Ultimate Bank Research Method

Chapter 1 The Role of Business Research.
Chapter 1
The Role of Business Research
True-False Questions
F 1. Total quality management applies primarily to the marketing function of an

10 organization.
F 2. Business research provides quantitative, but not qualitative, information upon which to
8 base decisions.
F 3. Business research should be a substitute for managerial judgment, and not merely an
7 aid to this judgment.
T 4. Business research is a managerial tool that provides information essential for good
6 decision making.
T 5. The role of the business researcher is to be detached and impersonal concerning the
6 conduct of the research process.
T 6. Applying business research is an art, not an exact science.

7
F 7. Basic research directly involves the solution to a specific business problem.

7
T 8. Implementing a total quality management program can require considerable

11 measurement.
F 9. When a decision must be made about a real-life business problem, this is called basic
7 research.
F 10. Findings from basic research can generally be immediately implemented.

7
F 11. Both basic and applied research are systematic and objective, but only basic research
7 utilizes the scientific method to answer the question at hand.
Chapter 1 The Role of Business Research. 2
T 12. In the scientific method, empirical evidence (such as the results of a survey) is
7 analyzed and interpreted to confirm or disprove prior conceptions.
F 13. Investigating whether or not a 10 percent reduction in price will increase the purchase
7 of a new toothpaste in a pump dispenser is an example of basic research.
T 14. Because both basic and applied research utilize the scientific method, the difference in
7 techniques of basic and applied research is largely a matter of degree, rather than
substance.
F 15. When the cost of research exceeds its benefits, the research should still be conducted if
13 the decision is a major organizational concern.
T 16. The task of business research is to specify and supply accurate information to reduce
8 the uncertainty of decision making.
F 17. While basic research applies the scientific method, applied research does not apply this
7 method.
T 18. The essence of business research is to fulfill the effective manager's needs for
6 knowledge of his or her environment.
F 19. We can define business research as "the application of surveys for aid in making
6 business decisions."
T 20. The General Accounting Office research to measure the success of a program such as
10 the Employment Opportunity Act would be categorized as evaluation research.
T 21. Research that regularly, sometimes routinely, provides feedback for evaluation and
10 control of recurring business activity is performance-monitoring research.
T 22. Sometimes the urgency of a situation precludes the use of research.

12
T 23. Being systematic and objective may require that researchers be patient and take several
6 careful looks at the data to discover all that is known about the subject of study.
F 24. The differences in the techniques of basic and applied research is more a difference of
7 substance than a difference of degree.
F 25. The scientific method is utilized by basic researchers, while those engaged in applied
7 research tend to favor the strategic management process.
T 26. Business research can help managers to determine if a planned activity was executed
10 properly.
T 27. TQM focuses on integrating customer-driven quality decisions throughout the entire
10 organization.
F 28. In general, the more strategically important a business decision is to the organization,
12 the less likely it is that research will be conducted.
T 29. Business research may be used as a diagnostic tool to provide information about what
8 is happening in the environment.
F 30. TQM stands for "typical query management."

10
F 31. TQM stands for "total quantity measurement."

10
F 32. Business research should never be conducted after a failure, because it is pointless to
10 study strategies that did not work.
T 33. The objective of business research is to facilitate decision-making for all of the
5 functional areas of the organization.
F 34. After a business strategy has been implemented, business research is no longer needed.
11
T 35. After a business strategy has been implemented, business research may serve as a tool
11 to inform managers whether planned activities were properly executed.
F 36. If a company is well managed, performance-monitoring research becomes

10 unnecessary.
Multiple Choice Questions
D 1. Which of the following should a manager ask before deciding whether or not to do
13 business research?
A. Will the information obtained improve the quality of the decision enough to
justify the costs?
B. Is this research project the best use of available funds?
C. Will the payoff from the research be worth the dollars invested?
D. All of the above
B 2. Based on an observation study, researchers at Steelcase concluded that:

3 A. most American employees prefer to stand up while working.
B. people in teams function best if they can do some work collaboratively and
some privately.
C. two-thirds of business travelers rate home and family life as their most
important motivator.
D. female executives are a growing market for travel services.
C 3. When the marketing department of an organization attempts to determine the amount

7 of time the managers in this department spend at their computers in their offices each
week, this is an example of which type of research?
A. Pure research
B. Basic research
C. Applied research
D. Causal research
D 4. Which of the following is involved in the decision-making process when an

8 organization attempts to develop and to implement a business strategy?
A. Selecting a course of action
B. Diagnosis of the situation
C. Identifying opportunities
D. All of the above
C 5. When Procter & Gamble continuously monitors supermarket sales of its products to
10 track its market share, this is an example of:
A. evaluation research.
B. TQM research.
C. performance-monitoring research.
D. intuitive research.
D 6. The Steelcase research discussed in the text included all of the following EXCEPT:
3 A. video cameras.
B. observations of how work teams operate.
C. comparisons of collaborative and private work by team members.
D. using stop watches to evaluate workers' motions and patterns of behavior.
C 7. When deciding whether business research should be conducted, each of the following
12 factors is a major consideration EXCEPT:
A. time constraints.
B. availability of the data.
C. availability of company employees who are survey experts.
D. value of business research information in relation to its costs.
B 8. The formal, objective measurement and appraisal of the extent to which a given action,
10 activity, or program has achieved its objectives is called:
A. basic research.
B. evaluation research.
C. scientific research.
D. applied research.
B 9. Basic research is research that:

7 A. addresses simple issues that are basic and research is not really needed.
B. attempts to expand the limits of knowledge for a discipline.
C. is conducted to make a decision about a specific real life problem.
D. all of the above
C 10. Which statement best describes the nature of basic research?

7 A. Basic research requires the use of experimentation.
B. The primary purpose of basic research is to facilitate the managerial decision
process.
C. Basic research is conducted to verify the acceptability of a given theory.
D. Because basic research is exploratory, it does not require the use of scientific
methodology.
B 11. Business research is defined as the and process of generating information for
6 aid in business decision making.
A. regular, routine
B. systematic, objective
C. systematic, routine
D. systematic, statistical
B 12. When Colgate-Palmolive Co. tracks the sale of its health and beauty aids in discount
10 stores by utilizing the information provided by scanners at the checkout lines, this is an
example of which type of research?
A. Basic research
B. Performance-monitoring research
C. Pure research
D. Intuitive research
B 13. The term research describes research that regularly, perhaps routinely, provides
10 feedback for evaluation and control of business activity.
A. decision support
B. performance-monitoring
C. causal
D. analysis
C 14. When United Airlines routinely samples flights and passengers to administer a survey
10 of its activities, this is an example of which type of research?
A. Intuitive research
B. Pure research
C. Performance-monitoring research
D. Basic research
C 15. When a marketing manager makes an important decision because there is not sufficient
12 time to conduct a research project, this is an example of:
A. a situation in which the value of the research exceeds its costs.
B. the nature of the type of decision (tactical or strategic) that must be made.
C. a time constraint.
D. the availability of data.
D 16. Which of the following is an example of a major topic for business research?
15 A. A buyer behavior research study
B. A job morale study
C. A market segmentation study
D. All of the above
B 17. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately reflect how managers
12 determine if research is needed?
A. Research may not be conducted because of time constraints.
B. Major decisions should only be made after research is conducted.
C. Managers who possess adequate information do not need research to make the
decision.
D. Research should be conducted when the information gained by research
improves the quality of the decision to an extent large enough to warrant the
expenditure.
C 18. When Ford Motor Co. brings together representatives from R&D, Finance, Marketing,
14 Sales, and Marketing Research to work together on the design of a new type of
automobile, this is an example of the use of
A. basic research.
B. pure research.
C. cross-functional teams.
D. evaluation research.
A 19. Whether business research should be conducted is determined by each of the following
12 EXCEPT:
A. employees' attitudes toward the subject of the research.
B. time constraints.
C. the nature of the decision to be made.
D. the benefits of the research in relation to its costs.
D 20. Which of the following is a reason why business research information is a valuable
10 resource that contributes to effective decision making?
A. It describes what is occurring in the marketplace.
B. It may provide detailed information about specific mistakes or why failures
occurred.
C. It provides information to help managers learn about changing environments.
D. All of the above are reasons.
B 21. The relationship between business research and a manager's experience can best be
12 described as:
A. business research and managerial experience are incompatible.
B. sometimes managerial experience alone should be relied upon.
C. no decision should be reached without using business research.
D. there is no relationship between experience and business research.
D 22. The primary function of business research is to:

6 A. provide the solution to a business problem.
B. attempt to predict future behavior.
C. identify personal needs.
D. provide information to assist managers in making decisions.
A 23. Select the best definition of business research.

6 A. A systematic and objective process of generating information for aid in
business decision making.
B. The collection and analysis of business data.
C. An operating department within the organizational structure.
D. Providing information that will be of use in identifying opportunities.
Fill in the Blank
1. Business research shows that employee satisfaction is strongly linked to

4 ______ satisfaction.
customer
2. Literally, "research" means to .

6
search again
3. The term refers to a business philosophy devoted to integrating customer-

10 driven quality throughout an organization.
total quality management
4. Scanning items' universal product code (UPC) labels to evaluate sales volume is an
10 example of .
performance-monitoring research
5. Business research is the systematic and objective process of , . and data for
6 aid in business decisions.
gathering, recording, analyzing

6. Business research should be a(n) to managerial judgment, and not a substitute for
7 it.
aid
7. When a decision must be made about a specific real-life problem, research is

7 conducted.
applied
8. When we want to expand the limits of knowledge, without directly involving the
7 solution to any particular pragmatic problems, we would conduct research.
basic (pure)
9. If we want to do a formal, objective measurement and appraisal of the extent to which

10 a given activity or program has achieved its objectives, we conduct research.
evaluation
10. Teams which are made up of representatives from finance, accounting, sales, R&D,
14 and marketing research are an example of a ________ team
cross-functional
11. The term describes techniques or procedures used to analyze empirical

7 evidence in an attempt to confirm or disprove prior conceptions.
scientific method
12. The largest business research company in the world is ________.

16
A.C. Nielsen
13. A manager determining whether business research should be conducted must consider
12 four major factors: . (Answer could be several words).
time constraints; availability of data; nature of the decision to be made; benefits of the
research versus its costs
14. Continuous improvement of product quality and service is an important principle of

10 .

Chapter 2
Information Systems and Knowledge Management
True False Questions

F 1. The term, information, refers to facts or recorded measures of phenomena.
21
F 2. The term, data, refers to a body of facts that appear in a context that describes the
21 relationships between the facts.
T 3. An organized collection of computer hardware and software designed to capture, store,

22 update, analyze, and display information about an organization’s worldwide business
activities is called a global information system.
T 4. The purpose of a decision support system is to store data and to transform data into
22 organized information which is accessible to managers within the organization.
F 5. A decision support system is independent from the global information system of the
23 organization.
T 6. The inputs into a decision support system are raw, unsummarized data.
23
T 7. A mailing list of current customers’ names and addresses is an example of a database.

23
T 8. A comprehensive collection of data which describes the extensive operations of an

24 organization is known as a data warehouse.
T 9. When the detailed data from the operations of an organization are extracted,
24 tranformed, and stored, we say that these data have been “warehoused”.
F 10. The input to a decision support system can include numerical and text data, but not
26 image data.
F 11. Input data into a decision support system can come from internal sources within the
26 organization, but not from sources external to the organization.
T 12. A statistical database can contain numerical data for sales forecasting.
27
T 13. EDI systems integrate the computer system of one organization with another
29 organization’s computer system.
T 14. Recent studies indicate that the Internet has more than 250 million users who have
29 access to a personal computer at home.
T 15. Internet users send messages to one another by means of e-mail.

29
T 16. The Internal Revenue Service has set up an Internet site from which it is possible to
30 download various income tax forms.
F 17. The Internet has a single, central large mainframe computer.

31
F 18. The Internet is a single computer operation, not a collection of thousands of small
31 computer operations.
F 19. In the Internet, a host computer must be dedicated to one person and may not be shared
31 by several users.
T 20. An intranet is available only to users within the organization.

37

B 1. Facts and recorded measures of phenomena are known as:
21 A. information.
B. data.
C. a database.
D. the Internet.
A 2. A body of facts in a format suitable for decision making is known as:

21 A. information.
B. the Internet..
C. a database.
D. data.
C 3. Knowledge management is frequently referred to as the organization’s:

21 A. Intranet source.
B. Internet Web page.
C. intellectual capital.
D. database.
D 4. An organization’s global information system organizes and integrates data from which
22 of the organization’s functional areas?
A. Marketing
B. Finance
C. Production
D. All of the above
A 5. A mailing list of the names and addresses of an organization’s current customers is an

23 example of:
A. a database.
B. a global information system.
C. the Intranet.
D. the Internet.
B 6. A collection of computer data that gives the names, salaries, job titles, and addresses of
23 the organization’s current employees is an example of:
A. an Internet application.
B. a database.
C. a Web page.
D. the Home page.
D 7. Data from which of the following functional areas of an organization can be included
23 in an internal database of the organization?
A. Manufacturing
B. Payroll.
C. Sales
D. All of the above
B 8. Which of the following is a Web browser?

31 A. Yahoo
B. Netscape Navigator
C. Excite
D. hotmail
D 9. Input to an organization’s decision support system can include which of the following?
26 A. Voice
B. Images
C. Text
D. All of the above
D 10. Which of the following can provide input to an organization’s decision support
26 system?
A. Sales personnel
B. Accountants
C. Business researchers
D. All of the above
C 11. A worldwide network of computers that supports electronic communication and gives
29 users from different organizations access to information and documents from distant
sources is called:
A. the Intranet.
B. the Home page.
C. the Internet.
D. the domain..
C 12. Which of the following is the world’s largest public library?

29 A. The Intranet
B. An organization’s global information system
C. The Internet
D. The New York City Public Library
D 13. Recent studies have shown that the Internet has more than ________ million users
29 from home PCs.
A. 100
B. 150
C. 200
D. 250
B 14. In the Internet, the name of the organization that is associated with the host computer is
30 known as:
A. the host.
B. the domain.
C. the decision support system.
D. the database.
A 15. Since Forbes magazine has an internet site whch is www.forbes.com, the forbes part of
30 this address is known as:
A. the domain.
B. the host.
C. the home page.
D. the Web site.
C 16. Which of the following is an educational Web site?

30 A. USPS.gov
B. forbes.com
C. ucla.edu
D. ford.com
A 17. Which of the following is a government Web site?

30 A. census.gov
B. ford.com
C. ibm.com
D. webster.edu
B 18. A university’s mainframe computer can be a ________ for local users and a ______
31 that allows access to other computers on the Internet.
A. server; host
B. server; client
C. client; file server
D. none of the above
A 19. When a university has an Internet site which contains pages giving its mission, course
31 descriptions, and the list of faculty, this is known as:
A. a web site.
B. the intranet.
C. a home page.
D. a host computer.
D 20. Which of the following can be made available on an organization’s Intranet?

