5) What is the characteristic that is associated with an "instantaneous-trip" single-
element type fuse?
(a) opens a circuit by using a time delay element with a magnetic trip
(b) allows a preset delay between overcurrent and melting
(c) opens as soon as the load current exceeds its setpoint
(d) resets itself when the overcurrent is corrected

19. (1.1.10.1.2-2) How would a circuit with a blown fuse be described?

(a) an open circuit
(b) a bonded circuit
(c) a grounded circuit
(d) a short circuit

20. (1.1.10.1.2-1) How are fuses rated?

(a) voltage and amperage only
(b) interrupting capacity only
(c) voltage, amperage, and interrupting capacity
(d) amperage only

21. (1.1.10.3.1-2) Multiple grounds have developed and were initially indicated by the ground-detecting
system as one ground. What is the FIRST step in locating the grounds?
(a) change over generators
(b) eliminate the individual circuits one by one until the ground detecting system no longer
indicates any grounds
(c) check each circuit with a megohmmeter
(d) examine the main bus bars for signs of overheating

22. (1.1.10.3.1-3) When maintenance personnel are working on electrical equipment, all supply switches
should be secured in the open position and tagged. Who specifically should perform the lock-out/tag-
out procedure?
(a) chief electrician
(b) chief engineer or first assistant
(c) watch engineer
(d) person performing the repair

23. (1.1.10.3.1-4) Why must accidental grounds in a shipboard electrical system be repaired as soon as
possible?
(a) they may damage insulation and may cause power outages
(b) they will overload the ground detection system
(c) they will result in immediate power outages
(d) they may damage circuit breakers

24. (1.1.13.1.1-13) What is the name of the type of motor control circuit that will not permit automatic
restarting after power is restored, following a power failure?
(a) low voltage protection
(b) low voltage release
(c) overload lockout
(d) reduced voltage restart

25. (1.1.13.1.1-7) Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a relay and
a contactor?
(a) Contactors are made from silver and relays are made from copper.
(b) Contactors contacts can handle heavier loads than relay contacts.
(c) Contactors control current and relays control voltage.
(d) A relay is series connected and a contactor is parallel connected.

26. (1.1.13.1.1-9) An electromagnetic relay is most commonly used for what purpose?
(a) provide capacitance to a circuit
(b) provide inductive power to a circuit
(c) provide transformer secondary winding overcurrent protection
(d) remotely open and close contacts by action of a coil

27. (1.1.13.1.1-10) What functionality does a low voltage protection circuit as used in electric motor
starting equipment provide?
(a) allow the motor to restart automatically on restoration of voltage without manually resetting
(b) trip out the motor when the motor overspeeds due to low voltage
(c) prevent the motor from restarting automatically on restoration of voltage
(d) trip out the motor when the motor develops a short circuit due to low voltage

28. (1.1.13.1.1-4) What is the functional name of an electrical device which prevents simultaneous
energization of loads thereby preventing damage or injury?
(a) electrical interlock device
(b) monitoring device
(c) modulating device
(d) mechanical limit device

29. (1.1.13.1.1-12) Which of the listed items will stop a motor due to a reduction in voltage and
automatically restart it when the voltage is restored to normal?
(a) Renewable link fuse
(b) Non-renewable link fuse
(c) Low voltage protection circuit
(d) Low voltage release circuit

30. (1.1.13.1.1-11) What operational characteristic is associated with the illustrated manual starter circuit
for a motor shown in figure "A"? Illustration EL-0023
(a) has no low voltage protection and the motor may be damaged if the voltage drops below a
certain level
(b) incorporates low voltage release because the motor will stop when voltage falls below a
certain value and automatically start when normal voltage resumes
(c) incorporates low voltage protection because the motor will stop when voltage falls below a
certain value but must be manually restarted when normal voltage resumes
(d) incorporates low voltage protection because the motor will stop when voltage falls below a
certain value and automatically start when normal voltage resumes

31. (1.1.13.1.1-6) A motor controller contains three selector push buttons labeled 'start', 'jog', and 'stop'.
What will happen to the motor when the 'jog' button is depressed?
(a) will run continuously after the 'jog' button is released
(b) will not stop unless the 'stop' button is pushed
(c) will not start until both the 'jog' and 'start' buttons are pushed
(d) will run until the 'jog' button is released

32. (1.1.13.1.1-2) Which of the following illustrated manual motor starters represents the wiring diagram
illustrated in figure "A"? Illustration EL-0023
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

33. (1.1.13.1.1-5) Why are motor controllers seldom troubled with grounds?
(a) there are separate switches for the motor and the control
(b) the contactors and relays are mounted on a non-conducting panel
(c) the auxiliary contacts have a high resistance connection
(d) the resistor banks are composed of individual series-connected units

34. (1.1.6.1.1-2) The wet cell storage batteries shown in the illustration are connected in what
configuration? Illustration EL-0070
(a) series
(b) compound
(c) tandem
(d) parallel

35. (1.1.6.1.1-3) The individual 6 volt lead-acid batteries, when connected as shown in the illustration, as
a battery bank would produce how many volts? Illustration EL-0070
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 24

36. (1.1.6.1.1-1) What should be the primary consideration when choosing a battery for a particular
application?
(a) amp-hour capacity
(b) stability under charge
(c) terminal polarity
(d) ambient temperature rise

37. (1.1.2.3-9) Which of the following statements concerning a circuit with parallel connected resistors is
correct?
(a) The total resistance equals the sum of the individual resistances.
(b) The total current flow equals the reciprocal of the sum of the individual currents.
(c) The voltage drop across each resistor is the same.
(d) The total voltage equals the sum of the individual voltages across each resistance.

38. (1.1.2.3-7) Which of the following statements is true concerning circuits with parallel connected
resistances?
(a) The total current flow equals the sum of the individual currents.
(b) The total resistance equals the sum of the individual resistance.
(c) The total current flow equals the reciprocal of the sum of the individual currents.
(d) The total voltage equals the sum of the individual voltages across each resistance.

39. (1.1.2.3-5) Four lamps are connected in parallel in a single circuit. If one of the lamps burns out,
what will happen to the other lamps?
(a) become brighter
(b) all go out
(c) burn with their original intensities
(d) become dimmer

40. (1.1.2.3-2) Which statement is true concerning the total power consumed in a parallel circuit?
(a) The total power is never more than the power consumed by the largest load.
(b) The total power is the sum of the powers consumed by each load (resistor) divided by the
number of loads.
(c) The total power is always less than the power consumed by the smallest load.
(d) The total power is equal to the sum of the powers consumed by each individual load.

41. (1.1.2.3-10) Which of the electrical properties listed will always be the same across each component
in a parallel circuit?
(a) Voltage
(b) Resistance
(c) Impedance
(d) Current

42. (1.1.2.3 -4) What will happen to the total circuit resistance when additional parallel circuits are added
to a circuit?
(a) it will increase, causing a decrease in the line voltage
(b) it will decrease, causing an increase in the total load current
(c) it will decrease, causing an increase in the line voltage
(d) it will increase, causing a drop in the total load current

43. (1.1.14-7) Which of the following devices would be forbidden to use as a primary means of electrical
isolation?
(a) start/stop push button station
(b) non-fused disconnect switch
(c) circuit breaker
(d) fused disconnect switch

44. (1.1.14-3) At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a
condition where most people would experience respiratory paralysis and be unable to breathe while
still in contact with the energized conductor?
(a) 3 to 7 mA
(b) 10 to 16 mA
(c) 30 mA
(d) 75 mA for 5 sec.
45. (1.1.14-10) After prior isolation and lock-out/tag-out procedures are performed, which electrical
device requires discharging any stored electrical energy before any work may safely begin?
(a) resistor bank
(b) capacitor
(c) potential transformer
(d) choke coil

46. (1.1.14-6) Before electrical work can be safely undertaken, the equipment must be de-energized,
locked and tagged out, and verification must be made that the circuit is actually dead. What testing
device is most certain to reliably verify that a circuit is actually dead?
(a) a non-contact voltage tester
(b) an autoranging digital multimeter
(c) a solenoid type voltage tester
(d) a non-autoranging digital multimeter

47. (1.1.14-4) At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a
condition where most people would suffer ventricular fibrillation and could only be resuscitated with a
ventricular defibrillator?
(a) 3 to 7 mA
(b) 10 to 16 mA
(c) 30 mA
(d) 75 mA for 5 sec.

48. (1.1.14-8) Which of the following voltage testers would be associated with high quality, be safe to
use, and minimize the electric shock hazard?
(a) a voltage tester with a low input impedance and a lower voltage rating than any expected
measured voltages
(b) a voltage tester with a high input impedance and a voltage rating higher than any expected
measured voltages
(c) a voltage tester with a low input impedance and a higher voltage rating than any expected
measured voltages
(d) a voltage tester with a high input impedance and a lower voltage rating than any expected
measured voltages

49. (1.1.14-5) With all other factors considered equal (such as voltage, conducting path through the
body and the duration of contact), contact with an energized electrical system conductor of which
system type would produce the most damaging effect?
(a) DC systems
(b) 60 Hz AC systems
(c) 10 kHz AC systems
(d) All the above systems would be equally as damaging

50. (1.1.14-2) At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a
condition where most people would be unable to let go of the energized electrical conductor due to
involuntary muscular contraction?
(a) 3 to 7 mA
(b) 10 to 16 mA
(c) 30 mA
(d) 75 mA for 5 sec.

51. (1.1.14-1) At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a
painful sensation that most people would perceive as an electric shock?
(a) 3 to 7 mA
(b) 10 to 16 mA
(c) 30 mA
(d) 100 mA for 2.5 sec.

52. (1.1.4.2.3-1) As part of a routine maintenance program for deck machinery motor controllers, what
should be done?
(a) remove covers exposed to the weather and drain water each week
(b) remove motor covers and ventilate as weather permits
(c) check drum switch contact pressure every three months
(d) inspect electrical wiring for evidence of corrosion or discoloration at connections

53. (1.1.4.2.3-2) If deck machinery is expected to be idle for an extended period of time, what should be
done?
(a) have electrical safety gloves available in case of electrical shock before running
(b) perform a 'high pot' test to determine the condition of the insulation
(c) energize space heaters to prevent the condensation of moisture
(d) water wash the motor and controller to remove any salt that may interfere with smooth
operation

54. (1.1.3.2 -4) In performing routine maintenance of a ship's service alternator, what should be
included?
(a) lubricating exciter slip rings
(b) megger testing of all rectifying diodes
(c) periodic cleaning of the air filters or screens
(d) changing the pedestal bearing insulation yearly

55. (1.1.3.2-1) With regard to the maintenance of electrical generating machines with insulated pedestal
bearings, what practice should be avoided?
(a) cleaning and removing grease from the insulated area
(b) using a megohmmeter with the machine disassembled to determine insulation values
(c) painting or allowing grease build up on the insulated area
(d) touching the bearing shell while the machine running

56. (1.1.3.2-5) Which of the following statements, concerning the cleaning maintenance of a brushless
generator, is correct?
(a) High-pressure air should be used to blow out dust and grime from the windings.
(b) Hot soapy water should be used to remove dust and grime from windings.
(c) Cleaning of windings should be performed on a periodic basis regardless of the state of
cleanliness.
(d) Cleaning of windings should be performed on a conditional basis using a vacuum or using a
clean, dry, lint-free rag.

57. (1.1.3.2 -2) Rotor-to-stator air gap readings should be periodically taken for electrical generation
equipment. What is the best tool to use to take these measurements?
(a) cloth (non-metallic) tape measure
(b) tapered, long blade, feeler gage
(c) dial indicator
(d) inside micrometer

58. (1.1.3.2-8) When an alternator is to remain idle for even a few days, what should be done?
(a) lift the brushes and disconnect the pigtails
(b) open the equalizing bus disconnect switch
(c) insulate the collector rings with strips of cardboard
(d) energize the space heater circuit

59. (1.1.3.2-6) How may chattering of the collector/slip ring brushes on a generator be remedied?
(a) increasing length of pigtail
(b) re-insulating the brushes
(c) lubricating brush holders
(d) cleaning the collector rings with a canvas wiper

60. (1.1.3.2-7) Which of the following materials is recommended for burnishing the slip rings of an
alternator after grinding or turning?
(a) canvas wiper
(b) smooth file
(c) grade 00 sandpaper
(d) hardwood block

61. (1.1.8.2-5) In general, what can cause DC propulsion motor brush sparking to be excessive?
(a) a dark chocolate colored commutator
(b) brushes positioned in the neutral plane
(c) a concentric commutator
(d) incorrect brush grade, pressure or position

62. (1.1.8.2-6) What should be included in performing proper maintenance of a DC motor's commutator?
(a) painting the face of the commutator with insulating varnish
(b) baking the armature in an oven at 350°C for 8 hours annually
(c) coating the copper surface with light machine oil for the first four hours of operation
(d) side-cutting the copper segments and undercutting the mica

63. (1.1.8.2-4) What is an important factor in minimizing DC motor commutator wear?

(a) ensuring a very low brush current density
(b) keeping the ambient humidity as low as possible
(c) establishing the copper oxide surface film
(d) insuring that brush pressure is excessive
64. (1.1.8.2-1) What is the recommended method used to resurface an eccentric DC motor commutator?
(a) burnish it with commutator stones
(b) use a hard canvas wiper
(c) use a hand stone
(d) turn it down in the ship's lathe

65. (1.1.6.3.2-2) When troubleshooting a lead-acid storage battery, what is the best method for detecting
a weak or dead cell?
(a) comparing the specific gravity of the electrolyte in each cell
(b) taking each cell's temperature with a calibrated mercury thermometer
(c) visually inspecting the electrolyte levels of each cell
(d) taking an open circuit voltage test of individual cells

66. (1.1.7.1.1-1) As a DC armature revolves within a stationary magnetic field, the reversals of
magnetization of the armature core lags the current reversals which produces heat. What is the
correct name for this action which is minimized by the use of soft silicon steel?
(a) eddy-current loss
(b) hysteresis loss
(c) capacitive reaction
(d) copper loss

67. (1.1.12.5-1) Under what circumstance would a hand-held portable phase sequence indicator be
used should the main switchboard mounted fixed phase sequence indicator be inoperative?
(a) paralleling alternators
(b) installing a new synchroscope
(c) replacing a defective solenoid
(d) preparing to make the shore power connection

68. (1.1.3.1.3-3) Regarding an AC generator connected to the main electrical bus; as the electric load
and power factor vary, a corresponding change is reflected in the generator armature reaction. How
are these changes in armature reaction compensated for?
(a) phase-balance relay
(b) governor speed droop setting
(c) voltage regulator
(d) balance coil

69. (1.1.3.1.3-6) The governor control switch of an alternator is moved to the 'raise' position. What will
be the effect of this action?
(a) raise the percentage of speed droop
(b) lower the no-load speed setting of the governor
(c) raise the no-load speed setting of the governor
(d) lower the percentage of speed droop

70. (1.1.3.1.3-9) How is the frequency of an alternator at a given RPM determined?

(a) by the number of magnetic poles
(b) by the number of turns of wire in the armature coil
(c) by the strength of the magnets used
(d) by the output voltage

71. (1.1.3.1.3-1) Which of the methods listed below is used to provide the rotational torque to cause an
AC generator to turn?
(a) Providing current to the field from an external source.
(b) Residual magnetism remaining in the armature.
(c) Starting of the prime mover.
(d) Residual magnetism remaining in the field.

72. (1.1.3.1.3-8) How are the number of cycles per second developed by the alternator aboard your
vessel determined?
(a) the speed of the engine driving the alternator
(b) the resistance applied to the field rheostat
(c) the adjustments made to the voltage regulator
(d) the synchronous speed of induction

73. (1.1.3.1.3-4) How is the power factor of an AC generator operating singularly determined?
(a) the connected load
(b) the prime mover speed
(c) the generator's rated voltage
(d) the ground current
74. (1.1.3.1.3 -7) How will the value of the output frequency change if the load is removed from a turbo-
generator having a governor speed droop setting of 3%?
(a) It will decrease by approximately 3%.
(b) It will remain unchanged.
(c) It will increase.
(d) It will become variable.

75. (1.1.3.1.3-1 0) What is the most practical way to control the voltage output of an AC generator?
(a) varying the speed of the rotating field
(b) varying the strength of the rotating magnetic field
(c) varying the number of windings
(d) varying the power factor of the load

76. (1.1.3.1.3-5) When securing an AC generator, what should be your FIRST action in accomplishing
the procedural steps?
(a) decrease the field excitation to minimum
(b) open the generator circuit breaker
(c) switch the voltage regulator to 'manual'
(d) reduce the load on the unit

77. (1.1.5.1-7) What is the current flow through R1 of the circuit in figure "B" of the illustration with the
switch closed if the resistance of R1 is 2 ohms, R2 is 3 ohms and R3 is 6 ohms and the battery
voltage is 12 VDC? Illustration EL-0019
(a) 2 amps
(b) 4 amps
(c) 6 amps
(d) 12 amps

78. (1.1.5.1-1) In a simple DC circuit, the resistance is held constant while the applied voltage is halved.
What will be the effect on the current flow as compared to the original current?
(a) double
(b) remain the same
(c) be divided by two
(d) be divided by four

79. (1.1.5.1 -5) What will be the resulting current when a voltage of 442.7 VDC is applied to a resistance
of 1.25 ohms in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit when the switch is closed? Illustration EL-0018
(a) 28.25 amps
(b) 35.32 amps
(c) 354.16 amps
(d) 443.62 amps

80. (1.1.5.1-8) What would be the total current flowing in the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustration
if the source is 30 volts, the resistance of R1 is 10 ohms, R2 is 10 ohms and R3 is 10 ohms,
respectively? Illustration EL-0032
(a) 1 amp
(b) 2 amps
(c) 5 amps
(d) 15 amps

81. (1.1.5.1-2) If the voltage supplied to the lighting circuit is 110 volts, how much current is drawn by a
100 watt light bulb?
(a) 0.08 amps
(b) 0.91 amps
(c) 1.10 amps
(d) 90.9 amps

82. (1.1.5.1-4) What will be the resulting current when a voltage of 115 VDC is applied to a resistance of
12 ohms in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit with the switch closed? Illustration EL-0018
(a) 1.24 amps
(b) 9.58 amps
(c) 104.34 amps
(d) 127 amps

83. (1.1.5.1-6) What will be the resulting current when a voltage of 110 VDC is applied to a resistance of
32 ohms in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit when the switch is closed? Illustration EL-0018
(a) 0.29 amps
(b) 3.44 amps
(c) 9.31 amps
(d) 142 amps

84. (1.1.11.3.2-2) What would be the indication of a burned-out LED?

(a) excessive output
(b) no illumination
(c) excessive illumination
(d) a slight glow in the crystal

85. (1.1.11.3.2-1) Which of
to overheating?
(a) Resistor wattage rating
(b) Resistor wattage rating
(c) Resistor wattage rating
(d) Resistor wattage rating
the following conditions would most likely lead to the failure of a resistor due
one-half that required for the circuit.
two times higher than that required for the circuit.
four times higher than that required for the circuit.
equal to that required for the circuit.

86. (1.1.11.3.2-3) When troubleshooting electronic equipment, why should you use a high impedance
multimeter?
(a) for AC measurements only and a low resistance meter for DC measurements
(b) whenever a low impedance meter is not available, regardless of the components being tested
(c) to prevent excess current flow through the meter that would damage it
(d) so as not to load down the circuit and obtain erroneous voltage readings

87. (1.1.6.1.3-3) What is the approximate voltage per cell produced by the nickel-iron (Edison) battery?
(a) 0.85 volts
(b) 1.37 volts
(c) 2.20 volts
(d) 6.05 volts

88. (1.1.6.1.3-2) In general, why are nickel-cadmium storage batteries superior to lead-acid batteries?
(a) they can remain idle and keep a full charge for a long time
(b) they need fewer cells in series and use less mounting space
(c) they are less costly to replace
(d) they put out higher voltages and require no maintenance

89. (1.1.6.1.3-1) The electrolyte used in a nickel-cadmium battery is distilled water and what other
substance?
(a) lead sulfate
(b) potassium hydroxide
(c) zinc oxide
(d) diluted sulfuric acid

90. (1.1.2.1-8) What is the opposition to alternating current flow through a coil due to inductance called?
(a) reactive inductance
(b) impedance factor
(c) inductive reactance
(d) capacitive reactance

91. (1.1.2.1-17) What will
increasing?
(a) the increasing current
(b) the increasing current
(c) the increasing current
(d) the increasing current
happen to an electrical coil when the direct current flowing through the coil is
reduces the power consumed
produces a voltage in opposition to the applied voltage
changes the coil's impedance
reduces the amount of flux produced

92. (1.1.2.1-16) The resistance of most conducting materials will change as a result of temperature
change. What will happen to the resistance of copper wire when the temperature increases?
(a) remains constant
(b) increases in a predictable way
(c) changes in an unpredictable way
(d) decreases in a predictable way

93. (1.1.2.1-18) How does the resistance of a conductor vary?

(a) directly as its length and inversely as its cross-sectional area
(b) inversely as its length and directly as its cross-sectional area
(c) inversely as its length and inversely as its cross-sectional area
(d) directly as its length and directly as its cross-sectional area

94. (1.1.2.1-12) What is the name of the force that causes free electrons to flow in a conductor
producing electric current?
(a) electromotive force
(b) dielectric force
(c) inductive force
(d) resistant force

95. (1.1.2.1 -26) A direct current passing through a wire coiled around a soft iron core is known as what?
(a) magnetic shield
(b) electromagnetic domain
(c) electromagnet
(d) piezoelectric device

96. (1.1.2.1-10) AC circuits can possess characteristics of resistance, inductance, and capacitance. In
terms of units of measure, how is the capacitive reactance of the circuit expressed?
(a) mhos
(b) henrys
(c) ohms
(d) farads

97. (1.1.2.1-3) What happens to the power loss when the current flow through a power transmission line
is doubled?
(a) it is divided by four
(b) it is halved
(c) it is doubled
(d) it is quadrupled

98. (1.1.2.1-4) What property does capacitance have in an AC circuit?

(a) rectify the current
(b) oppose any change in circuit voltage
(c) stop current flow once the capacitor is fully charged
(d) allow current flow in only one direction

99. (1.1.2.1-13) What is the correct name for current that flows in only one direction?
(a) direct current
(b) alternating current
(c) sinusoidal current
(d) omnidirectional current

100. (1.1.2.1-15) When placed in a magnetic field, which of the materials listed will maintain the
highest permeability?
(a) Bakelite
(b) Aluminum
(c) Glass
(d) Soft iron

101. (1.1.2.1-5) Which of the following statements concerning AC circuits is correct?

(a) The power factor of a resistive circuit is always zero.
(b) The current lags the voltage in a capacitive circuit.
(c) True power in an inductive circuit always equals apparent power.
(d) Inductive reactance varies directly with the source frequency.

102. (1.1.2.1 -1) Which of the formulas listed is correct for determining power?
(a) P = (E)(E)/R
(b) P = E/R
(c) P = (I)(R)(R)
(d) P = (I)(I)/R

103. (1.1.2.1-20) In the flow of one cycle of single phase alternating current past any given point in a
circuit, how many times will the current peak to a maximum?
(a) one time
(b) two times
(c) three times
(d) four times

104. (1.1.2.1-7) What is the combined effect of inductive reactance, capacitive reactance, and
resistance in an alternating current circuit known as?
(a) resonance
(b) total reactance
(c) reactance
(d) impedance
105. (1.1.2.1 -14) The existing resistance of a conductor is dependent upon its length, cross-sectional
area, and what other factors?
(a) inductive reactance and insulation
(b) material and temperature
(c) material and insulation
(d) capacitive reactance and material

106. (1.1.2.1-9) Alternating current circuits may develop resistance, inductance, and capacitance.
What is the unit of measure for expressing capacitance?
(a) farads
(b) ohms
(c) mhos
(d) henrys

107. (1.1.2.1 -23) The number of cycles per second occurring in AC voltage is known as what
characteristic?
(a) phase angle
(b) half mode
(c) frequency
(d) wave form

108. (1.1.2.1 -24) In terms of units, how is the inductance of a coil measured?
(a) amperes
(b) volts
(c) ohms
(d) henrys

109. (1.1.2.1-11) In a three-phase circuit, how far apart are the phase voltages?
(a) 120° apart
(b) 160° apart
(c) 180° apart
(d) 360° apart

110. (1.1.2.1-2) The term "volt" describes:

(a) a rate of electron flow.
(b) the resistance to current flow.
(c) the transfer of circulating currents.
(d) an electrical potential difference.

111. (1.1.2.1-19) What is the unit of measure for electrical resistance?

(a) ampere
(b) volt
(c) watt
(d) ohm

112. (1.1.8.3-16) If a DC motor runs faster than designed, with all other conditions being normal, what
could be the possible cause?
(a) reversed commutating pole
(b) open shunt field coil
(c) overload
(d) open armature coil

113. (1.1.8.3-10) If a DC motor runs hot, what would most likely be the cause?
(a) an open in the series field
(b) clogged ventilation ducts
(c) low ambient temperature
(d) undercut mica condition

114. (1.1.8.3-12) Besides a condition of overload, what could be a cause of an open armature
connection in a DC propulsion motor?
(a) excessive starting resistance
(b) clogged ventilation ducts
(c) tripped circuit breaker
(d) low-load operation

115. (1.1.8.3-19) Besides for checking for circuit continuity, what can an ohmmeter be used for in
diagnosing a DC motor?
(a) synchronous speed
(b) undercut mica
(c) reversed polarity
(d) an open field coil

116. (1.1.8.3-9) What would excessive sparking at the brushes of a running DC motor be an indication
of?
(a) water vapor absorption
(b) increased brush capacity
(c) normal operation
(d) a dirty commutator

117. (1.1.8.3 -2) In addition to improper brush pressure or seating, what can result in excessive
sparking at the brushes of a DC propulsion motor?
(a) improper positioning of brush rigging outside the neutral plane
(b) operating at continuously varying loads such as during maneuvering
(c) reversed main field polarity with respect to the armature
(d) reversed armature polarity with respect to the field

118. (1.1.8.3-7) If a short circuit in the armature of a DC motor occurs what would be the result?
(a) fail to start
(b) hum when energized
(c) spark at the brushes
(d) run fast

119. (1.1.8.3-15) An open in the armature of a DC motor is suspected, but is not found by visual
inspection of the commutator. What would be the next step in troubleshooting this problem?
(a) conduct an insulation resistance test of the armature
(b) visually inspect the armature windings
(c) test the commutator for a ground
(d) conduct a bar to bar test of the armature

120. (1.1.8.3 -6) Which of the listed colors properly describes a DC motor commutator when correct
commutation is taking place?
(a) Burnished green
(b) Chocolate brown
(c) Brick red
(d) Shiny blue

121. (1.1.8.3-5) What can insufficient brush pressure on a DC motor cause?

(a) sparking of the brushes
(b) excess residual magnetism
(c) water vapor absorption
(d) generator overload

122. (1.1.8.3-17) How is a short in the shunt field of a DC motor best located?
(a) applying AC voltage to the shunt field circuit and measuring the voltage drop across each field
coil
(b) using a growler and hacksaw blade
(c) isolating each coil from the others and using a megohmmeter
(d) visual inspection of the commutator

123. (1.1.8.3-1) One method of testing for a reversed shunt field coil in a DC motor is by connecting
the coil to a low voltage source, and testing for polarity. How is this done?
(a) placing a magnetic compass near each field
(b) connecting a copper jumper across the interpole connections
(c) placing an iron bar across each field
(d) connecting a test lamp across adjacent fields

124. (1.1.8.3-11) What is the most effective method of locating a loose commutator bar in a DC motor?
(a) sounding each bar with a lightweight hammer
(b) visual inspection
(c) checking with a calibrated torque wrench
(d) jiggling each by hand

125. (1.1.8.3-8) How can a shorted armature coil in a DC motor be detected?

(a) undercut mica
(b) shiny armature coil
(c) sparking at the brushes
(d) worn grooves in the armature
126. (1.1.8.3-3) How may temporary repairs to an open DC propulsion armature coil be made, allowing
continued operation until permanent repairs can be made?
(a) connecting the coil ends directly to a pair of negative brushes
(b) removing the sparking brushes
(c) grounding the coil ends and short circuiting the commutator bar
(d) disconnecting coil ends, insulating each, and short circuiting the two commutator bars

127. (1.1.8.3-18) Which of the listed conditions might contribute to very rapid wearing of a DC
machine's commutator bars?
(a) Aligning the front and rear mica V-rings improperly
(b) An open circuit in the armature
(c) Using improper grade of carbon brushes
(d) A grounded commutator bar

128. (1.1.8.1.4 -1) If an unloaded DC compound motor's shunt field were weakened by excessive
rheostat resistance or by an open circuit, how would the motor respond?
(a) continue to run at base speed
(b) stop because of low flux
(c) slow down and overheat
(d) overspeed due to reduced CEMF

129. (1.1.8.1.4-2) In a short-shunt cumulatively compound-wound DC motor, how is the shunt field
connected?
(a) in series with the armature
(b) in series with the armature and series field
(c) in parallel with the armature
(d) in parallel with the armature and series field

130. (1.1.13.3.1-4) Why are motor controllers seldom troubled by grounds?

(a) contactors and relays are mounted on non-conducting panels
(b) shock mounts on controller panels greatly reduce vibration
(c) special insulation is used on wire for vital circuits
(d) cabinet heaters always keep internal components dry

131. (1.1.13.3.1-1) Which device will stop the motor shown in the illustration in case of a short-circuit
(high current) motor fault? Illustration EL-0080
(a) transformer primary fuses FU4 and FU5
(b) disconnect switch fuses FU1, FU2, and FU3
(c) transformer secondary fuses FU6 and FU7
(d) overload relay heaters and overload relay NC contacts (OL)

132. (1.1.13.3.1-8) In the illustrated motor controller, the motor fails to start. A voltmeter reading
between 1 and 5 reads line voltage, while the voltmeter reading between 2 and 5 reads 0 VAC. What
is most likely the problem? Illustration EL-0007
(a) an open start switch contact (when pushed in)
(b) an open stop switch contact (when not pushed in)
(c) an open main contactor "M" coil
(d) an overload "OL" relay contact

133. (1.1.13.3.1-2) If you hear a loud buzzing noise coming from a magnetic motor controller, what
should you do?
(a) assume that the motor is operating at a full load
(b) notify the electrician or watch engineer of the problem
(c) assume that the controller is operating normally
(d) feel the outside of the casing with your hand to see if it is hot

134. (1.1.13.3.1-5) The motor starts when the start button in the illustration is pushed, but stops when
the button is released. What is most likely the trouble? Illustration EL-0007
(a) an open auxiliary "M" contact
(b) a corroded contact on the disconnect switch (DS) at 'L3'
(c) an open "M" contactor coil
(d) an open in the stop button contact

135. (1.1.13.3.1-3) The motor fails to start on an attempted startup. With the start button depressed, a
voltmeter reading between 1 and 5, as illustrated in figure "A", indicates line voltage available to the
control circuit, what should be your next step in the troubleshooting process? Illustration EL-0007
(a) insure that the disconnect switch (DS) is closed
(b) test the contactor coil "M" for continuity and replace if necessary
(c) test the stop button for continuity and replace if necessary
(d) attempt to reset the overload relay and determine the cause of the overload if applicable
136. (1.1.13.3.1-7) The illustrated motor fails to start and gives a loud hum when the start button is
depressed, what should then be your first action? Illustration EL-0007
(a) disassemble the motor to fix the centrifugal switch so the start windings will be energized
(b) push the stop button to de-energize the "M" coil
(c) reset the thermal overload
(d) hold the "M" contactor closed by hand while wearing electrical safety gloves to get motor
started

137. (1.1.13.3.1-6) What can be the cause of excessive heat or burning contacts in an operating motor
controller?
(a) burned out operating coil
(b) loose connections or low contact pressure
(c) low motor starting torque
(d) high ambient temperature

138. (1.1.11.3.1-1) A capacitor is to be tested with a digital multimeter set up to measure ohms. If the
meter is connected to a shorted capacitor, how would the meter display respond?
(a) immediately display a value of OL with the value then continuously dropping to a low value
(b) immediately display a value of OL which remains at OL
(c) immediately display a very low resistance value which remains low
(d) immediately display a very low resistance with the value then continuously rising to a value of
OL

139. (1.1.11.3.1-6) If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "A" of the illustration to test a
capacitor, what would the display read if the capacitor is shorted? Illustration EL-0213
(a) the ohmic value would read very high (OL ohms) and remain at that value
(b) the ohmic value would read very low and remain at that value
(c) the ohmic value would initially read very low, but over time the ohmic value would gradually
rise to an extremely high value (OL ohms)
(d) the ohmic value would initially read very high (OL ohms), but over time the ohmic value would
gradually drop to an extremely low value

140. (1.1.11.3.1-2) What should be done with a capacitor that is obviously discolored due to excessive
heat?
(a) cooled with a spray can of refrigerant approved for this purpose
(b) calibrated using a capacitance Wheatstone bridge
(c) resoldered with care taken to insure that the original cold solder joint is repaired
(d) replaced and the reason for the overheating found

141. (1.1.11.3.1-5) If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figures "A" and "B" to test a silicon
diode, what is the status of the diode if the screen displays OL V when configured as in figure "A"
and displays OL V when configured as in figure "B"? Illustration EL-0212
(a) diode is operating properly
(b) diode is intermittently open
(c) diode is open
(d) diode is shorted

142. (1.1.11.3.1-4) If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration,
what is the status of the silicon diode if the display reads OL ohms when configured as in figure "A"
and reads OL ohms when configured as in figure "B"? Illustration EL-0211
(a) the diode is intermittently open
(b) the diode is shorted
(c) the diode is functioning properly
(d) the diode is open

143. (1.1.10.2.5-1) As shown in the illustration, what maintenance would be required of the circuit
components? Illustration EL-0058
(a) Change out the individual navigation light circuit fuses monthly.
(b) Clean the glass surrounding the individual navigation lights as needed.
(c) File the points of the buzzer contacts every six months.
(d) Take megger readings on the navigation lights quarterly.

