Jones and Robinson: Operations Management

Chapter 01
Instructions
Answer the following questions and then press 'Submit' to get your score.

Question 1

Operations Management is a ___________________ process.

a) translation
b) transformation
c) transaction
d) transition
Question 2

Which of these Managers would be least likely to be considered in an operations

management role within an organization?

a) Production Manager
b) Reservations Manager
c) Financial Risk Manager
d) Quality Manager
Question 3

There are 5 basic organizational forms, simple, functional, divisional, conglomerate and
_______________?

a) hybrid
b) complex
c) corporate
d) hierarchical
Question 4

Organizing budget hotels within a chain by geographical location is an example of which

type of organizational form?

a) Conglomerate
b) Hybrid
c) Simple
d) Divisional
Question 5

Which of these would an operations manager not be responsible for?

a) Safety and maintenance
b) Sales and marketing
c) Selecting suppliers
d) Recruiting employees
Question 6

Operations can be diagnosed by volume, variety, variation and ________________?

a) validity
b) variability
c) value
d) variance
Question 7

The size of the product range or number of services offered is called _____________?

a) variability
b) validity
c) variety
d) variation
Question 8

The extent to which a product or service may be customized is called _____________?

 a) variability
b) validity
c) variety
d) variation
Question 9

Services differ from manufactured products in four ways. Intangibility, Inseparability,

Perishability and _______________?

a) homogeneity
b) heterogeneity
c) intractability
d) invisibility
Question 10

The Servuction model recognizes that operations can process customers through their
infrastructure or through their ___________?

a) performance
b) procedures
c) staff
d) systems

Chapter 02
Instructions
Answer the following questions and then press 'Submit' to get your score.

Question 1

An order qualifier is ___________________?

a) a characteristic of a product or service that will contribute to winning

business from customers.
b) a characteristic of a product or service that a customer does not expect.
c) a characteristic present only in a high quality product or service.
 d) a characteristic of a product or service that a customer expects as a minimum
standard.
Question 2

Which of the following is an order qualifier for the BBC? (refer to BBC Case Insight on
p. 32)

a) It has a presence at major sporting events.

b) It has a radio network as well as a television network.
c) It carries out a public service.
d) It has programmes which appeal to both young and old.
Question 3

An order winner is _________________?

a) a characteristic of a product or service that will contribute directly to

winning business from customers.
b) a characteristic of a product or service that a customer does not expect.
c) a characteristic present only in a high quality product or service.
d) a characteristic of a product or service that a customer expects as a minimum
standard.
Question 4

Which of the following is not one of the five internal performance objectives analysed by
Neely (2008)?

a) Cost
b) Quality
c) Dependability
d) Variability
Question 5

One of the criteria discussed within cost as an order winner or order qualifier is 'value
added'. This means____________?

a) a characteristic of a product or service that a customer expects as a minimum

standard.
 b) a characteristic of a product or service that a customer is willing to pay more
for.
c) a characteristic that is present in the highest quality products or services
only.
d) a characteristic of a product or service that a customer does not expect.
Question 6

The ability to change a product or service offering to suit customers' needs is called
_______________?

a) Quality
b) Flexibility
c) Dependability
d) Speed
Question 7

The ability of an organization to consistently meet its promises to the customer is called
_____________________?

a) Deliverability
b) Quality
c) Dependability
d) Flexibility
Question 8

What is an Oligopoly?

a) A situation where there is a single seller with considerable control over
supply and prices.
b) A situation where there are two sellers with considerable control over supply
and prices.
c) A situation where there are many buyers and sellers, none with any
influence.
d) A situation where there are many large sellers who have some control over
market mechanisms.
Question 9
 Designing a set of sales and profit targets for a particular product such as a brand of
washing powder by trade collaborations is known as _________________?

a) Brand management
b) Category management
c) Distribution management
d) Retail management
Question 10

Consumer market segmentation can be divided into four categories, geographic,

demographic, behavioural and _________________?

a) Physiological
b) Psychological
c) Psychographic
d) Physiographic

Chapter 03
Instructions
Answer the following questions and then press 'Submit' to get your score.

Question 1

In the craft era there were 3 types of operations process; job shop, batch process and
_____________?

a) Mass process
b) Assembly line
c) Simple project
d) Complex project
Question 2

In the mass production era there were 4 types of operations process; complex project,
batch production, assembly line and ____________?

a) Job shop
b) Simple project
 c) Mass process
d) Continuous flow process
Question 3

According to Lowson (2003) the two viewpoints of operations strategy are the market
driven view and the ______________?

a) Operations based view

b) Resource based view
c) Quality driven view
d) Supply chain view
Question 4

In a materials processing operation, which of the following process type is associated

with the highest volume and lowest variety?

a) Job shop
b) Batch process
c) Mass process
d) Continuous process
Question 5

In a materials processing operation, which process is associated with the highest variety?

a) Project
b) Job shop
c) Batch process
d) Mass production
Question 6

In a customer processing operation, which process type has the lowest volume?

a) Mass service
b) Service shop
c) Professional service
d) Self service
Question 7

In a customer processing operation, which process is characterized by predictable job

content and lower skilled employees?

a) Professional service
b) Service shop
c) Mass service
d) Self service
Question 8

In the product life cycle what is the correct order of the main phases?

a) Maturity, Growth, Saturation, Decline

b) Growth, Maturity, Saturation, Decline
c) Growth, Saturation, Growth, Decline
d) Maturity, Saturation, Growth, Decline
Question 9

What is the first step in the Service Firm Life Cycle?

a) Entrepreneurship
b) Introduction
c) Growth
d) Multi-Site Rationalization
Question 10

Licensing out the manufacture of a product to other firms is known as ______________?

a) Licensing
b) Multi-Site Rationalization
c) Franchising
d) Outsourcing

Chapter 04
Instructions
 Answer the following questions and then press 'Submit' to get your score.