37 A. Video
B. Graphics
C. Data
D. All of the above
Fill in the Blank

1. Facts and recorded measures of phenomena are known as ________.
21
data
2. A body of facts arranged in such a way that the relationships between pieces of data
21 can be defined is known as ________.
information
3. An organized collection of computer hardware and software that allows the

22 organization to capture, store, update, and analyze information about it business
activities worldwide is known as a(n) ________ ________ ________.
global information system
4. A computer-based system that allows decision-makers to solve problems through

22 direct interaction with the organization’s databases is known as a(n) ________ ________
________.
decision support system
5. A collection of raw data that is arranged in such a way that it can be stored and
23 processed by a computer is known as a(n) ________.
database
6. A multi-tiered, computer storage of current and historical data for an organization is

24 called a(n) ________.
data warehouse
7. When detailed data from an organization’s operations has been stored within a
24 computer, it is said to have been “________”.
warehoused
8. In an organization’s data warehouse, the various database files are commonly referred
24 to as “________”.
tables
9. When users of the Internet send electronic messages to one another, they are said to be
29 using “________”.
e-mail
10. The opening screen of an organization’s web site is called the ________ ________.
31
home page
Chapter 3
Theory Building
F 1. As a first step in applying the scientific method, we must state a hypothesis.
47
F 2. As a first step in applying the scientific method, we should explain what we have
48 learned during our research.
T 3. A hypothesis is a proposition that is empirically testable.

43
T 4. In most scientific situations, there are alternative theories to explain certain classes of
47 phenomena.
F 5. Prediction and forecasting are the two purposes of theory.

41
F 6. Deductive reasoning is the logical process of establishing a general proposition on the

47 basis of observation of particular facts.
T 7. Inductive reasoning is the logical process of establishing a general proposition on the

47 basis of observation of particular facts.
F 8. Inductive reasoning is the logical process of deriving a conclusion from a known

47 premise or something known to be true.
T 9. Propositions are statements concerned with relationships among concepts.

42
T 10. A hypothesis is a proposition that is concerned with the relationship among variables.
43
T 11. The scientific method refers to techniques or procedures that are used to analyze
43 empirical evidence in an attempt to confirm or disprove prior conceptions.
T 12. Deductive reasoning is the logical process of deriving a conclusion from a known
47 premise or something known to be true.
F 13. Things are the essence of theory, not ideas.

42
F 14. Propositions are statements concerned with concepts described in isolation.

42
T 15. In management theory, "leadership," "productivity," and "morale" are concepts that
41 abstract reality.
T 16. The purpose of science is to expand knowledge and to discover truth.

40
T 17. Prediction and understanding are the two purposes of theory.

41
T 18. Theory development is essentially a process of describing and explaining phenomena

41 and relationships at increasingly higher levels of abstraction.
F 19. The process of empirical verification can be done separately from the process of theory
43 development.
T 20. A coherent set of general propositions is an essential aspect of the definition of theory.
43
F 21. Theory generation can occur at the conceptual level, but not at the empirical level.
47
T 22. At the conceptual level, theory can be developed using deductive reasoning.
47
D 1. A(n) is a proposition that is empirically testable.

43 A. ladder of abstraction
B. variable
C. concept
D. hypothesis
B 2. The idea that a theory is “empirically testable” means that it be verified by:
43 A. a computer.
B. observation and experiments.
C. Zen.
D. none of the above.
C 3. The text presents the following quote from the book Zen and the Art of Motorcycle
48 Maintenance: "In Part One of formal scientific method...the main skill is in stating
absolutely no more than you are positive you know." This describes which step in
applying the scientific method?
A. Analysis and evaluation of data
B. Providing explanation and stating new problems raised by the research
C. Assessment of relevant existing knowledge
D. Designing the research to test the hypothesis
C 4. The two purposes of theory are:

41 A. empirical testing and description.
B. description and prediction.
C. prediction and understanding.
D. understanding and testing.
A 5. Which of the following is NOT true about theories?

41 A. The main purpose of theory is description.
B. Concepts abstract reality.
C. Theories are used as principles of explanation of apparent relationships of
certain observed phenomena.
D. Theories, once verified, allow for prediction.
B 6. Which of the following is NOT a step involved in the application of the scientific
48 method?
A. Statement of hypotheses
B. Purchase of computer software to analyze data
C. Assessment of relevant existing knowledge
D. Analysis and evaluation of data
B 7. A(n) is a coherent set of general propositions used as principles of explanation of

41 the apparent relationship of certain observed phenomena.

A. concept
B. theory
C. abstraction ladder
D. hypothesis
D 8. Deductive reasoning is:

47 A. the logical process of establishing a general proposition on the basis of
observation of particular facts.
B. the logical process of inducing individuals to reason.
C. the logical process of linking propositions via the ladder of abstraction.
D. the logical process of deriving a conclusion from a known premise or
something known to be true.
C 9. Consider the following two statements: (a) reinforcements will increase habit strength
43 and (b) bonus pay will be associated with sales volume consistently above the quota.
Statement (a) is a(n) and statement (b) is a(n) .
A. concept, proposition
B. concept, hypothesis
C. proposition, hypothesis
D. hypothesis, proposition
B 10. Consider this statement: "All Business Research students who have ever been seen are
47 human beings. Therefore, we conclude that all Business Research students are human
beings." This is an example of:
A. a variable.
B. inductive reasoning.
C. the ladder of abstraction.
D. deductive reasoning.
A 11. Inductive reasoning is:

47 A. the logical process of establishing a general proposition on the basis of
observation of particular facts.
B. the logical process of inducing individuals to reason.
C. the logical process of linking propositions via the ladder of abstraction.
D. the logical process of deriving a conclusion from a known premise or
something known to be true.
D 12. Consider this statement: "All Business Research students are human beings. Sally
47 Jones is a Business Research student, therefore we conclude that Sally is a human
being." This is an example of:

A. a variable.
B. inductive reasoning.
C. the ladder of abstraction.
D. deductive reasoning.
Fill in the Blank
1. In comparing two theories, researchers gather empirical data in an attempt to ______

43 the theories.
verify
2. The term ________ means that something is verifiable by observation, experience, or

43 experimentation.
empirical
3. The logical process of deriving a conclusion from a known premise or something

47 known to be true is called .
deductive reasoning
4. The two purposes of theory are and .

41
prediction, understanding
5. The term refers to anything that may be measured.

43
variable
6. As it moves up the _____ _____ _____ , a basic concept becomes more abstract,
42 wider in scope, and less amenable to measurement. (Answer could be several words).
ladder of abstraction
7. The logical process of establishing a general proposition on the basis of observation of

47 particular facts is called .
inductive reasoning
8. Only when we explain how concepts are related to other concepts can we begin to
42 construct ________.
theories
9. The term refers to statements concerned with the relationships among concepts.
42
propositions
10. A(n) is a generalized idea about a class of objects, attributes, occurrences, or

41 processes that has been given a name.
concept (construct)
11. A(n) is a proposition that is empirically testable.

43
hypothesis
12. A(n) is a coherent set of propositions used as principles of explanation of the

41 apparent relationships of certain observed phenomena.
theory
13. The refers to the level of knowledge reflecting that which is verifiable by
43 experience or observation.
empirical level
14. The is the use of a set of prescribed procedures for establishing and connecting
47 theoretical statements about events and for predicting events yet unknown.
scientific method
Chapter 4
The Research Process: An Overview
F 1. Since pilot studies involve informal data collection methods, they should not be used in
63 business research.
F 2. The most common method of generating secondary data is through surveys.

66
T 3. Inexperienced researchers often assume that a survey is the best research method,
69 because it is the technique with which they are most familiar.
F 4. The purpose of exploratory research is to provide conclusive evidence about a course

54 of action.
F 5. Descriptive research attempts to provide an explanation of the cause of the findings.

54
F 6. A written research report can be discarded after a study ends, because it has served its
73 purpose.
F 7. A diagnostic analysis provides evidence of a cause-and-effect relationship.

56
T 8. Generally when the researcher is totally unaware of the problem, he/she will conduct
62 exploratory research rather than descriptive or causal research.
T 9. The focus group interview is a type of pilot study.

63
F 10. The most common way to generate primary data is through personal interviews.
66
F 11. Because many business research problems are unique, there is usually a single,
69 standard, correct method of carrying out a piece of research.
F 12. In data collection, a pretest means that a small sample of data is collected in order to
72 test the statistical data analysis procedures being used in the research.
T 13. If a consumer behavior theorist wishes to establish that attitude change causes behavior
56 change, one criterion that must be established is that attitude change precedes behavior
change.
F 14. When discussing the stages in the research process, the term forward linkage would be
59 appropriate if we believe problem definition will be influenced by our knowledge that
the data will be analyzed by computers.
T 15. Researchers who seek to determine the answers to "who," "what," "when," "where,"
54 and "how" questions will be conducting descriptive research.
F 16. Because the main goal of causal research is to identify cause-and-effect relationships, it
56 usually precedes exploratory or descriptive studies.
T 17. The main goal of causal research is to identify cause-and-effect relationships between
56 variables.
F 18. Experiments have the least potential to establish cause-and-effect relationships.

66
F 19. The major purpose of descriptive research, as the name implies, is to clarify the nature
54 of problems.
T 20. Business research needs clear objectives and definite research designs in order to be
65 conducted efficiently.
T 21. Exploratory studies are conducted to clarify the nature of problems.

54
F 22. The usual purpose of exploratory research is to provide conclusive evidence to

54 determine a particular course of action.
F 23. Exploratory research studies provide conclusive evidence to determine a particular

54 course of action.
F 24. "A problem well defined is a problem half solved," is an old adage not generally true in
60 the age of computers.
F 25. The most important stage of the research process is processing and analyzing the data.
60
F 26. Classifying business research on the basis of the technique used to collect the data
65 would yield the following classifications: exploratory research, descriptive research,
and causal research.
F 27. The preliminary activities undertaken to define the problem into a researchable one
60 should always be formal and precise so that mistakes will not be made.
T 28. Having discussions on research with the members of the company's sales force may be
62 a valuable source of information for exploratory research.
F 29. Exploratory research is typically conducted near the later stages of the research
62 process.
F 30. Secondary data can seldom be gathered faster and at lower cost than primary data.
64
F 31. There is one standard design for exploratory research.

69
B 1. A pilot study is:

64 A. an extremely rigorous research design involving formal methods for
collecting data.
B. a small-scale exploratory research technique that uses informal data collection
methods.
C. a good example of backward linkage.
D. always the best way to approach business research situations.
B 2. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:

69 A. there is no one best research design for all situations.
B. observation studies are easy to administer and conduct.
C. one drawback of observation methods is that they cannot record respondents'
attitudes and opinions.
D. there are many different ways to collect data.
B 3. The most difficult business decisions are those which are:

53 A. certain.
B. ambiguous.
C. causal.
D. descriptive.
D 4. If a researcher is attempting to show the relationship between a sales training program

66 and the subsequent change in sales performance, this is an example of:
A. a focus group.
B. a telephone interview.
C. an observation study.
D. an experiment.
D 5. Which of the following factors would most likely decrease the importance of
53 managerial experience and judgment relative to the use of business research in a given
situation?
A. Budget available for research
B. Need for a quick decision
C. Decision outcomes with high degrees of uncertainty
D. Routine repetitive decision problem
C 6. Which of the following statements about survey research is NOT true?

66 A. Gathers information from people by use of a questionnaire
B. Gathers primary data
C. Holds the greatest potential for establishing causal relationships
D. May be conducted using mail, personal interviews, or telephone
C 7. The four research design techniques for descriptive and causal research are:
65 A. focus groups, surveys, pilot studies, and experiments.
B. focus groups, surveys, experiments, and observation.
C. secondary data studies, surveys, experiments, and observation.
D. secondary data, focus groups, surveys, and experiments.
A 8. The textbook states that every decision-making situation can be classified on a

53 continuum containing three categories. These categories are
A. uncertainty, certainty, ambiguity.
B. total confusion, partial confusion, complete clarity.
C. incomplete certainty, certainty, ambivalence.
D. difficult, moderately difficult, easy.
A 9. Relative to the decision-making process, at what point should business research enter
60 the process?
A. Problem discovery and definition
B. Alternative formulation
C. Evaluation of alternatives
D. Implementation
D 10. All of the following are stages in the research process, EXCEPT:
59 A. planning a sample.
B. defining the problem.
C. planning a research design.
D. conducting a telephone survey.
C 11. Which type of research study is attempting to answer the question: “Would members
62 of this target market be interested in purchasing this new type of product?”
A. Descriptive research
B. Causal research
C. Exploratory research
D. Definitive research
B 12. The main goal of causal research is:

56 A. to directly seek the solution to a particular, pragmatic problem.
B. to identify cause-and-effect relationships between variables.
C. to clarify the nature of problems.
D. to provide a conclusive statement about the characteristics of a particular
population or phenomenon.
B 13. Which of the following is not a stage in the research process?

59 A. Collecting the data
B. Solving the managerial problem
C. Defining the research problem
D. Formulating conclusions
B 14. Any procedure that uses a small number of items or people to make a conclusion
70 regarding a larger group known as the population is called:
A. statistics.
B. sampling.
C. surveying.
D. probability theory.
A 15. Which of the following statements concerning research design is true?

65 A. Research design provides a framework that guides data collection and data
analysis.
B. Ideal research design is exactly determined by the research objectives.
C. Research design characteristics are indirectly determined by the information
needs of the decision maker.
D. All of the statements are true.
B 16. Checking the data collection forms for omissions, legibility, and consistency in
72 classification is referred to as:
A. auditing.
B. editing.
C. accuracy analysis.
D. coding.
A 17. Which of the following questions will NOT be answered by the sampling plan?
70 A. Why is the sample being selected?
B. Who is to be sampled?
C. How big should the sample be?
D. How are the sampling units to be selected?
C 18. If the research problem were defined as: "Which of two prices produce the most
56 sales?”, the most appropriate type of research would be:
A. exploratory.
B. descriptive.
C. causal.
D. associative.
B 19. If we want to clarify the nature of problems, we would conduct research.

54 A. clarification
B. exploratory
C. descriptive
D. causal
C 20. Which type of research study is attempting to answer the question: “Which of two
56 sales training programs is more effective?”
A. Exloratory
B. Descriptive
C. Causal
D. Mall-intercept
C 21. If the research problem were defined as: "Will buyers purchase more of the product in
54 a red or blue colored package?", the most appropriate type of research would be:
A. exploratory.
B. descriptive.
C. causal.
D. associative.
B 22. To be most useful, how should research objectives be stated?

65 A. They should be stated as broadly as possible to permit flexibility in applying
the research.
B. They should be stated as precisely as possible to avoid misapplying the
research.
C. Usually it makes little difference whether they are broadly or precisely stated
as long as the objective is clear.
D. Most research does not need a stated objective because the nature of the
problem implies the objective.
C 23. A research design that merely records what occurs is a(n):

69 A. survey.
B. secondary data study.
C. observation study.
D. experiment.
C 24. What type of research study is being conducted when a researcher is attempting to
56 predict future sales on the basis of past sales trends?
A. Secondary data study
B. Exploratory
C. Causal
D. Descriptive
A 25. The appropriate research strategy to determine the demographic characteristics of

55 owners of Ford Explorer SUVs would be:
A. descriptive design.
B. exploratory design.
C. simulation.
D. field experiment.
C 26. Research designs may be categorized according to their fundamental objective. Which
54 of the following are research design categories?
A. scientific, exploratory, descriptive
B. descriptive, research, experimental
C. descriptive, causal, exploratory
D. experimental, experience, exploratory
D 27. An exploratory research design would be LEAST likely to be used to:
55 A. create a more precise formulation of a problem.
B. clarify a basic concept.
C. increase familiarization with a problem.
D. describe the characteristics of a certain group.
D 28. Which of the following is designed to develop ideas and insights in decision-making
55 situations, especially when only limited knowledge is currently available?
A. Secondary research
B. Experimental research
C. Survey research
D. Exploratory research
D 29. Which of the following is NOT a common exploratory research design?