144. (1.1.1.3.1-4) If the centrifugal switch or relay used for cutting out the starting winding of a split-
phase induction motor fails to open once the motor is in operation, what will be the result?
(a) the motor torque will be above normal at rated speed
(b) the starting winding will burn out
(c) the motor will immediately stall under load
(d) the motor will overspeed
145. (1.1.1.3.1 -3) A single-phase capacitor-start induction motor starts, comes up to about 75% rated
speed, slows down to a lower speed, and accelerates again. Where is the problem most likely to be?
(a) running centrifugal switch
(b) starting capacitor
(c) running winding
(d) starting winding

146. (1.1.1.3.1-1) A digital multimeter is set up as shown in the illustration to evaluate the single-circuit
stator windings of a squirrel cage induction three-phase motor. The following readings are taken:
From T1 to T2 reads "OL" ohms. From T2 to T3 reads "OL" ohms. From T3 to T1 as shown reads
"1.6" ohms. What condition is indicated? Illustration EL-0219
(a) Phase A (associated with T1) and Phase C (associated with T3) are short-circuited. Phase B
(associated with T2) is undamaged.
(b) Phase A (associated with T1) and Phase C (associated with T3) are undamaged. Phase B
(associated with T2) is open-circuited.
(c) Phase A (associated with T1) and Phase C (associated with T3) are open-circuited. Phase B
(associated with T2) is undamaged.
(d) Phase A (associated with T1) and Phase C (associated with T3) are undamaged. Phase B
(associated with T2) is short-circuited.

147. (1.1 .13.1.3-2) By what means is the burning of controller contacts due to arcing, when opening,
prevented?
(a) coating the contact surfaces lightly with petroleum jelly
(b) an overvoltage release
(c) magnetic blowout coils
(d) an overcurrent release

148. (1.1.13.1.3-5) As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, when the DC motor in figure "A" is
operating at minimum speed what are the armature and field characteristics? Illustration EL-0153
(a) The motor is operating at maximum armature voltage and minimum field current.
(b) The motor is operating at minimum armature voltage and maximum field current.
(c) The motor is operating at maximum armature voltage and maximum field current.
(d) The motor is operating at minimum armature voltage and minimum field current.

149. (1.1.13.1.3-1) As shown in the illustrated electrically operated watertight door controller, how is
the rotation direction of the door motor reversed? Illustration EL-0115
(a) reversing the direct current direction through the motor series field and maintaining the same
direct current direction through the motor armature
(b) reversing the direct current direction through the motor armature and maintaining the same
direct current direction through the motor series field
(c) reversing the direct current direction through the motor series field and the motor armature
(d) reversing the direct current direction through the motor armature and maintaining the same
direct current direction through the motor shunt field

150. (1.1.6.1.2 -3) In the illustrated views of a lead-acid battery as shown in figures "A" and "B", what
battery component has the sole function of preventing the individual plates in the negative plate
group from coming into direct contact with the individual plates in the positive plate group?
Illustration EL-0031
(a) separators
(b) cell dividers
(c) casing
(d) series connecting straps

151. (1.1.6.1.2 -1) How many cells are within a 24 volt lead-acid battery?
(a) three cells
(b) four cells
(c) six cells
(d) twelve cells

152. (1.1.6.1.2 -2) The nominal open-circuit voltage of one cell of a fully charged lead-acid battery is
approximately how many volts?
(a) 1.5 volts
(b) 2 volts
(c) 6 volts
(d) 12 volts

153. (1.1.4.1.2-1) What controls rudder movement when the Operation Selector Switch shown in figure
"A" of the illustration is in the "Controller" position? Illustration EL-0097
(a) ship's steering wheel
(b) non-follow-up controller
(c) rate of turn signal
(d) gyrocompass

154. (1.1.4.1.2 -2) As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, fine adjustments such as "rate of turn
signal" have no effect on steering stand operation when the 'operation selector switch' is in what
position? Illustration EL-0097
(a) DIFF
(b) HAND
(c) GYRO
(d) NFU

155. (1.1.12.3-7) Before measuring an unknown resistance with an analog multimeter set up as an
ohmmeter, what should you do?
(a) change the meter's batteries
(b) adjust the meter's pointer to mid-scale
(c) center the meter's pointer at infinity
(d) short the test leads and calibrate the meter reading to 'zero'

156. (1.1 .12.3-8) What is an ohmmeter used to measure?

(a) the amount of current flow in a circuit
(b) voltage between two points in a circuit
(c) circuit power
(d) circuit resistance

157. (1.1.12.3-15) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated digital multimeter screen, what would be the
significance of the symbol indicated by "2" being illuminated? Illustration EL-0047
(a) the selector switch is in the resistance position and the meter leads are connected across a
PN junction of a transistor
(b) the selector switch is in the continuity/diode test position and the secondary function push
button is toggled for continuity
(c) the selector switch is in the continuity/diode test position and the secondary function push
button is toggled for diode
(d) the selector switch is in the resistance position and the meter leads are connected across a
diode

158. (1.1.12.3-3) A digital multimeter is set up as an ohmmeter on the 1 kilo ohm scale. What does a
display reading of 'OL' ohms as read across the ends of a wire conductor indicate?
(a) a partial short
(b) open circuit
(c) continuity
(d) a partial ground

159. (1.1.12.3-14) If the approximate voltage to be measured in an electric circuit is not known, what
should be done?
(a) use the lowest voltage range on the voltmeter
(b) connect the meter in series with the circuit
(c) use the highest voltage range on the voltmeter
(d) only have to calibrate the meter before using it

160. (1.1.12.3-6) In troubleshooting a circuit in a console, you find that a resistor may be faulty. Which
of the precautions listed must be observed when using an analog or digital multimeter set up as an
ohmmeter to carry out this test?
(a) The resistor's circuit must be de-energized and at least one end of the resistor isolated by
disconnecting.
(b) Correct polarity must be observed, connecting the red lead to the banded end of the resistor.
(c) The meter must be placed in series with the resistor and the circuit.
(d) Meter leads must be twisted to cancel the leads' magnetic fields.

161. (1.1.12.3-1) If a digital multimeter set up to measure AC volts reads slightly above 'zero' when its
leads are disconnected, what is this a result of?
(a) a poor ground for the meter case
(b) capacitors inside the meter storing charges
(c) definite miscalibration of the meter
(d) 'ghost' voltages due to electromagnetic energy in the air

162. (1.1.12.3-17) Which of the following precautions should be taken when troubleshooting various
power circuits using a digital multimeter?
(a) Never use this type of meter on circuits greater than 60 Hz as the meter may not register
voltages over 60 Hz.
(b) Never connect the device to circuits where potentials greater than 120 volts may be present,
as the internal electronics can only withstand small currents.
(c) Always remember that the unit is polarity sensitive and if used on DC circuits reversing the
leads may result in high temperatures within the tester.
(d) When in the manual ranging mode, always pre-set the meter to the next higher range than the
amount of voltage expected in the circuit.

163. (1.1.12.3-11) Circuit resistance is usually measured off-line (de-energized) with an ohmmeter. In
the absence of an ohmmeter, however, resistance may be INDIRECTLY measured on-line
(energized) using what meter (or meters)?
(a) frequency meter
(b) voltmeter and an ammeter
(c) voltmeter only
(d) ammeter only

164. (1.1.12.3-2) Whether analog or digital, what are most AC voltmeters calibrated to measure?
(a) peak-to-peak voltage
(b) average voltage
(c) peak voltage only
(d) root-mean-square voltage

165. (1.1.12.3-9) Which of the meters listed should only be used after a circuit has been electrically de-
energized?
(a) Frequency meter
(b) Ammeter
(c) Wattmeter
(d) Ohmmeter

166. (1.1.12.3-12) What practice could potentially damage a multimeter?

(a) placing the test leads across a de-energized and isolated resistance to measure resistance
while in the voltmeter mode
(b) placing the test leads across a de-energized and isolated resistance to measure resistance
while in the ammeter mode
(c) placing the test leads across a voltage source to measure voltage while in the resistance
mode
(d) placing the test leads in series with the load of a circuit to measure current while in the
voltmeter mode

167. (1.1.12.3-4) Which of the listed statements is correct when using a digital multimeter set up as an
ohmmeter?
(a) With the test leads shorted together, a reading of 'zero' ohms will be displayed.
(b) With the test leads shorted together, a reading of 'OL' ohms will be displayed.
(c) With the test leads apart insulated from each other, a reading of 'zero' ohms will be displayed.
(d) It is usually not possible for a digital multimeter to be set up as an ohmmeter.

168. (1.1.10.2.3-2) What should be done when performing maintenance of circuit breaker contacts?
(a) smooth roughened contact surfaces with a file
(b) apply a thin film of oil on contact surfaces
(c) use a metallic oxide abrasive cloth to dress contacts
(d) inspect for wear and misalignment of main contacts

169. (1.1.10.2.3-1) What device can be used to check the calibration of a circuit breaker?
(a) portable low voltage high current testing unit
(b) clamp-on voltmeter
(c) 500 volt megohmmeter
(d) standard digital multimeter

170. (1.1.10.2.1-3) When working on electrical circuits containing large capacitors, in addition to de-
energizing the circuit, which of the listed precautions should also be taken?
(a) Measure capacitor insulation resistance.
(b) Keep all radio equipment away.
(c) Check capacitor circuit polarity.
(d) Discharge the capacitor through a 50,000 ohm resistor.

171. (1.1 .10.2.1-4) Which of the following statements represents the FIRST precaution to be taken
prior to working on any installed electrical component?
(a) Ground the case of the machine before beginning any repairs.
(b) Open the supply circuits and tag the switches.
(c) Use only approved non-conducting tools.
(d) Wear rubber gloves and boots.
172. (1.1.10.2.1-2) What is the proper way to apply plastic electrical tape to an electric cable splice?
(a) wind the tape so that each turn overlaps the turn before it
(b) apply tape to the braided cover, but avoid touching it
(c) apply the tape in one non-overlapping layer only
(d) heat the tape with a soldering iron for good bonding

173. (1.1.10.2.1-1) When working on a high voltage circuit, you should always have another person
present with you. This person should have a good working knowledge of the hazards associated
with working on high voltage electrical circuits as well as the first aid techniques for treating electrical
shock. What other knowledge is essential?
(a) detailed knowledge of insulation dielectric strengths associated with the circuit being worked
on
(b) working knowledge of the conductor ampacities associated with the circuit being worked on
(c) detailed knowledge of the insulation voltage ratings associated with circuit being worked on
(d) working knowledge of the circuit being worked on and all means of isolation and grounding

174. (1.1.3.1.4-1 9) Why is motorization of an AC generator undesirable?

(a) The generator will be damaged when it reverses its rotation.
(b) High voltage pulses may damage the commutator.
(c) The prime mover will be damaged when it reverses its rotation.
(d) It puts an excessive load on the bus.

175. (1.1.3.1.4-17) An alternator is being paralleled with one already on the line. At the INSTANT the
incoming generator circuit breaker is closed, what will happen to the frequency of the incoming
alternator?
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) not change
(d) be exactly 60 hertz

176. (1.1.3.1.4-10) An alternator switchboard has a synchroscope and synchronizing lamps. If the
synchroscope is broken, which of the steps listed is the most essential before an alternator can be
paralleled with the bus?
(a) The breaker should be closed when both synchronizing lamps are bright.
(b) A portable phase sequence indicator must be used to verify the information from the lamps.
(c) The breaker should be closed when one synchronizing lamp is dark and the other is bright.
(d) The frequency meter should be used to determine that the incoming alternator frequency is
slightly higher than the bus, then the breaker should be closed when both synchronizing lamps
are dark.

177. (1.1.3.1.4-7) Diesel-generators number 1 and number 2 are operating in parallel at near full load
capacity. Diesel-generator number 1 suddenly trips out mechanically due to low lube oil pressure.
The reverse power relay functions properly and trips generator number 1 electrically off the board.
Which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST?
(a) Start the emergency generator.
(b) Strip the board of all nonvital circuits.
(c) Ascertain cause of the low lube oil pressure.
(d) Secure alarms, reset reverse power relay, and restart number 1 engine.

178. (1.1.3.1.4-1 8) What is the purpose of a ship's service generator circuit breakers reverse power
trip?
(a) prevent main circuit overload
(b) protect the circuit breaker blowout coil
(c) prevent alternator motorization
(d) prevent low voltage trip-out

179. (1.1.3.1.4-14) If field excitation is suddenly lost to an alternator operating in parallel with another
alternator, what will happen to the alternator that has experienced a loss of field excitation?
(a) It will become overloaded and slow down.
(b) It will lose its load and tend to overspeed.
(c) It will operate at the same load, but with reduced voltage.
(d) It will supply excessive current to the bus.

180. (1.1.3.1.4 -8) When paralleling two AC generators, the synchroscope selector switch and
frequency meter switch should be set up to sense the frequency of which of the following?
(a) bus transfer relay
(b) oncoming generator
(c) bus
(d) generator on the line

181. (1.1.3.1.4-2) What will happen when a loss of field excitation to an AC generator occurs while
operating in parallel?
(a) It will absorb more and more load due to decreased armature reaction.
(b) It will lose its load and possibly overspeed.
(c) It will smoke and overload due to field flashover as residual field flux changes polarity.
(d) It will lose its load due to the inherent speed droop built into the governor.

182. (1.1.3.1.4 -16) What should be the frequency of the incoming machine when paralleling two AC
generators immediately prior to closing its breaker?
(a) slightly less than the bus frequency
(b) exactly equal to the bus frequency
(c) slightly greater than the bus frequency
(d) at least 5 Hz higher than the bus frequency

183. (1.1.3.1.4-9) When paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing lamps remain lit as the
synchroscope pointer approaches the 0°. What does this indicate?
(a) the alternator voltages are 180 degrees apart
(b) the synchroscope is defective or broken
(c) the incoming alternator is running too fast
(d) the alternator power factors are in phase

184. (1.1.3.1.4 -6) What governor settings are the load sharing characteristics of two diesel-generators
operating in parallel mostly dependent upon?
(a) speed droop settings
(b) speed limit settings
(c) load limit settings
(d) idle speed settings

185. (1.1.3.1.4-30) Attempting to parallel an AC generator which is out of phase with the bus will result
in which of the following conditions?
(a) The power factor will be unitized
(b) The synchronizing lamps will burn out.
(c) The kVA will decrease.
(d) The alternator breaker should trip.

186. (1.1.3.1.4 -26) Which of the following statements is true concerning the operation of two
alternators in parallel?
(a) Both alternator governors must be set with the same amount of speed droop.
(b) The number of field poles must be the same on each alternator.
(c) The cycles per second of each alternator are the same.
(d) The load must always be divided equally between alternators.

187. (1.1.3.1.4-21) You are paralleling two alternators. The synchronizing lamps grow dim and are
totally darkened as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0° position. What does this indicate?
(a) the alternator voltages are 180° apart
(b) the incoming alternator is running too slowly
(c) the synchroscope is defective or broken
(d) the circuit breaker can be closed

188. (1.1.3.1.4-27) You are attempting to parallel two AC generators, and the synchroscope pointer is
revolving in the fast direction. What is the frequency of the oncoming generator relative to the bus
frequency?
(a) the same as the bus frequency and the circuit breaker may be closed at any pointer position
(b) lower than the bus frequency
(c) the same as the bus frequency but out of phase with it
(d) higher than the bus frequency

189. (1.1.3.1.4-4) To remove an alternator operating in parallel with another unit from the main
electrical bus, what must be done FIRST?
(a) adjust the power factor on both units
(b) set the desired voltage on the outgoing alternator
(c) open the circuit breaker on the outgoing alternator
(d) remove the load from the outgoing alternator

190. (1.1.3.1.4-20) A main switchboard synchronizing panel is fitted with two synchronizing lamps and
a synchroscope. When paralleling, if the synchroscope pointer is at the noon position and one
synchronizing light is bright while the other remains dark, what does this indicate?
(a) the incoming generator voltage is too low
(b) the generator breaker may be closed
(c) the generators are in phase sequence but one lamp is burned out
(d) the generators are out of phase sequence and one lamp is burned out

191. (1.1.3.1.4-22) If the excitation of an alternator operating in parallel is decreased below normal and
the other above normal, what will be the result on the alternator with the excitation decreased below
normal?
(a) ampere load will be greatly increased
(b) power factor will change in the leading direction
(c) kilowatt load will be greatly decreased
(d) power factor will change in the lagging direction

192. (1.1.3.1.4-25) When paralleling two alternators using three synchronizing lamps, the flickering of
all three lamps becomes progressively slower and slower. What does this mean?
(a) The phase rotation of the incoming alternators is opposite to that of the bus.
(b) The frequency of the incoming alternator is significantly less than that of the bus.
(c) The frequency of the incoming generator is approaching that of the bus.
(d) The terminal voltage of the incoming alternator is approaching that of the bus.

193. (1.1.3.1.4-12) You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer
stops at a position other than 0°. What would happen if you close the circuit breaker at this position?
(a) the incoming machine will accept all of the load
(b) a hazardous condition will be created by the cross current between the machines
(c) a hazardous condition will be created by the incoming machine being at a higher frequency
than the bus
(d) the incoming machine will trip out on low voltage release

194. (1.1.3.1.4-15) After closing the circuit breaker to place two alternators with identical ratings in
parallel, in terms of achieving a balance between the two alternators, what is the NEXT step?
(a) balance the kilowatt load
(b) balance the power factor
(c) balance the voltage
(d) balance the ampere load

195. (1.1.3.1.4-23) What device is used so that the kilowatt load sharing can be adjusted on paralleled
generators?
(a) governor control
(b) hand tachometer
(c) automatic voltage regulators
(d) field rheostat

196. (1.1.4.3.1-4) As shown in figure "1" of the illustration, a correctly connected synchronous
transmission causes the receiver to be in correspondence with the transmitter. If the receiver is out
of correspondence, 180 degrees out of zero, but the torque direction is correct as shown in figure
"2", what figure shows the incorrect connections responsible for this condition? Illustration EL-0150
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

197. (1.1.4.3.1 -1) As shown in the illustrated wiring diagram for an engine order telegraph system,
what statement concerning the constant ringing and trouble alarm is true? Illustration EL-0113
(a) The constant ringing and trouble alarm sounds when there is a power loss from the 115 VAC
power supply to the system.
(b) The constant ringing and trouble alarm sounds when the transmitter rotor and corresponding
indicator rotor are in correspondence.
(c) The constant ringing and trouble alarm sounds when the acknowledge handle and indicator
arrow are not on the same order.
(d) The constant ringing and trouble alarm sounds when there is a power loss from the battery or
emergency switchboard as appropriate.

198. (1.1.4.3.1-3) If it is required that the coils 'R1-R2-R3' in the indicator of figure "A", turn opposite to
those in the transmitter, as shown in the illustration, what action should be taken? Illustration EL-0092
(a) Interchange leads 'R1' and 'R3'.
(b) Interchange leads 'R2' and 'R3'.
(c) Reverse the 60 Hz supply connections to 'S1' and 'S2'.
(d) No action is needed.
199. (1.1.1.1.1-2) What determines the direction of rotation of an AC induction motor?
(a) determined by the number of poles being even or odd
(b) determined as the opposite of the direction of the rotating field
(c) determined by the direction of the staggering of the brushes
(d) determined as the same as the direction of the rotating stator field

200. (1.1.1.1.1-19) With respect to motors, how is ambient temperature defined?

(a) amount of temperature developed by an operating motor
(b) normal operating temperature, less the room temperature
(c) temperature of the compartment where the motor is located
(d) amount of temperature rise with no load

201. (1.1.1.1.1-17) What will be the impact of reduced voltage applied to an AC induction motor during
the starting period?
(a) increase the starting current and decrease the starting torque
(b) increase the starting current and increase the starting torque
(c) decrease the starting current and increase the starting torque
(d) decrease the starting current and decrease the starting torque

202. (1.1.1.1.1-1) Which of the illustrated motors has a totally enclosed, fan-cooled (TEFC) motor
enclosure? Illustration EL-0001
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

203. (1.1.1.1.1 -22) As shown in figure “A" of the illustrated motor nameplate, what is the service factor
at sea level? Illustration EL-0171
(a) 1.00
(b) 1.15
(c) 17.5
(d) 89.7

204. (1.1.1.1.1 -12) Which of the following statements is true concerning the operating characteristics
of a basic squirrel-cage induction motor?
(a) An increase in motor load results in less slip.
(b) A decrease in rotor speed produces a weaker magnetic field.
(c) A decrease in rotor speed results in less current draw.
(d) Rotor slip is dependent upon the motor load.

205. (1.1.1.1.1-4) In a basic AC induction motor, by what means are rotor currents induced in the
rotor?
(a) external variable resistors
(b) a bridge rectifier
(c) an armature and brushes
(d) magnetically by the rotating stator field

206. (1.1.1.1.1-11) In a three-phase, squirrel-cage type, induction motor, how is the primary rotating
magnetic field established?
(a) laminated steel core and aluminum conductors in the rotor
(b) current induced in the rotor windings
(c) interaction of the magnetic field caused by the induced current in the squirrel-cage bars with
the magnetic field of the stator
(d) application of a three-phase voltage supply to the stator windings

207. (1.1.1.1.1-21) What type of motor is illustrated by the schematic of figure "B" of the illustration and
what type of starting relay is used? Illustration EL-0209
(a) resistive start, induction run (split phase) motor using a hot wire starting relay
(b) resistive start, induction run (split phase) motor using a current starting relay
(c) resistive start, induction run (split phase) motor using a potential starting relay
(d) capacitor start, induction run motor using a potential starting relay

208. (1.1.1.1.1-13) In a 15 HP induction-type motor with a squirrel-cage rotor, compared to the full load
current at rated speed, how much starting current is required at standstill to produce successful
starting torque?
(a) half the full load current
(b) equal to the full load current
(c) five times the full load current
(d) ten to twenty times the full load current
209. (1.1.1.1.1 -20) Which of the pictured motors is a square core shaded pole motor used to drive very
small electrical loads and is non-reversible? Illustration EL-0208
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

210. (1.1.1.1.1 -16) With respect to electrical enclosure types, how may an electric motor be designed
and constructed?
(a) overload proof
(b) ground proof
(c) explosion proof
(d) short proof

211. (1.1.1.1.1 -14) One item listed on the nameplate of a cargo pump motor is 'degrees centigrade
rise.' What does the number stamped for this item represent?
(a) the minimum temperature rise from no load to full load
(b) the normal temperature rise from cold to hot
(c) the maximum temperature rise above an ambient temperature of 40°C
(d) the maximum temperature rise from absolute zero

212. (1.1.1.1.1-6) Which of the illustrated motors has a totally enclosed motor enclosure? Illustration
EL-0001
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

213. (1.1.1.1.1-10) If an induction motor were to be operated at 90% rated voltage and at rated load,
what would be the result?
(a) starting current would increase slightly
(b) running current would increase and the motor would run hotter
(c) synchronous speed would decrease slightly
(d) there would be an increase in starting torque

214. (1.1.1.1.1-8) Which of the following motors has a frame configuration for resilient base mounting?
Illustration EL-0184
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

215. (1.1.1.1.1-18) What operational information data appears on the nameplates of shipboard AC
motors?
(a) temperature rise
(b) type of overload protection
(c) locked-rotor torque
(d) rated slip

216. (1.1.1.1.1-7) What type of motor enclosure is utilized for the motor labeled "A" of the illustration?
Illustration EL-0001
(a) Totally enclosed
(b) Totally enclosed, fan-cooled
(c) Open, drip-proof
(d) Open

217. (1.1.5.4-5) A 125 volt DC motor is rated at 10 kW. What is the current rating of the motor?
(a) 4.6 amps
(b) 8.0 amps
(c) 46.2 amps
(d) 80 amps

218. (1.1.5.4-4) What is the wattage of a heating element drawing a current of 30 amperes, at 120
volts?
(a) 30 watts
(b) 99.97 watts
(c) 360 watts
(d) 3600 watts
219. (1.1.5.4-3) A three-phase alternator operates at 450 volts with a 0.8 power factor. If the ammeter
indicates 250 amperes, what should be the kW meter reading?
(a) 90.00 kW
(b) 127.27 kW
(c) 155.70 kW
(d) 194.85 kW

220. (1.1.5.4 -2) How many watts of power is equal to one horsepower?
(a) 500 watts
(b) 663 watts
(c) 746 watts
(d) 1,000 watts

221. (1.1.5.4-1) How is the power dissipated as heat in a direct current circuit calculated?
(a) E divided by I
(b) I times R divided by T
(c) I squared times R
(d) P divided by R

222. (1.1.5.4-7) Two 100 watt light bulbs rated at 100 volts are connected in parallel across a 100 volt
power supply. What will be the total power consumed by the two bulbs?
(a) 50 watts
(b) 100 watts
(c) 200 watts
(d) equal to the product of the amperes times the voltage in each branch

223. (1.1.5.4-9) What power would be consumed by the series resistor in the circuit shown in the
illustration if the source is 30 volts, the resistance for R1 is 10 ohms, R2 is 10 ohms and R3 is 10
ohms? Illustration EL-0032
(a) 10 watts
(b) 30 watts
(c) 40 watts
(d) 60 watts

224. (1.1.10.2.6-1) In order to safely carry out repairs to a generator circuit breaker; it must be isolated
from the bus. How is this accomplished?
(a) opening the bus disconnect links
(b) opening the generator bus fuse connections
(c) opening the reverse current relay
(d) opening the reverse power relay

225. (1.1.11.1.2-10) Assuming a standard 60 Hz input to the circuit shown in the illustration, what
would be the ripple frequency? Illustration EL-0085
(a) 30 Hz
(b) 60 Hz
(c) 90 Hz
(d) 120 Hz

226. (1.1.11.1.2-6) What does the drawing in the illustrated circuit represent? Illustration EL-0063
(a) a six phase half wave rectifier
(b) a three phase full wave rectifier
(c) a single phase full wave rectifier
(d) a three phase half wave rectifier

227. (1.1.11.1.2-12) What is the direction of electron current through the load resistor in the circuit
shown in the illustration? Illustration EL-0085
(a) Always from point "TP5" to the grounded end.
(b) Always from the grounded end to point "TP5".
(c) It depends on the instantaneous polarity at "T1".
(d) It cannot be determined without a directional ammeter.

228. (1.1.11.1.2-14) In figure "A" of the illustrated circuit, what is the main purpose of the bias resistor
Rb? Illustration EL-0045
(a) to eliminate the need for an emitter-base battery for establishing reverse emitter-base bias
(b) to eliminate the need for a collector-emitter battery for establishing reverse collector-emitter
bias
(c) to eliminate the need for a collector-emitter battery for establishing forward collector-emitter
bias
(d) to eliminate the need for an emitter-base battery for establishing forward emitter-base bias
229. (1.1.11.1.2-2) What is the correct name for the device used in an electrical circuit to change
alternating current to direct current?
(a) rectifier
(b) shunt
(c) current transformer
(d) condenser

230. (1.1.11.1.2-15) What type of feedback is featured in the transistor amplifier shown in figure "B" of
the illustration assuming that the phase relationship between input and output is identical to the
transistor amplifier shown in figure "A"? Illustration EL-0045
(a) positive feedback also known as degenerative feedback
(b) positive feedback also known as regenerative feedback
(c) negative feedback also known as regenerative feedback
(d) negative feedback also known as degenerative feedback

231. (1.1.11.1.2-8) Which section of the circuit shown in the illustration smoothes out highest degree of
pulsations? Illustration EL-0085
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

232. (1.1.11.1.2-7) In the regulated DC power supply illustrated, what is the function of section "B"?
Illustration EL-0085
(a) half wave rectification
(b) quarter wave rectification
(c) full wave rectification
(d) short wave rectification

233. (1.1.11.1.2-3) Which of the following statements represents an application of a silicon controlled
rectifier?
(a) Used in photocell sensor circuits for boiler burners.
(b) Provides DC power for a main propulsion motor.
(c) Used as a voltage reference diode.
(d) Used to eliminate AC power supply hum.

234. (1.1.11.1.2-9) What is the function of section "D" of the circuit shown in the illustration? Illustration
EL-0085
(a) a voltage transformer
(b) a rectifier
(c) a voltage regulator
(d) a filter

235. (1.1.11.1.2-11) Which of the referenced waveshapes would appear at test point 5 (TP5) with
respect to ground referring to the circuit shown in the illustration? Illustration EL-0085
(a) E
(b) F
(c) G
(d) H

236. (1.1.11.1.2-4) Capacitors are commonly used on DC power supply circuits for engine room
automation consoles. For what functional purpose are they primarily used in this application?
(a) filter out 'ripple' from rectification
(b) decrease the average value of the output voltage
(c) prevent overloads
(d) act as a permanent load

237. (1.1.11.1.2-13) The component labeled 'CR1' in the circuit shown in the illustration serves what
functional purpose? Illustration EL-0085
(a) it rectifies the varying voltage from the collector of 'Q1'
(b) it varies its anode/cathode polarity depending on 'RL' current
(c) it acts as a low capacitive reactance to smooth ripple
(d) it establishes a constant reference voltage for the base of 'Q1'

238. (1.1.5.2-2) What is the total resistance of figure "B" of the illustrated circuit if the resistance of R1
is 3 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms, and R3 is 5 ohms? Illustration EL-0020
(a) 0.5 ohms
(b) 1.28 ohms
(c) 1.5 ohms
(d) 12 ohms

239. (1.1.2.2-1) What statement is true concerning the total power consumed in a series circuit?
(a) Total power is the sum of the powers consumed by each load (resistor) divided by the number
of loads
(b) Total power is never more than the power consumed by the largest load
(c) Total power is always less than the power consumed by the smallest load
(d) Total power is the sum of the powers consumed by each load

240. (1.1.2.2-3) Which of the following statements is correct for the illustrated circuit in figure "B"?
Illustration EL-0020
(a) 'R1', 'R2', and 'R3' are connected in parallel.
(b) The total resistance equals 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3.
(c) The voltages measured across 'R1', 'R2', and 'R3' are equal.
(d) 'R1', 'R2', and 'R3' are connected in series.

241. (1.1.2.2 -5) What is true concerning all of the connecting conductors of a DC series circuit?
(a) they all have the same power expended in them
(b) they all have the same resistance to current flow
(c) they all have the same voltage drop across them
(d) they all have the same current passing through them

242. (1.1.2.2-4) What happens to the current in a series circuit when the voltage remains constant and
the resistance increases?
(a) increases
(b) increases by the square
(c) decreases
(d) remains the same

243. (1.1.8.1.1-15) The torque produced by a DC motor armature is the multiplication product of two
factors, one being the density of the magnetic flux which is dependent upon the field current. What is
the other multiplication factor?
(a) armature voltage drop
(b) armature current
(c) armature conductance
(d) armature resistance

244. (1.1.8.1.1 -7) In DC motor construction, with regard to the individual armature coils' ends, which
statement is true?
(a) The coil ends are crimped together with brush pigtails.
(b) The coil ends are connected to the commutator bars.
(c) The coil ends are imbedded into core slots.
(d) The coil ends are spliced with the field windings

245. (1.1.8.1.1-3) What is the function of the commutator associated with a DC motor?
(a) shift the neutral running plane of the brushes to prevent sparking
(b) reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path through the motor
(c) reverse the flow of current in the field poles
(d) allow current flow in the armature windings under a given pole to be in the same direction at
all times

246. (1.1.8.1.1-6) In DC motor construction, where are the commutating windings wound?
(a) opposite main poles
(b) interpoles
(c) adjacent main poles
(d) the rotor core

247. (1.1.8.1.1-13) Which of the
polarity of the field poles, and
(a) The direction of rotation of
(b) The motor will not start.
(c) The direction of rotation of
(d) The field pole windings will
following statements describes what will happen when both the
the direction of current to the brushes of a DC motor are reversed?
the armature will remain the same.
the armature will be reversed.
become overheated.

248. (1.1.8.1.1-10) The counter EMF of a DC motor is maximum when the.

(a) armature is not turning
(b) motor is almost up to rated speed
(c) armature has just begun to turn
(d) motor is at rated speed
249. (1.1.8.1.1-14) What will happen if you reverse both the field and the armature connections of a
DC propulsion motor?
(a) the direction of motor rotation will remain the same
(b) the direction of motor rotation will change
(c) the brushes will become overheated
(d) a magnetic lock will occur in the motor

250. (1.1.8.1.1-12) What is an advantage of DC motors over AC motors?

(a) DC motors offer a more effective means of controlling speed than AC motors
(b) DC motors are less expensive than AC motors
(c) DC motors require less maintenance than AC motors
(d) DC motors can be started across the line whereas AC motors cannot

251. (1.1.8.1.1-8) Why are the armature cores of the DC motors constructed with laminated steel
sheets?
(a) eliminate hysteresis
(b) minimize brush sparking
(c) compensate for armature reaction
(d) reduce eddy current losses

252. (1.1.8.1.1-5) What is the characteristic of the mica used in the commutators of DC machinery?
(a) it is the same hardness as the copper
(b) it is softer than copper
(c) it is harder than copper
(d) it is softer than copper but wears away at a slower rate

253. (1.1.8.1.1-16) If overloading an electric motor becomes necessary in an emergency situation,

what should be done to prevent damage to the motor while allowing sustained operation?
(a) hold thermal overload relays open with blocks of wood
(b) increase the residual magnetism value of windings to reduce eddy currents
(c) cool the motor with portable blowers and fans
(d) inject small amounts of CO2 into the windings for cooling

254. (1.1.8.1.1-17) What is the name of the DC motor speed control method utilized as shown in figure
"B" of the illustration? Illustration EL-0101
(a) Burmeister-Wain
(b) Atlas-Copco
(c) Ward-Leonard
(d) Sperry-Rand

255. (1.1.8.1.1-1 1) In terms of voltage potential and current sources, how are shunt wound, series
wound, and compound-wound DC motors designed to operate?
(a) variable potential, constant current DC sources
(b) constant potential, constant current DC sources
(c) variable potential, variable current DC sources
(d) constant potential, variable current DC sources

256. (1.1.8.1.1 -4) As shown in the illustrated DC machine which is configured as a generator, what is
the purpose of the interpoles? Illustration EL-0052
(a) strengthen the main field above and beyond the capability of the main field poles
(b) counteract armature reaction to maintain the brushes in the neutral plane to minimize brush
sparking
(c) provide residual magnetism to facilitate an output by means of self-excitation
(d) statically balance the stator for uniform weight distribution

257. (1.1.8.1.1-2) What is the function of the interpoles installed in DC motors?

(a) To provide greater torque by strengthening the main field.
(b) To limit the production of counter-electromotive force.
(c) To provide sparkless commutation without having to shift the brushes.
(d) To limit the starting surge current.

258. (1.1.8.1.1-1) What is the item referred to as a pigtail on a DC motor brush rigging?
(a) brush holder
(b) uninsulated wire
(c) flexible spring adjuster
(d) feather spring

259. (1.1.10.1.6-2) What statement is true concerning a ground in a 450 VAC electrical circuit outside
the engine room?
(a) It is indicated by the ground detecting lamps on the main switchboard.
(b) It cannot be detected under normal conditions.
(c) It is of no consequence to engineering personnel.
(d) It is indicated at the branch circuit breaker panel.

260. (1.1 .10.1.6-5) Capacitors can be used in electric distribution systems to improve power factor.
This is accomplished by seesawing energy between the capacitor and what device or devices?
(a) capacitive loads
(b) inductive loads
(c) generator
(d) resistive loads

261. (1.1.10.1.6-11) What is meant by a 'dead front' switchboard?

(a) a switchboard with insulated switches and no exposed terminals
(b) a switchboard without safety hand rails nor rubber mats
(c) a switchboard without circuit breakers
(d) a switchboard without switches on it

262. (1.1.10.1.6-4) What is a bus disconnect link used to isolate?

(a) positive and negative buses from the neutral
(b) the generator circuit breaker from the bus
(c) different bus phases from the equalizer connection
(d) one bus bar from the ground detection system

263. (1.1.10.1.6-10) How are
(a) using higher current and
(b) using higher voltage and
(c) adding rubber insulation
(d) increasing the number of
the line losses in a distribution circuit kept to a minimum?
lower voltage
lower current
conductors to the circuit
thermal relays in the circuit

264. (1.1.10.1.6-6) Which of the following represents a characteristic of an ungrounded electrical

distribution system?
(a) Accidental contact between one line and ground does not cause an outage.
(b) Double ground faults on different phases will not cause an outage.
(c) Ground detection systems are unnecessary.
(d) Accidental contact between one line and ground will always cause an outage.

265. (1.1.10.1.6-3) When will the timer element of a reverse power relay activate the relay?
(a) the power flow is the opposite to the tripping direction
(b) the power flow is the same as the tripping direction
(c) the movement of the disk is damped by a permanent magnet
(d) the load difference between generators is more than 10 percent.

266. (1.1.10.1.6-13) In comparison to a main switchboard for a DC electrical distribution system, a

main switchboard for an AC electrical distribution system requires the use of which of the following
devices, whereas a DC main switchboard does not?
(a) Voltage regulator and prime mover governor speed controls
(b) Reverse power or current relays
(c) Frequency meter, power factor or reactive power meters, and synchronizing lamps or
synchroscope
(d) Generator and load center circuit breakers

267. (1.1.10.1.6-7) Ammeters and voltmeters used in sinusoidal AC power systems indicate which of
the following values of the waveforms measured?
(a) Maximum value
(b) Root-mean-square value
(c) Peak value
(d) Average value

268. (1.1.10.1.6-1) What is a purpose of the automatic bus transfer device shown in the illustration?
Illustration EL-0014
(a) Provide power to the 450 VAC emergency bus from the emergency generator in the
emergency mode.
(b) Provide power to the 450 VAC emergency bus from the 450 VAC main bus in the emergency
mode.
(c) Provide power to the 450 VAC main bus from the 450 VAC emergency bus in the emergency
mode.
(d) Provide power to the 450 VAC main bus from the emergency generator in the emergency
mode.
269. (1.1.10.1.6-8) What is a wattmeter used to measure and indicate?
(a) the power being consumed by electrical equipment
(b) partial circuit resistance
(c) voltage existing between two points in a circuit
(d) current flowing in a circuit

270. (1.1.10.1.6-12) What is the name of the part of the shipboard electrical system used to control the
distribution of power to the branch circuits?
(a) disconnect links
(b) bridge control panel
(c) governor relay box
(d) main switchboard

271. (1.1.7.2-3) How may propulsion DC motor brush pressures be calculated?

(a) dividing the spring force by the brush contact area
(b) subtracting the brush contact area from the spring pressure
(c) dividing the brush contact area by the spring pressure
(d) subtracting the spring pressure from the brush contact area

272. (1.1.7.2 -1) Brushes in a DC generator must be positioned in the neutral plane to avoid excessive
sparking associated with the brushes. What device is used to prevent the shifting of the neutral
plane due to armature reaction for varying generator loads?
(a) brushing rigging
(b) field pole windings
(c) armature windings
(d) commutating pole windings

273. (1.1.7.2-2) To effectively clean a commutator in good physical condition, what should be used?
(a) trichloride ethylene
(b) a canvas wiper
(c) kerosene
(d) a commutator stone

274. (1.1.6.3.1-1) What could cause a very slow, but continual loss of electrolyte level from the cells of
a storage battery?
(a) one or more filler caps installed too tightly
(b) the specific gravity being higher than normal
(c) too low a charging rate
(d) evaporation of the water

275. (1.1.4.1.5-1) Concerning the illustrated fire detection and alarm system, what statement is true
concerning the wiring between zones? Illustration EL-0114
(a) The zones are all connected in series by means of the ground locating switches only.
(b) The zones are all connected in series by means of the fire locating switches and the ground
locating switches.
(c) The zones are all connected in parallel by means of the fire locating switches and the ground
locating switches.
(d) The zones are all connected in series by means of the fire locating switches only.

276. (1.1.1.1.5-1) What is the characteristic of a wound-rotor induction motor with maximum rheostat
resistance inserted in the rotor circuit during starting?
(a) relatively high starting torque and high stator current
(b) relatively high starting torque and low stator current
(c) relatively low starting torque and low stator current
(d) relatively low starting torque and high starting current

277. (1.1.1.1.5-4) As shown in the illustrated wound-rotor induction motor, how is the direction of
rotation of the motor reversed? Illustration EL-0148
(a) Any two of the "T1, T2, and T3" leads are reversed only.
(b) Any two of the "M1, M2, and M3" leads are reversed only.
(c) Any two of the "T1, T2, and T3" leads are reversed and any of the two "M1, M2, and M3"
leads must be reversed as well.
(d) It is not possible to change the direction of rotation of a wound-rotor induction motor.

278. (1.1.1.1.5-3) What is the characteristic of a wound-rotor induction motor, with a high resistance
inserted in series with the rotor winding at startup?
(a) relatively low starting torque and low stator current
(b) relatively high starting torque and low stator current
(c) relatively high starting torque and high stator current
(d) relatively low starting torque and high stator current

279. (1.1.1.1.5-2) For what purpose is the variable resistance placed in the rotor circuit of a wound-
rotor induction motor provided?
(a) frequency control
(b) voltage control
(c) torque control
(d) speed control

280. (1.1.10.1.4-2) Which of the following materials is a good electrical insulator?

(a) copper
(b) silver
(c) wood
(d) gold

281. (1.1.10.1.4-1) How is electrical conductor insulation classed? Example: insulation class H
(a) conductor ampacity
(b) conductor current carrying capacity
(c) voltage rating of the insulation
(d) limiting internal hot spot temperature

282. (1.1.11.1.1-5) Which of the waveshapes shown in the illustration is termed a ramp or sawtooth
wave? Illustration EL-0088
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E

283. (1.1.11.1.1-3) To minimize magnetic field interaction between electrical conductors in physical
proximity, what is the best practice?
(a) at right angles and as far as practicable from each other
(b) parallel and as close as possible to each other
(c) at right angles and as close as possible to each other
(d) parallel to and as far as practicable from each other

284. (1.1.11.1.1-4) The multiplier prefix 'giga' (G) such as used in "gigabytes" represents what
multiplication factor?
(a) thousand (10 to the 3rd power)
(b) million (10 to the 6th power)
(c) billion (10 to the 9th power)
(d) trillion (10 to the 12th power)

285. (1.1.11.1.1-2) In electronic circuitry, what does the abbreviation 'PCB' commonly represent?
(a) pulse coded binary
(b) personal computer bits
(c) poly-coated braid
(d) printed circuit board

286. (1.1.11.1.1-6) Which line in figure "B" shown in the illustration represents the trailing edge of the
wave? Illustration EL-0088
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

287. (1.1.1.3.3-2) When troubleshooting AC motors, what can a portable growler be used to locate?
(a) open field coils
(b) grounded field coils
(c) shorted stator coils
(d) grounded stator coils

288. (1.1.1.3.3-3) When testing the rotor of a synchronous motor for short circuits, a low voltage
source is applied across the rotor coils through the collector rings. What would be the indication of a
short-circuited coil?
(a) high voltage drop reading, while the other coil readings will have an equal or lower value
(b) low or zero voltage drop reading, while the other coils will have higher readings
(c) steady voltmeter reading, while the other coil readings are fluctuating
(d) fluctuating voltmeter reading, while the other coil readings are steady
289. (1.1.1.3.3-1) In using a portable growler for the purpose of locating a shorted stator coil in an AC
motor as shown in the illustration, what statement is true as the feeler is moved from slot to slot
around the stator? Illustration EL-0200
(a) The feeler will vibrate in synchronism with the 60 Hz AC power source and produce a growling
noise when the feeler is moved over a slot which does NOT contain a shorted coil.
(b) The feeler will vibrate in synchronism with the 60 Hz AC power source and produce a growling
noise when the feeler is moved over a slot containing an open coil.
(c) The feeler will remain motionless with NO vibration or noise when the feeler is moved over a
slot containing a shorted coil.
(d) The feeler will vibrate in synchronism with the 60 Hz AC power source and produce a growling
noise when the feeler is moved over a slot containing a shorted coil.

290. (1.1 .12.2-2) What is an ammeter used to measure?

(a) total or partial circuit resistance
(b) circuit continuity
(c) the voltage between two points in a circuit
(d) current flow in a circuit

291. (1.1.12.2-4) In order to take a current reading with a 'clamp-on' ammeter, what should be the
status of the jaws of the instrument?
(a) must be fully closed so as to complete the magnetic circuit
(b) must be held so as to not touch an adjacent conductor
(c) should remain open while conducting measurements
(d) must be clamped around all of the conductors of a cable

292. (1.1.12.2-3) The clamp-on AC ammeter consists essentially of a split-core and a rectifier-type
instrument connected to the secondary winding of a particular type of transformer. Which type is
used?
(a) control transformer
(b) reactance transformer
(c) potential transformer
(d) current transformer

293. (1.1.10.2.7-1) What should be included in the performance of routine maintenance of dry-type
transformers?
(a) measuring and recording the winding temperature with an accurate mercury thermometer
(b) making sure that the units are close to bulkheads or corners to protect them from damage
(c) periodic cleaning of the winding insulation with an approved solvent
(d) cleaning the windings, if accessible, with a vacuum cleaner or very low-pressure air

294. (1.1.10.2.7-2) When replacing a defective transformer in a paralleled transformer configuration,

which of the following actions must be carried out to insure proper operation of the equipment it
serves?
(a) The iron core of the transformer must be flashed to pre-magnetize it.
(b) The transformer connections must be made as before with regard to the indicated polarity.
(c) The secondary leads must be grounded for 10 minutes to remove static charges.
(d) The iron core must be grounded for 10 minutes to remove any residual magnetism.

295. (1.1.7.3-1) What can cause uneven wear of the commutator surface on a direct current
generator?
(a) excessive operation at light load
(b) incorrect brush staggering
(c) rapid change in load
(d) unequal pole spacing

296. (1.1.7.3-3) What may cause brush sparking in a DC generator during commutation?
(a) eddy currents in the armature core
(b) excessive brush pressure
(c) misalignment of the brush rigging
(d) hysteresis in the armature core

297. (1.1.7.3-2) Hysteresis is one cause of electrical power loss associated with electricity generation
equipment. What phenomenon results in hysteresis?
(a) heat generated by magnetic polarity reversals
(b) arcing at the brushes
(c) excessive field current
(d) pulsating terminal current
298. (1.1.13.2.1-3) Moisture damage, as a result of condensation occurring inside of the cargo winch
master switches, can be reduced by the use of what installed equipment?
(a) using strip heaters inside the switch box
(b) installing a light bulb in the pedestal stand
(c) venting the switch box regularly
(d) coating the switch box internals with epoxy sealer

299. (1.1.13.2.1-2) Which of the following represents the accepted method of cleaning dust and foreign
particles from electrical equipment while limiting damage to electric components?
(a) Using a vacuum cleaner to remove debris from the components.
(b) Carefully using a soft copper bristle brush.
(c) Blowing a high velocity stream of compressed air rapidly across the components.
(d) Using carbon tetrachloride as a cleaning solvent to clean the components.

300. (1.1.13.2.1-4) What damage may occur to the components of a winch master control switch, if the
cover gasket becomes deteriorated?
(a) Sparking at the winch motor brushes.
(b) Contamination of lube oil.
(c) Overheating of the winch motor.
(d) Rapid corrosion of switch components.

301. (1.1.13.2.1-1) Before working on an electric cargo winch master switch or controller, what should
be done?
(a) open the circuit breaker in the power supply and tag-out
(b) heat the switch box to remove any moisture
(c) spray the gasket surface with a solvent
(d) drain condensate from the box

302. (1.1.13.1.2-16) In the illustration shown, what type of protection is provided to the potable pump
drive motor? Illustration EL-0043
(a) magnetic overload protection and low voltage protection
(b) thermal overload protection and low voltage protection
(c) magnetic overload protection and low voltage release
(d) thermal overload protection and low voltage release

303. (1.1.13.1.2-49) Low horsepower, polyphase, induction motors can be started with full voltage by
means of which kind of starter?
(a) across-the-line starters
(b) primary-resistor starters
(c) compensator starters
(d) autotransformer starters

304. (1.1 .13.1.2-34) As shown in the illustration, which of the following conditions will occur as a result
of a momentary loss of power? Illustration EL-0017
(a) the "off-run" selector switch will re-open, necessitating a manual restarting of the motor.
(b) The normally closed OL relay contacts will open requiring a manual reset, necessitating a
manual restarting of the motor.
(c) The motor will automatically restart when power is restored.
(d) The disconnect switch (DS) will re-open, necessitating a manual restarting of the motor.

305. (1.1.13.1.2-47) In the illustration shown, what would be the functional name for the coil
represented as '1S'? Illustration EL-0012
(a) neutral contactor coil (for autotransformer wye connection)
(b) 0% contactor coil
(c) 1st speed contactor coil
(d) start contactor coil (for autotransformer connection to line)

306. (1.1 .13.1.2-36) If the line voltage to the controller shown in the illustration is 440 volts, what is
applied across the control circuit assuming the control transformer has a 4:1 turns ratio? Illustration
EL-0080
(a) 110 volts
(b) 220 volts
(c) 440 volts
(d) 660 volts

307. (1.1.13.1.2-23) As shown in the illustration, if the line voltage is 450 VAC, what would be the
applied voltage to the motor at the instant of startup and through the acceleration period? Illustration
EL-0012
(a) 225 VAC
(b) 292 VAC
(c) 360 VAC
(d) 450 VAC

308. (1.1.13.1.2-19) A three-phase, induction-type motor experiences an open in one phase. Which of
the listed automatic protective devices will prevent the motor from being damaged?
(a) Overspeed trip
(b) Thermal overload relay
(c) Three-pole safety switch
(d) Magnetic blowout coil

309. (1.1.13.1.2-31) What type of starter is represented in the electrical schematic shown in the
illustration? Illustration EL-0017
(a) part-winding starter
(b) autotransformer starter
(c) primary-resistor starter
(d) across-the-line starter

310. (1.1.13.1.2-10) As shown in the illustration of the elementary diagram of a three speed anchor
windlass controller, which of the following contactor, relay, or timer coils operates with DC voltage?
Illustration EL-0073
(a) first speed (1M) contactor
(b) low voltage (LV) relay
(c) time delay relay 2T
(d) hoist (H) contactor

311. (1.1.13.1.2-50) How is the reversal of an AC, three-phase, induction motor accomplished?
(a) interchanging any two of the three line leads
(b) interchanging any two brushes
(c) reversing the position of the slip rings
(d) changing all three motor leads

312. (1.1.13.1.2-21) When a motor is started by the controller shown in figure "C" of the illustration,
what circuit components are in the holding current flow path through the control circuit while the
motor is in operation? Illustration EL-0010
(a) the stop button contacts, the "B2" contacts, the "M" contacts, the "M" coil and the "OL"
contacts
(b) the stop button contacts, the "A2" contacts, the "M" coil and the "OL" contacts
(c) the stop button contacts, the "A1" contacts, the "M" coil and the "OL" contacts
(d) the stop button contacts, the "B1" contacts, the "M" contacts, the "M" coil and the "OL"
contacts

313. (1.1.13.1.2-1) Which of the following statements is true concerning the motor controller circuit
shown in the illustration? Illustration EL-0004
(a) The controller is configured for reduced voltage starting.
(b) The controller is configured for use with a three phase reversible squirrel-cage induction
motor.
(c) The controller is configured for use with a three phase non-reversible squirrel-cage induction
motor.
(d) The controller is configured for low voltage release.

314. (1.1.13.1.2 -12) As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the main contacts of contactor
"2S"? Illustration EL-0012
(a) The "1S" contactor connects the autotransformer in delta configuration during the
starting/acceleration period.
(b) The "2S" contactor connects the autotransformer in wye configuration during the
starting/acceleration period.
(c) The "2S" contactor connects the autotransformer to the line during the starting/acceleration
period.
(d) The "2S" contactor connects the autotransformer to the line during the run period.

315. (1.1.13.1.2-43) As shown in the illustration, what type of starter is illustrated? Illustration EL-0104
(a) reduced voltage primary resistance starter
(b) across-the-line starter
(c) reduced voltage autotransformer starter
(d) reduced voltage secondary resistance starter

316. (1.1.13.1.2-35) What is the primary functional purpose of the KM1 contactor as shown in the
illustration? Illustration EL-0080
(a) connects the motor across line while in the start mode
(b) connects the autotransformer in "wye" configuration while in the start mode
(c) connects the motor to the autotransformer while in the start mode
(d) connects the motor across line wile in the run mode

317. (1.1.13.1.2-46) As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, which of the operations listed will happen
when the 'jog button' is pushed? Illustration EL-0010
(a) Coil 'CR' energizes thus closing both 'CR' contacts.
(b) Coil 'CR' energizes thus opening both 'CR' contacts.
(c) Coil "M" energizes thus closing contact "M".
(d) Coil "M" energizes thus opening contact "M".

318. (1.1.13.1.2-29) In the illustrated motor controller, what do the contacts across terminals "3" and
"4" of the control circuit represent? Illustration EL-0017
(a) thermal overload heater
(b) normally closed overload relay contact
(c) magnetic overload coil
(d) normally open overload relay contact

319. (1.1.13.1.2-22) Referring to figure "B" of the illustrated control circuit schematic diagram, which of
the following statements is true when the motor is running in the forward direction? Illustration EL-0011
(a) The normally open (NO) "F" contacts are closed.
(b) The normally closed (NC) "F" contacts are closed.
(c) The normally closed (NC) "R" contacts are open.
(d) The normally open (NO) "R" contacts are closed.

320. (1.1.13.1.2-48) As shown in the illustration, assuming power is available at the control circuit,
which listed action will occur FIRST when the "off-run" switch is placed in the "run" position?
Illustration EL-0017
(a) The disconnect switch (DS) contacts close.
(b) The "OL" relay contacts close.
(c) The contactor coil "M" energizes.
(d) The main contacts (3) "M" close, connecting the motor to line.

321. (1.1.13.1.2-45) What type of control circuit logic is featured in the electrical schematic diagram for
the motor starting circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustration? Illustration EL-0007
(a) reduced voltage starting
(b) low voltage release
(c) resistance starting
(d) low voltage protection

322. (1.1.4.3.4-1) In the system shown in the illustration, the engine room station is unable to signal
any other station, nor is any other station able to signal the engine room station. The engine room
station can, however, ring itself by proper positioning of its selector switch. What is the most
probable cause of this problem? Illustration EL-0093
(a) The coil of component "C" of the problem station is open-circuited.
(b) The selector switch is grounded at the problem station diverting current from the other
stations' ringing devices.
(c) The switch at component "A" of the problem station is stuck open.
(d) There is an open between terminal "C" of the problem station and the common wire of the
multi-conductor cable to the other stations.

323. (1.1.12.1-3) Why are external shunts sometimes used with ammeters?
(a) to reduce reactive power factor error
(b) to prevent damage to the meter movement from heat generated by the internal shunt
(c) to increase meter sensitivity
(d) to permit shunts with larger resistances to be utilized

324. (1.1.12.1-5) What is the instrument called a galvanometer used to measure?

(a) thickness of galvanized metal
(b) resistance of electrical wiring insulation
(c) quantity of galvans in an electric circuit
(d) very small amounts of current

325. (1.1.12.1-4) When a resistor is used as a shunt and is connected in parallel with a meter
movement coil, what capability does this provide?
(a) an extended meter range
(b) a measurement of circuit resistance
(c) an increased accuracy of approximately 1.5 percent
(d) this is never done
326. (1.1.12.1-7) To limit the current flow through a DC voltmeter to as low a value as possible, what is
the moving coil circuit provided with?
(a) high series resistance
(b) high parallel resistance
(c) series inductor
(d) external shunt

327. (1.1.12.1-2) Which of the listed meters uses a shunt connected in series with the load, but parallel
with the meter movement?
(a) Ammeter
(b) Power factor meter
(c) Voltmeter
(d) Wattmeter

328. (1.1.12.1-6) Which of the following would best describe a standard electric meter movement that
uses the principles of electromagnetism to measure current?
(a) moving coil meter movement
(b) digital movement
(c) hot-wire movement
(d) rectifier movement

329. (1.1.12.1-1) An internal resistance is placed in series with the meter movement of which of the
following instruments?
(a) DC voltmeter
(b) AC ammeter
(c) AC frequency meter
(d) DC ammeter

330. (1.1.9-4) Which of the electronic schematic symbols represents the capacitor illustrated in figure 2
of the illustration? Illustration EL-0015
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

331. (1.1.9-11) Which of the illustrated schematic symbols represents the type of switch pictured in
figure "F" of the illustration? Illustration EL-0026
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6

332. (1.1.9-8) What is the shape of the schematic symbol for an operational amplifier used in an
analog circuit?
(a) triangle
(b) circle
(c) square
(d) trapezoid

333. (1.1.9-1) Which figure represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "2"? Illustration EL-0034
(a) figure "A"
(b) figure "B"
(c) figure "C"
(d) figure "D"

334. (1.1.9-7) Which of the illustrated resistors represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "C"?
Illustration EL-0021
(a) figure "4"
(b) figure "6"
(c) figure "7"
(d) figure "10"

335. (1.1.9-12) Which electrical schematic symbol represents a normally open thermostat? Illustration
EL-0059
(a) 2
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
336. (1.1.9-2) As shown in figure "6" of the illustration, what does the symbol represent as used in
electrical drawings? Illustration EL-0026
(a) maintaining type push button with an electrical interlock
(b) normally closed contact held open mechanically by an interlock
(c) limit switch with one set of normally open contacts
(d) maintaining type push button with a mechanical interlock

337. (1.1.9-5) The electrical diagram shown in figure “B” of the illustration represents what type of DC
motor? Illustration EL-0054
(a) shunt-wound DC motor
(b) permanent magnet DC motor
(c) compound-wound DC motor
(d) series-wound DC motor

338. (1.1.9-9) What is statement is true in reference to reading electrical motor controller elementary
diagrams?
(a) circuits subject to 500 volts or greater are drawn as light lines and below 500 volts as heavy
lines
(b) current paths in the power circuit are drawn as heavy lines and in control circuit as lighter lines
(c) current paths in the control circuit are drawn as heavy lines and in the power circuit as lighter
lines
(d) circuits subject to 500 volts or greater are drawn as heavy lines and below 500 volts as lighter
lines

339. (1.1.9-3) What does the symbol labeled "OL" represent as shown in the power circuit on lines T1
and T3 to the motor as shown in figure "A" of the illustration? Illustration EL-0011
(a) non-renewable fusible link
(b) overload relay normally closed contacts
(c) overload relay thermal heater
(d) overload relay magnetic coil

340. (1.1.9-10) What type of electrical diagram is shown in figure "B" of the illustration? Illustration EL-0007
(a) wiring diagram
(b) schematic diagram
(c) logic diagram
(d) one-line diagram

341. (1.1.9-6) Which of the listed figures in the illustration represents a transformer configured for
single voltage primary and a tapped secondary? Illustration EL-0055
(a) A
(b) E
(c) F
(d) D

342. (1.1.6.3.3-2) When troubleshooting an alkaline storage battery, what is the best way to locate a
weak or dead cell?
(a) visually inspecting each cell's electrolyte level
(b) measuring the electrolyte temperature with an accurate mercury thermometer
(c) load testing each cell with a voltmeter
(d) checking the specific gravity of each cell

343. (1.1.6.3.3-1) In terms of the battery electrolyte, when performing maintenance of alkaline batteries
what should be done?
(a) checking the electrolyte weekly using a hydrometer
(b) replacing the electrolyte every 5 years
(c) wearing protective gloves and goggles when handling electrolyte
(d) replacement of the electrolyte when the volts per cell drops below 1.8 VDC

344. (1.1 .12.4-1) If the pointer fails to return to zero when a hand-cranked megger is disconnected,
what does this indicate?
(a) hair springs are burned out
(b) megger is out of calibration
(c) megger is operating normally
(d) pointer is stuck

345. (1.1.11.2-5) Two contributors of electronic console failures are heat and vibration. To combat
some of their effects, what should be included in performing preventive maintenance procedures?
(a) daily inspection of console foundation bolts
(b) unplugging of all circuit cards and reseating on a daily basis
(c) periodic changing or cleaning of console ventilation and control room air conditioning filters
(d) systematic rotation of circuit cards with those from spares to allow component cooling
346. (1.1.11.2-1) Which of the following statements represents the important factor that must be
considered when replacing a faulty diode in a generators excitation field rectifier assembly?
(a) Be certain that the replacement diode is installed with the same polarity as the one removed.
(b) The replacement diode must be dipped in varnish prior to installation to protect against
humidity.
(c) Never alter the diode alignment to cause a change in the neutral plane.
(d) Replacement of a diode also requires balancing of the rotor with a one-piece rotor lamination
to be shrunk fit and keyed to the shaft.