62 A. pilot study
B. experience survey
C. secondary data study
D. observation study
D 30. Which of the following statements concerning research design is TRUE?

65 A. There is a single, correct plan for every problem.
B. There are two basic types of research design: surveys and experiments.
C. Research design is costly to plan and implement and is often unnecessary.
D. It is a plan for the collection and analysis of data.
C 31. Which of the following statements concerning secondary data is FALSE?

64 A. Secondary data sources should be considered before primary data are
collected.
B. Internal secondary data are usually preferred to external secondary data.
C. Data needed to complete a research project are usually attainable as secondary
data.
D. Secondary data are available from commercial sources.
D 32. Which of the following is an advantage of secondary data as compared with primary
64 data?
A. Obtainable from reliable suppliers
B. Usually less expensive
C. Usually available in less time
D. All of the above are advantages.
C 33. The number of automobiles that drive over a “counter cable” in the road near a
69 proposed site for a convenience store is an example of:
A. secondary data collection.
B. exploratory research.
C. an observation study.
D. an experiment.
Fill in the Blank
1. Every month the Bureau of Labor Statistics conducts a survey to obtain statistics on
55 unemployment and other labor issues. This is an example of research.
descriptive
2. After expanding a staff training program, a manager conducts a follow-up study to

56 compare the productivity of employees who have gone through the new program with
those who went through the old program. This is an example of research.
causal
3. The term implies that later stages of research will influence the design of earlier
59 stages.
backward linkage
4. A manager conducts a preliminary survey of employees to determine if they might be

55 interested in a company-sponsored child-care program. This is an example of
research.
exploratory
5. The term implies that earlier stages of research will influence the design of later
59 stages.
forward linkage
6. A(n) is a sample in which every member of the population has a known,

71 nonzero probability of selection.
probability sample
7. In data processing, the rules for interpreting and categorizing and recording data are
72 known as ________.
codes
8. Data gathered and assembled specifically for the project at hand are data.
63
primary
9. The most common method of generating primary data is through .

66
surveys
10. Recording by mechanical counter the number of automobiles that pass a proposed site
69 for a gasoline station is a(n) study.
observation
11. A sample is a(n) from a larger population.

70
subset
12. Data previously collected and assembled for some project other than the one at hand
63 are data.
secondary
13. When a firm conducts research by discussing the general nature of a new product with
62 some of its key retailers and wholesalers, it is conducting a(n) ___ study.
exploratory
14. The is a group dynamics session with six to ten people, loosely structured, and
62 based on the assumption that individuals are more willing to share their ideas as they
share in the ideas of others.
focus group
15. Every business problem can be classified on a continuum containing three categories:
53 _____ ______ ______ .
certainty, uncertainty, ambiguity
16. The use of “mystery shoppers” is an example of a(n) ________ type of research study.
69
observation
17. When management has discovered a general problem, but research is needed to gain a
54 better understanding of the dimensions of the problem, research is conducted.
exploratory
18. If we seek to determine the answers to "who," "what," "when," "where," and "how"
55 questions, we conduct research.
descriptive
19. The main goal of is to identify cause-and-effect relationships between

56 variables.
causal research
20. When managers are asked: “Why do you feel that way?”, this is a type of
56 organizational behavior study which is termed ________ ________.
diagnostic analysis
21. A(n) is a master plan specifying the methods and procedures for collecting and
65 analyzing the needed information.
research design
22. Data processing generally begins with and of the data.

72
editing, coding
23. The application of logical reasoning to the understanding of data that have been
73 collected about a topic is called .
analysis
24. The design technique that holds the greatest potential for establishing cause-and-effect
66 relationships is .
experiments
25. The occurrence of two events that vary together is termed ________ variation.
57
concomitant
Chapter 7
Exploratory Research and Qualitative Analysis
F 1. The purpose of exploratory research is to provide conclusive answers to research

110 questions.
F 2. An effective focus group moderator has a list of questions already prepared that each
120 participant is required to answer.
F 3. Exploratory research typically provides extensive, quantitative data.

111
F 4. Focus groups with a company's employees should always be conducted by their

110 supervisor.
F 5. In exploratory research, rigorous mathematical tests are typically performed.

111
T 6. Exploratory research cannot take the place of quantitative, conclusive research.

130
T 7. Conducting a case study typically requires the cooperation of the party whose history is
115 being studied.
F 8. Case studies provide conclusive results.

116
F 9. A thematic apperception test provides conclusive results.

128
F 10. In the thematic apperception test, a comment by one individual often triggers a chain of
128 responses from other subjects.
T 11. Concept testing is a form of research that tests some sort of stimulus as a proxy for a
112 new or revised program, product, or service.
F 12. Exploratory research refers to exhaustive research studies conducted after a business
110 problem has been successfully defined.
T 13. The purpose of the case study method is to intensively investigate one or a few
115 situations similar to the researcher's problem situation.
T 14. Role playing is a technique that requires the subject to act out someone else's behavior
127 in a particular setting.
T 15. The projective technique does not require respondents to provide answers in any
124 structured format.
F 16. Most exploratory research entails a great deal of quantitative research.

111
F 17. When the results of exploratory research are extremely positive they can take the place
110 of a quantitative conclusive research study and save a lot of money.
T 18. It is important to remember that exploratory research techniques have limitations.

124
F 19. One of the principal advantages of focus group interviews is that, in the absence of an
124 effective moderator, a self-appointed participant will fill the role of moderator.
T 20. A third-person technique is an indirect means of questioning that enables the

127 respondent to "project" beliefs and feelings onto a third party, onto an inanimate object,
or into a task situation.
T 21. Del Monte did a concept test of shelf-stable yogurt.

112
F 22. The strongest advantage of case analyses is that situations are directly comparable, and
116 thus many insights can be gained.
T 23. The results from case study analysis should be seen as tentative.
116
F 24. The purpose of the case study method is to obtain information from at least a dozen
115 similar case situations.
F 25. Exploratory research is another name for preliminary library research, where past
115 studies are evaluated.
F 26. The logic of projective techniques is to forecast sales results into a future period.
124
T 27. Interpreting word association tests is highly subjective.

126
F 28. Exploratory research frequently can be a good substitute for conclusive research.
130
T 29. An experience survey is classified as exploratory research.

114
T 30. A pilot study is an informal, exploratory investigation that is carried out to serve as a
117 guide for a larger study.
T 31. Investigating data that have been compiled for some purpose other than the project at
115 hand is one of the most frequently used forms of exploratory research.
F 32. The type of technique utilized determines whether a study is exploratory, descriptive,
114 or causal.
T 33. In exploratory research, the term pilot studies refers to a collective group of diverse
117 techniques that will be conducted on a small scale.
T 34. The ideal size of a focus group is 6 to 10 people.

119
F 35. The ideal size for a focus group is 3 to 4 people.

119
F 36. A pilot study typically contains a precise, quantitative estimate from a large,
117 representative sample.
F 37. Conclusive research provides qualitative data.

110
T 38. Exploratory research may be a series of informal studies.

111
T 39. The purpose of a focus group interview is to encourage group members to discuss a
117 subject among themselves and to generate the respondents' true feelings, anxieties and
frustrations, as well as the depth of their convictions.
T 40. With focus group interviews, a main idea is that the combined effort of the group will
117 produce a wider range of information than will the accumulation of the responses of a
number of separate individuals.
T 41. The prime advantages of focus group interviews are that they are relatively fast, easy to
117 execute, and relatively inexpensive.
F 42. Focus group interviews typically can take the place of quantitative studies.
132
C 1. When Del Monte conducted a focus group discussion to study whether the target
112 market would accept the idea of a shelf-stable yogurt that did not require refrigeration,
this was an example of a(n):
A. a depth interview.
B. a projective technique.
C. a concept test.
D. a TAT experience survey.
D 2. There are several advantages to focus groups. Which of the following is NOT an
118 advantage?
A. synergism
B. snowballing
C. spontaneity
D. sentence completion
A 3. When a researcher goes to the library to do an extensive literature review to determine

115 some ideas for exploratory research, this is an example of:
A. secondary data analysis.
B. primary data analysis.
C. a projective technique.
D. TAT research.
C 4. Focus groups of employees:

109 A. should always be led by co-workers.
B. should include employees with their supervisors in the same group.
C. can be a valuable technique for improving a company's operations.
D. all of the above.
B 5. When a marketing researcher asks the company’s accounting department to provide a

115 list of the company’s top ten customers in terms of sales dollars over the past three
months, this is an example of:
A. a projective technique.
B. secondary data analysis.
C. an in-depth interview.
D. the case study method.
C 6. Qualitative research:
111 A. is essentially the same as quantitative research.
B. generally employs rigorous mathematical analysis.
C. is subjective in nature.
D. is objective in nature.
C 7. A researcher uses a cartoon drawing to which the respondent suggests dialogue that the
128 cartoon characters might speak. This is an example of:
A. a focus group.
B. sentence completion.
C. thematic apperception testing.
D. word association.
C 8. Discussion, such as informal conversations, with knowledgeable people, both inside

114 and outside the company, are:
A. knowledge acquisitions.
B. mainstream conversations.
C. experience surveys.
D. pilot studies.
C 9. In a(n) , knowledgeable people should be selected because they are articulate

114 individuals rather than because the researcher want to obtain a representative probability
sample.
A. depth interview
B. word association test
C. experience survey
D. structural analysis
A 10. With respect to research design:

115 A. case studies may be used in both descriptive and exploratory research.
B. experimentation may be used in exploratory research.
C. case studies may be used in both descriptive research and experimentation.
D. descriptive research may be categorized as either conclusive research or
experimentation.
D 11. Oscar Wilde said, "A man is least himself when he talks in his own person. Given a
124 mask he will tell the truth." This remark indicates the underlying logic of:
A. focus groups.
B. secondary techniques.
C. concept testing.
D. projective techniques.
A 12. In a focus group, the discussion guide is:

120 A. the moderator's written prefatory remarks and outline of topics to be
addressed.
B. an experienced researcher who guides the group's discussion.
C. a word association test administered to focus group participants.
D. a form of research that tests some sort of stimulus as a proxy for a new or
revised program, product, or service.
A 13. Which of the following is NOT a reason why exploratory research is conducted?
111 A. prospecting for clients
B. screening alternatives
C. discovering new ideas
D. diagnosing a situation
D 14. Exploratory research can involve each of the following EXCEPT:

114 A. a survey of knowledgeable people.
B. secondary data.
C. case studies.
D. experimentation.
C 15. The case study method has several distinct advantages over other methods of
115 descriptive research. Which of the following is NOT one of those advantages?
A. Data are often more accurate because of more intimate association between
researcher and respondent.
B. It provides a description of a real situation.
C. It is an objective tool for observing and recording.
D. All of the above are advantages.
.
D 16. In which of the following situations would an exploratory study NOT be appropriate?
111 A. Analyzing selected causes or cases
B. Conversations with individuals who have relevant information
C. Defining relationships so that hypotheses may be formulated
D. Measuring a brand's share of the market
A 17. A consists of a series of pictures with some continuity so that respondents may
128 project themselves into the situation and tell a story.
A. thematic apperception test
B. creative story test
C. picture perception profile
D. third person appraisal test
D 18. Which of the following is a projective technique?

124 A. depth interview
B. focus group
C. experience survey
D 19. When McDonald’s tries out a new menu item in a single restaurant to determine
116 customer response to that item, this is an example of:
A. an experience survey.
B. a situational analysis.
C. a thematic apperception test.
D. a case study.
D 20. One of the major difficulties with projective techniques is:

124 A. securing respondent cooperation.
B. interviewer cheating.
C. lack of experienced respondents.
D. interpretation of responses.
D 21. When a researcher reads a list of job tasks to a manager ans asks the manager to
124 respond with the first work that comes to mind in an attempt to determine this manager’s
true feelings about these job tasks, this is an example of:
A. an experience survey.
B. a depth interview.
C. a case study.
D. a word association test.
D 22. The Calamarios example in the text illustrates the use of:
113 A. situation diagnosis.
B. alternative screening.
C. word association tests.
D. concept testing.
B 23. When the researcher obtains information from one or a few situations similar to the
116 researcher's problem, the research technique is referred to as a(n):
A. focus group method.
B. case study method.
C. specific observation method.
D. specific experience method.
A 24. In evaluating the meaning evoked by potential brand names, the technique is often
126 used.
A. word association
B. thematic apperception
C. role playing
D. depth interview
D 25. Exploratory research:

111 A. answers questions of fact necessary to determine a course of action.
B. provides a precise quantitative measurement.
C. does not require careful and systematic planning.
D. provides qualitative measures that help clarify problems.
A 26. Three purposes for exploratory research are to:

111 A. diagnose a situation, screen alternatives, discover new ideas.
B. diagnose a situation, screen alternatives, provide quantification.
C. discover new ideas, diagnose a situation, provide quantification.
D. discover new ideas, screen ideas, provide quantification.
C 27. A manager may choose from which of the following general categories of exploratory
114 research?
A. experience surveys, focus groups, thematic apperception tests.
B. experience surveys, secondary data studies, focus groups.
C. experience surveys, secondary data studies, pilot studies.
D. thematic apperception, focus groups, secondary studies.
A 28. An exploratory research technique in which individuals who are knowledgeable about
114 a particular research problem are questioned is a(n):
A. experience survey.
B. focus group.
C. projective technique.
D. pilot study.
B 29. The ideal focus group size is:

119 A. less than 5 people.
B. 6-10 people.
C. approximately 25 people.
D. more than 100 people.
D 30. A is an unstructured free-flowing interview with a group of 6 to 10 participants.

117 A. group dynamic session
B. serendipity session
C. funnel group
D. focus group
B 31. Which of the following statements does NOT adequately describe focus groups?
117 A. A snowballing effect often occurs where one individual often triggers a chain
of responses from other participants.
B. The session begins when each individual in turn is asked to answer the 5 to 10
questions from a standardized list.
C. The flexibility of the group is an advantage.
D. All of the above adequately describe focus groups.
D 32. When a respondent is asked to complete the following statement: “A supervisor should
126 not ________,” this is an example of:
A. a poor test structure.
B. the word association technique.
C. the third-person technique.
D. the sentence completion method.
B 33. A researcher brings a small number of individuals together in a focus group interview.
118 If, after a brief introductory period, the respondents want to express their ideas and
expose their feelings as the general level of excitement increases, this would be an
example of
A. scrutiny.
B. stimulation.
C. serendipity.
D. such an event seldom occurs.
B 34. Which of the following is an advantage of a depth interview?