347. (1.1.11.2-4) If a delicate component must be soldered into a circuit, how can the component be
protected from the heat of the soldering process?
(a) pre-oxidizing the leads to be soldered
(b) coating the leads to be soldered with a light oil film
(c) operating the soldering gun not more than 60 seconds at a time
(d) using a thermal shunt heat sink

348. (1.1.11.2-3) Which type of flux should be used when soldering electrical wire connections for
electronic components on printed circuit boards?
(a) Solid flux
(b) Silver flux
(c) Rosin flux
(d) Acid flux

349. (1.1.11.2-2) Before touching a small capacitor connected to a de-energized circuit, or even one
that is completely disconnected, you should do what FIRST?
(a) gently tap the body with a screwdriver
(b) short circuit the terminals to make sure that the capacitor is discharged
(c) tag it with a de-energized tag
(d) be equipped with an insulated fuse puller

350. (1.1.5.5-5) An AC generator produces 60 Hz at 1800 RPM. If the generator speed is increased to
1830 RPM, what will happen to the frequency in Hz?
(a) decrease to 59 Hz
(b) remain at 60 Hz
(c) increase to 61 Hz
(d) increase to 63 Hz

351. (1.1.5.5-2) What is the rotor speed of a six pole, 60 cycle, induction motor operating at full load
with 3% slip?
(a) 1164 RPM
(b) 1746 RPM
(c) 1800 RPM
(d) 3492 RPM

352. (1.1.5.5-3) A four pole turbo-generator is used in conjunction with a 160 pole propulsion motor. If
the generator is turning at 3,200 RPM, what is the current speed of the propeller?
(a) 40 RPM
(b) 60 RPM
(c) 80 RPM
(d) 100 RPM

353. (1.1.5.5-1) In a 60 Hz AC system, what is the duration in seconds for one complete cycle?
(a) 60 seconds
(b) 6 seconds
(c) 1 second
(d) 0.016 of a second

354. (1.1.5.3-1) As shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the applied voltage is 12 VDC, the
resistance of R1 is 10 ohms, and R2 is 10 ohms what is the current flowing through R1 when the
switch is closed? Illustration EL-0020
(a) 0.6 amp
(b) 0.833 amp
(c) 1.2 amps
(d) 2.4 amps

355. (1.1.5.3-6) What would be the voltage drop across the parallel branches of the circuit shown in
figure "B" of the illustration if the source voltage is 30 volts, the resistance for R1 is 10 ohms, the
resistance for R2 is 10 ohms and the resistance for R3 is 10 ohms? Illustration EL-0032
(a) 5 volts
(b) 10 volts
(c) 20 volts
(d) 30 volts

356. (1.1.5.3-4) A battery is connected to a circuit containing three resistors in parallel. The values of
the three resistors are 2 ohms, 3 ohms, and 6 ohms. What is the voltage of the battery if the total
circuit current is 12 amps?
(a) 2 volts
(b) 6 volts
(c) 12 volts
(d) 24 volts

357. (1.1.5.3-5) In the illustration, 1,2, 3 and 4 are 12 volt batteries. What will be the nominal voltage
as read by a voltmeter across the output of the battery bank? Illustration EL-0107
(a) 6 volts
(b) 12 volts
(c) 24 volts
(d) 48 volts

358. (1.1.5.3-3) What is the voltage across 'R1' of figure "B" of the illustrated circuit with the switch
closed if the applied voltage is 24 volts and resistance of R1 is 3 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms, and R3 is 5
ohms, respectively? Illustration EL-0020
(a) 2 volts
(b) 6 volts
(c) 8 volts
(d) 10 volts

359. (1.1.5.3-8) If the supply voltage is 220 volts 60 Hz, what is the operating voltage of the motor
controller control circuit illustrated in figure “A” of the illustration? Illustration EL-0011
(a) 110 volts DC
(b) 110 volts AC
(c) 220 volts DC
(d) 220 volts AC

360. (1.1.11.1.3-12) A triac thyristor functions as a control device and can be thought of to function
similarly as which of the following circuits?
(a) a diode in series with a temperature sensitive capacitor
(b) a triode tube with an extra heavy grid element
(c) a bidirectional SCR with a common gate
(d) two NPN transistors in parallel with a common base lead

361. (1.1.11.1.3-11) What is the name of the component labeled Q1 as shown in section "D" of the
regulated DC power supply illustrated? Illustration EL-0085
(a) triac
(b) NPN bipolar junction transistor
(c) PNP bipolar junction transistor
(d) silicon controlled rectifier

362. (1.1.11.1.3-4) When a solid-state component of an electronic circuit is mounted to a metallic

mass, what is the general purpose of that mass?
(a) prevent mechanical damage to solid-state components
(b) dissipate stray magnetic currents
(c) prevent vibration damage to delicate components
(d) act as a heat sink

363. (1.1.11.1.3-5) As shown in the illustrated electronic overload relay circuit, what is the functional
purpose of potentiometer "R2"? Illustration EL-0091
(a) it is used to set the inverse-time function setting of the overload relay
(b) it is used to set the overcurrent trip setting of the overload relay
(c) it is used to protect the rectifier from thermal damage
(d) it is used to set the instantaneous trip setting of the overload relay

364. (1.1.11.1.3-9) Which of the pictured solid-state semiconductor devices in the illustration is a
rectifier bridge? Illustration EL-0068
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
365. (1.1.11.1.3-7) Basically, a magnetic amplifier is a saturable-core reactor with the addition of what
additional feature?
(a) a rectifier in the load circuit
(b) AC to the bias winding
(c) eddy current protectors
(d) variable capacitance to all windings

366. (1.1.11.1.3-1) What will happen to a carbon resistor operating in electrical equipment that is NOT
properly cooled?
(a) it will change its value inversely proportional to the amount of heat generated and time in
service
(b) its reliability factor will increase
(c) it will always operate at the same ohmic value
(d) its reliability factor will decrease

367. (1.1.11.1.3-8) What is the name of the semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an
increase in temperature?
(a) resistor
(b) thermistor
(c) thermopile
(d) diode

368. (1.1.11.1.3-10) The characteristics of the device shown in figure "8" of the illustration includes a
stable voltage and low current while operating. Because of this, it can be suitably used in what type
of circuit? Illustration EL-0065
(a) switching and timing circuits
(b) class A and B amplifiers
(c) DC power supplies
(d) SCR power circuits

369. (1.1.11.1.3-6) Although saturable reactors are extremely useful in some applications, why is their
gain low?
(a) core hysteresis losses
(b) inductive reactance in the control winding
(c) IR drop throughout the load winding
(d) eddy current losses

370. (1.1.13.2.2-3) Grease coatings on electrical contact surfaces increase contact resistance. How
should grease accumulations be removed?
(a) 10% solution carbon tetrachloride solvent and water
(b) small wire brush
(c) clean dry cloth
(d) compressed air jet

371. (1.1.13.2.2-4) Which of the following statements is true concerning the cleaning of electrical
contacts?
(a) Compressed air should be used to blow out metallic dust.
(b) The contact surfaces should be greased to increase contact resistance.
(c) Delicate parts should be cleaned with a brush and an approved safety solvent.
(d) Magnetic brushes should be used to remove metallic dust.

372. (1.1.13.2.2-1) The setpoint current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends to trip may be
increased by turning the dashpot in the 'lower' direction. What effect will this action have?
(a) increases magnetic force on the plunger and requires more current to trip the relay
(b) reduces magnetic force on the plunger and requires more current to trip the relay
(c) increases magnetic force on the plunger and requires less current to trip the relay
(d) reduces magnetic force on the plunger and requires less current to trip the relay

373. (1.1.13.2.2-2) Which of the following methods should be used to dress the face of silver-plated
contacts?
(a) Burnishing with a burnishing tool
(b) Filing with a mill file
(c) Sanding with 0000 sandpaper
(d) Knurling with a knurling tool

374. (1.1.13.2.2-6) Using the catalog selection chart shown in Illustration EL-0180, determine the
correct catalog number for a motor starter that meets the selection criteria detailed as follows:
NEMA Open enclosure
3-pole Rated at 90 continuous amperes
Vertically mounted Electronic overload relay-standard feature set
Non-reversing starter Operating coil rated at 120 VAC/60 Hz
(a) AE19GNVB5G100
(b) AN19AN0A5E005
(c) AN19KNVA5E100
(d) AN59GNVT5G100

375. When performing routine AC motor maintenance what should be included?

(a) temperature readings at normal loads to detect abnormal temperature rises
(b) inspection of the motor's internals for loose rotor bars or field poles
(c) rotor balance check
(d) verifying RPM if a synchronous motor

376. (1.1.4.1.4-4) Where is the power necessary to energize the howler "relay" coil at the engine room
station as shown in the illustration? Illustration EL-0093
(a) comes from each station's hand-cranked generator
(b) is supplied from a battery or ship's power
(c) comes from pushing a button on the handset
(d) is conducted through the relay's contacts

377. (1.1.4.1.4-2) As shown in the illustration, which of the following statements is correct concerning
the circuits in a sound-powered telephone system? Illustration EL-0093
(a) Both the talking and ringing circuits are common circuits.
(b) The talking circuit is a selective circuit and the ringing circuit is a common circuit.
(c) Both the talking and ringing circuits are selective circuits.
(d) The talking circuit is a common circuit and the ringing circuit is a selective circuit.

378. (1.1.4.1.4-3) The push button on the handset of a ship's sound-powered telephone must be
depressed in order to do what?
(a) talk then released to listen
(b) ring the station being called
(c) listen then released to talk
(d) both talk and listen

379. (1.1.4.1.4-1) What does the component labeled "B" shown in the illustration represent? Illustration
EL-0093
(a) shielded lamp
(b) bridge rectifier
(c) hand-cranked generator
(d) selsyn motor

380. (1.1.1.1.3-3) Which statement is true concerning a split-phase induction motor?

(a) Motor speed can be readily adjusted from zero to full speed.
(b) Motor rotation can be reversed by reversing the leads on the starting winding.
(c) The motor will run as a generator with the proper wiring.
(d) Motor rotation can be reversed without changing the windings or leads.

381. (1.1.1.1.3-5) What type of rotor is used in the split-phase family of single-phase motors?
(a) Salient pole
(b) Drum
(c) Wound-rotor
(d) Squirrel-cage

382. (1.1.1.1.3-1) Universal motors will operate on AC or DC current. In what application is this type of
motor generally?
(a) forced draft fans
(b) large pump motors
(c) portable tools
(d) turbo-electric main motors

383. (1.1.1.1.3-4) What is the main purpose of the auxiliary winding on a split-phase, single-phase
motor?
(a) keep the motor running in the event the main winding should fail
(b) provide starting torque
(c) increase the starting current
(d) limit the starting voltage

384. (1.1.1.1.3-7) What is the main function in the use of a capacitor for starting a single-phase motor?
(a) Reduce radio interference
(b) Prolong the life of the starting contacts
(c) Split the phase to create greater starting torque
(d) Reduce the phase angle

385. (1.1.1.1.3-9) Within the split phase family of single phase motors, what are the operational
characteristics of the motor shown in figure "B" of the illustration? Illustration EL-0207
(a) Relatively low starting torque and relatively high running efficiency
(b) Relatively low starting torque and relatively low running efficiency
(c) Relatively high starting torque and relatively low running efficiency
(d) Relatively high starting torque and relatively high running efficiency

386. (1.1.1.1.3-10) As shown in figures "A", "B", "C", and "D" of the illustration, what is the usual
means by which the rotation direction of the motor is reversed? Illustration EL-0207
(a) Interchanging leads T4 and T8
(b) Interchanging leads L1 and L2
(c) Interchanging leads T5 and T8
(d) Interchanging leads T1 and T5

387. (1.1.1.1.3-2) Of the following listed single-phase induction motors, which has the highest starting
torque?
(a) shaded pole motor
(b) capacitor start induction run motor
(c) permanent split capacitor motor
(d) resistive start induction run motor

388. (1.1.1.1.3-8) Which of the pictured motors within the split phase family of single phase induction
motors represents a capacitor start, induction run motor? Illustration EL-0146
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

389. (1.1.10.3.7-3) If the illustrated device in figure "B" has a step-up ratio of 10 to 1 what voltage
would be measured at the secondary shortly after the primary of the device is connected to 110 volts
DC with a current of 12 amps? Illustration EL-0055
(a) 0 volts
(b) 110 volts
(c) 1000 volts
(d) 1100 volts

390. (1.1.10.3.7-1) An open primary coil in a simple potential transformer will be indicated by which of
the listed conditions?
(a) Low resistance value on the primary coil.
(b) An infinite resistance value on the secondary coil.
(c) Overloaded secondary coil.
(d) No voltage on the output of the secondary coil.

391. (1.1.10.3.7-2) What would be the source current and transformer current as shown in figure "B" of
the illustration, with the secondary tap connected as shown, if the supply voltage at the branch circuit
breaker is 440 VAC and the unity power factor load current draw is 50 amps? Illustration EL-0083
(a) Source current is 12.5 amps, transformer current is 37.5 amps.
(b) Source current is 12.5 amps, transformer current is 62.5 amps.
(c) Source current is 37.5 amps, transformer current is 12.5 amps.
(d) Source current is 37.5 amps, transformer current is 92.5 amps.

392. (1.1.1.1.2-6) The torque-speed and current-speed curves for a three-phase induction motor with a
squirrel cage rotor are shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration. Which of the following
statements is true concerning the depicted curves? Illustration EL-0056
(a) The starting current is nearly 1.5 times the normal full load current value.
(b) Starting current is approximately 4.75 times the normal full load current value.
(c) The pull-up point on the torque curve is about 20% of the normal full load torque value.
(d) Rated torque and rated current occur at approximately 20% slip.

393. (1.1.1.1.2-3) In general, what type of starter would be used to connect polyphase induction
motors to full line voltage at the instant of start-up?
(a) autotransformer starters
(b) across-the-line starters
(c) compensator starters
(d) primary-resistor starters
394. (1.1.1.1.2-4) Autotransformer starters, sometimes called starting compensators, are sometimes
used with larger polyphase induction motors. What function do they perform?
(a) they allow the voltage to be either stepped up or down, depending on the application, to
ensure full torque
(b) they provide a backup means of voltage regulation for emergency starting
(c) they increase the voltage for 'across-the-line starting'
(d) they reduce the voltage applied to the motor during the starting period

395. (1.1.1.1.2-8) According to the sample sheet of a typical "List of Motors and Controls" as shown in
the illustration, which of the following motor applications features a means of keeping the motor
windings warm and dry when the motor is idle? Illustration EL-0204
(a) Main engine sea water cooling pump
(b) Main fuel oil transfer pump
(c) Main engine piston cooling water pump
(d) Amidships mooring winch

396. (1.1.4.1.3-4) The progressive operation of the contactors marked "1A" through "4A" provide the
winch hoist controller shown in the illustration with what functionality? Illustration EL-0102
(a) accumulation
(b) regenerative braking
(c) dynamic braking
(d) acceleration

397. (1.1.4.1.3-7) In the event of a power failure during cargo loading operations, the movement of an
electric powered cargo winch will be stopped by what means?
(a) a hand operated band brake
(b) a manual override switch
(c) the weight of the load on the boom
(d) a spring set brake

398. (1.1.4.1.3-3) As shown in the illustration, what is the functional purpose of the normally closed
and normally open auxiliary contacts of the hoist and lower contactors respectively? Illustration EL-0102
(a) the normally closed hoist and lower contactor auxiliary contacts are interlock contacts
preventing simultaneous pulling in both the hoist and lower contactors and the normally open
contacts extend control power to the speed control circuits
(b) the normally closed and normally open hoist and lower contactor auxiliary contacts are
interlock contacts preventing simultaneous pulling in both the hoist and lower contactors
(c) the normally open hoist and lower contactor auxiliary contacts are interlock contacts
preventing simultaneous pulling in both the hoist and lower contactors and the normally closed
auxiliary contacts extend control power to the speed control circuits
(d) the normally closed and normally open hoist and lower contactor auxiliary contacts extend
control power to the speed control circuits

399. (1.1.4.1.3-6) What is the function of the electric brake on a deck cargo winch?
(a) automatically govern the hoisting speed of the load
(b) automatically govern the lowering speed of the load
(c) automatically engage when the winch motor current is reaching full load
(d) automatically hold the load if power to the winch motor is disconnected

400. (1.1.4.1.3-1) What functionality do the 'MS 1' contacts of the master switch shown in the
illustration provide? Illustration EL-0102
(a) low voltage protection
(b) high power factor correction
(c) overload protection
(d) low voltage release

401. (1.1.4.1.3-5) Which of the listed conditions occur when '4th point lower' is selected on the winch
hoist controller shown in the illustration? Illustration EL-0102
(a) Contactors 'H', '1A', '2A', and ‘3A' drop out.
(b) Contactors 'L', '1A', '2A' and '3A' pull in.
(c) Master switch contacts ‘3’, ‘4’, ‘5’, ‘6’, and ‘7’ close.
(d) Master switch contacts ‘3’, ‘5’, ‘6’, ‘7’, and ‘8’ close.

402. (1.1.4.1.3 -8) When the control handle is in the 'off position, what is the status of the solenoid
actuated brake of an electric winch?
(a) energized and the brake is released
(b) energized and the brake is set by a spring
(c) de-energized and the brake is set by a spring
(d) de-energized and the brake is released
403. (1.1.10.1.5-9) Incandescent lamps are classified according to the shape of the bulb and the type
of service, as well as the size and style of the base. How are incandescent lamps rated?
(a) operating reactance
(b) operating voltage and wattage
(c) operating frequency and impedance
(d) operating resistance

404. (1.1.10.1.5-5) As shown in the illustration, what event would give the same indication that would
occur when a stern light circuit fuse blows open? Illustration EL-0058
(a) stern light "2" burns out
(b) stern light trouble lamp burns out
(c) trouble buzzer coil open circuits
(d) trouble relay normally closed contacts open

405. (1.1.10.1.5-4) What type of circuit is represented by the diagram shown in the illustration?
Illustration EL-0058
(a) common fluorescent lighting circuit
(b) navigation running light circuit
(c) dual speed, 2-winding motor controller circuit
(d) uninterruptible power supply circuit

406. (1.1.10.1.5-2) As shown in the illustration, what are the characteristics of the trouble relay
contacts? Illustration EL-0058
(a) two sets of normally closed contacts which open when the trouble relay coil is energized
(b) two sets of normally closed contacts which close when the trouble relay coil is energized
(c) two sets of normally open contacts which close when the trouble relay coil is energized
(d) two sets of normally open contacts which open when the trouble relay coil is energized

407. (1.1 .10.1.5-1) As shown in the illustration, the change-over switch is what type of device?
Illustration EL-0058
(a) double-pole, double-throw switch
(b) double-pole, single-throw switch
(c) single-pole, single-throw switch
(d) single-pole, double-throw switch

408. (1.1 .10.1.5-6) Which of the listed types of lighting fixtures does the diagram shown in figure "A" of
the illustration represent? Illustration EL-0081
(a) High-pressure mercury fluorescent
(b) Low-pressure mercury fluorescent
(c) High-pressure sodium
(d) Low voltage quartz

409. (1.1.10.1.5-10) As shown in the illustration, which of the lighting fixtures represents an
incandescent bulb? Illustration EL-0122
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

410. (1.1.10.1.5-7) What is the functional purpose of component "5" as shown in figure "B" of the
illustration? Illustration EL-0081
(a) to rapidly strike the arc to fire the tube nearly instantly after the lighting fixture switch is closed
(b) provide power factor correction
(c) regulate the current drawn by the fluorescent tube once the arc has been stricken
(d) initially heat the fluorescent tube filaments at startup and cause the ballast to strike the arc to
fire the tube after warm up

411. (1.1.10.1.5-8) What is the purpose of the capacitor within component "5" of the circuit shown in
figure "B" of the illustration? Illustration EL-0081
(a) counteract the inductive reactance in the circuit
(b) discharge the neon within the envelope
(c) prolong the life of the component's contacts
(d) store power to operate the circuit should "D" open

412. (1.1.10.1.5-3) Besides the fluorescent lamp itself and possibly a starter, which of the following
components is included in a fluorescent lighting fixture?
(a) Magnetron
(b) Laser
(c) Ballast (choke coil)
(d) Magnetic resonator
413. (1.1.6.2.3-3) What would you use to determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery?
(a) ammeter
(b) voltmeter
(c) hydrometer
(d) potentiometer

414. (1.1.6.2.3-1) Which of the following statements concerning nickel-cadmium batteries is true?
(a) Nickel-cadmium batteries should only be discharged 50% before recharging.
(b) When mixing electrolyte always add acid to the water.
(c) The state of charge cannot be determined by the specific gravity values.
(d) The electrolyte of an idle nickel-cadmium battery must be replaced monthly to maintain battery
condition.

415. (1.1.6.2.3 -2) When a nickel-cadmium battery begins gassing while connected to the battery
charging circuit, what should be done?
(a) add distilled water to each cell to reduce the specific gravity of the electrolyte
(b) do nothing as this is a normal condition when charging
(c) add potassium hydroxide to each cell to increase the specific gravity of the electrolyte
(d) increase the charging rate

416. (1.1.6.2.3-4) Which statement is true concerning the charging of a wet cell nickel-cadmium
battery?
(a) The specific gravity of the electrolyte will be generally unaffected by the state of charge.
(b) Extended trickle charging should be avoided.
(c) Add distilled water just prior to charging to insure proper mixing.
(d) The charging rate should never allow gassing.

417. (1.1 .10.3.5-2) When a fluorescent lamp has reached the end of its useful life, it should be
replaced immediately. If not, what condition could the resultant flashing cause?
(a) tripping of the lamp's circuit breaker
(b) exploding of the lamp, causing glass to fly in all directions
(c) short circuiting of adjacent lighting circuits
(d) damaging the lamps starter and ballast circuit

418. (1.1.10.3.5-7) As shown in the wiring diagram of the semi-automatic navigation lighting panel
circuit, what would cause the buzzer to sound and for the indicator light to illuminate in the line
section for a particular navigation running light? Illustration EL-0108
(a) a burned out navigation light in effected line section
(b) transfer switch in the "off" position
(c) master switch in the "off" position
(d) a blown 10 amp fuse in master section

419. (1.1.10.3.5-3) When a fluorescent lamp fails to light and both ends of the tube are severely
darkened, what must usually be replaced?
(a) the fluorescent lamp tube
(b) the ballast
(c) the circuit breaker
(d) the starter

420. (1.1.10.3.5-5) What is indicated by gradual blackening at the ends of component "4" shown in
figures "B" and "C" of the illustration? Illustration EL-0081
(a) The circuit current is too high.
(b) The tube is nearing the end of its useful life.
(c) The circuit voltage is too high.
(d) The unit is in danger of exploding.

421. (1.1.3.3 -3) What may be the cause of an AC generator to fail to produce a voltage?
(a) high mica segments on the stator bus bar
(b) an open in the rotor field circuit
(c) short circuit in the stator coils
(d) a tripped bus circuit breaker

422. (1.1.3.3-4) If a shipboard AC generator experiences a failure to produce a voltage, what may be
the cause?
(a) a rotating slip ring
(b) the brushes shifting out of the neutral plane
(c) excessive locked-rotor current
(d) an open in the rotor field circuit
423. (1.1.3.3 -1) How can the loss of residual magnetism in an alternator or generator be corrected?
(a) running the generator at normal speed with the field rheostat fully counter-clockwise
(b) allowing the generator to run at 10% of normal speed for 5 minutes
(c) running the rotor in the opposite direction for 5 minutes
(d) using a storage battery or battery charger to 'flash' the field

424. (1.1.3.3 -2) An open occurring within the field rheostat of an AC generator can be detected by
short circuiting its terminals and making specific observations. What should be checked for?
(a) negative deflection of the wattmeter pointer
(b) positive deflection of the wattmeter pointer
(c) buildup of alternator voltage
(d) low, but constant alternator voltage

425. (1.1.4.1.1-1) If coil 'R1-R2-R3' on the transmitter in figure "C" shown in the illustration is turned 30
degrees clockwise, how will the corresponding coils 'R1-R2-R3' on the receivers (indicators)
respond? Illustration EL-0092
(a) torque will cause them to align to the same position
(b) receive a lower voltage depending on the turns ratio
(c) ring at the receiving station until the turning stops
(d) receive a higher voltage depending on the turns ratio

426. (1.1.4.1.1-4) In actual applications, electrical connections associated with 'R1, R2 and R3' of the
transmitter to 'R1, R2, and R3' of the indicators shown in figure "C" of the illustration are made by
what means? Illustration EL-0092
(a) slip rings and brushes
(b) spliced and taped connections
(c) soldered contacts
(d) solderless crimp-on connectors

427. (1.1.4.3.5-1) In the circuit 'B' of the illustration, what would be the result of the upper heating
element being burned out and open circuited? Illustration EL-0041
(a) Low heat (series) position would result in no heat at all. Medium heat (single) position would
result in no heat at all. High heat (parallel) position would result in medium heat.
(b) Low heat (series) position would result in low heat. Medium heat (single) position would result
in medium heat. High heat (parallel) position would result in medium heat.
(c) Low heat (series) position would result in no heat at all. Medium heat (single) position would
result in medium heat. High heat (parallel) position would result in medium heat.
(d) Low heat (series) position would result in low heat. Medium heat (single) position would result
in low heat. High heat (parallel) position would result in medium heat.

428. (1.1.4.1.6-1) For more complete vessel protection when using an impressed current cathodic
system, what other features are built into the system?
(a) the hull's magnetic fields are aligned with a solid-state degaussing circuit using SCR's
(b) all ship's service alternators have additional temperature sensing devices and a thermal
recorder installed
(c) machinery on deck and in the engine room is first coated with zinc chromate before final
painting
(d) straps connect the rudder with the hull and the propeller shaft is grounded through a slip
ring/brush arrangement

429. (1.1.4.1.6-4) Impressed current cathodic hull protection systems are commonly used on modern
vessels. What are these systems designed to replace or reduce?
(a) electroplating of the hull
(b) vacuum tube degaussing systems
(c) sacrificial zinc anodes
(d) repeated painting of the hull

430. (1.1.6.2.2-2) What should be done when correcting specific gravity readings of a lead-acid battery
for existing temperature conditions?
(a) add 4 correction points for each 10°F the battery temperature is above 80°F
(b) subtract 4 correction points for each 10°F the battery temperature is above 80°F
(c) subtract 10 correction points for each 4°F the battery temperature is above 80°F
(d) add 10 correction points for each 4°F the battery temperature is above 80°F

431. (1.1.6.2.2-6) When charging lead-acid batteries, why should you reduce the charging rate as the
battery nears its full charge capacity?
(a) to prevent excessive gassing and overheating
(b) to increase lead peroxide formation
(c) to reduce lead sulfate deposits
(d) to allow equalization of cell voltages
432. (1.1.6.2.2-1) When charging, which of the following represents the recommended maximum
allowable temperature for electrolyte in a lead-acid battery?
(a) 110°F
(b) 145°F
(c) 165°F
(d) 212°F

433. (1.1.6.2.2-8) When charging a 100 amp-hour lead-acid battery, what statement is true?
(a) insure adequate battery room ventilation
(b) always start with a trickle charge rate
(c) insure that violent gassing occurs
(d) insure that the electrolyte level is below the top of the plates

434. (1.1.6.2.2-3) What is the most reliable indication of the state of charge of a lead-acid battery?
(a) ampere-hour capacity
(b) total cell voltage
(c) individual cell voltage
(d) electrolyte specific gravity

435. (1.1.6.2.2-7) What is the proper way to mix the electrolyte for a lead-acid battery?
(a) pour the acid into the distilled water
(b) pour the distilled water into the acid
(c) pour the acid into the alkaline water
(d) pour the alkaline water into the acid

436. (1.1.6.2.2-5) What will the charging of lead-acid storage batteries always result in?
(a) the danger of lead poisoning
(b) local action
(c) dangerous acid burns
(d) a dangerously explosive gas being liberated

437. (1.1.13.3.2-9) What can cause the pitting or welding of controller contacts?
(a) insufficient contact pressure
(b) low ambient temperature
(c) excessive spring pressure
(d) high ambient temperature

438. (1.1.13.3.2-11) If a magnetic controller contact fails to pick up when the operating coil is
energized, what could be one possible cause?
(a) dirty contact faces
(b) low applied voltage to the coil
(c) low spring pressure
(d) the residual magnetism of the contact faces

439. (1.1.13.3.2-3) When troubleshooting a magnetic controller, it is found that the contacts are welded
together. What is the most probable cause?
(a) high voltage on the operating coil
(b) high ambient temperature
(c) low voltage on the operating coil
(d) excessive operation at low load

440. (1.1.13.3.2-1) If the motor shown in the illustration will not start when the "off-run" switch is placed
in the run position, which of the listed components should be checked FIRST? Illustration EL-0017
(a) check the overload relay (OL) heaters for continuity, replace as necessary
(b) check the overload relay for tripped condition, reset as necessary
(c) check the disconnect switch open, open as necessary
(d) check the main contactor coil for continuity, replace as necessary

441. (1.1.13.3.2-12) As shown in figure "C" of the illustrated typical ground fault sensor, what
statement concerning its installation is true? Illustration EL-0223
(a) Any two of the motor feeder conductors are connected to the two wire terminals in the upper
right hand corner of the sensor as shown in the illustration and the ground fault relay sensor lead
connections are passed through the window.
(b) Any one of the motor feeder conductors is passed through the window and a connection is
made between the ground fault relay sensor terminals and the two wire terminals in the upper
right hand corner of the sensor as shown in the illustration.
(c) All three of the motor feeder conductors are passed through the window and a connection is
made between the ground fault relay sensor terminals and the two wire terminals in the upper
right hand corner of the sensor as shown in the illustration.
(d) Any two of the motor feeder conductors are passed through the window and a connection is
made between the ground fault relay sensor terminals and the two wire terminals in the upper
right hand corner of the sensor as shown in the illustration.

442. (1.1.13.3.2 -2) When troubleshooting a motor controller, all indications are that a relay coil should
be energized. If there was no magnetic pull, with rated voltage measured across the coil, what would
be the most probable cause?
(a) control fuse is open
(b) auxiliary contact in series with the coil is defective
(c) relay armature is stuck
(d) coil is open

443. (1.1.13.3.2-10) If many turns of an alternating current coil for a contactor become short-circuited,
what will happen to the coil?
(a) it will probably burn out immediately
(b) it will operate on reduced current
(c) it will experience a temperature drop
(d) it will have a higher resistance value

444. (1.1.13.3.2-4) As shown in figure "A" and "B" of the illustration, the potable water pump is short-
cycling by the action of the pressure switch as a result of an unusually high level in the potable water
hydro-pneumatic header tank. What is most likely the cause? Illustration EL-0043
(a) The pressure switch differential setting is set excessively high and the differential must be
decreased.
(b) The pressure switch range adjustment is set too low and must be set higher.
(c) The potable water hydro-pneumatic header tank has too much compressed air and some
must be bled off.
(d) The potable water hydro-pneumatic header tank is in need of recharging with compressed air
due to absorption of air into the water over time.

445. (1.1.13.3.2 -5) If a magnetic controller relay fails to drop out when the coil voltage is removed from
the relay, what is the probable cause?
(a) welded contacts
(b) excessive current
(c) excessive spring tension
(d) overvoltage

446. (1.1.13.3.2-7) You are troubleshooting the control circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration
utilizing on-line techniques. With the start button depressed, the following readings are obtained with
a voltmeter:
(Refer to Illustration EL-0123)
"X1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC.
"1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC.
"2" to "X2" reads 0 VAC.
"3" to "X2" reads 0 VAC.
Which of the following indicates what the fault is?
(a) the secondary winding of the control transformer is open-circuited
(b) the start button is open-circuited
(c) the stop button is open-circuited
(d) the fuse is blown

447. (1.1 .13.3.2-6) A loud buzzing noise coming from the contacts in a magnetic controller can be
caused by what condition?
(a) excessive current
(b) bouncing of contacts
(c) excessive magnet gap
(d) dirt on magnet faces

448. (1.1 .13.3.2-8) If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "A" of the illustration to test an AC
contactor coil, what would the display read if the coil is open-circuited? Illustration EL-0214
(a) 0.03 ohms
(b) 22 ohms
(c) OL ohms
(d) 110 V

449. (1.1.10.1.1-2) What is a common type of protective covering used on electrical conductors?
(a) plain paper
(b) silver sheathing
(c) rubber or plastic
(d) babbitt sheathing
450. (1.1 .10.1.1-4) What is the reason that some electric cables are formed of stranded wire?
(a) stranded wire increases their flexibility over solid wire and reduces skin effect losses
(b) stranded wire increases the current carrying capability for a given size wire
(c) stranded wire decreases the weight for a given size wire
(d) stranded wire assures good conductivity at junction points

451. (1.1 .10.1.1-12) Which of the illustrated safety disconnect switches represents a double-throw
switch? Illustration EL-0176
(a) A and B
(b) B and D
(c) C and D
(d) A and D

452. (1.1 .10.1.1-3) Why is copper often used as an electrical conductor?

(a) has high resistance at low temperatures
(b) has a highly polished surface
(c) is able to pass current with little opposition
(d) holds insulation together well

453. (1.1.10.1.1-1) Which of the following statements concerning electrical cables is correct?
(a) Electric cable coverings should never be grounded.
(b) Where they pass through watertight bulkheads, they should be fitted with watertight stuffing
boxes.
(c) Electrical cables must be glued in place where non-metallic insulation is used.
(d) Electrical cables must be rigidly held in place by welding of armored cable.

454. (1.1 .10.1.1-11) As shown in the illustrated one-line diagram of a two-tiered emergency power
system for a passenger ship, what statement is true? Illustration EL-0166
(a) On a restoration of normal ship's power, the final and temporary emergency loads power
source is from the main switchboard.
(b) On a restoration of normal ship's power, the temporary emergency loads power source is
battery (from AC/DC UPS "A"), whereas the final emergency loads power source is from the main
switchboard.
(c) On a restoration of normal ship's power, the final emergency loads power source is battery
(from AC/DC UPS "B"), whereas the temporary emergency loads power source is from the main
switchboard.
(d) On a restoration of normal ship's power, the final emergency loads power source is from the
main switchboard, whereas the temporary emergency loads power source is battery (from AC/DC
UPS "B").

455. (1.1 .10.1.1-7) The 24 volt DC bus on the emergency switchboard is used to supply power to what
system or equipment?
(a) main lighting system
(b) general alarm and vital communication systems
(c) propulsion engine lube oil pump motors
(d) steering gear power unit motors

456. (1.1 .10.1.1-6) Which of the following characteristics is most critical in determining the wire gauge
size of the cable to be used in a particular circuit?
(a) voltage rating
(b) current rating
(c) inductance per unit length
(d) weight per unit length

457. (1.1 .10.1.1-10) As shown in the illustration, which of the following pieces of equipment is provided
with a remote push button station? Illustration EL-0165
(a) Cargo Oil Transfer Pump No.1
(b) Sewage Treatment Plant
(c) Lube Oil Service Pump No.1
(d) S.W. Cooling Circ. Pump No.1

458. (1.1.10.1.7-15) What is the function of the autotransformers used with autotransformer starters
used on some large AC motors?
(a) provide increased voltage for starting
(b) provide reduced voltage for starting
(c) provide speed control
(d) provide increased torque for starting
459. (1.1 .10.1.7-9) What is the primary purpose associated with the use of transformers onboard ships
with AC generators?
(a) increase power output to modulating frequency controllers
(b) change line frequency value
(c) decrease power output to modulating frequency controllers
(d) provide different voltage values to operate various types of electrical equipment

460. (1.1.10.1.7-12) If the primary winding of a voltage transformer is connected to a steady DC

source, self-inductance and mutual inductance is not possible. As a result, what part of the
transformer will result in current overload?
(a) core
(b) secondary coil
(c) primary coil
(d) contacts

461. (1.1.10.1.7-10) Which of the listed transformers uses a single winding to produce voltage
transformation?
(a) Step-up transformers
(b) Autotransformers
(c) Step-down transformers
(d) Isolation transformers

462. (1.1.10.1.7-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning step-down transformer
operation?
(a) The voltage supplied to the primary side is lower than the voltage produced by the secondary
side.
(b) The voltage supplied to the primary side is greater than the voltage produced by the
secondary side.
(c) The kVA consumed by the primary side is greater than the kVA produced by the secondary
side.
(d) The current drawn by the primary side is greater than the current delivered from the
secondary side.

463. (1.1.10.1.7-7) When a transformer is used to step-down voltage, what statement is true?
(a) The low voltage winding is part of the core.
(b) The low voltage winding is the primary coil.
(c) The low voltage winding is not insulated.
(d) The low voltage winding is the secondary coil.

464. (1.1.10.1.7-16) Which of the schematic symbols shown in the illustration represents a normally
closed float level switch? Illustration EL-0059
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6

465. (1.1 .10.1.7-18) Which of the listed figures shown in the illustration represents a three phase
transformer connected in a wye-delta configuration? Illustration EL-0084
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

466. (1.1.10.1.7-5) Which of the following statements is true concerning a step-down transformer in an
operating AC power circuit?
(a) Secondary voltage and current will both be decreased.
(b) Secondary voltage and current will both be increased.
(c) Secondary voltage is decreased and current is increased.
(d) Secondary voltage is increased and current is decreased.

467. (1.1.10.1.7-17) What is the purpose for the device shown in figure "B" of the illustration in terms of
its relationship with the load? Illustration EL-0083
(a) it functions as a filter
(b) it functions to step-up voltage
(c) it functions to step-down voltage
(d) it functions as a ground isolator

468. (1.1.10.1.7-20) What is the basic operating principle of a transformer in terms of producing a
voltage?
(a) self-inductance
(b) hysteresis
(c) eddy currents
(d) mutual inductance

469. (1.1.10.1.7-1) Which of the following is a pictured three phase power transformer, usually used to
step-down line voltage for supplying reduced voltage lighting circuits? Illustration EL-0177
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

470. (1.1 .10.1.7-6) What will happen to the primary winding when the load increases on the secondary
windings of a transformer?
(a) There will be a decrease in the primary current.
(b) There will be an increase in the primary voltage.
(c) There will be a decrease in the primary voltage.
(d) There will be an increase in the primary current.

471. (1.1.10.1.7-2) When a low input voltage is delivered to a transformer which then produces a high
output voltage, what is the proper name for the transformer type?
(a) step-up transformer
(b) primary transformer
(c) step-down transformer
(d) secondary transformer

472. (1.1.10.1.7-8) Which of the following statements describes the difference between the primary
windings and the secondary windings of a 2:1 step-down voltage transformer?
(a) The secondary windings can only provide half as much current as the primary windings.
(b) The secondary windings have twice as much resistance as the primary windings.
(c) The secondary windings use smaller wires than the primary windings.
(d) The secondary windings have half as many turns as the primary windings.

473. (1.1.10.1.7-14) What is the purpose of a potential transformer in an electric circuit?

(a) increase or decrease circuit voltage as required
(b) transform electrical energy into mechanical energy
(c) convert AC current to DC current
(d) generate its own electrical power

474. (1.1 .10.3.4-2) As shown in the illustrated plots of uncorrected and temperature corrected
insulation resistance readings for a particular piece of equipment, at what point in time should the
equipment have been refurbished or replaced? Illustration EL-0120
(a) 2006
(b) 2008
(c) 2010
(d) no refurbishment or replacement was necessary through 2011

475. (1.1.10.3.4-1) What is the resistance reading at "2" on the megger scale shown in figure "A" of the
illustration? Illustration EL-0044
(a) 40 ohms
(b) 400 ohms
(c) 40,000 ohms
(d) 40 megohms

476. (1.1.1.2.1-1) When performing routine AC motor maintenance what should be included?
(a) inspection of the motor's internals for loose rotor bars or field poles
(b) verifying RPM if a synchronous motor
(c) temperature readings at normal loads to detect abnormal temperature rises
(d) rotor balance check

477. (1.1.1.2.1-5) By periodically checking the stator-to-rotor air gap clearance in an induction motor
with a feeler gauge, what is prevented?
(a) rotor contact with the stator
(b) electrical damage to the bearings
(c) damage to the motor bearings
(d) axial misalignment of the rotor

478. (1.1.1.2.1-4) Which of the following statements represents the FIRST step in seating new brushes
on slip rings?
(a) Press the brushes against the slip ring with a wood block.
(b) Apply seating compound under the brushes and run at no load for 2 hours.
(c) Increase brush pressure and run at no load for 3 to 4 hours.
(d) Lay sandpaper between the brush and the slip ring and slide the sandpaper back and forth
under the brush.

479. (1.1.1.2.1-3) For what reason should engine room watchstanders keep a constant check on the
loads carried by electric motors?
(a) energy is wasted if full loading is not utilized
(b) residual magnetism may increase
(c) low loads necessitate frequent insulation cleaning
(d) exceeding nameplate currents shortens useful life

480. (1.1.1.2.1-2) What is a useful instrument for checking 3 phase AC motor performance by
measuring possible unbalanced currents?
(a) clamp-on ammeter
(b) vibrating-reed frequency meter
(c) D'Arsonval iron-vane probe
(d) hand or battery-operated megger

481. (1.1.1.3.2-5) If a three-phase induction motor is operated under a light load and it develops an
open in one of its supply lines, what will be the result?
(a) the motor will run cooler due to reduced current flow
(b) the motor will stop
(c) the motor will continue to run, but will vibrate and have reduced torque
(d) the motor will speed up due to the reduced number of poles

482. (1.1.1.3.2-3) In testing a three-phase delta-connected winding for an open circuit using a
ohmmeter, what must be done?
(a) measure the voltage across the open connections while testing
(b) test the windings as parallel groups to avoid short circuiting
(c) if possible, open the delta-connections to avoid shunting the phase being tested
(d) test each phase with all connections intact

483. (1.1.1.3.2-6) Which of the following methods should be used to test for an 'open' stator winding
coil in a wye-connected AC squirrel cage induction motor?
(a) Use a growler, listening for noise and vibration to increase when over an open coil.
(b) Test with an ohmmeter, with one test lead on the shaft, and the other test lead to each of the
disconnected motor leads in succession and compare the resistances.
(c) Test with an ohmmeter with the test leads across each pair disconnected motor lead leads in
succession and compare resistances.
(d) Use a growler, listening for noise and vibration to diminish when over an open coil.

484. (1.1.1.3.2-4) If a single-phase capacitor start induction motor fails to start, but instead hums
without starting, what is most likely to be the problem?
(a) a blown fuse
(b) an open start capacitor
(c) a shorted centrifugal switch
(d) a tripped circuit breaker

485. (1.1.1.3.2-1) As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, with a digital multimeter set up as an
ohmmeter, what set of readings would be consistent with an open in a phase of the single circuit,
delta-connected stator windings as shown? Illustration EL-0201
(a) T1 to T2: "1.8 ohms"; T2 to T3
(b) T1 to T2: "1.8 ohms"; T2 to T3
(c) T1 to T2: "3.6 ohms"; T2 to T3
(d) T1 to T2: "OL ohms"; T2 to T3
OL ohms"; T3 to T1: "1.8 ohms'
'3.6 ohms"; T3 to T1: "1.8 ohms'
1.8 ohms"; T3 to T1: "1.8 ohms'
1.8 ohms"; T3 to T1: "1.8 ohms'

486. (1.1.10.3.2-5) When replacing a fuse with one of a ampere higher rating than the original, which
of the following is true?
(a) It reduces the possibility of short circuits.
(b) It creates a larger voltage drop in the circuit being protected.
(c) It increases the efficiency of the equipment by allowing more current to be used.
(d) It endangers the apparatus it is supposed to protect.
487. (1.1.10.3.2-3) To test fuses in an energized circuit, what testing apparatus or meter should be
used?
(a) resistance meter
(b) voltmeter
(c) megohmmeter
(d) continuity tester

488. (1.1.10.3.2-4) What would cause a fuse to blow?

(a) the electrical current exceeds the rated value of the fuse
(b) the flow of current to the protection device is reversed
(c) an electric motor is stopped suddenly by opening a switch
(d) unequal resistors are connected in parallel

489. (1.1.10.3.2-2) In order to definitively determine whether or not fuse "2", shown in the illustration is
blown using an on-line testing technique, across what points would you connect the voltmeter leads?
Illustration EL-0062
(a) the bottom of fuse "2" to the top of either fuse "1 or 3"
(b) the bottom of fuse "2" to the bottom of either fuse "1 or 3"
(c) the top of fuse "2" to the bottom of either fuse "1 or 3"
(d) the top of fuse "2" to the top of either fuse "1 or 3"

490. (1.1.8.1.2-4) What type of DC motor is never connected to a belt driven load?
(a) series wound
(b) shunt wound
(c) compound wound
(d) permanent magnet

491. (1.1.8.1.2-2) In a series wound motor, the current passing through the field windings also passes
through what component?
(a) reactance comparator
(b) shunt field
(c) laminations
(d) armature

492. (1.1.1.1.4-4) What is the most common source of excitation for the rotor of a synchronous motor
utilizing slip rings and brushes?
(a) a step-up transformer
(b) an AC power supply
(c) a half-wave rectifier
(d) a DC power supply

493. (1.1.1.1.4-5) An increase in which of the listed conditions will increase the speed of a
synchronous electric motor?
(a) Inductance
(b) Voltage
(c) Armature current
(d) Frequency

494. (1.1.1.1.4-3) What causes the rotor of a synchronous motor to operate in synchronism with the
rotating field?
(a) the rotor is magnetically locked into step with the rotating magnetic field by the excitation
current
(b) the amortisseur (damper) windings
(c) the field strength varies directly with rotor slip
(d) the stator flux rotates in the opposite direction

495. (1.1.1.1.4 -2) What is the function of the squirrel cage windings installed on a synchronous motor
rotor?
(a) provide excitation
(b) eliminate slippage
(c) increase efficiency
(d) provide starting torque

496. (1.1.10.1.3-2) By what means does a molded-case circuit breaker provide protection against short
circuits?
(a) use of an arc quencher
(b) use of a shading coil
(c) use of a bimetallic strip
(d) use of a magnetic trip unit
497. (1.1.10.1.3-4) How does a circuit breaker differ from a fuse?
(a) a circuit breaker melts and must be replaced, a fuse does neither
(b) a circuit breaker gives no visual indication of having opened the circuit, a fuse universally does
(c) a circuit breaker is enclosed in a tube of insulating material with metal ferrules at each end, a
fuse is not
(d) a circuit breaker trips to break the circuit and may be reset, a fuse may not be reset

498. (1.1 .10.1.3-3) By what means is protection against sustained overloads occurring in molded-case
circuit breakers provided?
(a) a magnetic trip unit
(b) a thermal trip unit
(c) a reverse current relay
(d) an overvoltage release

499. (1.1.10.1.3-9) How can a motor be protected from overheating due to sustained motor overload?
(a) thermal circuit breaker
(b) quick-acting fuse
(c) magnetic circuit breaker
(d) single element fuse

500. (1.1 .10.1.3-1) A thermal-magnetic circuit breaker for a 300 kW alternator is rated at 500 amperes
at full continuous load. Which of the following conditions will trip the breaker?
(a) Sustained current draw of 450 amperes for 2 hours.
(b) Sustained current draw of 500 amperes for 10 minutes.
(c) Momentary current draw of 1000 amperes for 3 seconds.
(d) Instantaneous current draw of 5,000 amperes.

501. (1.1.10.1.3-6) When the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in the mid-position,
what is the indication for the position of the circuit breaker?
(a) in the 'tripped' position
(b) in the 'closed' position
(c) in the 'opened' position
(d) in the 'reset' position

502. (1.1.10.1.3-8) Undervoltage trips are frequently installed on switchboard circuit breakers for what
reason?
(a) trip out generators in the event of severe arcing or sparking
(b) trip out the breaker if the generator overspeeds by 5%, but continues to run
(c) trip out generators when there is reversal of power in the main circuit
(d) trip out the generator when there is insufficient voltage being delivered to distribution circuits

503. (1.1.10.1.3-5) How will a molded-case circuit breaker with a thermal trip unit react immediately
after it has tripped, as a result of an overloaded motor circuit?
(a) The breaker handle will lock in the OFF position.
(b) The breaker cannot be reset to the ON position until the thermal element cools down.
(c) The breaker handle will lock in the TRIPPED position.
(d) The thermal element must be replaced after an overload trip has occurred before it can be
restored into service.

504. (1.1 .10.2.2-2) When replacing fuses, what practice should be observed?
(a) to stand on a rubber mat and use rubber gloves
(b) to increase the fuse rating 10% to guard against 'nuisance blowing'
(c) to use insulated pliers or screwdriver
(d) the fuse clips are straight, tight, and in good contact

505. (1.1 .10.2.2-1) When changing fuses, what safety precaution should be taken?
(a) wear safety glasses
(b) stand on a rubber mat
(c) wear rubber boots
(d) use a fuse puller

506. (1.1.7.1.4 -2) When two generators are on the line and are both connected across a shared load,
how are they said to be operating?
(a) in resonance
(b) in frequency
(c) in parallel
(d) in series
507. (1.1.7.1.4 -4) By what means is an AC generator prevented from becoming motorized?
(a) back pressure trip
(b) overspeed trip
(c) governor controls
(d) reverse power relay

508. (1.1.3.1.2-7) What is the main purpose of an electric space heater installed in a large AC
generator?
(a) prevent moisture from condensing in the windings during shutdown
(b) prevent acidic pitting of the slip rings
(c) keep the lube oil warm for quick starting
(d) prevent the windings from becoming brittle

509. (1.1.3.1.2 -6) When shore power is being connected to a ship in drydock, what must be ensured,
assuming that the ship's generators are rated at 450 VAC, 60 Hz with a total capacity of 5000 kW?
(a) exactly 60 Hz must be supplied from shore, as no tolerance is permitted
(b) shore power must be capable of delivering a total of 5000 kW
(c) exactly 450 volts must be supplied from shore, as no tolerance is permitted
(d) shore power phase sequence must agree with that of the ship

510. (1.1.3.1.2 -4) The amount of voltage induced in the stator windings of a modern AC generator is
primarily dependent upon which of the following?
(a) the strength of the rotating magnetic field
(b) the number of field poles energized
(c) the cross-sectional area of the stator windings
(d) the number of brushes associated with the commutator

511. (1.1.3.1.2-9) How are AC and DC generators similar?

(a) They both rectify the voltage before delivery.
(b) They both supply three-phase power.
(c) They both internally generate alternating current voltages.
(d) They both operate at 60 cycles.

512. (1.1.3.1.2-8) In which figure shown in the illustration will the highest voltage be induced?
Illustration EL-0028
(a) figure "A" only
(b) figure "B" only
(c) both figures "A" and "C"
(d) both figures "B" and "D"

513. (1.1.3.1.2-1) As shown in the illustration, which brush holder would be appropriate to use in a
bidirectional motor? Illustration EL-0029
(a) trailing mount only
(b) both leading and trailing mount
(c) leading mount only
(d) radial mount

514. (1.1.3.1.2 -3) By what means is a diesel-driven emergency generator prevented from being
paralleled with the ship's service generators?
(a) the reverse current relay
(b) the synchronizing oscilloscope
(c) an electrical interlock system
(d) an automatic paralleling trip switch

515. (1.1.3.1.2-2) A DC generator which is used to supply direct current in order to provide
magnetizing current to an AC generator field is commonly known as what?
(a) exciter
(b) rotor
(c) stator
(d) armature

516. (1.1.3.1.2-1 1) Upon failure of the ships normal electrical power supply, by means of what device
does the emergency generator supply power to the emergency switchboard, but not the main
switchboard?
(a) power failure alarm bus
(b) main lighting transformer
(c) automatic bus transfer switch
(d) main switchboard bus
517. (1.1.3.1.2 -5) When would be the safest time to close the ship's main switchboard "shore power"
circuit breaker?
(a) at any time in a shipyard
(b) when the ship's generators have been disconnected from the main bus
(c) only after the ship's generators have been directly paralleled to those on shore
(d) if a quick disconnect coupling is used

518. (1.1.3.1.2-10) With what device is the RPM of an AC generator indirectly measured on a
switchboard when operating singly (no other generator connected to the bus)?
(a) frequency meter
(b) voltmeter
(c) synchroscope
(d) synchronizing lamps

519. (1.1.5.6-1) The turns ratio of the step-down transformer with dual voltage secondary as shown in
figure "B" of the illustration is two to one (total). If 440 volts were applied to terminals 'H1' and 'H2',
what would be measured across 'X1-X3' and 'X2-X4' assuming that the secondary windings are
connected in parallel? Illustration EL-0082
(a) 55 volts
(b) 110 volts
(c) 220 volts
(d) 880 volts

520. (1.1.5.6 -4) In figure "2" of the diagram shown in the illustration, the three phase power
transformer has a step-down turns ratio of four to one. If a three-phase 440 volt supply is connected
to terminals 'A1-B1-C1’, what voltage should develop across terminals 'A2-B2-C2'? Illustration EL-0084
(a) 64 volts
(b) 110 volts
(c) 190 volts
(d) 762 volts

521. (1.1.5.6-3) What is the maximum allowable primary current of a 2 kVA step-down transformer with
a four to one turns ratio if the primary is connected across a 440 volt line?
(a) 1.1 amps
(b) 4.5 amps
(c) 18.1 amps
(d) 27.7 amps

522. (1.1.5.6-2) A load is connected across the secondary of the step-up transformer shown in figure
"B" of the illustration and the current drawn by the load is 10 amps. If the turns ratio is 1 to 10 and
the input voltage is 110 VAC, what will be the current drawn by the primary? Illustration EL-0055
(a) 1 amp
(b) 10 amps
(c) 100 amps
(d) 1000 amps

523. (1.1.8.1.3-2) As load is added to a DC shunt motor, how will the motor respond?
(a) stop
(b) speed up
(c) maintain the same speed
(d) slow down slightly

524. (1.1 .10.3.6-1) In an ungrounded distribution system, as compared to a normal indication, what is
the indication on a switchboard of a current carrying conductor making an accidental electrical
contact with a wiring metal conduit?
(a) reading of 1.0 on the power factor meter
(b) lower switchboard wattmeter reading than normal
(c) totally darkened switchboard ground detecting light
(d) higher switchboard voltmeter reading than normal

525. (1.1.10.3.6-4) A switchboard ammeter indicates a reading slightly above 'zero' when the leads are
disconnected. What is this caused by?
(a) capacitors inside the meter storing charges
(b) a poor ground for the meter case
(c) static electricity in the air
(d) mechanical misalignment of the meter pointer
526. (1.1.10.3.6-5) In a three-phase electrical system, three ground detecting lamps are provided. One
lamp goes dark and the others increase in brightness when the "ground test" button is pushed. What
is indicated?
(a) there is a ground on the line with the dark lamp
(b) this is a normal condition
(c) the dark lamp must be replaced
(d) there are grounds on the lines with the bright lamps

527. (1.1.10.3.6-3) If all of the ground detection lamps burn with equal brilliance, whether the test
button is depressed or released, what does this indicate?
(a) no ground-faults exist
(b) a ground-fault exists in all phases
(c) a high impedance ground-fault exists
(d) a dead ground-fault exists

528. (1.1.10.3.6-6) A three-phase electrical system is equipped with ground detecting lamps. If one of
the lamps is dark, and remains dark when the test switch is operated, what does this indicate?
(a) there is a ground in the line with the dark lamp
(b) there are grounds in two of the three phases
(c) the voltage to the dark lamp is less than that of the system
(d) the dark lamp must be replaced

529. (1.1.7.1.3-2) Which of the terms listed best describes a compound-wound DC generator having a
higher voltage at no load than at full load?
(a) Terminal compounded
(b) Under compounded
(c) Flat compounded
(d) Over compounded

530. (1.1.7.1.3 -1) By what means is DC generator output voltage decreased?

(a) decreasing armature resistance
(b) increasing field resistance
(c) increasing armature resistance
(d) decreasing field resistance

531. (1.1.7.1.2-3) Which of the following components are used to convert alternating current produced
in the DC generator armature windings to direct current?
(a) Armature and equalizer
(b) Rotor and interpoles
(c) Field and exciter
(d) Commutator and brushes

532. (1.1.7.1.2-7) As shown in the illustrated DC machine which is configured as a generator, what
type of machine is illustrated in terms of the configuration of the windings? Illustration EL-0052
(a) series wound
(b) cumulatively compound wound
(c) differentially compound wound
(d) shunt wound

533. (1.1.7.1.2-4) What is the primary purpose of the brushes of DC generators?

(a) conduct armature current to an external load
(b) provide excitation to a DC generator
(c) neutralize armature reaction
(d) convert DC current to AC current

534. (1.1.7.1.2-1) In a shunt-wound DC generator, with what generator component are the shunt field
windings connected in parallel with?
(a) the compensating windings
(b) the armature circuit
(c) the series field winding
(d) the interpoles

535. (1.1.7.1.2-2) A variable shunt, connected across the series field coils of a DC compound wound
generator, permits adjustment of the degree of compounding. What is this variable shunt called?
(a) converter
(b) rheostat
(c) diverter
(d) divider
536. (1.1.7.1.2-9) As shown in the illustration, which brush holder is of the reaction type? Illustration
EL-0029
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

537. (1.1.7.1.2-8) Which of the diagrams shown in the illustration depicts the proper method of aligning
brushes on a commutator for a DC machine? Illustration EL-0057
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Assistant Engineer Questions

1. (2.1.7.4-3) A degree of control over the speed of a slip ring induction motor can be obtained by what
means?
(a) inserting resistance into the stator circuit
(b) adjusting governor linkage
(c) inserting resistance into the rotor circuit
(d) changing the number of phases to the motor

2. (2.1.7.4-4) What is the characteristic of a wound-rotor induction motor, with a high resistance
inserted in series with the rotor winding at startup?
(a) relatively low starting torque and low stator current
(b) relatively low starting torque and high stator current
(c) relatively high starting torque and high stator current
(d) relatively high starting torque and low stator current

3. (2.1.7.4-6) As shown in the illustrated wound-rotor induction motor, what statement is true
concerning motor lead connections? Illustration EL-0148
(a) The "M1, M2, and M3" motor leads are directly connected to the rotor windings and the "T1,
T2, and T3" motor leads are connected to the stator windings via slip rings and brushes.
(b) The "T1, T2, and T3" motor leads are connected to the rotor windings via slip rings and
brushes and the "M1, M2, and M3" motor leads are directly connected to the stator windings.
(c) The "M1, M2, and M3" motor leads are connected to the rotor windings via slip rings and
brushes and the "T1, T2, and T3" motor leads are directly connected to the stator windings.
(d) The "T1, T2, and T3" motor leads are directly connected to the rotor windings and the "M1,
M2, and M3" motor leads are connected to the stator windings via slip rings and brushes.

4. (2.1.7.4-2) What type of AC motor would use a rheostat in the rotor circuit to vary the speed of the
motor?
(a) synchronous motor
(b) regenerative braking motor
(c) squirrel-cage induction motor
(d) wound-rotor induction motor

5. (2.1.7.4-5) Which of the following physical characteristics does a three-phase wound-rotor induction
motor possess that a squirrel-cage induction motor does not?
(a) Slip rings
(b) A centrifugal switch
(c) Compensating windings
(d) A commutator

6. (2.1.19.9-1) As part of a routine maintenance program for deck machinery motor controllers, what
should be done?
(a) check drum switch contact pressure every three months
(b) remove motor covers and ventilate as weather permits
(c) remove covers exposed to the weather and drain water each week
(d) inspect electrical wiring for evidence of corrosion or discoloration at connections

7. (2.1.19.9-3) If a spring-set electric solenoid-released brake on a winch fails to hold a load properly
when the solenoid is de-energized, what must be done?
(a) The solenoid coil must be replaced as it is faulty.
(b) The brakes linings must be checked for wear and adjusted or replaced accordingly.
(c) The spring must be replaced as it has lost its compression force.
(d) The brake drum must be checked for wear and replaced as needed.
8. (2.1.19.9-5) The AC winch hoist controller shown in the illustration has a burned out hoist contactor
coil that must be replaced. Before replacing the coil, the cause for the burnout must be determined.
Which of the following statements represents the possible cause? Illustrations EL-0102
(a) The coil burnout may be caused by insufficient voltage applied to the coil (below 85% of rated
voltage); however, excessive voltage applied to the coil (above 110% of rated voltage) will not
cause a burnout.
(b) The coil burnout may be caused by excessive voltage applied to the coil (above 110% of rated
voltage); however, insufficient voltage applied to the coil (below 85% of rated voltage) will not
cause a burnout.
(c) The coil burnout may occur with a normal voltage applied to the coil (between 85% and 110%
of rated voltage) if accumulated dirt prevents proper seating of the armature to the magnet.
(d) The coil burnout may occur with a normal voltage applied to the coil (between 85% and 110%
of rated voltage) if the armature is allowed to seat against the magnet with no air gap.

9. (2.1.19.9-2) If deck machinery is expected to be idle for an extended period of time, what should be
done?
(a) energize space heaters to prevent the condensation of moisture
(b) have electrical safety gloves available in case of electrical shock before running
(c) perform a 'high pot' test to determine the condition of the insulation
(d) water wash the motor and controller to remove any salt that may interfere with smooth
operation

10. (2.1.19.9-4) An AC winch hoist controller such as shown in the illustration has welded contacts on
the hoist contactor, and the contacts must be replaced. Before replacing the contacts, the cause for
the welding of the contacts must be determined. Which of the following statements describes the
possible causes? Illustration EL-0102
(a) The welding of contacts may be caused by low applied voltage to the operating coil (less than
85% of rated voltage) or by excessively strong springs.
(b) The welding of contacts may be caused by excessively applied voltage to the operating coil
(more than 110% of rated voltage) or by excessively strong springs.
(c) The welding of contacts may be caused by excessively applied voltage to the operating coil
(more than 110% of rated voltage) or by weak springs.
(d) The welding of contacts may be caused by low applied voltage to the operating coil (less than
85% of rated voltage) or by weak springs.

11. (2.1.12.3-3) Relative to the number of turns of a secondary winding of a step-up transformer, what
will be the number of turns of a primary winding?
(a) the primary winding will have fewer turns than the secondary winding
(b) the primary winding will have the same number of turns but smaller wires than the secondary
winding
(c) the primary winding will have twice as many turns as the secondary winding
(d) the primary winding will have more turns than the secondary winding

12. (2.1.12.3-4) When a transformer is used to step down voltage, what statement is true?
(a) The low voltage winding is part of the core.
(b) The low voltage winding is not insulated.
(c) The low voltage winding is the primary coil.
(d) The low voltage winding is the secondary coil.

13. (2.1.12.3-2) Which of the following statements is true concerning step-down transformer operation?
(a) The voltage supplied to the primary side is greater than the voltage produced by the
secondary side.
(b) The current drawn by the primary side is greater than the current delivered from the
secondary side.
(c) The kVA consumed by the primary side is greater than the kVA produced by the secondary
side.
(d) The voltage supplied to the primary side is lower than the voltage produced by the secondary
side.

14. (2.1.12.3-11) If the illustrated device in figure "B" has a step-up ratio of 10 to 1 what voltage would
be measured at the secondary shortly after the primary of the device is connected to 110 volts DC
and the primary current stabilized with a current of 12 amps? Illustration EL-0055
(a) 0 volts
(b) 110 volts
(c) 1000 volts
(d) 1100 volts

15. (2.1.12.3 -9) The transformer diagram shown in figure "B" of the illustration represents what type of
transformer? Illustration EL-0082
(a) open delta transformer
(b) step-down transformer with dual voltage secondary
(c) Scott-connected transformer
(d) autotransformer

16. (2.1.12.3-8) What is the purpose of a potential transformer in an electric circuit?

(a) generate its own electrical power
(b) increase or decrease circuit voltage as required
(c) convert AC current to DC current
(d) transform electrical energy into mechanical energy

17. (2.1.12.3-10) Which of the listed figures shown in the illustration represents a three phase
transformer connected in a wye-wye configuration? Illustration EL-0084
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

18. (2.1.12.3-5) What is the primary purpose associated with the use of transformers onboard ships with
AC generators?
(a) provide different voltage values to operate various types of electrical equipment
(b) decrease power output to modulating frequency controllers
(c) change line frequency value
(d) increase power output to modulating frequency controllers

19. (2.1.12.3-6) An autotransformer is equipped with a 50% tap, a 65% tap, and an 80% tap. Which of
the following statements is true concerning a load connected to the 50% tap?
(a) The load is receiving two times line voltage and drawing one-half of line current.
(b) The load is receiving one-half of line voltage and drawing one-half of line current.
(c) The load is receiving one-half of line voltage and drawing two times line current.
(d) The load is receiving two times line voltage and drawing two times line current.

20. (2.1.12.3-1) Which of the following pictures shown in the illustration is a control transformer, usually
used to step down line voltage for supplying reduced voltage control circuits? Illustration EL-0177
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

21. (2.1.12.3-7) If the primary winding of a voltage transformer is connected to a steady DC source, self-
inductance and mutual inductance is not possible. As a result, what part of the transformer will result
in current overload?
(a) secondary coil
(b) primary coil
(c) core
(d) contacts

22. (2.1.5.8-5) If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration, what is
the status of the silicon diode if the display reads 4.7 ohms when configured as in figure "A" and
reads 490 ohms when configured as in figure "B"? Illustration EL-0211
(a) the diode is open
(b) the diode is functioning properly
(c) the diode is shorted
(d) the diode is intermittently open

23. (2.1.5.8-3) Which of the procedures or conditions listed could result in damaging a transistor beyond
repair?
(a) Installing a transistor whose current rating exceeds the design circuit current.
(b) Applying silicone grease between the heat sink and the transistor mounting.
(c) Providing insufficient voltage to the input circuit.
(d) Providing incorrect polarity to the collector circuit.