129 A. High degree of structure
B. Valuable insights into motivation
C. Need for a skilled interviewer
D. Inexpensive
C 35. In investigating situations where interpersonal relationships are the subject of the
127 research, the technique is particularly useful.
A. word association
B. focus group interview
C. role playing
D. depth interview
A 36. The following statements about an experience survey are true EXCEPT:
114 A. An experience survey has the purpose of providing conclusive evidence.
B. An experience survey may include discussions with individuals who work
inside the company.
C. An experience survey may include discussions with individuals who work
outside the company.
D. An experience survey may occur during situational analysis.
D 37. When a worker is asked to perform a task as if she were the supervisor in that work
127 situation, this is an example of:
A. a focus group interview.
B. the case study method.
C. the TAT projective techniques.
D. role-playing.
B 38. Which of the following provides a greater understanding of a concept or crystallizes a

111 business problem, rather than providing quantification or precise measurement?
A. Causal research
B. Exploratory research
C. Descriptive research
D. Conclusive research
B 39. When a research holds a 90-minute discussion with a manager in order to determine
129 this manager’s ideas about the feasibility of a new product launch, this is an example of:
A. a case study.
B. a depth interview.
C. secondary data analysis.
D. word association.
Fill in the Blank

1. The ________, rather than the ________, determines whether a study is exploratory,
114 descriptive, or causal.
purpose; technique
2. When a researcher studies trade association data to study his or her organization’s
115 relative profitability ratios, this is an example of ________ data analysis.
secondary
3. research is subjective in nature and leaves much of the measurement process to the
110 researcher's discretion.
Qualitative
4. are unstructured, extensive interviews that encourage a respondent to talk freely

129 and in depth about an undisguised topic.
Depth interviews
5. A(n) is an unstructured, free-flowing, group dynamics session that allows

117 individuals the opportunity to respond to the topics of discussion.
focus group
6. Initial research conducted to clarify and define the nature of a problem is .

110
exploratory research
7. Oscar Wilde's remark "A man is least himself when he talks in his own person; when
124 he is given a mask he will tell the truth," best describes .
projective techniques
8. The primary advantage of the _____ _____ method is that a single organization can be
115 investigated in great detail.
case study
9. The initials "TAT" refer to .

128
thematic apperception tests
10. Investigating data that have been compiled for some purpose other than the project at
115 hand, such as accounting records, is an example of .
secondary data analysis
11. During a(n) , the subject is presented with a list of words, one at a time, and
124 asked to respond with the first word that comes to mind.
word association test
12. In a focus group, the is the moderator's written prefatory remarks and outline of
120 topics to be addressed.
discussion guide
13. The term describes a form of research that tests some sort of stimulus as a
112 proxy for a new or revised program, product, or service.
concept testing
14. The purpose of the is to intensively investigate one or a few situations

115 similar to the researcher's problem situation.
case study method
15. The idea that the combined efforts of the focus group members can produce a greater
118 number of ideas than can individual interviews with the participants is known as
________.
synergism
16. An exploratory research technique that requires the subject to act out someone else's
127 behavior in a particular setting is called .
role playing
17. The idea that a focus group interview can be videotaped and studied carefully at a later
119 time is known as __________.
scrutiny
18. The ideal size of a focus group is to people.

119
six, ten
19. Discussing the problem at hand with a knowledgeable individual, such as the vice-
114 president of sales for your company, is an example of a(n) .
experience survey
20. The leader of a focus group discussion is typically referred to as the ________ of the
120 group.
moderator
NOTES:
Chapter 8
Secondary Data
T 1. The state of California has no racial majority.

135
T 2. Many states now publish data on the Internet.

147
F 3. All Internet sites that publish useful secondary financial data require payment of a
151 subscription fee before the data can be accessed.
F 4. The Internet has had little impact on how business research is conducted.
151
T 5. Secondary data are typically historical data.

136
T 6. The Internet is becoming more and more useful, due to the ever-expanding volume of
151 information it contains.
T 7. Market potential is frequently estimated by secondary data.

139
T 8. Secondary data can typically be obtained fairly quickly.

136
T 9. A disadvantage of secondary data is that they were not originally designed to meet the
136 current researcher’s needs.
T 10. Secondary data must be timely.

136
T 11. Secondary data can quickly become outdated.

137
T 12. Units of measurement in secondary data are a potential problem to the researcher.
137
T 13. If secondary data are not in the format that the researcher needs, data conversion may
137 be necessary.
T 14. A researcher typically has no control over the accuracy of secondary data.
137
T 15. A good way to check the accuracy of secondary data is through cross-checks from
138 multiple sources.
T 16. Secondary data research objectives can be fact finding or model building..
138
F 17. The simplest form of secondary data research is model building.

138
F 18. The process of “fact finding” involves specifying relationships between variables based
138 on secondary data, sometimes using descriptive or predictive equations.
F 19. Unfortunately, computerized databases are not yet widely available to the general
146 public.
T 20. Information itself can be a valuable product for a company to market.

151
T 21. Fact finding is the simplest form of secondary data research.

138
F 22. In secondary research, model building is less complicated than fact-finding.

139
F 23. In secondary research, model building can involve descriptive equations but not
139 predictive equations.
F 24. In secondary research, model building must include complicated mathematical

139 processes.
T 25. Wading through large volumes of data to discover patterns about the organization’s
141 customers is an example of data mining.
T 26. Wading through point-of-sale transactions to determine the relationships between

142 product purchases and other retail shopping information is known as market basket
analysis.
T 27. Secondary data are gathered and recorded by someone else prior to (and for purposes
136 other than) the current needs of researchers.
T 28. In some instances, data cannot be obtained using primary data collection procedures.
136
T 29. Obtaining secondary data is almost always faster and less expensive than collecting
136 primary data.
T 30. Analyzing the sequence of purchases of a customer is known as sequence discovery.

142
T 31. Two major drawbacks of secondary data are determining the accuracy of the data and
138 finding data which fit the specifications of the project.
T 32. To ignore secondary data may prove to be a costly oversight.

136
T 33. The Internet is an example of external secondary data.

151
T 34. In secondary data, data that are both internal and proprietary must have originated in
143 the organization.
T 35. It is essential that the purpose for which secondary data are collected and published be
136 determined.
T 36. Data conversion is the process of changing the original form of secondary data so that
137 its format is useful within the context of the research.
T 37. An inherent disadvantage of secondary data is that they were not collected specifically
137 to meet the researcher's needs.
T 38. Large users of secondary data may purchase government documents directly, while
151 smaller users may use an intermediate distributor.
T 39. If a researcher obtains data from the company's own library, he or she is using
136 secondary data.
T 40. It can reasonably be assumed that most of the data published by the federal government
146 can be counted on for accuracy and quality.
T 41. Sales invoices are an example of an organization’s internal and proprietary data.
143
T 42. Trade association data are a common example of external secondary data sources.
144
D 1. Which of the following information would NOT be found in STAT-USA/Internet?

146 A. Economic Report of the President
B. Listings of foreign businesses interested in buying U.S. products
C. Marketing research reports on individual countries
D. Confidential accounting records of Chase Manhattan Bank
D 2. Which of the following questions should a researcher ask about secondary data?
136 A. Do the data apply to the population of interest?
B. Is the time period consistent with our needs?
C. Are the units of information what we want?
D. All of the above
D 3. Which of the following is a common problem with secondary research data?

137 A. Outdated information
B. Different definition of terms
C. Different units of measurement
D. All of the above
C 4. If you wanted to locate financial data about the U.S. stock market, a good source to
150 check would be:
A. the Nielsen Retail Index Service.
B. UPC scanner data.
C. the Value Line Investment Survey.
D. CACI/Instant Demographics.
B 5. Which of the following is a good way to verify the accuracy of secondary data?
138 A. Intuition
B. Cross-checks from multiple sources
C. The Internet
D. None of the above
A 6. Which type of secondary data is needed to answer the question: “How many
138 consumers of ages 18-35 live in zip code 63119?
A. Fact-finding
B. Data mining
C. Model building
A 7. Which type of secondary data is an organization using when it attempts to determine

138 its brand’s market share in supermarket purchases?
A. Fact finding
B. Model building
C. Regression analysis
C 8. An organization’s market share equals:

140 A. revenues divided by net income.
B. sales times profit.
C. company sales divided by industry sales.
D. industry sales divided by company sales.
C 9. If you wanted to examine income statements and balance sheets for one of your
153 company's biggest Japanese competitors, you would use a database.
A. geographic
B. video
C. financial
D. scanner
A 10. When a credit card company tracks information about its customers’ age, gender,
142 income, and past credit history to determine patterns that make an individual a good or
a bad credit risk, this is an example of:
A. customer discovery data mining.
B. sequence discovery data mining.
C. market basket analysis.
D. market potential.
D 11. When a retailer analyzes the sequence of customer purchases to attempt to detect
142 patterns that can influence store layout, this is an example of:
A. customer discovery data mining.
B. market basket analysis.
C. market potential analysis.
D. sequence discovery data mining.
D 12. Which of the following questions would NOT be asked when evaluating secondary
136 data?
A. Do the data apply to the time period of interest?
B. Do the data apply to the population of interest?
C. Are the units of measurement comparable?
D. All of the above would be asked.
D 13. Which of the following is a characteristic of data from the Bureau of the Census?
146 A. A reputation for poor quality
B. Not detailed enough for market research
C. Unavailable to the public
D. None are characteristics
D 14. Which of the following is an example of internal and proprietary data?

143 A. Orders received
B. Back orders
C. Salespersons’ call reports
D. All of the above
D 15. Which of the following is a basic source of external secondary data?

144 A. Commercial sources
B. Government sources
C. Trade association sources
D. All of the above
C 16. The Journal of Business Research is an example of which type of external secondary
144 data source?
A. Commercial source
B. Trade association source
C. Books and periodicals
D. Government source
D 17. The Journal of Marketing Research is an example of what type of external secondary
144 data source?
A. Government source
B. Commercial source
C. Trade association source
D. Books and periodicals
A 18. The simplest form of secondary data research is:

138 A. fact finding.
B. data conversion.
C. model building.
D. input management.
B 19. The Census of Population is an example of which type of external secondary data
146 source?
A. Trade association source
B. Government source
D. Commercial source
B 20. Which of the following is FALSE?

136 A. Secondary data were collected for a purpose other than the one at hand.
B. High quality secondary data can usually be found to fit the problem if you are
willing to pay for it.
C. Secondary data are found in both internal and external data sources.
D. Secondary data may be gathered quickly.
D 21. Which of the following is NOT a common problem with secondary data?
137 A. Outdated information
B. Variation in definition of terms
C. Different units of measurement
D. Takes too long to collect
C 22. All of the following are examples of external sources of secondary data EXCEPT:
144 A. libraries.
B. governmental sources.
C. company records.
D. commercial sources.
D 23. Secondary data refers to data that:

136 A. were purchased from an organization hired to collect the data.
B. were collected by intermediaries in the channel of distribution.
C. were collected without direct contact with respondents.
D. were collected for a purpose other than the problem at hand.
A 24. Compared with primary data, two typical advantages of secondary data are that they
136 are:
A. gathered quickly and less expensively.
B. more objective and accurate.
C. more timely and objective.
D. more directly relevant and easier to collect.
B 25. The Statistical Abstract of the United States is an example of which type of external
146 secondary data source?
A. Commercial source
B. Government source
D. Trade association source
D 26. The Wall Street Journal is an example of which type of external secondary data
148 source?
A. Books and periodicals
B. Commercial source
C. Trade association source
D. Media source
D 27. Generally, a company's own accounting records:

143 A. are not considered a useful source of data.
B. are an important source of external secondary data.
C. can be easily compared to those of foreign companies, since accounting
procedures worldwide are similar.
D. are considered internal and proprietary data.
Fill in the Blank
1. According to the textbook, the U.S. government publishes a comprehensive source of

154 world trade data in the .
National Trade Data Bank
2. When secondary data appear in a format which does not match the needs of the
137 researcher, _______ ________ may be necessary.
data conversion
3. In secondary research, model building can include both _______ or _______

139 equations.
descriptive; predictive
4. Analyzing point-of-sale transactions to identify product purchases to determine their

142 relationship with other retail shopping information is called _____ _____ _____.
market basket analysis
5. When a credit card company analyzes its records to determine the demographic
141 characteristics of both good and bad credit risks, it is using _____ _____.
data mining
6. "Nowhere in science do we start from scratch." This sentence emphasizes the

136 importance of .
secondary data
7. The simplest form of secondary data research is .

138
fact finding
8. The process of involves specifying relationships between variables based on

139 data, sometimes using descriptive or predictive equations.
model building
9. Secondary data may be found in sources and in sources.

143
internal and proprietary; external
10. The U.S. Census Bureau Web site at www.census.gov is an example of a(n) _______
146 source of external secondary data..
government
11. The St. Louis Federal Reserve Bank Web site is an example of a(n) _____ source of
147 external secondary data.
government
12. When R.L. Polk Company sells data to automobile manufacturers about new-car
148 purchases, this is an example of a(n) _____ external secondary data source.
commercial
13. The U.S. Census of Population is an example of secondary data from a(n) source.
146
government
14. Secondary data that are created, recorded, or generated by an organization for its own
143 use are known as . (Answer could be several words).
internal and proprietary data
15. When a researcher transforms a manager’s monthly salary into his annual salary, she is
137 performing a ______ ______.
data conversion
16. The Nielsen ScanTrack service is an example of a(n) _____ external secondary data
148 source.
commercial
17. Supermarkets track market share data by using ___ optical scanning codes.
148
UPC
18. Supermarkets track brand purchase movement by using _____ data.

148
scanner
19. If data have already been collected for another purpose, we refer to them as data.
136
secondary
20. The marketer of farm implements that utilizes the Census of Agriculture to obtain data
136 to forecast sales is utilizing data.
secondary
21. When Information Resources,Inc. sells weekly product item movement at drugstores,
148 this is an example of a(n) _____ external secondary data source.
commercial
22. The prime advantage of secondary data is that they are usually ____ and to
136 obtain than primary data.
less expensive; quicker
23. Intermediary distributors of secondary data are called _____.

151
vendors
24. The primary advantage of secondary data over primary data is that secondary data are
136 typically _____ expensive than primary data.
less
Chapter 9
Survey Research: An Overview
F 1. The purpose of survey research is to collect secondary data.

175
T 2. An interviewer's appearance and behavior can influence respondents' answers.

183
F 3. Respondents may imply that they have more education than they actually do; this is an
182 example of acquiescence bias.
T 4. People who are not contacted are called nonrespondents.

178
T 5. People who refuse to participate are called nonrespondents.

178
T 6. Quality assurance means more than just meeting minimum standards.

189
T 7. Self-selection bias allows extreme positions to be overrepresented typically while those

178 who are indifferent are typically underrepresented.
T 8. If the National Rifle Association conducts a survey on gun control using its own
183 letterhead, it is likely that auspices bias will occur.
T 9. The people who answer survey questions are called respondents.

175
T 10. Most surveys ask both structured and unstructured questions.

186
T 11. Total quality management is a business philosophy for integrating customer-driven

188 quality throughout an organization.
F 12. Many studies have shown that there is little difference between the level of service that
192 customers expect and the way front-line personnel deliver the service.
F 13. Most survey research is causal research.