24. (2.1.5.8-2) Using the trouble analysis chart and faults table provided in the illustration, if the
gyrocompass was malfunctioning, but no fault codes are present on the display unit, what is most
likely the problem if the DC/DC converter LED status indicator is functioning properly, but the CPU
LED status indicator is not blinking? Illustration EL-0195
(a) The AC/DC power supply is malfunctioning.
(b) Ship's power is not available.
(c) The CPU assembly is malfunctioning.
(d) The DC/DC converter is malfunctioning.
25. (2.1.5.8-1) What effect will increasing the power source frequency have in a capacitive circuit?
(a) it will not have any effect on the average current value
(b) it will decrease the average current in the circuit
(c) it will increase the average current in the circuit
(d) it will not have any effect on the capacitive reactance

26. (2.1.5.8-7) When troubleshooting most electronic circuits, what voltmeter characteristic can minimize
the 'loading effect'?
(a) input impedance much greater than the impedance across which the voltage is being
measured
(b) sensitivity of more than 1000 volts/ohm
(c) input impedance much less than the impedance across which the voltage is being measured
(d) sensitivity of less than 1000 ohms/volt

27. (2.1.8.2-5) What type of DC motor has extremely high starting torque, but has poor inherent speed
regulation?
(a) compound wound
(b) permanent magnet
(c) shunt wound
(d) series wound

28. (2.1.8.2-4) What type of DC motor is never connected to a belt driven load?
(a) compound wound
(b) shunt wound
(c) permanent magnet
(d) series wound

29. (2.1.8.2-6) The wiring diagram found in figure "C" of the illustration represents what type of DC
motor? Illustration EL-0054
(a) shunt wound
(b) compound wound with long shunt
(c) series wound
(d) compound wound with short shunt

30. (2.1.8.2-3) How is the speed of a series wound winch motor controlled?
(a) overcurrent protection devices in the motor
(b) the weight of the load on the cargo boom
(c) varying the voltage applied to the motor
(d) a hydraulic speed-limiting governor

31. (2.1.8.2-2) In a series wound motor, the current passing through the field windings also passes
through what component?
(a) reactance comparator
(b) armature
(c) shunt field
(d) laminations

32. (2.1.8.2-1) Which of the following types of DC motors is considered to produce the highest starting
torque?
(a) cumulative-compound wound
(b) series wound
(c) shunt wound
(d) differential-compound wound

33. (2.1.5.12-3) A 480/120 VAC step-down control transformer is configured as shown in figure "E" of
the illustration. When 480 VAC is applied to the primary winding (across H1 and H2), an output of
141 VAC is produced across the secondary winding (across X1 and X2). What fault condition is
indicated? Illustration El-0123
(a) An open primary winding (across H1 and H2)
(b) A few shorted turns in the secondary winding
(c) An open secondary winding (across X1 and X2)
(d) A few shorted turns in the primary winding

34. (2.1.5.12-1) An open primary coil in a simple potential transformer will be indicated by which of the
listed conditions?
(a) An infinite resistance value on the secondary coil.
(b) Overloaded secondary coil.
(c) Low resistance value on the primary coil.
(d) No voltage on the output of the secondary coil.
35. (2.1.5.12-4) A 480/120 VAC step-down control transformer is configured as shown in figure "E" of
the illustration. When 480 VAC is applied to the primary winding (across H1 and H2), an output of 89
VAC is produced across the secondary winding (across X1 and X2). What fault condition is
indicated? Illustration EL-0123
(a) A few shorted turns in the secondary winding
(b) An open primary winding (across H1 and H2)
(c) An open secondary winding (across X1 and X2)
(d) A few shorted turns in the primary winding

36. (2.1.5.12-5) A 4160/480Y-277 VAC three phase power transformer bank as configured in figure "3"
of the illustration produces the following voltages when 4160 VAC is applied across A1 to B1, B1 to
C1, and C1 to A1. What condition is indicated? Illustration EL-0084
A2 to B2: 480 VAC
B2 to C2: 0 VAC
C2 to A2: 0 VAC
A2 to N2: 277 VAC
B2 to N2: 277 VAC
C2 to N2: 0 VAC
(a) Open secondary winding in transformer #3 (T3)
(b) Open secondary winding in transformer #1 (T1)
(c) A few shorted turns in the secondary winding of transformer #3 (T3)
(d) Open secondary winding in transformer #2 (T2)

37. (2.1.7.2-7) Which of the pictured motors within the split phase family of single phase induction
motors represents a split phase, resistive start, induction run motor? Illustration EL-0146
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

38. (2.1.7.2-2) Which statement is true concerning a split-phase induction motor?

(a) Motor speed can be readily adjusted from zero to full speed.
(b) Motor rotation can be reversed by reversing the leads on the starting winding.
(c) Motor rotation can be reversed without changing the windings or leads.
(d) The motor will run as a generator with the proper wiring.

39. (2.1.7.2-9) As shown in figures "A", "B", "C", and "D" of the illustration, what is the usual means by
which the rotation direction of the motor is reversed? Illustration EL-0207
(a) Interchanging leads L1 and L2
(b) Interchanging leads T1 and T5
(c) Interchanging leads T4 and T8
(d) Interchanging leads T5 and T8

40. (2.1.7.2-5) A shaded-pole motor is a specific type of motor included in what class of motor?
(a) polyphase synchronous motor
(b) single-phase induction motor
(c) DC compound wound motor
(d) three-phase induction motor

41. (2.1.7.2-1) Which type of AC single-phase motor will also operate on direct current?
(a) Series-wound
(b) Repulsion-start
(c) Shaded-pole
(d) Split-phase

42. (2.1.7.2-8) Within the split phase family of single phase motors, what are the operational
characteristics of the motor shown in figure "A" of the illustration? Illustration EL-0207
(a) Relatively high starting torque and relatively low running efficiency
(b) Relatively low starting torque and relatively high running efficiency
(c) Relatively high starting torque and relatively high running efficiency
(d) Relatively low starting torque and relatively low running efficiency

43. (2.1.7.2-4) What type of rotor is most commonly used in the split-phase family of single-phase
motors?
(a) Drum
(b) Squirrel-cage
(c) Salient pole
(d) Wound-rotor
44. (2.1.7.2-6) What is the main function in the use of a capacitor for starting a single phase motor?
(a) Prolong the life of the starting contacts
(b) Reduce the phase angle
(c) Reduce radio interference
(d) Split the phase to create greater starting torque

45. (2.1.7.2 -10) What are the operational characteristics of the split phase motor shown in figure "A" of
the illustration? Illustration EL-0215
(a) The motor is reversible and dual-voltage, configured for high volts.
(b) The motor is non-reversible and dual-voltage, configured for low volts.
(c) The motor is reversible and dual-voltage, configured for low volts.
(d) The motor is non-reversible and dual-voltage, configured for high volts.

46. (2.1.7.2-3) What is the main purpose of the auxiliary winding on a split-phase, single-phase motor?
(a) provide starting torque
(b) keep the motor running in the event the main winding should fail
(c) increase the starting current
(d) limit the starting voltage

47. (2.1 .22-1) What is the primary means by which an electrical maintenance worker is protected from
electrical hazards while performing work on an electrical circuit?
(a) shutting down the necessary equipment
(b) using the appropriate personal protective equipment
(c) posting of safety warning signs
(d) performing a lockout/tagout procedure

48. (2.1.22-7) At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a
condition where most people would experience respiratory paralysis and be unable to breathe while
still in contact with the energized conductor?
(a) 3 to 7 mA
(b) 10 to 16 mA
(c) 30 mA
(d) 75 mA for 5 sec.

49. (2.1.22-3) Which of the following devices would be forbidden to use as a primary means of electrical
isolation?
(a) circuit breaker
(b) fused disconnect switch
(c) non-fused disconnect switch
(d) start/stop push button station

50. (2.1 .22-9) After prior isolation and lockout/tagout procedures are performed, which electrical device
requires discharging any stored electrical energy before any work may safely begin?
(a) potential transformer
(b) capacitor
(c) resistor bank
(d) choke coil

51. (2.1 .22-6) At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a
condition where most people would suffer ventricular fibrillation and could only be resuscitated with a
ventricular defibrillator?
(a) 3 to 7 mA
(b) 10 to 16 mA
(c) 30 mA
(d) 75 mA for 5 sec.

52. (2.1.22-4) Before electrical work can be safely undertaken, the equipment must be de-energized,
locked and tagged out, and verification must be made that the circuit is actually dead. What testing
device is most certain to reliably verify that a circuit is actually dead?
(a) an autoranging digital multimeter
(b) a solenoid type voltage tester
(c) a non-autoranging digital multimeter
(d) a non-contact voltage tester

53. (2.1.22-8) At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a
condition where most people would be unable to let go of the energized electrical conductor due to
involuntary muscular contraction?
(a) 3 to 7 mA
(b) 10 to 16 mA
(c) 30 mA
(d) 75 mA for 5 sec.

54. (2.1 .22-2) Which of the following voltage testers would be associated with high quality, be safe to
use, and minimize the electric shock hazard?
(a) a voltage tester with a high input impedance and a voltage rating higher than any expected
measured voltages
(b) a voltage tester with a low input impedance and a higher voltage rating than any expected
measured voltages
(c) a voltage tester with a low input impedance and a lower voltage rating than any expected
measured voltages
(d) a voltage tester with a high input impedance and a lower voltage rating than any expected
measured voltages

55. (2.1.22-5) With all other factors considered equal (such as voltage, conducting path through the
body and the duration of contact), contact with an energized electrical system conductor of which
system type would produce the most damaging effect?
(a) DC systems
(b) 60 Hz AC systems
(c) 10 kHz AC systems
(d) All the above systems would be equally as damaging

56. (2.1.22-10) At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a
painful sensation that most people would perceive as an electric shock?
(a) 3 to 7 mA
(b) 10 to 16 mA
(c) 30 mA
(d) 100 mA for 2.5 sec.

57. (2.1.10.1-2) Of the listed factors that influence the amount of RMS voltage induced in the windings of
an AC generator operating at a constant 60 Hz frequency, which factor is variable during generator
operation?
(a) the number of armature coil turns in series per winding
(b) the strength of the rotating magnetic field
(c) the rotational speed at which the magnetic field passes across the stator winding
(d) the number of field coil turns in series per winding

58. (2.1.10.1-7) A DC generator which is used to supply direct current in order to provide magnetizing
current to an AC generator field is commonly known as what?
(a) armature
(b) exciter
(c) stator
(d) rotor

59. (2.1.10.1-3) If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel engine, creates pulsations when
coupled with a synchronous generator operating in parallel, the generator rotor may be periodically
pulled ahead or behind its normal position as it rotates. How can this condition called hunting be
reduced?
(a) by the use of amortisseur windings
(b) by decreasing governor speed droop
(c) by direct coupling
(d) by increasing governor speed droop

60. (2.1.10.1-5) How are AC and DC generators similar?

(a) They both internally produce three-phase power.
(b) They both rectify the current before delivery.
(c) They are both constructed at the same physical size for the same kilowatt rating.
(d) They both internally generate alternating current voltages.

61. (2.1.10.1-1) Which of the following statements about a three-phase wye connected alternator is
correct?
(a) The line voltage is 1.73 times the phase voltage.
(b) The phase current is 1.73 times the line current.
(c) The phase voltage is 1.73 times the line voltage.
(d) The line current is 1.73 times the phase current.

62. (2.1.12.4-1) As shown in the illustration, the change-over switch is what type of device? Illustration
EL-0058
(a) single-pole, single-throw switch
(b) single-pole, double-throw switch
(c) double-pole, single-throw switch
(d) double-pole, double-throw switch

63. (2.1.12.4-4) What is the purpose of the inner phosphor coating of the fluorescent tube as shown in
figure "A" of the illustration? Illustration EL-0081
(a) absorb visible ultraviolet light and emit invisible white light
(b) absorb invisible ultraviolet light and emit visible white light
(c) absorb invisible ultraviolet light and emit invisible white light
(d) absorb visible ultraviolet light and emit visible white light

64. (2.1.12.4-5) Which of the following figures shown in the illustration represents incandescent lighting?
Illustration EL-0122
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

65. (2.1.12.4-2) Besides the fluorescent lamp itself and possibly a starter, which of the following
components is included in a fluorescent lighting fixture?
(a) Magnetic resonator
(b) Magnetron
(c) Laser
(d) Ballast (choke coil)

66. (2.1.12.4-5) Incandescent lamps are classified according to the shape of the bulb and the type of
service, as well as the size and style of the base. How are incandescent lamps rated?
(a) operating voltage and wattage
(b) operating resistance
(c) operating frequency and impedance
(d) operating reactance

67. (2.1.10.3-7) By what means is an AC generator prevented from becoming motorized?

(a) overspeed trip
(b) reverse power relay
(c) governor controls
(d) back pressure trip

68. (2.1.10.3-4) Diesel-generators #1 and #2 are operating in parallel at near full load capacity. Diesel-
generator #1 suddenly trips out mechanically due to low lube oil pressure. The reverse power relay
functions properly and trips generator #1 electrically off the board. Which of the following actions
should you carry out FIRST?
(a) Strip the board of all nonvital circuits.
(b) Secure alarms, reset reverse power relay, and restart #1 engine.
(c) Ascertain cause of the low lube oil pressure.
(d) Start the emergency generator.

69. (2.1.10.3-1) Two AC generators are operating in parallel and both are equipped with automatic
voltage regulators. While standing watch, one generator is noted as having a greater lagging kvar
value. In order to equalize the kvars between the generators manually, what should be done?
(a) increase the voltage of the generator with the largest kvar while decreasing the other
generator voltage
(b) increase the speed of the generator with the largest kvar while decreasing the other generator
speed
(c) decrease the voltage of the generator with the largest kvar while increasing the other
generator voltage
(d) decrease the speed of the generator with the largest kvar while increasing the other generator
speed

70. (2.1.10.3-3) While paralleling 2 AC generators using synchronizing lamps only, when will both lamps
go dark?
(a) when the generators are in synchronism
(b) when the generators are running at the same speed
(c) when the generators are out of synchronism
(d) when the generators are running at different speeds

71. (2.1 .10.3-6) Upon failure of the normal power supply, by what means is the emergency generator
placed on the line and connected to the emergency bus?
(a) bus tie feeder
(b) line connection feeder
(c) power failure alarm bus
(d) automatic bus transfer device

72. (2.1.10.3-5) When shore power is being connected to a ship in drydock, what must be ensured,
assuming that the ship's generators are rated at 450 VAC, 60 Hz with a total capacity of 5000 kW?
(a) shore power must be capable of delivering a total of 5000 kW
(b) exactly 60 Hz must be supplied from shore, as no tolerance is permitted
(c) shore power phase sequence must agree with that of the ship
(d) exactly 450 volts must be supplied from shore, as no tolerance is permitted

73. (2.1.10.3-2) When paralleling two alternators the synchronizing lamps grow dim and are totally
darkened as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0° position. What does this indicate?
(a) the alternator voltages are 180° apart
(b) the incoming alternator is in synchronism with the bus
(c) the incoming alternator is running too fast
(d) the synchroscope pointer is defective or broken

74. (2.1.19.1 -6) As shown in the illustrated plots of uncorrected and temperature corrected insulation
resistance readings for a particular piece of equipment, at what point in time should the equipment
have been refurbished or replaced? Illustration EL-0120
(a) 2006
(b) 2008
(c) 2010
(d) no refurbishment or replacement was necessary through 2011

75. (2.1.19.1-4) When testing insulation resistance of electric equipment and machinery, ideally when
should the insulation resistance be tested for the lowest normal insulation values?
(a) every time the brush rigging is adjusted
(b) every 30 days whether the machine is in use or not
(c) immediately after starting up the machine
(d) immediately after shutting down the machine

76. (2.1.19.1-3) When regreasing the electric motor bearing as shown in figure "B" of the illustration,
what practice should be avoided? Illustration EL-0218
(a) Completely filling the bearing cavity with new grease.
(b) Flushing out the old grease while running the motor with no load.
(c) Flushing out the old grease with an approved solvent.
(d) Only partially filling the bearing cavity with new grease.

77. (2.1.19.1-5) What would be the indication of a grounded switch or cable as measured by a
megohmmeter?
(a) being unsteady in the low range
(b) 'zero'
(c) being unsteady in the high range
(d) infinity

78. (2.1.19.1-7) Before any work on electrical or electronic equipment is performed, which of the
following precautions should be carried out?
(a) Secure and tag the supply circuit breaker in the open position.
(b) De-energize the applicable switchboard bus.
(c) Bypass the interlocks.
(d) Station a man at the circuit supply switch.

79. (2.1 .19.1-2) What should be included in the routine periodic maintenance checks for electrical
motors?
(a) checking for watertight integrity
(b) checking for speed droop
(c) checking for vibration
(d) checking for reactive power

80. (2.1.19.1-1) If overloading an electric motor becomes necessary in an emergency situation, what
should be done to prevent damage to the motor while allowing sustained operation?
(a) increase the residual magnetism value of windings to reduce eddy currents
(b) hold thermal overload relays open with blocks of wood
(c) inject small amounts of CO2 into the windings for cooling
(d) cool the motor with portable blowers and fans
81. (2.1.8.4-4) When a compound wound DC motor is differentially compounded, what does this mean?
(a) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in the same direction as the current flow
direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which case the field fluxes are additive.
(b) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in the same direction as the current flow
direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which case the field fluxes are subtractive.
(c) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in the opposite direction as the current
flow direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which case the field fluxes are subtractive.
(d) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in the opposite direction as the current
flow direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which case the field fluxes are additive.

82. (2.1.8.4-2) Which of the listed DC compound motor connection schemes is the most commonly
used?
(a) differentially compounded long-shunt
(b) cumulatively compounded long-shunt
(c) differentially compounded short-shunt
(d) cumulatively compounded short-shunt

83. (2.1.8.4-1) The wiring diagram found in figure "B" of the illustration represents what type of DC
motor? Illustration EL-0054
(a) differentially compounded short-shunt
(b) cumulatively compounded short-shunt
(c) cumulatively compounded long-shunt
(d) differentially compounded long-shunt

84. (2.1.8.4-5) Assuming that a cumulatively compounded DC motor is fitted with interpoles and
compensating windings, normally how is the direction of rotation in such a DC motor reversed?
(a) By reversing the armature winding leads.
(b) By reversing the armature-interpole-compensating winding leads as a unit.
(c) By reversing the series field winding leads.
(d) By reversing the shunt field winding leads.

85. (2.1.8.4-3) When a compound wound DC motor is cumulatively
(a) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in
flow direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which
(b) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in
flow direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which
(c) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in
direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which case
(d) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in
direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which case
compounded, what does this mean?
the opposite direction as the current
case the field fluxes are additive.
the opposite direction as the current
case the field fluxes are subtractive.
the same direction as the current flow
the field fluxes are subtractive.
the same direction as the current flow
the field fluxes are additive.

86. (2.1.18.3-3) In the event of a power failure during cargo loading operations, the movement of an
electric powered cargo winch will be stopped by what means?
(a) a manual override switch
(b) a hand operated band brake
(c) the weight of the load on the boom
(d) a spring set brake

87. (2.1.18.3-6) What statement is true concerning
illustration? Illustration EL-0102
(a) They are closed only when the master switch is
(b) They are closed only when the master switch is
(c) They are closed only when the master switch is
(d) They are opened only when the master switch is
the 'MS 1' contacts of the master switch shown in the
'off.
selected for a 'lower' position.
selected for a 'hoist' position.
'off.

88. (2.1.18.3-11) As shown in the illustration, what is responsible for maintaining the "UV" relay
energized when the master switch handle is moved away from the "off" position? Illustration EL-0102
(a) normally open 'UV' contacts
(b) 'MS 2' contacts
(c) 'MS 1' contacts
(d) normally closed 'OL' contacts

89. (2.1.18.3-2) When the control handle is in the 'off position, what is the status of the solenoid
actuated brake of an electric winch?
(a) energized and the brake is released
(b) de-energized and the brake is set by a spring
(c) energized and the brake is set by a spring
(d) de-energized and the brake is released
90. (2.1.18.3-8) What is the functional purpose of the 'MS 2' contacts in the hoist controller circuit shown
in the illustration? Illustration EL-0102
(a) The 'MS 2' contacts are used to select for 'second point' hoisting and lowering.
(b) The 'MS 2' contacts are used to select for 'first point' hoisting and lowering.
(c) The 'MS 2' contacts are not used in this particular application.
(d) The "MS 2' contacts are used for resetting the undervoltage (UV) contactor.

91. (2.1.18.3-9) As shown in the illustration, how are the rotor windings of the motor configured?
Illustration EL-0102
(a) wye
(b) delta
(c) series-parallel
(d) open delta

92. (2.1.18.3-7) What is the functional purpose of the 'LSL' contacts for the hoist controller circuit shown
in the illustration? Illustration EL-0102
(a) It is a limit switch which illuminates a warning light to warn the winch operator when the hoist
block is approaching the boom.
(b) It is a limit switch which illuminates a warning light to warn the winch operator when the cable
has only a few wraps on the drum while paying out.
(c) It is a limit switch which automatically stops the winch drum rotation in the lower direction
before all the cable is payed out insuring that a few wraps remain on the drum.
(d) It is a limit switch which automatically stops the winch drum rotation in the hoist direction
before the hoist block is able to strike the boom.

93. (2.1.18.3-10) Which of the listed conditions occur when selection is made for 'third point hoist' on the
winch hoist controller shown in the illustration? Illustration EL-0102
(a) Master switch contacts "4","5", and "6" close.
(b) Contactors 'H', '1A' and '2A' drop out.
(c) Master switch contacts "4","7", and "8" close.
(d) Contactors 'H’, '3A', '4A' pick up.

94. (2.1.18.3-5) What type of motor is used in the AC hoist controller as shown in the illustration?
Illustration EL-0102
(a) wound rotor induction motor
(b) synchronous motor
(c) stepper motor
(d) squirrel cage induction motor

95. (2.1.6.2-3) What is the nominal open-circuit cell voltage of one lead-acid storage battery cell?
(a) 1.2 volts
(b) 2 volts
(c) 6 volts
(d) 12 volts

96. (2.1.6.2-2) As shown in the cutaway view of the lead-acid battery in figure "A" of the illustration, if
one-half of the battery's cells are revealed by the cutaway section (with the other half remaining
hidden from view), what is the nominal output voltage of the battery? Illustration EL-0031
(a) 6 volts
(b) 7.5 volts
(c) 12 volts
(d) 18 volts

97. (2.1.6.2-1) Which of the following statements describes the effects of ambient temperature on local
action within lead-acid storage batteries?
(a) At 90°F all local action virtually ceases.
(b) Increasing ambient temperature decreases local action.
(c) Ambient temperature has no effect on local action.
(d) Increasing ambient temperature increases local action.

98. (2.1.6.2-4) To keep emergency
is normally done?
(a) Batteries are kept charged by
(b) Batteries are kept charged by
(c) Batteries are kept charged by
(d) Batteries are kept charged by
lead-acid batteries in a full state of charge for emergency use, what
performing an equalizing charge daily.
maintaining a continuous trickle charge.
maintaining the maximum charging rate.
cycling through discharge and charge cycles daily.
99. (2.1.6.2-5) Assuming that the electrolyte has had sufficient time to be uniformly diffused throughout
the cell, if the open-circuit cell voltage as measured by a digital multimeter is 2.12, what would be the
approximate specific gravity?
(a) 1.260
(b) 1.270
(c) 1.280
(d) 1.290

100. (2.1.19.5-1) With regard to the maintenance of electrical generating machines with insulated
pedestal bearings, what practice should be avoided?
(a) touching the bearing shell while the machine running
(b) painting or allowing grease build up on the insulated area
(c) using a megohmmeter with the machine disassembled to determine insulation values
(d) cleaning and removing grease from the insulated area

101. (2.1.19.5-4) In performing routine maintenance of a ship's service alternator, what should be
included?
(a) lubricating exciter slip rings
(b) megger testing of all rectifying diodes
(c) changing the pedestal bearing insulation yearly
(d) periodic cleaning of the air filters or screens

102. (2.1 .19.5-5) How may chattering of the collector/slip ring brushes on a generator be remedied?
(a) lubricating brush holders
(b) re-insulating the brushes
(c) cleaning the collector rings with a canvas wiper
(d) increasing length of pigtail

103. (2.1.19.5-7) Which of the following statements, concerning the cleaning maintenance of a
brushless generator, is correct?
(a) Cleaning of windings should be performed on a periodic basis regardless of the state of
cleanliness.
(b) Hot soapy water should be used to remove dust and grime from windings.
(c) High-pressure air should be used to blow out dust and grime from the windings.
(d) Cleaning of windings should be performed on a conditional basis using a vacuum or using a
clean, dry, lint-free rag.

104. (2.1.19.5-6) Which of the following materials is recommended for burnishing the slip rings of an
alternator after grinding or turning?
(a) canvas wiper
(b) grade 00 sandpaper
(c) hardwood block
(d) smooth file

105. (2.1.19.5 -3) If rotor-to-stator air gap readings for an electrical generating machine have changed
significantly from the last reading, what should be checked?
(a) insulation readings and machine cleanliness
(b) the prime mover thrust bearing for wear
(c) the generator bearings for wear
(d) the field coil bolts for the proper torque values

106. (2.1.19.5-8) When an alternator is to remain idle for even a few days, what should be done?
(a) open the equalizing bus disconnect switch
(b) energize the space heater circuit
(c) insulate the collector rings with strips of cardboard
(d) lift the brushes and disconnect the pigtails

107. (2.1 .19.5-2) Rotor-to-stator air gap readings should be periodically taken for electrical generation
equipment. What is the best tool to use to take these measurements?
(a) dial indicator
(b) inside micrometer
(c) tapered, long blade, feeler gage
(d) cloth (non-metallic) tape measure

108. (2.1.2.3-5) What would be the total current in figure "A" of the circuit illustrated if the value of
capacitor C1 was 100 microfarads, capacitor C2 was 200 microfarads and the power supply was
240 volts at 60 Hz? Illustration EL-0038
(a) 27 amps
(b) 37 amps
(c) 47 amps
(d) 57 amps

109. (2.1.2.3-3) In the schematic of the electrical circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what is
the value of the total capacitance, when compared to the value of equal individual capacitors?
Illustration EL-0038
(a) Half
(b) Equal
(c) Double
(d) Squared

110. (2.1.2.3-2) If a circuit has resistances of 5, 10, and 20 ohms connected in parallel, what is the
combined total resistance of the circuit?
(a) 1.5 ohms
(b) 2.9 ohms
(c) 17.5 ohms
(d) 35.0 ohms

111. (2.1.2.3-1) Two 100 watt light bulbs rated at 100 volts are connected in parallel across a 100 volt
power supply. What will be the total power consumed by the two bulbs?
(a) 50 watts
(b) 66.7 watts
(c) 100 watts
(d) 200 watts

112. (2.1.2.3-7) What is the current flowing through R3 in figure "B" of the illustrated circuit when the
switch is closed if the battery voltage is 12 VDC and resistance of R1 is 2 ohms, R2 is 3 ohms, and
R3 is 6 ohms, respectively? Illustration EL-0019
(a) 2 amps
(b) 4 amps
(c) 6 amps
(d) 12 amps

113. (2.1.2.3-6) What would be the capacitive reactance of the circuit shown in figure "A" of the
illustration if the capacitance of C1 was 100 microfarads, the capacitance of C2 was 200 microfarads
and the frequency of the source was 60 cycles per second (Hz)? Illustration EL-0038
(a) 8.8 ohms
(b) 17.7 ohms
(c) 39.8 ohms
(d) 79.6 ohms

114. (2.1.2.3-4) What would be the total capacitance of the circuit illustrated in figure "A" if the value of
capacitor C1 was 100 microfarads and capacitor C2 was 200 microfarads? Illustration EL-0038
(a) 66.6 microfarads
(b) 150 microfarads
(c) 166.6 microfarads
(d) 300 microfarads

115. (2.1.1.3 -8) As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, with the switch closed what statement is true
if 'R1' and 'R2' have unequal resistance values? Illustration EL-0019
(a) The energy dissipated in 'R1' will be the same as the energy dissipated in 'R2'.
(b) The voltage drop across 'R1' will not be equal to the voltage drop across 'R2'.
(c) The current flow through 'R1' will equal the current flow through 'R2'.
(d) The current flow through 'R1' will differ from the current flow through 'R2'.

116. (2.1.1.3-6) Four lamps are connected in parallel in a single circuit. If one of the lamps burns out,
what will happen to the other lamps?
(a) all go out
(b) become dimmer
(c) burn with their original intensities
(d) become brighter

117. (2.1.1.3 -3) What statement is true concerning the total resistance of a parallel circuit?
(a) The total resistance is equal to the sum of the individual branch resistances divided by the
number of branches.
(b) The total resistance is larger than that of the branch with the greatest resistance.
(c) The total resistance is smaller than that of the branch with the lowest resistance.
(d) The total resistance is equal to the sum of the individual branch resistances.
118. (2.1.1.3-4) Which of the following statements is true concerning circuits with parallel connected
resistances?
(a) The total current flow equals the sum of the individual currents.
(b) The total voltage equals the sum of the individual voltages across each resistance.
(c) The total current flow equals the reciprocal of the sum of the individual currents.
(d) The total resistance equals the sum of the individual resistance.

119. (2.1.1.3-5) What statement is true concerning the electrical diagram shown in figure "B" of the
illustration? Illustration EL-0019
(a) The voltages measured across 'R1', 'R2' and 'R3' will be different if 'R1', 'R2' and 'R3' have
different values.
(b) The total resistance equals R1 + R2 + R3.
(c) 'R1', 'R2', and 'R3' are connected in parallel.
(d) 'R1', 'R2', and 'R3' are connected in series.

120. (2.1.1.3 -1) Which of the electrical properties listed will always be the same across each
component in a parallel circuit?
(a) Voltage
(b) Resistance
(c) Current
(d) Impedance

121. (2.1.1.3 -7) What will happen to the total circuit resistance when additional parallel circuits are
added to a circuit?
(a) it will increase, causing a decrease in the line voltage
(b) it will decrease, causing an increase in the line voltage
(c) it will increase, causing a drop in the total load current
(d) it will decrease, causing an increase in the total load current

122. (2.1.1.3-9) Which statement is true concerning the total power consumed in a parallel circuit?
(a) The total power is always less than the power consumed by the smallest load.
(b) The total power is equal to the sum of the powers consumed by each individual load.
(c) The total power is never more than the power consumed by the largest load.
(d) The total power is the sum of the powers consumed by each load (resistor) divided by the
number of loads.

123. (2.1.1.3-2) Which of the following statements concerning a circuit with parallel connected resistors
is correct?
(a) The voltage drop across each resistor is the same.
(b) The total current flow equals the reciprocal of the sum of the individual currents.
(c) The total voltage equals the sum of the individual voltages across each resistance.
(d) The total resistance equals the sum of the individual resistances.

124. (2.1 .18.4-5) As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, the actual rudder angle repeatback signal
originates at what device and is delivered to what other device? Illustration EL-0097
(a) originates at the amplifier and delivered to the control potentiometer
(b) originates at the power unit and delivered to the amplifier
(c) originates at the power unit and delivered to the control potentiometer
(d) originates at the amplifier and delivered to the power unit

125. (2.1.18.4-3) When power is restored after a complete power failure, how will the steering gear
pump motor which was on-line respond?
(a) It will restart automatically
(b) It will have to be reset manually
(c) It will have to be restarted manually
(d) It will trip its overload relays

126. (2.1.18.4-4) Referring to the illustration of a steering gear hydraulic power unit motor controller, if
the motor is drawing current no greater than full load current, what will the status of the overload
relay contacts and the control relay contacts be? Illustration EL-0119
(a) The overload relay contacts will be OPEN
The control relay contacts will be CLOSED
(b) The overload relay contacts will be CLOSED
The control relay contacts will be OPEN
(c) The overload relay contacts will be CLOSED
The control relay contacts will be CLOSED
(d) The overload relay contacts will be OPEN
The control relay contacts will be OPEN
127. (2.1.18.4-2) What is the name of the mechanism used to transmit rudder angle information from
the steering gear itself to the wheelhouse in the illustrated rudder angle indicator system? Illustration
EL-0092
(a) telemotor
(b) synchronous transmission
(c) differential gear
(d) gear transmission

128. (2.1.4.1-4) When a resistor is used as a shunt and is connected in parallel with a meter
movement coil, what capability does this provide?
(a) a measurement of circuit resistance
(b) an extended meter range
(c) an increased accuracy of approximately 1.5 percent
(d) this is never done

129. (2.1.4.1-3) An internal resistance is placed in series with the meter movement of which of the
following instruments?
(a) AC frequency meter
(b) AC ammeter
(c) DC ammeter
(d) DC voltmeter

130. (2.1.4.1-11) What practice could potentially damage a multimeter?

(a) placing the test leads in series with the load of a circuit to measure current while in the
voltmeter mode
(b) placing the test leads across a voltage source to measure voltage while in the resistance
mode
(c) placing the test leads across a de-energized and isolated resistance to measure resistance
while in the voltmeter mode
(d) placing the test leads across a de-energized and isolated resistance to measure resistance
while in the ammeter mode

131. (2.1.4.1-9) What is an ohmmeter used to measure?

(a) voltage between two points in a circuit
(b) circuit resistance
(c) circuit power
(d) the amount of current flow in a circuit

132. (2.1.4.1-13) In what situation would an electrical phase sequence indicator be useful?
(a) preparing to parallel alternators
(b) connecting shore power lines to the ship
(c) connecting lighting branch circuits
(d) troubleshooting DC motors

133. (2.1.4.1-2) Periodic testing using a special camera may be performed to detect potentially
dangerous loose or corroded bus bar and controller connections. What is the name of this testing
technology?
(a) corrosion electrolysis
(b) electric vibroanalysis
(c) heat sensitive thermography
(d) visual pyrotronics

134. (2.1.4.1-15) What is the circuit shown in the illustration used to measure? Illustration EL-0024
(a) battery discharge rate in ampere-hours
(b) resistance
(c) gauss or magnetic field strength
(d) capacitance

135. (2.1.4.1-5) What is the instrument called a galvanometer used to measure?

(a) resistance of electrical wiring insulation
(b) quantity of galvans in an electric circuit
(c) very small amounts of current
(d) thickness of galvanized metal

136. (2.1.6.1-4) What is true concerning the installation of batteries used for diesel engine starting?
(a) be located as close as possible to the engine
(b) be located in a locker on the weather deck
(c) only be of the nickel alkaline type
(d) have sufficient capacity to provide at least 50 starts consecutively without recharging
137. (2.1.6.1-2) Three 12 volt, lead-acid, batteries connected in series will develop how many volts?
(a) 12 volts
(b) 24 volts
(c) 36 volts
(d) 48 volts

138. (2.1.6.1-6) Why should battery rooms be well ventilated during the charging of storage batteries?
(a) without ventilation the battery will not take a full charge
(b) without ventilation excessive gassing will occur
(c) highly explosive gases will otherwise accumulate
(d) highly poisonous gases are released

139. (2.1.6.1-1) What is the ampere-hour rating of a lead-acid battery that can deliver 20 amperes
continuously for 10 hours?
(a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 200
(d) 400

140. (2.1.6.1-3) As shown in the illustration, the wet cell storage batteries are connected in what
configuration? Illustration EL-0071
(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) tandem
(d) compound

141. (2.1.6.1-5) The individual 12 volt lead-acid batteries, when connected as shown in the illustration,
as a battery bank would produce how many volts? Illustration EL-0070
(a) 12 volts
(b) 24 volts
(c) 36 volts
(d) 48 volts

142. (2.1.6.1 -7) Which of the following procedures represents the best method to prevent the freezing
of batteries continuously exposed to low temperatures?
(a) The battery cap vents should be sealed.
(b) The battery caps should be removed.
(c) The battery should be disconnected from its charging source.
(d) The battery should be kept in a fully charged condition.

143. (2.1 .13.1-10) Which of the following statements concerning analog and digital devices is correct?
(a) There are no basic differences between the two systems.
(b) Analog devices are superior in accuracy compared to digital devices.
(c) Operations in a digital device are performed simultaneously.
(d) The variables in digital systems are fixed quantities, and the variables in analog systems are
continuous quantities.

144. (2.1.13.1-13) Which line in figure "B" shown in the illustration represents the trailing edge of the
wave? Illustration EL-0088
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

145. (2.1.13.1 -1) Which of the substances listed can be used to shield sensitive equipment from static
magnetic fields?
(a) Permeable iron
(b) Bakelite
(c) Mica
(d) Glass

146. (2.1.13.1-2) When placed in a magnetic field, which of the materials listed will maintain the
highest permeability?
(a) Bakelite
(b) Glass
(c) Aluminum
(d) Soft iron
147. (2.1 .13.1-14) As shown in the illustrated harmonic analysis diagram, which figure represents the
fundamental (or first harmonic)? Illustration EL-0163
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

148. (2.1.13.1-12) Which of the wave shapes shown in the illustration is termed a sinusoidal wave?
Illustration EL-0088
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

149. (2.1.13.1-11) The multiplier prefix 'giga' (G) such as used in "gigabytes" represents what
multiplication factor?
(a) thousand (10 to the 3rd power)
(b) million (10 to the 6th power)
(c) billion (10 to the 9th power)
(d) trillion (10 to the 12th power)

150. (2.1.5.3 -5) Besides checking for grounds, for what other purpose can a megohmmeter be used
on a DC motor?
(a) checking for undercut mica
(b) checking for a shorted field pole
(c) checking for an open field coil
(d) checking for reversed interpole polarity

151. (2.1.5.3-2) What would excessive sparking at the brushes of a running DC motor be an indication
of?
(a) water vapor absorption
(b) normal operation
(c) a dirty commutator
(d) increased brush capacity

152. (2.1.5.3-3) What is the most effective method of locating a loose commutator bar in a DC motor?
(a) sounding each bar with a light weight hammer
(b) visual inspection
(c) checking with a calibrated torque wrench
(d) jiggling each by hand

153. (2.1.5.3-1) How may temporary repairs to an open DC propulsion armature coil be made, allowing
continued operation until permanent repairs can be made?
(a) disconnecting coil ends, insulating each, and short circuiting the two commutator bars
(b) connecting the coil ends directly to a pair of negative brushes
(c) grounding the coil ends and short circuiting the commutator bar
(d) removing the sparking brushes

154. (2.1.5.3 -4) If a DC motor hums, but does not run when energized, which of the listed conditions
could exist?
(a) No load on the motor
(b) Blown fuse or tripped circuit breaker
(c) Tight bearings/frozen shaft
(d) Tripped overload

155. (2.1.5.3-6) When using a megohmmeter to determine which shunt field coil is grounded in a DC
machine, what must you do?
(a) use a motor driven high capacity megohmmeter
(b) insulate the field frame from the ship's hull
(c) remove all main line lead connections before testing
(d) disconnect each shunt field coil before testing

156. (2.1.4.4-5) When a megohmmeter is used to test insulation, what condition causes the gradual
rise of the pointer reading as a result of continued cranking?
(a) the dielectric-absorption effect of the insulation
(b) good conductor resistance
(c) the inductive reactance of the windings
(d) the leakage of current along the surface of dirty insulation
157. (2.1.4.4-8) What is the resistance reading at "1" on the megger scale illustrated in figure "A"?
Illustration EL-0044
(a) 150 ohms
(b) 150 thousand ohms
(c) 120 megohms
(d) 150 megohms

158. (2.1.4.4 -7) In which of the situations listed will a megohmmeter give the most accurate readings?
(a) While the machine is in operation.
(b) Immediately prior to restarting the machine.
(c) While the machine is discharging static electricity.
(d) When the machine has been shut down and grounded for a period of 15 minutes.

159. (2.1.4.4 -3) When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation resistance, current leakage
along the surface of the insulation is indicated by a very specific megohmmeter pointer movement.
What would be the characteristic of the pointer movement under these conditions?
(a) continually rising as the test voltage is applied
(b) dipping towards 'zero', then rising slowly
(c) fluctuating around a constant resistance reading
(d) kicking slightly downscale as voltage is applied

160. (2.1.4.4-1) In testing a hand cranked megger prior to use, what statement is true?
(a) With the test leads shorted or open, the pointer should go to zero ohms.
(b) With the test leads shorted or open, the pointer should go to infinite ohms.
(c) With the test leads shorted, the pointer should go to zero ohms, and with the tests leads open,
the pointer should go to infinite ohms.
(d) With the test leads shorted, the pointer should go to infinite ohms, and with the tests leads
open, the pointer should go to zero ohms.

161. (2.1.7.1-18) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated motor nameplate, how much current could
the motor safely draw on a continuous basis at sea level without overheating? Illustration EL-0171
(a) 142 amps
(b) 156 amps
(c) 163 amps
(d) 187 amps

162. (2.1.7.1-7) Which of the following motors has a frame configuration for solid base mounting only?
Illustration EL-0184
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

163. (2.1.7.1-8) What is the most practical method of controlling the RPM of a multi-speed AC motor
operating at a constant frequency?
(a) change the number of operating poles
(b) change the input voltage
(c) change the power factor
(d) change the number of brushes

164. (2.1.7.1-3) Regarding an induction motor, what does the power developed by the rotor
automatically adjust itself to?
(a) speed required to drive the load
(b) torque developed by the rotating field
(c) power required to drive the load
(d) current flow in the motor stator

165. (2.1.7.1-13) What will be the impact of reduced voltage applied to a motor during the starting
period?
(a) increase the starting current and decrease the acceleration time
(b) decrease the starting current and decrease the acceleration time
(c) increase the starting current and increase the acceleration time
(d) decrease the starting current and increase the acceleration time

166. (2.1.7.1-6) Which of the illustrated motors has an open motor enclosure? Illustration EL-0001
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
167. (2.1.7.1-1) Which of the illustrated motors has an open, drip-proof (ODP) motor enclosure?
Illustration EL-0001
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

168. (2.1.19.7-2) Which of the following methods should be used to dress the face of silver-plated
contacts?
(a) Knurling with a knurling tool
(b) Filing with a mill file
(c) Burnishing with a burnishing tool
(d) Sanding with 0000 sandpaper

169. (2.1.19.7-1) The current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends to trip may be decreased
by raising the plunger further into the magnetic circuit of the relay. What effect does this action
have?
(a) increases magnetic pull on the plunger and requires more current to trip the relay
(b) reduces magnetic pull on the plunger and requires less current to trip the relay
(c) increases magnetic pull on the plunger and requires less current to trip the relay
(d) reduces magnetic pull on the plunger and requires more current to trip the relay

170. (2.1 .19.7-3) High-pressure compressed air should not be used to clean electric motors or
controller equipment. Why not?
(a) the air blast dries out insulation quickly
(b) a mask and respirator would be required
(c) it may imbed metallic particles into coil insulation
(d) the surrounding area may need additional cleaning

171. (2.1 .19.7-5) Before working on an electric cargo winch master switch or controller, what should be
done?
(a) heat the switch box to remove any moisture
(b) open the circuit breaker in the power supply and tag-out
(c) drain condensate from the box
(d) spray the gasket surface with a solvent

172. (2.1.19.7-4) Why are electric strip heaters used in motor controllers?
(a) keep the components at their design ambient temperature
(b) minimize resistance in internal circuits
(c) prevent freezing of movable contacts
(d) prevent condensation of moisture

173. (2.1.5.6-4) If a self-excited DC generator running at rated speed fails to deliver an output voltage,
which of the following conditions may be a cause of this difficulty?
(a) Excessive residual magnetism.
(b) An open shunt-field circuit.
(c) Excessive brush pressure.
(d) A shorted shunt-field circuit.

174. (2.1.5.6 -3) What can cause uneven wear of the commutator surface on a direct current
generator?
(a) rapid change in load
(b) excessive operation at light load
(c) unequal pole spacing
(d) incorrect brush staggering

175. (2.1.5.6-1) What may cause brush sparking in a DC generator during commutation?
(a) eddy currents in the armature core
(b) hysteresis in the armature core
(c) excessive brush pressure
(d) misalignment of the brush rigging

176. (2.1.5.6 -2) Hysteresis is one cause of electrical power loss associated with electricity generation
equipment. What phenomenon results in hysteresis?
(a) heat generated by magnetic polarity reversals
(b) excessive field current
(c) pulsating terminal current
(d) arcing at the brushes
177. (2.1.11.2 -2) For the purposes of generating a DC voltage, which of the following factors is subject
to vary for a particular generator installation while in operation?
(a) The number of field poles.
(b) The magnetic strength of the field flux.
(c) The arrangement of the armature windings.
(d) The number of armature coils.

178. (2.1.11.2 -3) What statement is true concerning the use of commutating poles (also known as
interpoles) in DC generators?
(a) These large poles are placed in the magnetic neutral plane between the main field poles and
are designed to eliminate or reduce sparking caused by inductance of the field coils.
(b) These windings are wound on the main field poles and are designed to eliminate or reduce
sparking caused by inductance of the field coils.
(c) These windings are wound on the main field poles and are designed to eliminate or reduce
sparking caused by inductance of the armature coils.
(d) These narrow poles are placed in the magnetic neutral plane between the main field poles
and are designed to eliminate or reduce sparking caused by inductance of the armature coils.

179. (2.1.11.2-4) What statement is true concerning the use of compensating windings in DC
generators?
(a) These windings are wound on the main field pole pieces and are designed to eliminate or
reduce sparking caused by inductance of the armature coils.
(b) These windings are wound on the main field pole pieces and are designed to counteract
armature reaction associated with heavy loads and minimize field distortion.
(c) These narrow poles are placed in the magnetic neutral plane between the main field poles and
are designed to eliminate or reduce sparking caused by inductance of the armature coils.
(d) These narrow poles are placed in the magnetic neutral plane between the main field
poles and are designed to counteract armature reaction associated with heavy loads and
minimize field distortion.

180. (2.1.11.2-5) What is the purpose of the series field used in a stabilized shunt DC generator?
(a) The series field eliminates the need for commutating poles (also known as interpoles).
(b) The series field improves inherent voltage regulation beyond that of a shunt wound generator.
(c) The series field improves inherent speed regulation beyond that of a shunt wound generator.
(d) The series field eliminates the need for compensating windings.

181. (2.1.11.2-1) What two factors determine the magnitude of the generated voltage of a DC
generator?
(a) The rotational speed of the armature and the magnetic strength of the field flux.
(b) The armature current draw and the magnetic strength of the field flux.
(c) The rotational speed of the field and the magnetic strength of the armature flux.
(d) The rotational speed of the armature and the armature current draw.

182. (2.1.14.3-3) What type of motor is generally used in DC propulsion drive systems?
(a) series wound
(b) permanent magnet
(c) differentially compounded
(d) shunt wound

183. (2.1.14.3-4) What equipment for modern SCR rectified DC propulsion drive systems is usually
included in the package?
(a) propulsion generators which produce DC power that is converted to AC power for the
propulsion motor
(b) propulsion generators which produce AC power that is converted to DC power for the shunt
wound DC propulsion motor
(c) propulsion generators which produce AC power that is directly delivered to the synchronous
AC propulsion motor
(d) propulsion generators which produce DC power that is directly delivered to the series wound
DC propulsion motor

184. (2.1.14.3-1) In a diesel-electric plant, raising the generator's field excitation current will have what
effect on the DC propulsion motor speed?
(a) effect generator speed only
(b) decrease in speed
(c) increase in speed
(d) effect main motor speed if done in conjunction with higher generator engine speeds

185. (2.1.14.3-2) How is the main propeller shaft rotation of a rectified DC diesel-electric drive normally
reversed?
(a) reversing the field polarity in the DC motor
(b) reversing the diesel engine rotation
(c) reversing the field polarity in the AC generator
(d) reversing the interpoles

186. (2.1.12.1-2) Due to the operating characteristics of the system, time lag fuses (or dual-element
fuses) are necessary for use in what types of circuits?
(a) emergency lighting circuits
(b) main lighting circuits
(c) motor starting circuits
(d) general alarm circuits

187. (2.1.12.1-5) Which pair of safety disconnect switches shown in the illustration represents the
exterior and interior views of a double-throw switch? Illustrations EL-0176
(a) A and B
(b) B and D
(c) C and D
(d) A and C

188. (2.1.12.1-3) What is the characteristic that is associated with an "instantaneous-trip" single-
element type fuse?
(a) opens a circuit by using a time delay element with a magnetic trip
(b) opens as soon as the load current exceeds its setpoint
(c) allows a preset delay between overcurrent and melting
(d) resets itself when the overcurrent is corrected

189. (2.1.12.1-1) How are fuses usually rated?

(a) watts only
(b) amps only
(c) volts and amps only
(d) volts, amps, and interrupting capacity

190. (2.1.12.1-4) Fuses are sometimes placed in series with a thermal trip-type circuit breaker. What is
the purpose of a fuse used in this arrangement?
(a) short-circuit protection
(b) short duration surge protection
(c) time-delay protection
(d) sustained overload protection

191. (2.1.1.1-7) How may the unit "hertz" be best described?

(a) revolutions per minute
(b) cycles per second
(c) coulombs per second
(d) revolutions per second

192. (2.1.1.1-39) If the voltage and the current developed in an AC circuit reach their peak values at
the same time (with a phase angle difference of zero), what is the power factor considered to be?
(a) lagging
(b) infinity
(c) leading
(d) unity (1.0)

193. (2.1.1.1-27) What is the opposition to the establishment of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic
circuit called?
(a) reluctance
(b) inductance
(c) resistance
(d) impedance

194. (2.1.1.1-11) In the flow of one cycle of single phase alternating current past any given point in a
circuit, how many times will the current peak to a maximum?
(a) one time
(b) two times
(c) three times
(d) four times

195. (2.1.1.1 -35) In terms of load type, in what type of alternating current circuit will the voltage always
lead the current?
(a) capacitive circuit
(b) resistive circuit
(c) resistive-capacitive circuit
(d) inductive circuit

196. (2.1.1.1-23) For the purpose of calculating apparent power, which of the following procedures
should be used to determine the total load current of a three-phase, delta wound, AC generator?
(a) Divide the total amperage in all phases by three.
(b) Divide the total amperage in all phases by the square root of three.
(c) Multiply the amperage in one phase by the square root of three.
(d) Multiply the amperage in one phase by three.

197. (2.1.1.1-24) AC circuits can possess characteristics of resistance, inductance, and capacitance.
In terms of units of measure, how is the capacitive reactance of the circuit expressed?
(a) farads
(b) mhos
(c) ohms
(d) henrys

198. (2.1.1.1-14) The root mean square (RMS) value of a sine-wave current may also be expressed as
what value?
(a) instantaneous value
(b) effective value
(c) maximum value
(d) average value

199. (2.1.1.1-2) An accidental path of low resistance bypassing the intended path and allowing
passage of an abnormally high amount of current is known as what?
(a) open circuit
(b) polarized ground
(c) short circuit
(d) ground reference point

200. (2.1.1.1-17) What will happen to an electrical coil when the direct current flowing through the coil
is increasing?
(a) the increasing current produces a voltage in opposition to the applied voltage
(b) the increasing current reduces the power consumed
(c) the increasing current reduces the amount of flux produced
(d) the increasing current changes the coil's impedance

201. (2.1 .16-6) Which of the following fixed temperature heat-actuated fire detectors is the most prone
to false alarms?
(a) fusible metal detector
(b) liquid expansion detector
(c) snap-action bimetallic disc
(d) bimetallic strip detector

202. (2.1.16-11) A salinity indicator system such as that used to measure the salt content of potable
water systems and boiler feed and condensate systems uses what technology?
(a) a salinity cell that senses the pH of water
(b) a salinity cell that senses the brine density of water
(c) a salinity cell that senses the electrical conductivity of water
(d) a salinity cell that senses the optical refraction of water

203. (2.1.16-5) Which of the following fixed temperature heat-actuated fire detectors can be reused
after it has detected a fire?
(a) liquid expansion
(b) thermostatic cable
(c) fusible metal
(d) bimetallic snap-disc

204. (2.1.16-1) To facilitate communication between the wheelhouse and the steering gear room in a
steering emergency where no external source of power is required, what means of two-way
communication would be provided?
(a) Two-way portable radios
(b) Sound-powered telephone system
(c) Ship-service telephone system
(d) Emergency loudspeaker system
205. (2.1.16-9) A pyrometer indicating system such as that used for measuring diesel engine exhaust
system temperatures uses what technology?
(a) externally powered thermocouples
(b) externally powered resistance temperature detectors
(c) self-powered resistance temperature detectors
(d) self-powered thermocouples

206. (2.1 .16-3) Assuming the vessel has an engine control room, where is an engineers' assistance-
needed alarm required to produce an audible signal?
(a) The crew's and officers' mess
(b) The engineers' accommodation spaces
(c) The wheelhouse/navigational bridge
(d) The engine room/machinery space

207. (2.1 .16-7) What shipboard system uses the synchronous transmission system?
(a) Turbocharger RPM indicator system
(b) Shaft revolution indicator system
(c) Rudder angle indicator system
(d) Centrifuge RPM indicator system

208. (2.1.16-4) In a typical fire detection control unit, what would be indicated by an illuminated blue
light?
(a) normal power is on
(b) trouble in the system
(c) fire or smoke detected
(d) backup power is on

209. (2.1 .16-10) A bearing temperature monitoring system such as that used for measuring selected
propulsion plant bearings uses what technology?
(a) self-powered thermocouples
(b) self-powered resistance temperature detectors
(c) externally powered thermocouples
(d) externally powered resistance temperature detectors

210. (2.1 .16-2) Which station's emergency loudspeaker must allow for two-way communication?
(a) Accommodation spaces station
(b) Crew's quarters station
(c) Lifeboat embarkation station
(d) Passenger assembly station

211. (2.1.16-8) The shaft revolution indicator system for a fixed-pitch propeller has which of the
following display capabilities?
(a) Shaft RPM and cumulative shaft revolutions only
(b) Direction of rotation, shaft RPM, and cumulative shaft revolutions
(c) Direction of rotation and shaft RPM only
(d) Propeller pitch, shaft RPM, and cumulative shaft revolutions

212. (2.1.5.2-12) Grounds occurring in electrical machinery as a result of insulation failure may result
from deterioration over time and excessive heat. What could be another contributing cause?
(a) extended periods of vibration
(b) extended operation at normal loads
(c) extended periods of operation at low ambient temperature
(d) extended periods of operation at low load

213. (2.1.5.2-8) The leads from an ohmmeter are attached to the leads of the opposite ends of an AC
motor stator field coil. If a reading of infinity is obtained, what does this indicate?
(a) grounded field coil
(b) shunted field coil
(c) shorted field coil
(d) open field coil

214. (2.1.5.2-10) As shown in the illustrated diagnostic setup for locating a shorted field coil of a ten-
pole synchronous motor, if 240 VAC/60 Hz is applied across the brushes, what would be the
individual voltage drops measured across each field coil assuming that none of the field coils are
shorted? Illustration EL-0202
(a) 6 VAC
(b) 12 VAC
(c) 24 VAC
(d) 48 VAC
215. (2.1.5.2-6) A lightly loaded three-phase squirrel-cage induction motor, while running, begins to
vibrate excessively but continues to run. After shutting down the motor, the motor will not restart, but
makes growling noises, overheats, and smokes. What caused this?
(a) The motor tripped-out on under load.
(b) The branch circuit breaker tripped open.
(c) The source voltage or frequency was too low.
(d) One of the lines feeding the motor has an open phase, resulting in single-phasing.

216. (2.1.5.2 -5) A split-phase induction squirrel-cage motor will not start and come up to speed, even
though the rated voltage, rated frequency, and rated load are applied. Which of the following
troubles would be suspected?
(a) a shorted rotor bar
(b) a shorted centrifugal switch
(c) a shorted thermal protector
(d) an open run or start winding

217. (2.1.18.6-1) The electrical energy necessary to power a sound-powered telephone's small
vibrating bell is obtained from what power source?
(a) the emergency batteries for the general alarm
(b) normal 115 volt DC supplies
(c) the emergency switchboard
(d) each station's hand-cranked generator

218. (2.1.18.6-5) Referring to the sound-powered telephone circuit shown in illustration, what
statement is true concerning the button on the handset as represented by the component labeled
"A"? Illustration EL-0093
(a) The push button is depressed for the purposes of listening and talking.
(b) The push button is depressed only for the purposes of listening, and it should be released for
talking.
(c) The push button is depressed only for the purposes of conversing with multiple stations. For a
conversation between two stations, it is not needed.
(d) The push button is depressed only for the purposes of talking, and it should be released for
listening.

219. (2.1.18.6-4) Referring to the sound-powered telephone circuit shown in the illustration, in what
component are the sound-powered transmitter and receiver units located? Illustration EL-0093
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

220. (2.1.18.6-3) Referring to the sound-powered telephone circuit shown in the illustration, what
statement is true? Illustration EL-0093
(a) The sound-powered telephone circuitry consists of selective-talk and selective-ringing circuits.
(b) The sound-powered telephone circuitry consists of a selective-talk circuit and a common-
ringing circuit.
(c) The sound-powered telephone circuitry consists of a common-talk circuit and a selective-
ringing circuit.
(d) The sound-powered telephone circuitry consists of common-talk and common-ringing circuits.

221. (2.1.18.6-2) What type of equipment does the wiring diagram shown in the illustration represent?
Illustration EL-0093
(a) engine speed tachometer with repeaters
(b) rudder angle indicator arrangement
(c) sound-powered telephone system
(d) engine order telegraph circuit

222. (2.1.9.1-3) What is one function of the movable cams in a drum-type winch motor controller?
(a) limit the amount of load put on the motor
(b) regulate the speed of the motor
(c) maintain resistance contacts in clean condition
(d) insulate the operating handle

223. (2.1.9.1-1) Which of the following illustrated manual motor starters represents the wiring diagram
illustrated in figure "A"? Illustration EL-0023
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
224. (2.1.9.1-6) What is the name of the type of motor control circuit that will not permit automatic
restarting after power is restored, following a power failure?
(a) low voltage protection
(b) overload lockout
(c) reduced voltage restart
(d) low voltage release

225. (2.1.9.1-2) What is the functional name of an electrical device which prevents simultaneous
energization of loads thereby preventing damage or injury?
(a) monitoring device
(b) electrical interlock device
(c) modulating device
(d) mechanical limit device

226. (2.1.9.1-5) What is the purpose of an electromagnetic relay?

(a) provide overcurrent protection during starting
(b) relay voltages at increased power
(c) remotely open and close contacts by action of a coil
(d) open a circuit only in the event of overload

227. (2.1.9.1-4) Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a relay and
a contactor?
(a) Contactors contacts can handle heavier loads than relay contacts.
(b) Contactors are made from silver and relays are made from copper.
(c) A relay is series connected and a contactor is parallel connected.
(d) Contactors control current and relays control voltage.

228. (2.1.7.5-1) By what means is a synchronous motor started and brought nearly to synchronous
speed?
(a) By the use of compensating windings, also known as starting windings.
(b) By the use of starting capacitors, also known as condensers.
(c) By the use of a squirrel-cage induction winding, also called an amortisseur winding.
(d) By the use of interpoles, also known as commutating poles.

229. (2.1.7.5-2) Concerning the operating characteristics of a synchronous motor, what statement is
true?
(a) The synchronous motor initially starts as a synchronous motor and when it approaches
synchronous speed, the motor continues to run as a synchronous motor.
(b) The synchronous motor initially starts as a synchronous motor and when it approaches
synchronous speed, the motor then runs as an induction motor.
(c) The synchronous motor initially starts as an induction motor and when it approaches
synchronous speed, the motor continues to run as an induction motor.
(d) The synchronous motor initially starts as an induction motor and when it approaches
synchronous speed, the motor then runs as a synchronous motor.

230. (2.1.7.5-4) Occasionally a synchronous motor is configured without an external shaft to drive a
load. In this case, the sole purpose of the synchronous motor is improving overall power factor of an
electrical distribution system. What is the name of the synchronous motor so constructed?
(a) Synchronous compensator
(b) Motor-generator
(c) Synchronous converter
(d) Synchronous condenser

231. (2.1.7.5-3) Assuming that a three phase synchronous motor is separately excited, what statement
is true concerning power supplies?
(a) The rotor windings via slip rings and brushes are connected to a three phase AC power
source, and the stator winding is directly connected to a DC power source.
(b) The rotor winding via slip rings and brushes is connected to a single phase AC power source,
and the stator winding is directly connected to a three phase AC power source.
(c) The rotor winding via slip rings and brushes is connected to a DC power source, and the
stator windings are directly connected to a three phase AC power source.
(d) The rotor winding via slip rings and brushes is connected to a three phase AC power source,
and the stator winding is directly connected to a single phase AC power source.

232. (2.1.7.5-5) Not only can a synchronous motor drive a load with greater efficiency than an
induction motor, a fringe benefit of the synchronous motor is the ability for power factor correction.
What statement is true?
(a) If the overall plant has a lagging power factor, the synchronous motor is over-excited.
(b) If the overall plant has a lagging power factor, the synchronous motor is normally-excited.
(c) If the overall plant has a unity power factor, the synchronous motor is normally-excited.
(d) If the overall plant has a leading power factor, the synchronous motor is under-excited.
233. (2.1.21.4-5) Electrical wire in general, when used aboard vessels must meet minimum
requirements. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) Wire need not be in an enclosure nor component insulated.
(b) Wire must be of the stranded copper type.
(c) Each wire must be 14 AWG or larger, regardless of locations and use.
(d) Wire must be of the solid copper type.

234. (2.1.21.4-2) According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical engineering), regulations prohibit the
use of portable electric cord or fixture wire aboard ship if that wire or cord is smaller than what size?
(a) 12 AWG
(b) 14 AWG
(c) 16 AWG
(d) 18 AWG

235. (2.1.21.4-1) According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), when considering

replacement, instrument and control wiring in a switchboard is to be of what minimum size?
(a) 12 AWG
(b) 14 AWG
(c) 16 AWG
(d) 18 AWG

236. (2.1.21.4-3) According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what statement is true
concerning the use of twist-on connectors?
(a) Twist-on connectors may be used to facilitate a conductor splice.
(b) Twist-on connectors may be used for making joints in cables.
(c) Twist-on connectors may be used in enclosures as long as the insulating cap can be secured
to prevent loosening due to vibration.
(d) Twist-on connectors may be used to extend the length of a circuit.

237. (2.1.21.4-4) According to CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following
statements is true concerning flexible electric cord and cable used aboard ship?
(a) No. 12 AWG cable or cord may be spliced for repairs if made in compliance with CFR 111.60-19
(b) No. 14 AWG cable or cord may be spliced for repairs if made in compliance with CFR 111.60-19
(c) No. 16 AWG cable or cord may be spliced for repairs if made in compliance with CFR 111.60-19
(d) No. 18 AWG cable or cord may be spliced for repairs if made in compliance with CFR 111.60-19

238. (2.1.6.3-1) The nominal voltage of one cell of a wet cell nickel-cadmium battery is approximately
how many volts?
(a) 1.2 volts
(b) 1.5 volts
(c) 2.0 volts
(d) 3.0 volts

239. (2.1.6.3-4) What is the approximate discharge voltage produced by one cell of a wet type nickel-
cadmium battery at 75% of charge?
(a) 1.2 volts
(b) 1.5 volts
(c) 2.2 volts
(d) 6.0 volts

240. (2.1.6.3 -5) What is the most reliable and preferred method for determining the state of charge of a
wet cell NiCad battery?
(a) Measuring the specific gravity of each cell with a hydrometer.
(b) Measuring the battery voltage with a digital voltmeter during charge or discharge.
(c) Measuring the battery voltage with a solenoid type voltage tester during charge or discharge.
(d) Measuring the temperature corrected specific gravity of each cell with a hydrometer and
thermometer.

241. (2.1.6.3 -3) Why are nickel-cadmium batteries superior to lead-acid batteries for standby service?
(a) they are able to hold their charge for long periods of time without recharging
(b) they need fewer cells connected in series for the same voltage and require less mounting
space
(c) they have higher output voltages for the same number of cells and require no maintenance
(d) they have a lower cost of acquisition

242. (2.1.6.3-2) What material are the plates of a wet cell NiCad storage battery made of?
(a) lead and lead peroxide
(b) potassium hydroxide with a small amount of sulfuric acid
(c) nickel hydroxide and cadmium oxide
(d) silver oxide and lead sulfate
243. (2.2.21.2-5) Assuming that a ship's service generator is directly coupled to the prime mover, what
condition must cause a prime mover to automatically shutdown?
(a) Low generator bearing lubricating oil pressure.
(b) High generator cooling air temperature.
(c) Low generator output frequency.
(d) High generator power factor.

244. (2.1 .21.2-1) In accordance with 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), each diesel
engine driven generator prime mover must have an overspeed device, independent of the normal
operating governor. If in testing the overspeed device, what should be the trip point setting in terms
of rated speed?
(a) not to exceed 10% above rated speed
(b) not to exceed 15% above rated speed
(c) not to exceed 20% above rated speed
(d) not to exceed 25% above rated speed

245. (2.1 .21.2-2) You are in the planning stages of setting the instantaneous trip of a ship's service
generator circuit breaker. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what
statement is true regarding the criteria for the instantaneous trip setpoint, assuming the generator is
capable of being paralleled?
(a) The trip point should be set exactly equal to the maximum asymmetrical short circuit current
available.
(b) The trip point should be set below but as close as practical to the maximum asymmetrical
short circuit current available.
(c) The trip point should be set considerably above the maximum asymmetrical short circuit
current available.
(d) The trip point should be set above but as close as practical to the maximum asymmetrical
short circuit current available.

246. (2.1.21.2-3) There are very specific rules that govern the testing of generators found in the
appropriate publication incorporated by reference. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical
Engineering), which agency publishes the rules for the construction and testing of generators?
(a) ASME
(b) American Bureau of Shipping
(c) manufacturer
(d) Underwriter's Laboratories, Inc.