175
F 14. The purpose of survey research is to collect secondary data.

175
F 15. It is impossible to apply total quality management principles to services, since it is

192 much more difficult to measure the quality of a service than of a tangible product.
F 16. In a longitudinal study, various segments of the population are sampled at a single
187 point in time so that relationships among variables may be investigated by
cross-tabulation.
F 17. The purpose of a cross-sectional study is to examine the continuity of response and to
186 observe changes that occur over time.
T 18. One form of the longitudinal study is the panel study.

187
T 19. A structured question limits the number of responses available to a particular question.
186
T 20. A mistake in the execution of a research design can result in administrative error.
184
T 21. Surveys provide a quick, inexpensive, efficient, and accurate means of accessing
175 information about the population.
T 22. The two major sources or categories of survey error are random sampling error and
175 systematic error.
T 23. Nonsampling error is another name for systematic error.

177
T 24. One way to study the possible self-selection bias in respondents is to compare the
178 demographics of the target group with the demographics of the sample respondents.
T 25. The statistical difference between a survey that includes only those who responded and
178 a survey that would also include those who failed to respond would be referred to as
nonresponse error.
T 26. The situation in which a survey is administered can cause bias.
180
T 27. The term "survey" can be defined as a method of data collection based on
175 communication with a representative sample of individuals.
T 28. When respondents misunderstand a question in a survey, they may unconsciously give
181 a biased answer to the question.
T 29. In research on new products, acquiescence bias is a common problem.

182
T 30. A person who is unwilling to answer a survey is called a refusal.

178
F 31. Improper administration of a research design can cause social desirability error.
184
F 32. Systematic error can only occur from some imperfect aspect of research design.
185
T 33. In longitudinal surveys, respondents are questioned at different points in time.

187
T 34. When an interviewer cannot write fast enough to record an answer verbatim, this is
185 called interviewer error.
T 35. Surveys are based on the assumption that the information the marketer requires may be
175 obtained simply by asking people.
T 36. The term sample survey emphasizes that the purpose of contacting respondents in an
175 interview or with a questionnaire is to obtain a representative sample of the target
population.
F 37. When the results to a survey are biased by yea-sayers who are very agreeable to the
182 interviewer asking questions about a new brand, the survey has auspices bias.
T 38. The systematic overreporting of the consumption or purchase of a product with a

183 positive connotation, such as milk, is an example of social desirability bias.

T 39. The typical means of analyzing the data from a cross-sectional study is to divide the
186 sample into subgroups.
T 40. Disguised questions may be used to probe sensitive subjects.

186
F 41. Nonresponse errors can only occur in mail surveys because of the methods used to
178 collect the data.
F 42. The statistical difference between a survey that includes only those who responded and
178 a survey that also includes those who failed to respond is referred to as unintentional
error.
T 43. An example of self-selection bias might be the increased likelihood of response by a

178 man who has had his flight reservation bumped and then finds a self-administered
questionnaire left at the airline reservation counter.
T 44. The collection of data from the same households over time is called a panel study.
187
F 45. Self-selection biases a survey because it allows extreme positions to be

178 underrepresented, while those who are indifferent are overrepresented.
T 46. The error caused by an interviewer who fakes the answers to a questionnaire would be
185 administrative error.
T 47. When an interviewer's presence influences a respondent to say he does not have a
183 particular appliance in his home (when he actually does), a social desirability bias has
occurred.
B 1. When investigating Americans' eating habits, researchers often find that people
183 exaggerate their consumption of vegetables and fruit, while minimizing their
consumption of fast food. This is an example of:
A. nonresponse error.
B. social desirability bias.
C. self-selection bias.
D. acquiescence bias.
A 2. If a respondent wants to make a good impression on the interviewer, this could lead to:
183 A. social desirability bias.
B. semantic confusion.
C. sample selection error.
D. nonresponse error.
A 3. Most survey research represents which type of research?

175 A. Descriptive research
B. Predictive research
C. Causal research
D. Experimental research.
A 4. The total quality management process begins with a(n) stage.

190 A. commitment and exploration
B. benchmarking
C. customer satisfaction analysis
D. initial quality improvement
D 5. Surveys have the advantage that they are:

175 A. quick.
B. relatively inexpensive.
C. accurate.
D 6. All of the following are examples of response bias EXCEPT:

182 A. extremity bias.
B. auspices bias.
C. social desirability bias.
D. sample selection error.
C 7. A business owner, contacted at her home office, declines to participate in a telephone

178 survey because she doesn't have time. This is an example of:
A. self-selection bias.
B. a not-at-home.
C. a refusal.
D. extremity bias.
A 8. Which of the following is NOT an example of data processing error?

184 A. choosing an unrepresentative sample
B. typographical errors during data entry
C. accidentally combining answers from two respondents during data entry
D. inaccurate computer software

B 9. A is a study in which various segments of a population are sampled and data is
186 collected at a single moment in time.
A. panel study
B. cross-sectional study
C. longitudinal study
D. tracking study
A 10. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of panel studies?

187 A. Members are selected at random.
B. Panels are expensive.
C. Phone interviews are often used.
D. Diaries are used to aid members' recall.
B 11. All of the following are examples of administrative error EXCEPT:

184 A. data processing error.
B. auspices bias.
C. sample selection error.
D. interviewer cheating.
D 12. Which of the following is an example of response bias?

182 A. Extremity bias
B. Auspices bias
C. Social desirability bias
D. All of the above
D 13. Research on new product development typically includes which type of response bias?
182 A. Interviewer bias
B. Auspices bias
C. Extremity bias
D. Acquiescence bias
C 14. If the use of male interviewers in a study involving personal interviews with female
183 respondents yields less candid responses that would be the case if female interviewers
were used, this is an example of:
A. social desirability bias.
B. extremity bias.
C. interviewer bias.
D. acquiescence bias.
C 15. When a respondent is asked to indicate his annual income in one of five categories, this
186 is an example of:
A. an unstructured question.
B. a disguised question.
C. a structured question.
D. an unstructured-disguised question.
D 16. Which of the following characteristics of an interviewer can create interviewer bias in
183 personal interviews?
A. Dress
B. Gender
C. Age
D. All of the above
D 17. A method of primary data collection based on communication with a representative

175 sample of individuals is called
A. conclusive research.
B. scientific observation.
C. an experiment.
D. a survey.
D 18. Which of the following statements does NOT adequately describe surveys?
175 A. Surveys provide a quick, efficient, and accurate means of inferring
information about the population.
B. When surveys are poorly designed, the survey may be worse than none at all
because the sponsor may be misled.
C. Surveys require communication with a respondent.
D. Surveys lack versatility and flexibility with respect to the type of issues,
problems, and concepts that may be investigated.
B 19. Which of the following statements about surveys is FALSE?

175 A. The person who answers an interviewer's question is called a respondent.
B. Surveys can obtain information about attitudes, but not demographic
information.
C. A survey is a method of primary data collection.
D. Surveys may be conducted to quantify certain factual information.
C 20. When total error is broken down into two major sources of survey error, they are:
176 A. random sampling error and sample selection error.
B. random sampling error and administrative error.
C. random sampling error and systematic error (bias).
D. sample selection error and response bias.
B 21. If respondents inflate their annul income figures during a personal interviewer in an
183 attempt to please the interviewer, this is an example of:
A. sample selection error.
C. unintentional error.
D. self-selection error.
D 22. Which of the following statements about surveys is FALSE?

176 A. Most surveys try to represent a cross-section of a particular target population.
B. Surveys require asking people questions. These people are called respondents.
C. Most survey research is descriptive research.
D. With a technically proper probability sample, random sampling error is
eliminated.
A 23. Most survey research is in nature.

175 A. descriptive
B. causal
C. exploratory
D. cross-sectional
B 24. If mall-intercept studies conducted during the morning hours underrepresent working
184 women in the sample, this is an example of:
A. interviewer bias.
B. sample selection error.
C. auspices bias.
D. social desirability bias.
C 25. If an interviewer is unable to write fast enough to record answers verbatim during a
185 personal interview, this is an example of:
A. auspices bias.
C. interviewer error.
D. random sampling error.
C 26. An example of might be the increased likelihood of response by a man who has had
178 his flight reservation bumped and then finds a self-administered questionnaire left at the
airline reservation counter.
A. authority error
B. auspices bias
C. self-selection bias
D. self-administered error
A 27. When an interviewer intentionally skips over questions that deal with sensitive topics
185 during a personal interview, this is an example of:
A. interviewer cheating.
B. auspices bias.
C. social desirability bias.
D. random sampling error.
B 28. A results from some imperfect aspect of the research design that causes respondent
177 error or from a mistake in the execution of the research.
A. design fault
B. systematic error
C. random sampling error
A 29. If a response to a survey question asks the respondent to say whether he or she is
186 “under 35 or over 35”, this is an example of a(n):
A. structured question.
B. disguised question.
C. cross-sectional question..
D. longitudinal question.
D 30. The error caused by an interviewer who fakes the answers to a questionnaire would be:
185 A. nonresponse error.
B. systemic error.
C. interviewer bias.
D. interviewer cheating.
B 31. At which stage of the total quality management process should the organization
190 determine an initial measure of the frequency of customer problems?
A. Commitment and exploration stage
B. Benchmarking stage
C. Initial quality improvement stage
D. Continuous quality improvement stage

Fill in the Blank
1. A(n) error is an error caused by the improper administration or execution of a

184 research task.
administrative
2. If respondents' answers are influenced by the organization conducting the study, this
183 could lead to .
auspices bias
3. If respondents' answers are affected by their desire to appear wealthier than they
183 actually are, this reflects .
social desirability bias
4. If the interviewer somehow influences the responses of people being interviewed, this
183 is called .
interviewer bias
5. The total quality management process begins with a(n) stage, during which
190 management commits to total quality assurance and researchers explore customers'
needs and beliefs. (Answer could be several words).
commitment and exploration
6. During the stage of TQM, researchers establish quantitative measures of quality

190 that can serve as points of comparison to evaluate future efforts.
benchmarking
7. The stage of TQM consists of many consecutive waves with the same purpose--to
190 improve over the previous period. (Answer could be several words).
continuous quality improvement
8. During the stage of TQM, the firm begins to establish quality improvement
190 processes within the organization. (Answer could be several words).
initial quality improvement

9. Surveys require asking people, who are called , for information using either verbal
175 or written questioning.
respondents
10. The two major sources of survey error (at the most general level) are error and
176 error.
random sampling, systematic
11. If some aspect of the research design is imperfect, or a mistake is made in the
177 execution of the research, can result.
systematic error
12. The statistical difference between a survey that includes only those that responded and
178 a survey that also includes those who failed to respond is called .
nonresponse error
13. We can break down response bias into two categories: and unconscious
178 misrepresentation.
deliberate falsification
14. If respondents tend to agree with all questions, this could lead to .
183
acquiescence bias
15. When individuals tend to use extremes when responding to questions, we would say
183 that their answers are characterized by .
extremity bias
16. A(n) exists when the results of a sample show a persistent tendency to deviate
177 in one direction from the true value of the population parameter.
sample bias
17. Self-selection biases the survey because extreme positions may be represented,
178 while those who are indifferent may be represented.
over, under
18. A survey that samples respondents during daytime hours in shopping centers,
184 excluding working people who mainly shop by mail or by telephone, is an example of
error.
sample selection
19. In designing a questionnaire, limit the number of responses available.

186
structured questions
20. In surveys, respondents are questioned at different points in time.
187
longitudinal
21. When researchers want to investigate different market segments in the same survey,
186 they may choose a(n) study in which all the data are collected at a single point in
time.
cross-sectional
22. A woman who had soup spilled on her at a restaurant is likely to fill out a questionnaire
178 left at the table. This might result in an error of .
self-selection
23. A study that asks the same group of people to keep track of all their purchases for a
187 period of time is called a(n) .
panel study
24. A business philosophy for integrating customer-driven quality throughout an

188 organization is called .

25. A type of bias which occurs frequently in self-administered questionnaires is called

178 _____ bias.
self-selection
26. The dimension of quality for goods and services which attempts to answer the
193 question: “Will this washing machine work properly each time it is used?” is referring
to ________.
reliability
Chapter 10
Survey Research: Basic Methods of Communication with

Respondents
T 1. The way a question is phrased can influence a respondent's answer.

228
T 2. Survey data are collected when individuals respond to questions asked by an

198 interviewer.
F 3. Self-administered mail questionnaires are a type of interactive survey.

224
F 4. Interviewers should paraphrase questions that they feel the respondent will
203 misunderstand.
F 5. A personal interview is especially useful for obtaining structured information.

201
F 6. Compared to a mail survey, the presence of an interviewer in a personal interview

201 generally decreases the percentage of people willing to complete the survey.
T 7. Survey response rates often increase when accompanied by an offer to contribute

217 money to the respondent's choice of charity.
T 8. Sending surveys by E-mail can speed up turnaround time and reduce distribution costs.
219
F 9. Personal interviews are being conducted in shopping malls at a decreasing rate over the
203 past decade.
F 10. The code of ethics of the American Association for Public Opinion Research does not
230 deal with issues related to survey research.
T 11. Respondents are more likely to provide confidential or embarrassing information in a

206 mail survey than in a personal interview.
F 12. When 60 percent of the individuals sampled returned a questionnaire, it is said that the
209 survey has a 40 percent response rate.
F 13. Door-to-door interviews typically provide a less representative sample of the

202 population than mail surveys.
T 14. To reduce the chance that respondents will misunderstand a particular question, skip a
228 series of questions, or misinterpret the instructions for filling out a questionnaire, pretests
are often utilized.
F 15. In mall intercept interviews, the researcher typically is attempting to interview a

203 representative sample of the total population.
T 16. The presence of an interviewer generally increases the percentage of people willing to
201 complete an interview, since respondents are generally not required to do any reading or
writing.
T 17. Control (e.g., supervision) over interviewers is important to assure that the difficult,
203 embarrassing, and time-consuming questions are handled in the proper manner.
T 18. The respondent's motivation for returning a questionnaire may be increased by offering
217 monetary incentives.
T 19. In a typical survey, the response rate is relatively high for the first two weeks after the
217 questionnaires begin to be returned, then it gradually trails off.
T 20. Adding an "interesting" question at the beginning of a questionnaire can improve

217 response rates to a mail survey.
T 21. The letter that accompanies the questionnaire or is printed on the first page of a
215 questionnaire booklet is called the cover letter.
T 22. In the letter that accompanies a questionnaire, the first paragraph often explains why
215 the study is important.
T 23. A disadvantage of personal interviews is that they may exclude individuals living in
202 multiple dwelling units with security systems, such as high-rise apartments.
T 24. Relative to mail and telephone surveys, personal interviews have a high participation
201 rate.
F 25. Mall intercept interviews are likely to have less bias than household probability
203 sampling techniques.
T 26. A study comparing telephone interviews with personal interviews concluded that
209 respondents are willing to provide detailed and reliable information on a variety of
personal topics over the telephone.
T 27. Advances in computer technology allow telephone interviews to be entered directly

207 into a computer.
F 28. Generally, the problem of unlisted telephone numbers cannot be resolved with
210 random-digit dialing, since connection to unlisted telephones requires the researcher to
know the number in advance.
F 29. The structure of personal interviews generally does not allow the interviewer the
201 opportunity to probe for clearer responses if the respondent's answer is vague or unclear.
F 30. Ease of callbacks is a primary advantage of personal interviews.

206
F 31. The term "not-at-home" is slang for random sampling error in a personal interview.
206
T 32. Mail questionnaires can reach a geographically dispersed sample simultaneously at a

212 relatively low cost.
F 33. The proportion of unlisted telephone numbers is rarely more than 10 percent, and this
210 low percentage does not cause any serious problem for survey researchers.
F 34. The callback is used exclusively in telephone interviews.

206
T 35. One disadvantage of the telephone interview is that the length of interviews is limited.
211
T 36. One major advantage of computer assisted surveys is the ability of the computer to ask
224 questions depending upon the previous responses to earlier questions.
F 37. The computer assisted telephone interview from a central geographical location is the
227 best form of survey.
T 38. Centralized interviewing reduces interviewer error by utilizing fewer interviewers

207 working in a controlled environment.
T 39. One disadvantage of mail surveys is that the researcher has no assurance that the
215 intended subjects have actually filled out the questionnaire.
T 40. According to the textbook, a general rule of thumb on mail surveys is that they should
214 not be more than six pages long.
F 41. Door-to-door interviewing is the most popular form of survey research.

207
T 42. The typical study using door-to-door personal interviews will be more representative of
202 an urban community than a study using mall intercept interviews.
F 43. Personal interviews are typically less expensive than telephone interviews.
203
F 44. Researchers conducting personal interviews in shopping malls expect representative

203 samples of the population.
T 45. The letter that accompanies the questionnaire should explain that the respondents'
215 answers will be confidential.
T 46. On a mail questionnaire, the procedure of allowing respondents to check information

213 by verifying records or consulting with family members should provide more valid,
factual information than either personal or telephone interviews allow.
F 47. Typically, respondents are less willing to provide detailed information on personal
208 topics over the phone than they are in personal interviews.
T 48. Personal interviews are more versatile and flexible than mail questionnaires.
201
F 49. The strengths and weaknesses of phone interviews are the same as those of personal
203 interviews.
T 50. Telephone interviewing is increasingly becoming the most popular form of survey
207 research.
T 51. A primary advantage of telephone surveys is the speed of data collection.

208
F 52. The proportion of unlisted phone numbers in major cities throughout the United States
210 is about the same.
T 53. A personal interview involves the gathering of information through face-to-face

199 contact with individuals.
F 54. The telephone provides an efficient means of conducting personal interviews.

207
T 55. According to the text, Chrysler researchers use a computerized device called a Gridpad
197 to expedite survey research.
F 56. A callback refers to a respondent's attempt to call an interviewer back to clarify

206 answers.
F 57. There is less tendency for incomplete answers to occur in phone interviews than in
201 personal interviews.
F 58. An Internet survey is the same thing as an e-mail survey.

221
T 59. The Internet is an excellent medium for the presentation of visual materials.
221
T 60. One major advantage of Internet surveys is the computer’s ability to sequence
224 questions based on previous responses to questions.
F 61. Computer-interactive Internet surveys are programmed very differently from

224 computer-assisted telephone interviewing surveys.
T 62. A major disadvantage of Internet surveys is that many individuals in the general
222 population cannot access the Internet.
T 63. Internet surveys have real-time data capture, which allows for real-time data analysis.
224
C 1. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using E-mail to conduct surveys?

219 A. Distribution tends to be cheaper.
B. Turnaround time is often faster.

C. It enables researchers to reach a larger segment of the American population
than almost any other distribution method.
D. Software is available that allows questions to branch off into a different line of
questioning, depending on respondents' answers.
A 2. When an interviewer asks a respondent: “What do you mean by that?, this is an

201 example of a(n):
A. probing question.
B. pretest.
C. CATI.
D. item nonresponse.
A 3. Older interviewers who interview _____ respondents typically produce _____ variance
203 in the responses of respondents than _____ interviewers who interview _____
respondents.
A. older; more; younger; younger
B. older; less; younger; younger
C. younger; more; younger; younger
C 4. "Can you tell me more about what you mean by that?" is an example of:
201 A. mall interception.
B. a self-administered questionnaire.
C. probing.
D. random digit dialing.
B 5. If we count the number of questionnaires returned in a survey, and divide this total by
215 the number of eligible people who were asked to participate, we have calculated the:
A. CATI.
B. response rate.
C. sponsorship rate.
D. cohort coefficient.
D 6. A personal interview conducted in a shopping mall is called a(n):

203 A. callback survey.
B. shopper satisfaction survey.
C. probing strategy.
D. mall intercept interview.
B 7. A good rule of thumb is to plan telephone interviews so that they are no more than
211 long.
A. 50 seconds or less
B. 10 minutes
C. 1 hour
D. 2 hours
C 8. When interviewers ask for clarification or expansion of answers to standardized

201 questions, we call this:
A. qualifying.
B. standardizing.
C. probing.
D. conversing.
B 9. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the personal interview?

201 A. High participation rate
B. Anonymity of respondents
C. Good opportunity to probe
D. Ability to use visual aids
D 10. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of the personal interview?

206 A. High cost
B. Potential for interviewer bias
C. Interviewer cheating is possible
D. Low cost per interview
D 11. Surveys sampling people visiting shopping malls generally are:

203 A. adjusted to eliminate response bias.
B. rarely conducted.
C. referred to as longitudinal studies.
D. not representative of the U.S. population.
D 12. In the United States, approximately what percentage of phone numbers are unlisted, on
210 the average?
A. 5 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 15 percent.
D. 30 percent
A 13. Which of the following statements concerning pretests is correct?

228 A. Pretests are trial runs with a group of respondents.

B. Pretests are statistical tests run on data after it is collected to check on its
internal consistency before it is statistically analyzed.
C. Pretests are used to screen out unrepresentative subjects before questionnaires
are administered.
D. Pretests are generally unnecessary if a well-designed questionnaire is used.
D 14. Which of the following devices is typically MOST effective in increasing response
217 rates in surveys?
A. Personalized cover letter
B. Type of postage used to mail the questionnaire
C. Color of the questionnaire
D. Monetary incentive
B 15. When a sampling unit cannot be contacted on the first visit, a systematic procedure
206 normally initiated to make contact at another time is referred to as:
A. not-at-home revisitation process.
B. callback procedure.
C. refusal reduction technique.
A 16. With respect to anonymity of response, the survey methods would typically be ranked
229 as follows (highest to lowest):
A. mail, telephone, personal.
B. personal, mail, telephone.
C. telephone, personal, mail.
D. No generalizations can be drawn.
C 17. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of telephone interviews?

208 A. The length of interview must be limited.
B. Visual aids cannot be utilized.
C. slow speed of data collection
D. more impersonal than face-to-face interviews
B 18. A poorly designed survey is returned by only 20 percent of those sampled. It has a 20
215 percent:
A. coverage rate.
B. response rate.
C. sampling percentage.
D. interaction rate.
C 19. When comparing the typical door-to-door personal interview with the typical mail
202 survey, personal interviews are more appropriately described by each of these
characteristics EXCEPT:
A. greater speed of data collection.
B. higher respondent cooperation.
C. higher possibility of respondent misunderstanding.
D. greater versatility of question format (questioning).
C 20. Which of the following phrases concerning the advantages of personal interviews is
202 FALSE?
A. High participation rate
B. More representative sample than mail surveys
C. Includes more individuals living in apartment buildings with security systems
D. All of the above are true.
B 21. Which of the following, concerning questionnaire length, is TRUE?

214 A. Telephone interviews typically last 30 minutes or longer.
B. Personal interviews may last perhaps an hour and a half.
C. Mail surveys should not exceed two or at most three pages in length.
D. All of the above are correct.
D 22. Which of the following statements conceding the participation rate for personal
202 interviews, compared to mail surveys, is FALSE?
A. The presence of an interviewer generally increases the percentage of people
willing to respond.
B. Hispanics, regardless of education, frequently prefer oral to written
communication.
C. Certain groups, such as older, retired persons, are often over-represented.
D. Type of residential unit, such as high security apartment buildings, usually has
a positive impact on response rates.
B 23. High cost, lower standardization of questioning, and limited geographic dispersion are
203 disadvantages of surveys.
A. telephone
B. personal interview
C. mail
D. mall intercept
B 24. Compared with personal interviews, telephone interviews generally:

207 A. are not a prime method of survey research.
B. are appropriate for collecting information on personal or sensitive topics.
C. provide less representative samples.
D. all of the above
D 25. A mail questionnaire would MOST likely be used to survey which of the following
212 groups?
A. housewives
B. college students
C. unemployed people
D. farmers
C 26. Who among the following are LEAST likely to respond to a mail survey?
215 A. Individuals interested in the general subject matter of the survey
B. People who hold extreme positions on the survey topic
C. Less educated respondents
D. Those who receive a follow-up questionnaire
C 27. If 400 people are mailed a questionnaire and 120 of them return it to the researcher,
215 this survey is said to have a response rate of:
A. 120.
B. 3.33.
C. 30 percent.
D. 400.
A 28. Which of the following is NOT a problem in creating a sample for telephone
210 interviews?
A. Random digit dialing skips many numbers.
B. Telephone ownership varies among income and ethnic groups.
C. Not-at-homes and refusals
D. Unlisted phones
D 29. What is the typical response rate of personal interviews?

215 A. 10 to 20 percent
B. 30 to 40 percent
C. 50 to 60 percent
D. 80 to 90 percent
D 30. A is the most popular or prime method of survey research.

207 A. personal interview--door-to-door
B. personal interview--mall intercept
C. self-administered survey
D. telephone survey
B 31. Which of the following survey methods typically ranks HIGHEST on standardization
217 of questioning?
A. Personal
B. Mail
C. Telephone
D. All rank about the same
A 32. The type of survey method which typically ranks highest on response rates is:
228 A. Personal.
B. Mail.
C. Telephone.
D. All rank about the same.
D 33. If 800 people are mailed a survey and 230 of them return it to the researcher, the
215 survey is said to have a response rate of:
A. 230.
B. 800.
C. 3.48.
D. 28.8 percent.
C 34. A researcher who is investigating consumer reactions to a videotape of a proposed
203 television commercial is most likely to use:
A. telephone interviews.
B. door-to-door interviews.
C. mall intercept interviews.
D. self-administered questionnaires.
C 35. When comparing telephone interviews to door-to-door personal interviews, telephone

228 interviews are more appropriately described by each of these characteristics EXCEPT:
A. faster speed of data collection.
B. greater geographic flexibility.
C. lower possibility for respondent misunderstanding.
D. easier call-back or follow-up.
C 36. Suppose J.C. Penney wishes to estimate sales orders associated with a "mock" version
213 of its catalogue. It wants respondents to have time to reflect on their answers. The best
type of survey would be:
A. personal interviews--door-to-door.
B. personal interviews--mall intercept.
C. mail survey.
D. telephone survey.
A 37. Which of the following should be included in the cover letter of a mail survey?
215 A. Assurance of confidentiality of the data
B. An incentive for participation in the study
C. Assurance that the survey will only take a few minutes
D. A description of how the individual was selected to participate
B 38. If a researcher is afraid that the intended subject will not be the respondent in a survey:
215 A. the researcher is probably using a random digit dialing telephone survey.
B. the researcher is probably using a mail questionnaire directed at corporate
executives.
C. the researcher is probably using personal interviews of poorly educated
respondents.
D. the researcher is probably using follow-up mailings in an attempt to increase
the response rate.
D 39. Obtaining accurate, sensitive information, such as consumption of alcoholic beverages,

203 is best obtained in a:
A. telephone survey.
B. personal interview.
C. mall intercept survey.
D. mail survey.
C 40. High anonymity of respondent, easy follow-up for "call back," and low to moderate
228 response rates are characteristic of surveys.
A. telephone
C. mail
B 41. Geographic dispersion is a DISADVANTAGE of surveys.

228 A. telephone
C. mail
D 42. Internet surveys allow marketers to do all of the following EXCEPT:

221 A. reach a large audience from around the globe.
B. to personalize individual messages.
C. to secure answers in a simple manner.
D. to share one respondent’s answers with another respondent
D 43. Once an Internet questionnaire has been developed:

221 A. the incremental cost of additional respondents is marginal.
B. the anonymity of the Internet encourages respondents to provide honest
answers to sensitive questions.
C. re-contacting those who have not completed the survey is quick and easy.
D. all of the above
A 44. Which of the following statements about Internet surveys is FALSE?

222 A. The quality of Internet samples is very consistent.
B. Internet surveys allow researchers to sample a large audience from around the
globe
C. Internet surveys allow researchers to personalize individual messages on
questionnaires.
D. With Internet surveys, respondents may worry if personal information will
remain private.
Fill in the Blank
1. Personal interviews conducted in shopping malls are called interviews.

203
mall intercept
2. Suppose you participate in a survey by interacting directly with a computer that has
224 been programmed to ask questions based on your previous answers. You have just
participated in a(n) _____ _____ _____.
computer-assisted survey
3. The term _ _____ refers to an unanswered question on an otherwise complete

201 survey.
item nonresponse
4. Speed of data collection is a great advantage in surveys.

208
telephone
5. The type of survey that offers the greatest degree of anonymity to the respondent is
229 a(n) survey.
mail or self-administered
6. The letter that accompanies the questionnaire or that is printed on the first page of a
215 questionnaire booklet is referred to as a(n) .
cover letter
7. A(n) is an attempt to recontact an individual selected for the sample who was not
206 available at the initial contact.
callback
8. A(n) involves the gathering of information through face-to-face contact with

199 individuals.
personal interview
9. If survey respondents are selected by using a random numbers table to generate

210 telephone numbers, this is called __ _____ _____.
random digit dialing
10. After responses to a mail survey begin coming back, researchers may send reminders
215 asking to those who have not yet responded. These reminders are called .
follow-ups
11. A trial run with a group of respondents used to screen out problems in the design of a
228 questionnaire is called a(n) .
pretest
12. Providing a monetary incentive in the mail questionnaire, conducting a follow-up

215 mailing, or providing advance notification by mail are ways to increase in a mail
survey.
response rates
13. When a research objective requires an extremely lengthy questionnaire, the most
201 effective type of survey may be a(n) _____ _____.
personal interview
14. The presence of an interviewer generally (increases/decreases) the percentage of

201 people willing to complete a personal interview.
increases
15. Visual props or demonstration materials are most easily discussed in ___ _____
201 surveys.
personal interview
16. The term _ _____ _____ describes an interview in which an interviewer reads
207 questions from a computer screen and enters responses directly into the computer.
computer-assisted telephone interviewing
17. When an interviewer asks questions to attempt to clarify the answer of a respondent
201 during a personal interview, this is known as a(n) _____ question.
probing
Chapter 13
Measurement and Scaling Concepts
T 1. Asking different questions in order to measure the same variable provides a more
304 accurate cumulative measure than asking one question.
T 2. Although reliability is necessary for validity, it is not in itself sufficient to make a

304 measure valid.
F 3. Sammy Sosa’s number 21 on his Chicago Cubs uniform indicates an ordinal scale.
296
F 4. A ratio scale is the simplest type of scale.