247. (2.1.21.2-4) You are in the planning stages of setting the longtime overcurrent trip of a ship's
service generator circuit breaker. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what
statement is true regarding the criteria for the longtime overcurrent trip setpoint, assuming the
generator is capable of being paralleled?
(a) The trip point should not be less than 100% of the generator rating for a continuous rated
machine.
(b) The trip point should not be larger than 115% of the generator rating for a continuous rated
machine.
(c) The trip point should not be larger than 100% of the generator rating for a continuous rated
machine.
(d) The trip point should not be less than 115% of the generator rating for a continuous rated
machine.

248. (2.1.2.5-1) The turns ratio of the tapped step-down transformer shown in figure "C" of the
illustration is four to one and all taps are equally spaced. If 440 volts were applied between 'H1' and
'H4', what would appear across 'X1' and 'X4'? Illustration EL-0082
(a) 110 volts
(b) 220 volts
(c) 440 volts
(d) 1760 volts

249. (2.1.2.5 -3) In figure "1" of the diagram shown in the illustration, the three phase step-down power
transformer has a turns ratio of four to one. If a three-phase 440 volt supply is connected to
terminals "A1-B1-C1", what voltage should develop across terminals "A2-B2-C2"? Illustration EL-0084
(a) 64 volts
(b) 110 volts
(c) 190 volts
(d) 762 volts

250. (2.1.2.5 -4) In figure "2" of the diagram shown in the illustration, the three phase step-down power
transformer has a turns ratio of four to one. If a three-phase 480 volt supply is connected to
terminals "A1-B1-C1", what voltage should develop across terminals "A2-B2-C2"? Illustration EL-0084
(a) 69 volts
(b) 120 volts
(c) 208 volts
(d) 277 volts

251. (2.1.2.5-2) The turns ratio of the tapped step-down transformer shown in figure "C" of the
illustration is four to one and all taps are evenly spaced. If 120 volts were applied to terminals 'H1'
and 'H3', what would appear at 'X1' and 'X2'? Illustration EL-0082
(a) 15 volts
(b) 30 volts
(c) 480 volts
(d) 960 volts

252. (2.1.2.5-5) In figure "4" of the diagram in the illustration, the three phase step-down power
transformer has a turns ratio of five to one. If a three-phase 4160 volt supply is connected to
terminals "A1-B1-B2", what voltage should develop across terminals "A2- B2-C2"? Illustration EL-0084
(a) 240 volts
(b) 415 volts
(c) 480 volts
(d) 832 volts

253. (2.1.5.4-1) If the motor shown in the illustration will not start when the "off-run" switch is placed in
the run position, which of the listed components should be checked FIRST? Illustration EL-0017
(a) check the main contactor coil for continuity, replace as necessary
(b) check the overload relay for tripped condition, reset as necessary
(c) check the overload relay (OL) heaters for continuity, replace as necessary
(d) check the disconnect switch open, open as necessary

254. (2.1.5.4-4) The motor fails to start on an attempted startup. With the start button depressed, a
voltmeter reading between 1 and 5, as in figure "A" shown in the illustration, indicates line voltage
available to the control circuit, what should be your next step in the troubleshooting process?
Illustration EL-0007
(a) attempt to reset the overload relay and determine the cause of the overload if applicable
(b) test the stop button for continuity and replace if necessary
(c) insure that the disconnect switch (DS) is closed
(d) test the contactor coil "M" for continuity and replace if necessary

255. (2.1.5.4-6) In order to properly set up programmable motor protection, it is necessary to know the
locked-rotor current of a motor. Given the chart of code letters for locked-rotor kVA/HP and the
necessary instructions shown in the illustration, calculate the estimated locked-rotor current for the
motor represented by the illustrated motor nameplate using a mid-range value for the code letter,
assuming the motor is to run at 440 VAC. Illustration EL-0175
(a) 34.7 amps
(b) 43.7 amps
(c) 60 amps
(d) 75.6 amps

256. (2.1.5.4-5) As shown in figure "B" of the typical ground fault relay shown in the illustration, what
statement concerning the leakage current setting adjustment is true? Illustration EL-0223
(a) Setting the leakage current for too high a value may increase the likelihood of nuisance trips
and setting the leakage current for too low a value may result in incidental damage due to a
ground fault.
(b) Setting the leakage current for too low a value may increase the likelihood of nuisance trips
and setting the leakage current for too high a value may result in incidental damage due to a
ground fault.
(c) Setting the leakage current for too high or too low a value may increase the likelihood of
nuisance trips.
(d) Setting the leakage current for too high or too low a value may result in incidental damage due
to a ground fault.

257. (2.1.5.4-3) What can be the cause of excessive heat or burning contacts in an operating motor
controller?
(a) low motor starting torque
(b) burned out operating coil
(c) high ambient temperature
(d) loose connections or low contact pressure

258. (2.1.7.3-7) As shown in the two-speed single winding three phase motor connection diagrams
illustrated in figure "B", what is the connection scheme associated with low-speed operation?
Illustration EL-0118
(a) parallel delta
(b) series delta
(c) parallel wye
(d) series wye

259. (2.1.7.3-1) How is the difference between the synchronous speed of a three phase induction
motor and its operating speed correctly expressed?
(a) slip
(b) a percent of full load speed
(c) deviation
(d) a decimal fraction of full load speed

260. (2.1.7.3-6) In a three-phase, squirrel-cage type, induction motor, how is the primary rotating
magnetic field established?
(a) current induced in the rotor windings
(b) laminated steel core and aluminum conductors in the rotor
(c) interaction of the magnetic field caused by the induced current in the squirrel-cage bars with
the magnetic field of the stator
(d) application of a three-phase voltage supply to the stator windings

261. (2.1.7.3-2) Which of the listed motors will operate at the highest RPM, assuming that each
operates at the same frequency?
(a) A four-pole synchronous motor under normal load.
(b) A four-pole induction motor under no load.
(c) A six-pole synchronous motor under normal load.
(d) A six-pole induction motor under full load.

262. (2.1.7.3-5) The torque-speed and current-speed curves for a three-phase induction motor with a
squirrel cage rotor are shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration. Which of the following
statements is true concerning the depicted curves? Illustration EL-0056
(a) Rated torque and rated current occur at approximately 20% slip.
(b) The starting current is nearly 1.5 times the normal full load current value.
(c) Starting current is approximately 4.75 times the normal full load current value.
(d) The pull-up point on the torque curve is about 20% of the normal full load torque value.

263. (2.1.7.3-3) Assuming that the 3-phase power source has a phase sequence of A-B-C and that the
motor is connected as shown in figure "A", if the motor has a clockwise (CW) rotation, what
statement is true concerning the motors connected as shown in the other figures? Illustration EL-0156
(a) Motors "B", "C", and "D" would all have a clockwise (CW) rotation.
(b) Motors "B", "C", and "D" would all have a counter-clockwise (CCW) rotation.
(c) Motors "B" and "D" would have a clockwise (CW) rotation and motor "C" would have a
counter-clockwise (CCW) rotation.
(d) Motors "B" and "D" would have a counter-clockwise (CCW) rotation and motor "C" would have
a clockwise (CW) rotation.

264. (2.1.21.3-9) According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), in response to a loss of

normal power or a simulated test, when will the emergency loads automatically be transferred to the
emergency diesel-generator?
(a) as soon as it is started
(b) when the electric potential of the ship's service generators drops 15 to 40 percent below
normal value
(c) when the potential from the emergency generator reaches 85 to 95 percent of its normal value
(d) when the electric potential of the ship's service generators drops to 85 to 95 percent of the
normal value

265. (2.1.21.3-2) Emergency generators are required to automatically start upon a loss of normal
supply voltage, according to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering). In conducting a test of
the emergency generator automatic transfer of load function, if the normal system supply voltage is
450 VAC, to what value would the emergency generator output voltage have to rise to trigger the
automatic transfer of emergency loads to the emergency generator?
(a) The voltage would have to rise to 382.5 VAC with no allowance for automatic transfers at any
voltages higher than this.
(b) The voltage would have to rise to 427.5 VAC with no allowance for automatic transfers at any
voltages lower than this.
(c) The voltage would have to rise to a value ranging from any voltages between 382.5 VAC and
427.5 VAC.
(d) The voltage would have to rise to a value ranging from any voltages between 405 VAC and
450 VAC.
266. (2.1.21.3-7) According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following
starting aids is the ONLY method allowed to ease the starting of emergency diesel-generator
engines?
(a) Ether injection systems
(b) Thermostatically controlled electric jacket water heaters
(c) Electric, steam, or hot water heated lube oil heaters
(d) Electric air intake heaters

267. (2.1.21.3-10) According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), emergency diesel

engine starting systems are required to have sufficient capacity to provide power for at least how
many consecutive starts?
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 12

268. (2.1.21.3-5) Emergency generators are required to automatically start upon a loss of normal
supply voltage, according to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering). In conducting a test of
the emergency generator automatic transfer of load function, if the normal system supply voltage is
480 VAC, to what value would the normal source output voltage have to rise to trigger the automatic
transfer of emergency loads back to the normal power source?
(a) It would have to rise to 408 VAC.
(b) It would have to rise to 456 VAC.
(c) It would have to rise to a value from between 408 VAC to 456 VAC.
(d) It would have to rise to a value from between 440 VAC to 460 VAC.

269. (2.1.19.8 -4) As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what phenomenon is illustrated with respect
to electrical cables and ground? Illustration EL-0126
(a) associative capacitance
(b) associative inductance
(c) distributive inductance
(d) distributive capacitance

270. (2.1.19.8-6) When a megohmmeter is used to test insulation, what condition causes the gradual
rise of the pointer reading as a result of continued cranking?
(a) the leakage of current along the surface of dirty insulation
(b) the dielectric-absorption effect of the insulation
(c) good conductor resistance
(d) the inductive reactance of the windings

271. (2.1.19.8-1) Which of the listed pairs of materials make the best insulators?
(a) paper and mica
(b) dry air and a vacuum
(c) salt water and moist earth
(d) doped silicon and germanium

272. (2.1.19.8-7) When a fluorescent lamp has reached the end of its useful life, it should be replaced
immediately. If not, what condition could the resultant flashing cause?
(a) tripping of the lamp's circuit breaker
(b) exploding of the lamp, causing glass to fly in all directions
(c) damaging the lamps starter and ballast circuit
(d) short circuiting of adjacent lighting circuits

273. (2.1.19.8-3) What device can be used to check the calibration of a circuit breaker?
(a) 500 volt megohmmeter
(b) standard digital multimeter
(c) portable low voltage high current testing unit
(d) clamp-on voltmeter

274. (2.1.9.2-32) As shown in the illustrated steering hydraulic pump motor controller, what statement
is true? Illustration EL-0119
(a) The pump motor is protected by low voltage release and protected from motor overload by
overload trip
(b) The pump motor is protected by low voltage release and protected from motor overload by
visual warning
(c) The pump motor is protected by low voltage protection and protected from motor overload by
overload trip
(d) The pump motor is protected by low voltage protection and protected from motor overload by
visual warning
275. (2.1.9.2-13) If a three-phase motor controlled by the control circuit illustrated in figure "B" of the
illustration, is running in the forward direction, which of the following sequences must occur before
the motor will reverse rotation? Illustration EL-0011
(a) First, the motor must be stopped via the stop button, then normally open 'F' contacts must re-
close, and finally the reverse start button must be depressed.
(b) First, the motor must be stopped via the stop button, then normally closed 'F' contacts must
re-open, and finally the reverse start button must be depressed.
(c) First, the motor must be stopped via the stop button, then normally closed 'F' contacts must
re-close, and finally the reverse start button must be depressed.
(d) First, the motor must be stopped via the stop button, then normally open 'F' contacts must re-
open, and finally the reverse start button must be depressed.

276. (2.1.9.2-14) Concerning figure "A" of the illustration, if the illustrated PLC ladder diagram is for a
simple motor controller, what does "Input A" represent? Illustration EL-0236
(a) normally open, momentary contact start push button switch
(b) normally open, maintained contact on-off selector switch
(c) normally closed, maintained contact on-off selector switch
(d) normally closed, momentary contact stop push button switch

277. (2.1.9.2-31) Concerning the illustrated motor controller circuit, where is the location of the motor
"run" indicator light? Illustration EL-0004
(a) At the local control station.
(b) At the remote control station.
(c) There is no motor "run" light. It is, instead, a motor "stopped" light.
(d) At the motor.

278. (2.1.9.2-4) In general, what type of starter would be used to connect polyphase induction motors
to full line voltage at the instant of start-up?
(a) across-the-line starters
(b) compensator starters
(c) primary-resistor starters
(d) autotransformer starters

279. (2.1.9.2-15) In the illustrated solid-state "soft" starter for a three phase induction motor as shown
in figure "A", what is the name of the devices that are controlled by the gate control circuits?
Illustration EL-0060
(a) thyristors
(b) varactors
(c) semiconductor diodes
(d) zener diodes

280. (2.1.9.2 -51) Which of the following pictures represents a magnetic reversing or two-speed motor
starter? Illustration EL-0179
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

281. (2.1.9.2-25) Which of the following contactors or relays has a timing function for the transition
from start to run? Illustration EL-0080
(a) KA1
(b) KM1
(c) KM2
(d) KM3

282. (2.1.9.2-36) As shown in the illustration, what type of motor and motor starter are featured?
Illustration EL-0136
(a) squirrel cage induction motor with reduced voltage starting
(b) squirrel cage induction motor with across-the-line starting
(c) synchronous motor with across-the-line starting
(d) wound rotor induction motor with across-the-line starting

283. (2.1.9.2-38) As shown in the illustrated feeder disconnect controller, what statement is true?
Illustration EL-0138
(a) the feeder disconnect contactor remains closed on a loss of power
(b) the feeder disconnect contactor is electrically latched
(c) the feeder disconnect contactor is electrically tripped
(d) the feeder disconnect contactor is mechanically closed
284. (2.1.9.2 -60) Autotransformer starters, sometimes called starting compensators, are sometimes
used with larger polyphase induction motors. What function do they perform?
(a) they reduce the voltage applied to the motor during the starting period
(b) they increase the voltage for 'across-the-line starting'
(c) they provide a backup means of voltage regulation for emergency starting
(d) they allow the voltage to be either stepped up or down, depending on the application, to
ensure full torque

285. (2.1.9.2-49) As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what is the purpose of the "test button"?
Illustration EL-0178
(a) The test button is used to test the actual current trip value of the overload relay.
(b) The test button is used to reset the now open normally closed relay contacts after an overload
trip.
(c) The test button is used to mimic an overload to test the trip function of the overload relay.
(d) The test button is used to reset the now closed normally open relay contacts after an overload
trip.

286. (2.1.9.2-18) With what kind of starting equipment are most three-phase induction motors of five
horsepower or less started?
(a) across-the-line starters
(b) resistor starters
(c) autotransformer starters
(d) reactor starters

287. (2.1.9.2-13) Assuming the ladder diagram of figure "1" and the corresponding input/output
diagram of figure "2" represents a simple PLC motor controller, what statement is true? Illustration
EL-0232
(a) The input switch is a momentary contact start button, output "A" is the motor contactor coil,
and output "B" is a motor run status lamp for the running condition.
(b) The input switch is a momentary contact start button, output "A" is the motor contactor coil,
and output "B" is a motor run status lamp for the stopped condition.
(c) The input switch is a maintained contact on-off selector switch, output "A" is the motor
contactor coil, and output "B" is a motor run status lamp for the running condition.
(d) The input switch is a maintained contact on-off selector switch, output "A" is the motor
contactor coil, and output "B" is a motor run status lamp for the stopped condition.

288. (2.1.9.2-6) As shown in the illustration, by what means are all the 'MS' contacts opened and
closed? Illustration EL-0073
(a) operating coils
(b) magnets
(c) solenoid switches
(d) manual operation of the master switches

289. (2.1.12.5-9) How are the line losses in a distribution circuit kept to a minimum?
(a) using higher voltage and lower current
(b) using higher current and lower voltage
(c) increasing the number of thermal relays in the circuit
(d) adding rubber insulation conductors to the circuit

290. (2.1.12.5-6) Why are large cable sizes often formed as individual conductors comprised of
several smaller strands?
(a) reduce the overall weight of the wire run
(b) reduce the number of supports needed for a horizontal overhead run
(c) obtain the flexibility required for easy handling and reduces skin effect losses
(d) reduce the resistance to current flow for a given wire size

291. (2.1.12.5-5) What happens to the life expectancy of insulation for each 10oC rise in
operating temperature?
(a) The life expectancy is unaffected.
(b) The life expectancy is halved.
(c) The life expectancy is doubled.
(d) The life expectancy is unpredictable.

292. (2.1.12.5-7) When electrical cables penetrate watertight bulkheads, what must be provided for?
(a) cables should be grounded on either side of the bulkhead
(b) a watertight stuffing tube capable of accepting packing should be employed
(c) cables must be bent to a radius of six diameters
(d) cables should be secured by a clamp
293. (2.1.12.5-3) Which of the following is the only known perfect dielectric for the purpose of serving
as electrical insulation?
(a) mica
(b) ceramic
(c) glass
(d) vacuum

294. (2.1.12.5-2) Which of the following materials is a good electrical insulator?

(a) wood
(b) silver
(c) gold
(d) copper

295. (2.1.12.5-1) How is electrical conductor insulation classed? Example: insulation class H
(a) conductor current carrying capacity
(b) conductor ampacity
(c) voltage rating of the insulation
(d) limiting internal hot spot temperature

296. (2.1 .12.5-8) Why is copper often used as an electrical conductor?

(a) holds insulation together well
(b) is able to pass current with little opposition
(c) has high resistance at low temperatures
(d) has a highly polished surface

297. (2.1.12.5-4) What is "the voltage per millimeter of insulation thickness that the insulation can
withstand without breaking down" called?
(a) Tensile strength
(b) Dielectric strength
(c) Mechanical strength
(d) Shear strength

298. (2.1.11.1-3) Why are armature cores in a DC generator made of laminated steel sheets?
(a) allow for easy assembly
(b) increase the hysteresis effect
(c) reduce eddy current losses
(d) fit the curvature of the frame

299. (2.1.11.1-6) In referring to the illustration of the Ward-Leonard drive system, what type of DC
generator is used? Illustration EL-0153
(a) Self-excited shunt wound generator.
(b) Permanent magnet generator.
(c) Self-excited series wound generator.
(d) Separately excited generator.

300. (2.1.11.1-5) In referring to the illustration of the elementary DC generator, what statement is true?
Illustration EL-0028
(a) In a complete revolution of the armature, the current flow direction within the armature winding
does not reverse, and the current flow direction in the external load also does not reverse.
(b) In a complete revolution of the armature, the current flow direction within the armature winding
does not reverse, whereas the current flow direction in the external load does reverse.
(c) In a complete revolution of the armature, the current flow direction within the armature winding
does reverse, whereas the current flow direction in the external load does not reverse.
(d) In a complete revolution of the armature, the current flow direction within the armature winding
does reverse, and the current flow direction in the external load also does reverse.

301. (2.1.11.1-2) What is the purpose of the commutator and brushes on a DC generator?
(a) provide a sliding contact method to excite the field
(b) transfer generated direct current voltage from the armature to the line
(c) convert the alternating current voltage generated within the armature to a direct current
voltage
(d) reduce sparking between the armature and the carbon brushes

302. (2.1.11.1-4) As shown in the illustration of a DC machine which is configured as a generator, what
is the polarity of the interpoles as compared to the main field poles? Illustration EL-0052
(a) in the direction of rotation, the preceding interpole should have the same polarity as the
following main pole
(b) in the direction of rotation, the preceding interpole should have the opposite polarity as the
following main pole
(c) in the direction of rotation, the following interpole should have the same polarity as the
preceding main pole
(d) the polarities of the interpoles 180 degrees opposite one another should be the same, the
actual polarities compared to that of the main poles does not matter
303. (2.1.11.1-1) How are the field windings of a DC shunt generator connected?
(a) in series with the series windings
(b) in parallel with the armature windings
(c) in series with the armature windings
(d) in parallel with the field rheostat

304. (2.1.19.3-1) You are reconnecting a three-phase induction motor to the supply line. To prevent
possible damage to the load, due to the wrong direction of rotation, what should be done?
(a) check the supply line phase sequence and motor rotation with appropriate indicators, then
connect correspondingly marked leads
(b) connect the motor and then use the 'jog' button to determine the direction of rotation
(c) connect the phase indicator to the motor leads, rotate the motor by hand and then connect to
the supply voltage
(d) connect the phase indicator to the supply voltage then connect the motor

305. (2.1.19.3-8) Using the temperature correction factor for the winding insulation temperature
graph shown in the illustration, what would be the correction factor and the corrected temperature to
40 degrees C for a motor with an insulation resistance of 4 megohms measured at 50 degrees C?
Illustration EL-0046
(a) The temperature correction factor is 0.5 and the corrected resistance is 2 megohms at 40
degrees C.
(b) The temperature correction factor is 0.5 and the corrected resistance is 8 megohms at 40
degrees C.
(c) The temperature correction factor is 2 and the corrected resistance is 2 megohms at 40
degrees C.
(d) The temperature correction factor is 2 and the corrected resistance is 8 megohms at 40
degrees C.

306. (2.1.19.3-2) What is a useful instrument for checking 3 phase AC motor performance by
measuring possible unbalanced currents?
(a) D'Arsonval iron-vane probe
(b) hand or battery-operated megger
(c) clamp-on ammeter
(d) vibrating-reed frequency meter

307. (2.1.19.3-6) Large machines undergoing a resistance insulation testing using a megohmmeter
should be discharged to remove any accumulated electrostatic/capacitive charge stored. When
should this discharge be performed?
(a) prior to and after conducting the insulation resistance check
(b) after conducting the insulation resistance check only
(c) prior to conducting the insulation resistance check only
(d) while performing the insulation resistance check only

308. (2.1.19.3-5) When using the test set-up shown in figure "A" of the illustration, besides the motor
windings and the motor feeder cable, what circuit components are actually being meggered?
Illustration EL-0027
(a) the power circuit of the starter up to the load side of the overload relay heaters
(b) the power circuit of the starter up to the load side of the main contacts
(c) the power circuit of the starter up to the load side of the disconnect switch
(d) the entire starter, including the power and control circuits, up to the load side of the disconnect
switch

309. (2.1.19.3-7) When you are making a high potential test (megger) on the motor coils of repaired
electrical machinery to ground. What would a low resistance reading indicate?
(a) a high slot discharge factor
(b) bad insulation
(c) high insulation power factor
(d) good insulation

310. (2.1.19.3-3) Suppose it is desired to connect a dual voltage three phase squirrel-cage induction
motor for low volts, but it is undetermined whether the nine-lead motor is internally configured for
wye or delta configuration. Using an ohmmeter, the motor itself with leads disconnected, and the
illustration as a guide, what statement is true? Illustration EL-0134
(a) If leads "4", "5", and "6" have continuity across each other, the motor is "wye" configured.
Without continuity, the motor must be "delta" connected.
(b) If leads "4", "5", and "6" have continuity across each other, the motor is "delta" configured.
Without continuity, the motor must be "wye" connected.
(c) If leads "7", "8", and "9" have continuity across each other, the motor is "wye" configured.
Without continuity, the motor is "delta" configured.
(d) If leads "7", "8", and "9" have continuity across each other, the motor is "delta" configured.
Without continuity, the motor is "wye" connected.

311. (2.1.19.3-4) Which of the conditions listed will indicate the need to clean the insulation on the
windings of an electric motor?
(a) Excessive vibration at normal speed.
(b) Sparking at the brushes.
(c) Higher than normal operating temperature.
(d) High megger readings.

312. (2.1.5.7-20) As shown in figure "A" of the ungrounded distribution system with possible ground
faults shown in the illustration, under what conditions would an outage likely occur due to a ground
fault causing a circuit breaker to trip? Illustration EL-0129
(a) two ground faults associated with different phases
(b) a single ground fault associated with any phase
(c) ground faults do not result in outages regardless of the number and location of faults
(d) two ground faults associated with the same phase

313. (2.1.5.7-8) From the information given in the illustration, what would be the ampere capacity at full
load of each of the main ship service diesel-generators if operating at the rated power factor of 0.8?
Illustration EL-0106
(a) 2500 amps
(b) 3011 amps
(c) 3125 amps
(d) 5208 amps

314. (2.1.5.7-4) In an ungrounded distribution system, as compared to a normal indication, what is the
indication on a switchboard of a current carrying conductor making an accidental electrical contact
with a wiring metal conduit?
(a) lower switchboard wattmeter reading than normal
(b) totally darkened switchboard ground-detecting light
(c) higher switchboard voltmeter reading than normal
(d) reading of 1.0 on the power factor meter

315. (2.1.5.7-15) As shown in the illustration of a vessels navigational lighting circuit, if port running
light "1" burns out, the trouble buzzer will sound and the port running light trouble lamp will
illuminate. Switching to port running light "2" clears the alarm. If port running light "1" is replaced with
a light of a smaller wattage and the circuit is switched back to port running light "1", which of the
following is true? Illustration EL-0058
(a) There may be insufficient current to energize the trouble relay coil and to open the contacts to
silence the alarm.
(b) The new lower wattage light at port running light "1" will immediately burn out.
(c) The trouble buzzer may not have sufficient voltage to provide sound.
(d) The trouble relay coil will overheat.

316. (2.1.5.7-22) During the start-up of the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustration, it is noted that
the ends of component "4" remain lighted but the tube does not illuminate. What is likely the cause
of this problem? Illustration EL-0081
(a) component "2" is closed
(b) component "3" is open
(c) component "4" is the wrong wattage
(d) component "5" contacts are stuck closed

317. (2.1.5.7-10) In order to definitively determine whether or not fuse "1", shown in the illustration is
blown using an on-line testing technique, across what points would you connect the voltmeter leads?
Illustration EL-0062
(a) from the top of fuse "1" and the top of either fuse "2” or fuse "3"
(b) from the top of fuse "1" and the bottom of either fuse "2" or fuse "3"
(c) from the bottom of fuse "1" and the top of either fuse "2" or fuse "3"
(d) from the bottom of fuse "1" and the bottom of either fuse "2" or fuse "3"

318. (2.1.5.7-9) As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what type of ground fault detection system is
illustrated? Illustration EL-0132
(a) a neutral to ground current transformer system
(b) a core-balance current transformer system
(c) a direct current injection system
(d) a set of ground detection lamps system

319. (2.1.5.7-13) Assuming that 450 VAC is the source voltage at the circuit breaker, if 450 volts AC
were measured across the load as shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what would this indicate?
Illustration EL-0083
(a) a properly operating circuit
(b) an open winding between the reference point "X" and the 25% tap connection
(c) an open winding between reference point "Y" and the 75% tap connection
(d) a ground on one side of the supply voltage to the autotransformer

320. (2.1.5.7-16) The ground indicating light on the main electrical switchboard is indicating a ground.
What is the best procedure for locating the grounded circuit?
(a) open the circuit breakers on the distribution panel, one at a time, until the lights no longer
indicate a ground
(b) trace the circuit paths while looking for burned spots
(c) check circuit resistances with a megohmmeter connected between the grounded line and the
distribution panel framework
(d) check all circuits for continuity

321. (2.1.17-1) On vessels with AC distribution systems, which of the following statements represents
the most difficult problem involved in obtaining a DC potential suitable for use by computer
components?
(a) Rectifiers cannot operate with voltage regulators.
(b) A step-down transformer is always required.
(c) The voltage must be rectified and made ripple free.
(d) Vessel vibrations affect the voltage source.

322. (2.1.17-11) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what
statement is true concerning the units labeled "ROS" which are remote operating system
workstations? Illustration EL-0096
(a) The ROS located in the ship's office is designated as the master ROS.
(b) The ROS located in the wheelhouse is designated as the master ROS.
(c) Operator access to control functions among the various ROS locations are all identical.
(d) Operator access to control functions among the various ROS locations differ depending
system configuration and need.

323. (2.1.17-4) Which of the following devices represents primary storage, where the processor is able
to directly read instructions and data and directly return results of its computation in fetch/execute
cycles?
(a) Various optical disks
(b) Hard disk drive
(c) Magnetic tape drive
(d) Random access memory

324. (2.1.17-12) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what
statement is true concerning the workstations labeled "LOS" associated with the port power
management system? Illustration EL-0096
(a) These are local operating system workstations that allow local control of processes related to
the operation and control of all functions within the engineering plant.
(b) These are local operating system workstations that allow local control of processes related to
the operation and control of the port generator.
(c) These are lube oil system workstations that allow local control of processes related to the
lubrication of the port generators.
(d) These are lube oil system workstations that allow local control of processes related to the
lubrication of all machinery within the engineering plant.

325. (2.1.17-5) Which of the following data communication cable types offers the greatest immunity to
electromagnetic "noise"?
(a) Coaxial (coax)
(b) Shielded twisted pair
(c) Unshielded twisted pair
(d) Fiber-optic

326. (2.1.17-7) Modern ships use multiple computers arranged in a client/server network to perform
various shipboard functions. What type of computer network would most likely be used aboard ship?
(a) Wireless local area network
(b) Wireless wide area network
(c) Wired local area network
(d) Wired wide area network

327. (2.1.17-6) What type of local area network physical topology features point-to-point
interconnection between all communicating devices and is the least vulnerable to a break in
communication?
(a) Mesh
(b) Bus
(c) Star
(d) Ring

328. (2.1.17-13) As shown in the illustration, what statement is true concerning each of the system
gateways? Illustration EL-0098
(a) Each connects one of two redundant automation area networks with both redundant cargo
process area networks.
(b) Each connects one of two redundant automation area networks with both redundant engine
control process area networks.
(c) Each connects one of two redundant automation area networks with one of two redundant
engine control process area networks and one of two redundant cargo process area networks.
(d) Each connects one of two redundant automation area networks with the other automation
area network.

329. (2.1.17-10) If a computer display is flickering, how may this be remedied?

(a) Decrease the resolution bandwidth
(b) Increase the resolution bandwidth
(c) Increase the refresh rate
(d) Decrease the refresh rate

330. (2.1.17-8) What Ethernet cabling technology supports the greatest data transfer speeds?
(a) Thick Ethernet
(b) Fast Ethernet
(c) Thin Ethernet
(d) Gigabit Ethernet

331. (2.1.17-9) If an 8-bit digital to analog converter (DAC) produces an analog output voltage with a
range of 10 volts (0-9 volts), what is the smallest incremental step in voltage that can be generated
at the output?
(a) 0.03 volts
(b) 0.04 volts
(c) 0.625 volts
(d) 1.25 volts

332. (2.1.17-3) What statement
(a) RAM is volatile memory and
(b) RAM is non-volatile memory
removed.
(c) RAM is volatile memory and
(d) RAM is non-volatile memory
is true concerning random access memory (RAM)?
the contents of RAM are lost when the power is removed.
and the contents of RAM are not lost when the power is
the contents of RAM are not lost when the power is removed.
and the contents of RAM are lost when the power is removed.

333. (2.1.17-2) What statement
(a) ROM is volatile memory and
(b) ROM is non-volatile memory
removed.
(c) ROM is non-volatile memory
(d) ROM is volatile memory and
is true concerning read only memory (ROM)?
the contents of ROM are not lost when the power is removed.
and the contents of ROM are not lost when the power is
and the contents of ROM are lost when the power is removed.
the contents of ROM are lost when the power is removed.

334. (2.1.19.2-4) Why must caution be exercised during the charging of lead-acid storage batteries?
(a) the acid will become weaker
(b) both plates are changing chemically to lead sulfate
(c) hydrogen gas is being continuously liberated
(d) lead peroxide in the negative plate is poisonous

335. (2.1.19.2-5) What statement is true concerning the actual mixing process and the container used
when mixing electrolyte for a lead-acid storage battery?
(a) pour the distilled water into the acid in a glass container
(b) pour the distilled water into the acid in a zinc-plated container
(c) pour the acid into the distilled water in a glass container
(d) pour the acid into the distilled water in a zinc-plated container

336. (2.1.19.2-6) What statement is true concerning the charging of a 100 amp-hour lead-acid battery?
(a) The initial charging rate should be no greater than 100% of the battery amp-hour rating.
(b) The source of power for charging should be 2.0 volts per cell.
(c) The charging rate should be 100 amps for one hour.
(d) The temperature of the electrolyte should not be allowed to exceed 90°F.

337. (2.1.19.2-2) What is the best