296
F 5. A nominal scale arranges objects according to their magnitude in an ordered

297 relationship.
F 6. When business managers are asked to rank their investment preferences, this is an
297 example of a nominal scale.
T 7. Interval scales indicate order and measure order in equal intervals.

297
F 8. Interval scales are unique because they possess an absolute zero point and equal
297 intervals between response positions.
T 9. The type of scale utilized in business research will determine the form of the statistical
298 analysis.
F 10. Grading on an A, B, C, D, and F scale is a ratio scale.

296
F 11. Because interval data can easily be transformed into ordinal data, the reverse process is
297 also true--ordinal data may be converted into interval data.
F 12. The location of a zero point in an interval scale is absolute.

297
T 13. The concept "brand loyalty" can only be measured if it is made operational.
294
T 14. The operational definition specifies what the investigator must do to measure the
294 concept under investigation.
T 15. An operational definition gives a meaning to a concept by specifying the activities or

294 operations necessary to measure it.
F 16. In most behavioral research studies, the highest form of measurement is a nominal
297 scale.
F 17. The most sophisticated type of data analysis for a nominal scale is averaging.
296
T 18. When the outcome of the measuring process is reproducible, the measuring instrument
300 is reliable.
F 19. In a nominal scale, numbers have a quantitative meaning.

296
F 20. An interval scale may not be used as a nominal scale.

299
F 21. An interval scale may not be used as an ordinal scale.

299
T 22. Broadly defined, reliability is the degree to which measures are free from error and,
300 therefore, yield consistent results.
T 23. There are two dimensions underlying the concept of reliability: repeatability and
300 internal consistency.
F 24. When the outcome of a measurement process is reproducible, the instrument is said to
301 be valid.
T 25. Face validity is also known as content validity.

302
T 26. Concurrent validity is a type of criterion validity.

303
T 27. Content validity refers to the subjective agreement among professionals that a scale
302 logically appears to be accurately reflecting what it purports to measure.
F 28. Validity is a necessary condition for reliability.

304
T 29. Reliability is a necessary, but not sufficient, condition for validity.

304
T 30. Validity addresses the problem of whether or not a measure does indeed measure what
301 it is supposed to measure.
T 31. Predictive validity is a type of criterion validity.

303
F 32. Predictive validity is a type of content validity.

303
F 33. When similar results are obtained over time and across situations, the measuring
200 instrument is said to be valid.
F 34. The equivalent-forms method of measuring reliability assumes that the concept being
301 measured is unidimensional, but the split-half method of measuring reliability does not
make this assumption.
F 35. A reliable instrument is always valid.

304
F 36. “Does the instrument measure what it is supposed to measure?” is the central theme of
301 reliability.
F 37. A reliable, but invalid, instrument will yield consistently accurate results.
301
F 38. If a new measure is taken at the same time as the criterion measure, this is called
303 predictive validity.
F 39. When an attitude measure predicts a future event, this is known as concurrent validity.
303
F 40. Reliability is sufficient for establishing validity.

304
B 1. When consumers are asked to rate each of several brands of toothpaste on a 5-point
297 scale from poor to excellent, this is an example of which type of scale?
A. Nominal scale
B. Ordinal scale
C. Interval scale
D. Ratio scale
B 2. From the standpoint of the Bureau of Labor Statistics, the term "labor force" is a(n):
294 A. rule of measurement.
B. concept.
C. interval scale.
D. invalid attribute.
D 3. A company's Human Resources department distributes a survey which asks employees

297 to rate their current benefits as "excellent," "good," "fair," or "poor." This is an example
of a(n):
A. nominal scale.
B. interval scale.
C. ratio scale.
D. ordinal scale.
D 4. The same survey also asks employees how happy they are with their current jobs. Job
299 satisfaction is measured by combining answers to several questions. This is an example
of a(n):
A. nominal scale.
B. interval scale.
C. ratio scale.
D. index measure.
D 5. Which of the following is a possible measure of a salesperson’s performance?

294 A. Number of accounts lost in the past six months
B. Dollar sales
C. Unit sales
D. All of the above
B 6. When similar results are obtained over time and across situations, this is a measure of:
300 A. validity.
B. reliability.
C. predictive accuracy.
D. biasness.
D 7. Which of the following is required for precise measurement in business research?

294 A. An operational definition of the concept being measured
B. A system of consistent rules for assigning numbers
C. A careful conceptual definition
D. All of the above
C 8. When a supervisor is asked to rate each of his subordinates on a 5-point scale where 1
297 (one) means that the worker is unsatisfactory and 5 means that the worker is exceptional,
this is an example of which type of scale?
A. Ratio scale
B. Interval scale
C. Ordinal scale
D. Nominal scale
C 9. The term refers to a measuring instrument's ability to accurately measure variability

304 in stimuli or responses.
A. validity
B. reliability
C. sensitivity
D. consistency
B 10. When respondents are asked to rank-order their preferences for a new set of
297 automobile tires in terms of their three most likely brands to be selected, this is an
example of which type of scale?
A. Nominal scale
B. Ordinal scale
C. Ratio scale
D. Interval scale
D 11. “Dollars” represents which type of scale?

297 A. Nominal scale
B. Ordinal scale
C. Interval scale
D. Ratio scale
D 12. The concept "brand loyalty" may be operationalized as:

294 A. sequences of brands purchased.
B. number of different brands purchased.
C. amount of brand deliberation.
B 13. A(n) scale arranges objects or alternatives according to their magnitude in an

297 ordered relationship.
A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. ratio
D 14. Ratio scales have all of the properties of which type of scale?
297 A. Interval scale
B. Ordinal scale
C. Nominal scale
D. All of the above
A 15. The simplest type of measurement scale that uniquely classifies is:
296 A. a nominal scale.
B. an ordinal scale.
C. an interval scale.
D. a ratio scale.
D 16. A concept is a generalized idea about:

294 A. an occurrence.
B. a process.
C. an attribute.
D. all of the above
D 17. “Any series of items which is progressively arranged according to value or magnitude
296 into which an item can be placed according to its quantification” is the definition of:
A. a nominal scale.
B. face validity.
C. concurrent validity.
D. a scale.
A 18. “Census Tract 23” is an example of a(n):

296 A. nominal scale.
B. ordinal scale.
C. interval scale.
D. ratio scale.
D 19. The type of measurement scale that has an absolute zero point is a(n):
297 A. nominal scale.
B. ordinal scale.
C. interval scale.
D. ratio scale.
A 20. Coding males as "0" and females as "1" is a(n) scale.

296 A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. ratio
C 21. Which of the following statements about an interval scale is FALSE?

297 A. It has the properties of an ordinal scale.
B. It uniquely classifies by providing numbers that serve as labels for
identification.
C. It has an absolute zero point.
D. It has the properties of a nominal scale.
A 22. In distribution research, miles or tons are often measures. These are:
297 A. ratio scales.
B. interval scales.
C. ordinal scales.
D. nominal scales.
A 23. When respondents are given a list of five toothpaste brands and are asked to rank-order
297 their preference, this is an example of which type of scale?
A. Ordinal scale
B. Nominal scale
C. Interval scale
D. Ratio scale
D 24. The statement "our brand has a 20 percent market share," implies data.
297 A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. ratio
B 25. "Hertz is #1 while Avis is #2" implies ____ data.

297 A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. ratio
A 26. The mathematical and statistical analysis of measurement scales indicates that:
298 A. the most sophisticated form of analysis for nominal scales is counting.
B. if the researcher is analyzing ordinal data, the mean may be calculated.
C. if the researcher is analyzing ratio data, calculation of the mean is not a
permissible operation.
B 27. Calculating the mean is permissable for _____ or _____ scales, but is not permissable
299 for _____ or _____ scales.
A. interval; nominal; ordinal; ratio
B. ratio; interval; nominal; ordinal
C. ordinal; interval; ratio; nominal
D. nominal; interval; ratio; ordinal
C 28. A bent ruler that consistently measures distance incorrectly (that is always wrong by
304 the same number of inches):
A. has validity and reliability.
B. has validity but not reliability.
C. has reliability but not validity.
D. has neither validity nor reliability.
C 29. There are two dimensions underlying the concept of reliability; they are:
300 A. test and retest.
B. concurrent definition and predictive definition.
C. repeatability and internal consistency.
A 30. Administering the same instrument to the same respondents at two different times is a
300 measure of which type of reliability?
A. Test-retest.
B. Split-half method.
C. Content validation.
D 31. All of the following are methods to estimate reliability EXCEPT:

300 A. equivalent-forms.
B. split-half method.
C. test-retest.
D. criterion ranking.
B 32. Asking managers to rate each of a set of five career opportunities on a scale from poor
297 to excellent is an example of which type of scale?
A. Nominal scale.
B. Ordinal scale
C. Ratio scale
D. Interval scale
B 33. Validity of a measure of an attitude can be best described by the statement:

301 A. The attitude scale is reliable.
B. The attitude scale measures what it is supposed to measure.
C. The attitude scale has an absolute zero point.
D. The attitude scale is a logical and reasonable hypothetical construct.
B 34. When several experts say that a measure provides adequate coverage of the concept, a
302 measure has ___ validity.
A. concurrent
B. content
C. criterion
D. apparent
B 35. Content validity occurs when:

302 A. the measure correlates with other measures of the same concept.
B. there is subjective agreement among professionals that the measure logically
appears to be accurately reflecting what it purports to measure.
C. the content of the measure confirms a network of related hypotheses generated
from a theory.
D. the measure is internally consistent.
D 36. If the empirical evidence is consistent with the theoretical logic about the concepts, we
303 have validity.
A. empirical
B. criterion
C. content
D. construct
D 37. A concept such as "social class" which is based on a weighted combination of

299 residence, occupation, and education is an example of:
A. a concept involving a single attribute.
B. discriminant validity.
C. extreme sensitivity.
D. an index measure.
Fill in the Blank
1. A(n) _ ____ ____ is an instruction to guide assignment of a number or other

294 measurement designation.
rule of measurement
2. There are four types of scales: __, ____, ____, ____.

296
nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio
3. In the equivalent-form method, two alternative instruments are designed to be as as

301 possible.
equivalent
4. The simplest type of scale is a(n) scale.

296
nominal
5. The ability of a scale or measuring instrument to measure what is intended to be

302 measured is called .
validity
6. We establish validity when an attitude measure predicts a future event.

303
predictive
7. The term refers to a measurement instrument's ability to acutely measure variability

304 in stimuli or responses.
sensitivity
8. A(n) gives meaning to a concept by specifying the activities or operations

294 necessary to measure it.
operational definition
9. The number 25 on a census tract is a(n) scale.

296
nominal
10. In a horse race, our horse comes in the "show" position, in third position behind the
297 "win" and "place" horses. This information indicates a(n) scale.
ordinal
11. The degree to which measures are free from error and, therefore, yield consistent
300 results is called .
reliability
12. There are two dimensions underlying the concept of reliability: __ and __ ____ .
300
repeatability, internal consistency
13. The consumer price index where the base year is arbitrarily selected (hence, the
297 location of the zero point is arbitrary) is an example of a(n) scale.
interval
14. Physical distance from one distribution point to another in a logistical research study
297 indicates a(n) scale.
ratio
15. Any series of items which is progressively arranged according to value or magnitude
296 into which an item can be placed according to its quantification is known as a(n) _____.
scale
16. A(n) is a generalized idea about a class of objects, attributes, occurrences, or

294 processes.
concept
17. If we administer the same scale or measure to the same respondents at two separate
300 points in time, we are employing the - method.
test-retest
18. Census Tract 14 is an example of a(n) _____ scale.

296
nominal
19. The term refers to subjective agreement among professionals that a scale
302 logically appears to accurately reflect what was intended to be measured.
content validity
20. The term refers to the ability of a measure to confirm a network of related
303 hypotheses generated from a theory based on the concepts.
construct validity
21. The term refers to the ability of some measure to correlate with other measures
302 of the same construct.
criterion validity
22. If a researcher takes the results obtained from the odd-numbered and checks them
301 against the results from the even-numbered items, the researcher is using the
reliability method.
split-half
23. Money and weight are scales because they possess an absolute zero point and
297 interval properties.
ratio
Chapter 14
Attitude Measurement
F 1. All attitudes can be observed.

308
T 2. As a general rule, the Stapel scale is markedly easier to administer than the semantic
317 differential, especially over the phone.
F 3. Physiological measures are good measures of behavioral intentions.

309
F 4. A semantic differential uses numbers as response options to identify response

314 positions.
T 5. The behavioral differential is an instrument developed to measure the behavioral

321 intentions of subjects toward any object or category of objects.
F 6. A monadic rating scale asks a respondent to rate a concept, such as a brand, in

324 comparison with a benchmark, such as a competitive brand.
F 7. A simple attitude scale generates interval data.

310
F 8. Graphic rating scales are limited to straight lines as sources of visual communication.
318
F 9. An advantage of the Likert summated rating method is that it is easy to know what a
314 single summated score means.
F 10. A Stapel scale measures the direction, but not the intensity, of an attitude.
317
F 11. One advantage of a graphic rating scale is that there are standard answers.
318
F 12. A monadic rating scale is a rating scale that uses verbal labels rather than numerical
324 labels.
F 13. Attitudes are measured directly.

323
F 14. Ranking provides interval data.

309
F 15. Seven response categories is the optimal number of response positions for a rating
324 scale.
T 16. An attitude is usually viewed as an enduring disposition to consistently respond in a

308 given manner to some aspect of the world.
F 17. One of the three components of an attitude is the sensitivity component.

308
F 18. The cognitive component of an attitude measures the respondent's predisposition to

308 action.
F 19. The statement "I hate cranberry juice" reflects the cognitive component of an attitude.
308
F 20. The statement "I am aware of Chrysler's warranty program" reflects the affective
308 component of an attitude.
F 21. A comparative rating scale asks about a single concept.

324
F 22. A monadic rating scale asks the respondent to rate a brand compared to a competitive
324 brand.
F 23. The following scale is a Stapel scale item:

317
Products today are built to last a long time before needing service or repair.
strongly agree neither agree disagree strongly

agree nor disagree disagree
T 24. Attitudes are measured by inferring them based on the way a person responds to a
308 stimulus.
T 25. A Likert scale may include several items to form an index.

312
T 26. A disadvantage of the Likert-type summated rating method is that it is difficult to

314 know what a single summated score means.
T 27. A semantic differential is a measure of attitudes consisting of a series of rating scales

314 that use bipolar adjectives to anchor the beginning and ending of each scale.
T 28. The results of a semantic differential can be used to plot the median scores for each
314 item for one product and also for a competitive product on the same graph.
T 29. Research comparing the semantic differential with the Stapel scale indicates that
317 results from the two techniques are largely the same.
T 30. In attitude measurement, direct verbal statements are used to measure behavioral
320 intent.
F 31. Attitudes may be measured directly by the use of focus groups in exploratory research.
323
T 32. A measurement task that identifies preferences by requiring respondents to choose

309 between two or more alternatives is simply called the choice technique.
T 33. Physiological measures of attitude provide a means of measuring attitudes without

309 verbally questioning the respondent.
F 34. A physiological measure of attitudes requires that the respondent rank order a small
309 number of items in overall preference or on the basis of some characteristic of the
stimulus.
T 35. Pupil dilation is one way to measure attitude.

309
F 36. The following scale is a ladder scale:

318
The taste of 7-UP is:
Excellent Good Fair Poor
T 37. The most common way to measure attitudes in business research is through rating
310 scales.
F 38. Simple attitude scales require the respondent to rate an opinion on a 5-point scale.
310
T 39. Most attitude theorists believe that the purpose of an attitude scale is to find an
311 individual's position on a continuum.
T 40. The following scale is a category scale:

311

318

F 42. The following question is an example of a semantic differential:

314
How important was climate in your decision to visit San Diego?
very fairly not so not at all

important important important important
F 43. The scale that appears below is an example of a Likert scale:

317
Supervisor's Name
+3
+2
+1
Supportive
-1
-2
-3
T 44. The results of constant-sum scales approximate interval scales.

316
T 45. The constant-sum scale works best with respondents of higher educational levels.
316
F 46. A monadic rating scale cannot be a balanced scale.

325
T 47. Likert scales may range from three to nine alternatives.

312
T 48. A comparative rating scale asks a respondent to rate a concept, such as a brand, in
324 comparison with a benchmark, such as a competitive brand.
T 49. The following scale is a semantic differential scale:

314
Modern : : : : : : Old-fashioned
F 50. The following scale is a Likert scale:

312
T 51. The following scale is a graphic scale:

318
Modern ___________ Old-fashioned

318
F 53. Numerical scales measure the exact number of millimeters on a graphic continuum.
315
F 54. Numerical scales consist of rows and columns of numbers in a grid format.
315
T 55. Numerical scales often utilize bipolar adjectives in the same manner as semantic
315 differential scales.
F 56. The following item is a Stapel scale:

315
Divide 100 points among the following toothpaste characteristics according to how
important each characteristic is to you when selecting a brand of toothpaste:
cavity fighting
breath freshening
price
F 57. The following scale is a semantic differential scale item:

314

T 58. The following scale is a Likert scale item:

312

T 59. A scale with categories such as strongly agree, mildly agree, mildly disagree and
311 strongly disagree is more sensitive than a scale that has dichotomous response categories
such as agree or disagree.
B 1. When a student says: “I really liked that class,” this is an indicator of which
308 component of an attitude?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Behavioral
D. All of the above
C 2. An unbalanced rating scale is called "unbalanced" because:

325 A. the number of business researchers who are permitted to use this scale varies
widely.
B. respondents frequently change their opinions about the scale categories.
C. the scale's positive categories do not equal the negative categories in number.
D. using such a scale throws research results "off balance," i.e., it distorts them.
C 3. When a student says: “I plan to take a marketing principles class next term,” this is an
308 indicator of which component of an attitude?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Behavioral
D. All of the above
B 4. Regarding constant-sum scales, which of the following statements is FALSE?

315 A. Constant-sum scales work best with respondents who have a higher
educational level.
B. They are a good example of a forced-choice scale.
C. Answers indicate the relative importance of certain attributes.
D. Respondents are asked to divide up a given number to indicate the relative
importance of attributes.
A 5. A monadic rating scale asks respondents about concept(s).

324 A. one
B. two
C. three or more
D. The number of concepts may range up to ten, if the scale has been well
designed.
D 6. Which of the following is NOT a component of an attitude?

308 A. Affective
B. Cognitive
C. Behavioral
D. Semantic
C 7. A hypothetical construct can be defined as:

308 A. the component of attitude that represents one's general feelings or emotions
toward an object.
B. a preliminary design for a major project.
C. a variable that is not directly observable but is measured by an indirect means,
such as verbal expression or overt behavior.
D. a strongly-felt attitude that anchors one end of a semantic differential scale.
D 8. An attitude:
308 A. is open to direct observation and measured by direct means.
B. is always measured by the rating method.

C. cannot be measured using physiological measures.
D. is always a hypothetical construct.
B 9. A measurement task that requires respondents to estimate the magnitude of a

309 characteristic or quality that a brand, store, or object possesses is a(n) _______
technique.
A. ranking
B. rating
C. sorting
D. choice
A 10. The following scale is best described as a ___ scale.

315
How satisfied are you with your IBM computer?
Extremely 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 Extremely
Satisfied Dissatisfied
A. numerical
B. unbalanced
C. Likert
D. Stapel
D 11. A scale which will measure both the intensity and direction of attitudes is the _____
317 scale.
A. paired comparison
B. semantic differential
C. Likert
D. Stapel
D 12. Which of the following is a physiological measure of an attitude?

309 A. Blood pressure
B. Galvanic skin response (GSR)
C. Pupil dilation
D. All of the above
C 13. What type of scale is being used when a subordinate is asked:

311
How often is your manager helpful to you?
Rarely Sometimes Often Very Often
A. Likert scale
B. Semantic differential scale
C. Category scale
D. Thurstone scale
A 14. A measurement task that requires respondents to rank order a small number of objects
309 in overall preference or on the basis of some characteristic of the stimulus is a(n) _____
scale.
A. ranking
B. rating
C. sorting
D. choice
C 15. A measurement technique that presents a respondent with information typed on cards
309 and requires the respondent to arrange the cards into piles is a(n) _____ technique.
A. ranking
B. rating
C. sorting
D. choice
C 16. Simple attitude scales

310 A. are four-point numerical scales.
B. have the properties of an interval scale.
C. merely classify respondents into one of two categories.
D. can only be used to measure the cognitive component.
A 17. The following scale is best described as a _____ scale.

311
A. category
B. Likert
C. semantic differential
D. Stapel
D 18. The following statements about a Likert scale are true EXCEPT:
312 A. scale items may be summated to form an index.
B. scores or weights are assigned to the alternative responses.
C. the scale is easy to administer.

D. respondents indicate their attitude by arranging items.
A 19. The following scale is best described as a _____ scale.

312

A. Likert
C. category
D. bipolar
A 20. The attitude scale that uses bipolar adjectives to anchor each end of the scale is the
314 _____ scale.
A. semantic differential
B. Stapel
C. Likert
D. constant-sum
A 21. Which of the following statements about attitude rating scales is TRUE?
314 A. Researchers have found that respondents are often unwilling to use the
extremely negative side of semantic differential scales.
B. The major advantage of Likert-type summated rating scales is that the meaning
of the single summated score is easily interpreted.
C. The Stapel scale is more difficult to administer than a semantic differential scale
over the telephone.
D. The Thurstone scale's major advantage is the simplicity of its construction and
administration.
B 22. In constructing a semantic differential scale:

314 A. midpoint descriptors are used.
B. bipolar adjectives are used.
C. (n-l)/2 comparisons must be made.
D. None of the above are used.
C 23. The following scale is best described as a _____ scale.

314
A. Likert
B. numerical
C. semantic differential
D. Stapel
D 24. All of the following statements about semantic differential scales are true EXCEPT:
314 A. the semantic differential is actually a series of attitude scales.
B. the semantic differential uses bipolar adjectives to anchor the beginning and
ending of the scale.
C. the weights assigned to the semantic differential are arbitrary.
D. the semantic differential uses numbers as response options to identify
categories.
A 25. What type of scale is being used when a manager is asked:

312
MBO provides an effective way to evaluate my work performance.
Strongly Strongly
Agree Agree Neutral Disagree Disagree
A. Likert
B. Semantic differential
C. Numerical
D. Unbalanced
D 26. What type of scale is being used in the following item?

315
Please tell us how satisfied you are with your purchase of your Ford Escort.
Very Very
Satisfied 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 Dissatisfied
A. Likert
B. Semantic differential
C. Comparative rating
D. Numerical
D 27. When a rating scale presents the "ideal situation" as a reference point for a comparison
324 with an actual situation, the rating scale is a(n):
A. reference scale.
B. ladder scale.
C. monadic scale.
D. comparative scale.
A 28. The scale that appears below is a scale:

317
Supervisor's Name
+3
+2
+1
Helpful
-1
-2
-3
A. Stapel
C. constant-sum
D. sorting technique
B 29. The following scale is best described as a(n) ____ scale.

325
How satisfied are you with the bookstore in the student union?
Satisfied
Neither satisfied nor dissatisfied

Quite dissatisfied
Very dissatisfied
A. numerical.
B. unbalanced.
C. nominal.
D. comparative.
B 30. A forced choice scale:

325 A. must contain an odd number of categories.
B. does not provide a neutral category.
C. does not allow for an unbalanced design.
D. must be comparative.
C 31. If FedEx asks businesses to distribute 100 points among the following, what type of
315 scale is being used:
_____ Correct invoicing

_____ On-time delivery
_____ Price
A. Forced choice
B. Likert
C. Constant sum
D. Semantic differential
C 32. What type of scale is being used when a company asks its managers to distribute their
315 benefits so that they add up to 50 points using the following scale:
____ Dental plan

____ Retirement plan
____ Health care plan
____ Child care plan
A. Likert scale
B. Semantic differential scale
C. Constant sum scale
D. Ranking scale
Fill in the Blank
1. The __ component of an attitude reflects buying intentions and a predisposition to

308 take certain actions.
behavioral
2. The __ component of an attitude reflects an individual's general feelings or

308 emotions toward an object.
affective
3. The __ component of an attitude reflects one's awareness of and knowledge about

308 an object.
cognitive
4. The term __ ______ describes a variable that is not directly observable but is
308 measured by an indirect means, such as verbal expression or overt behavior.
hypothetical construct
5. The technique is a measurement task that requires respondents to choose one of

309 two or more alternatives.
choice
6. The ____ is an instrument developed to measure the behavioral intentions of

321 respondents toward any object or category of objects.
behavioral differential
7. A(n) is an enduring disposition to consistently respond in a given manner to

308 various aspects of the world.
attitude
8. The following question is an example of the __ _____ measurement technique.

322
I would like to know your overall opinion of two brands of Product X. They are Brand
A and Brand B. Overall, which of these two brands--A or B--do you think is the better
one? Or are both the same?
A is better .
B is better .
They are the same .
paired comparison
9. _____ _____ is a physiological measure of attitude.

309
Galvanic skin response or blood pressure or pupil dilation
10. The term describes a measurement task that requires respondents to estimate the
309 magnitude of a characteristic or quality that an object possesses.
rating
11. The term describes a measurement task that requires respondents to order a small
309 number of activities, events, or objects according to overall preference or on the basis of
some characteristic of the stimulus.
ranking
12. A measure of attitudes that asks respondents about a single concept in isolation is
324 known as a(n) rating scale.
monadic
13. A fixed-alternative rating scale that has more response categories at one end of the
325 scale, so that the number of positive categories does not equal the number of negative
categories, is a(n) rating scale.
unbalanced
14. A measure of attitudes that asks respondents to rate a concept against a benchmark
324 explicitly used as a frame of reference is a(n) rating scale.
comparative
15. A fixed-alternative rating scale that has an equal number of positive and negative
325 categories, with a neutral or indifference point at the center of the scale, is known as a(n)
rating scale.
balanced
16. The scale that appears below is a(n) scale:

311
How often do you disagree with your spouse about how much to spend on various
things?
Never Rarely Sometimes Often Very Often
category
17. The scale that appears below is an example of a(n) scale:

312
I carefully budget my food expenditures.
Strongly Disagree Uncertain Agree Strongly

Disagree Agree
Likert
18. The _ ____ scale is an attitude measurement technique consisting of a series of

314 seven-point bipolar rating scales allowing response to a concept.
semantic differential
19. A(n) __ _____ _____ is a measure of attitude consisting of a continuum;

318 respondents are asked to rate an object by choosing any point on the continuum.
graphic rating scale
20. The name for the scale that appears below is a(n) scale:
315
Divide 100 points among the following toothpaste characteristics according to how
important each characteristic is to you in selecting a brand of toothpaste:
Cavity fighting
Breath freshening
Price
constant-sum
21. The technique presents respondents with several concepts and asks them to arrange
309 or otherwise classify the concepts.
sorting
22. In its most basic form, attitude scaling requires respondents to or with a
310 statement.
agree; disagree
23. A(n) __ scale uses numbers as response options to identify response positions.
315
numerical

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Chapter 1 The Role of Business Research.

The Role of Business Research

F 1. Total quality management applies primarily to the marketing function of an

T 6. Applying business research is an art, not an exact science.

F 7. Basic research directly involves the solution to a specific business problem.

T 8. Implementing a total quality management program can require considerable

F 10. Findings from basic research can generally be immediately implemented.

T 22. Sometimes the urgency of a situation precludes the use of research.

F 30. TQM stands for "typical query management."

F 31. TQM stands for "total quantity measurement."

F 36. If a company is well managed, performance-monitoring research becomes

Multiple Choice Questions

B 2. Based on an observation study, researchers at Steelcase concluded that:

C 3. When the marketing department of an organization attempts to determine the amount

D 4. Which of the following is involved in the decision-making process when an

B 9. Basic research is research that:

C 10. Which statement best describes the nature of basic research?

D 22. The primary function of business research is to:

A 23. Select the best definition of business research.

Fill in the Blank

1. Business research shows that employee satisfaction is strongly linked to

2. Literally, "research" means to .

3. The term refers to a business philosophy devoted to integrating customer-

total quality management

gathering, recording, analyzing

7. When a decision must be made about a specific real-life problem, research is

9. If we want to do a formal, objective measurement and appraisal of the extent to which

11. The term describes techniques or procedures used to analyze empirical

12. The largest business research company in the world is ________.

14. Continuous improvement of product quality and service is an important principle of

total quality management

True False Questions

T 3. An organized collection of computer hardware and software designed to capture, store,

T 7. A mailing list of current customers’ names and addresses is an example of a database.

T 8. A comprehensive collection of data which describes the extensive operations of an

T 15. Internet users send messages to one another by means of e-mail.

F 17. The Internet has a single, central large mainframe computer.

T 20. An intranet is available only to users within the organization.

Multiple Choice Questions

A 2. A body of facts in a format suitable for decision making is known as:

C 3. Knowledge management is frequently referred to as the organization’s:

A 5. A mailing list of the names and addresses of an organization’s current customers is an

B 8. Which of the following is a Web browser?

C 12. Which of the following is the world’s largest public library?

C 16. Which of the following is an educational Web site?

A 17. Which of the following is a government Web site?

D 20. Which of the following can be made available on an organization’s Intranet?

Fill in the Blank

3. An organized collection of computer hardware and software that allows the

global information system

4. A computer-based system that allows decision-makers to solve problems through

decision support system

6. A multi-tiered, computer storage of current and historical data for an organization is

T 3. A hypothesis is a proposition that is empirically testable.

F 5. Prediction and forecasting are the two purposes of theory.

F 6. Deductive reasoning is the logical process of establishing a general proposition on the

T 7. Inductive reasoning is the logical process of establishing a general proposition on the

F 8. Inductive reasoning is the logical process of deriving a conclusion from a known

T 9. Propositions are statements concerned with relationships among concepts.

F 13. Things are the essence of theory, not ideas.

F 14. Propositions are statements concerned with concepts described in isolation.

T 16. The purpose of science is to expand knowledge and to discover truth.

T 17. Prediction and understanding are the two purposes of theory.