Question 1

Which of the following is not a physical factor that can influence the choice of location
for an operation?
a) Nature of the communication links
b) Access to customers
c) Access to raw materials
d) Provision of water supply
Question 2

Which of the following is not a socio-economic factor that can influence the choice of
location for an operation?
a) Local labour markets
b) Business climate
c) Transportation networks
d) Proximity to competitors
Question 3

Locating several mobile phone shops in the same part of a town is an example of
__________________________?

a) Saturation marketing
b) Saturation clustering
c) Competitive marketing
d) Competitive clustering
Question 4

The initial decision whether a manufacturer fabricates in-house or uses an outside

supplier is known as _____________________?

a) An Offshoring decision

b) A Make-or-Buy decision
c) An Outsourcing decision
d) A Purchasing decision
Question 5

Outsourcing is ___________________?

a) Only related to manufacturing operations.

b) The same as a make-or-buy decision.
c) Moving the production of goods or services from in-house to an external
supplier.
d) Setting up a supplier of a new product or service
Question 6

Which of these is not a major reason to outsource a product or service?

a) To reduce operating costs
b) To increase control of the process
c) To give access to higher technical ability
d) To focus on core business areas
Question 7

Which of these layout types is most associated with a mass process?

a) Fixed position layout

b) Process layout
c) Product layout
d) Cell layout
Question 8

Which of these layout types is most associated with a project process?

a) Fixed position layout

b) Process layout
c) Product layout
d) Cell layout
Question 9

Which of these layout types is most associated with a batch processing operation?

a) Fixed position layout

 b) Process layout
c) Product layout
d) Cell layout
Question 10

The physical environment of a service operation is often referred to as the

___________________?

a) Manuscape
b) Landscape
c) Servicescape
d) Physical scape

Chapter 05
Instructions
Answer the following questions and then press 'Submit' to get your score.

Question 1

A sequence of business and information links is called a ________?

a) Logistics network
b) Distribution network
c) Sales channel
d) Supply chain
Question 2

Supply chains link operators to suppliers in __________?

a) Layers
b) Groups
c) Tiers
d) Channels
Question 3

Activities which are undertaken before the final operation are termed _______ activities.
 a) Upstream
b) Primary
c) Secondary
d) Downstream
Question 4

In the automotive supply chain information flows in which direction?

a) Towards the end user only

b) Towards the supplier only
c) Between the end user and the operation only
d) Both towards the end user and the supplier
Question 5

How do automotive companies mainly sell their new products?

a) Over the internet

b) Through retail distributers
c) Via a trade magazine
d) Directly to customers
Question 6

Selecting suppliers and purchasing items is called ________?

a) Negotiation
b) Procurement
c) Contracting
d) Selection
Question 7

The main benefit to an operation of having multiple sourcing is ______?

a) Consistent quality
b) Speed of delivery
c) Continuity of supply
 d) Flexibility of products
Question 8

Which of the following is an advantage of single sourcing?

a) Continuity of supply
b) Ability to keep prices down
c) Increased flexibility of supply
d) Lower administration cost
Question 9

When an organization owns its suppliers it is known as ________?

a) Downstream supplier collaboration

b) Upstream vertical integration
c) Downstream vertical integration
d) Upstream supplier collaboration
Question 10

Logistics is the term for which activities?

a) Procurement of raw materials

b) Distribution of goods to customers
c) Accounting for raw materials in transit
d) All of the above

Chapter 06
Instructions
Answer the following questions and then press 'Submit' to get your score.

Question 1

Inventory is ______________________?

a) A raw material item used in an operation.

b) An item stored for later use in an operation.
 c) An item in transit for later use in an operation.
d) Any of the above.
Question 2

Products which are completed awaiting despatch to a customer are called

_______________ inventory.

a) Pipeline
b) Cycle
c) Finished Goods
d) Work in Process
Question 3

Partially processed or finished goods which are sent between factories over large
distances is called ______________ inventory.

a) Pipeline
b) Cycle
c) Finished Goods
d) Work in Process
Question 4

Batch production such as baked goods produces _______________ inventory.

a) Pipeline
b) Cycle
c) Finished Goods
d) Work in Process
Question 5

Semi-finished stock is also known as ________________ inventory.

a) Pipeline
b) Cycle
c) Work in Process
d) Anticipatory
Question 6

Which of these reasons to keep inventory can lead to improved quality?

a) It allows processes to flow more smoothly.

b) It makes deliveries more reliable.
c) It helps to deal with short term demands.
d) It enables the best material to be sorted prior to production.
Question 7

Which of these reasons to keep inventory will improve flexibility?

a) It allows processes to flow more smoothly.

b) It makes deliveries more reliable.
c) It helps to deal with short term demands.
d) It enables the best material to be sorted prior to production.
Question 8

What do the letters EOQ stand for?

a) Estimated Order Quantity

b) Economic Order Quantity
c) Estimated Order Quality
d) Economic Order Quality
Question 9

The EOQ of an item is calculated using the annual demand together with the
___________ cost and the __________ cost.

a) Direct and Variable costs

b) Indirect and Holding costs
c) Direct and Ordering costs
d) Ordering and Holding costs
Question 10

Goods in transit can be tracked using RFID technology. RFID stands for?
 a) Remote File Identification
b) Resource Frequency Identification
c) Radio Frequency Identification
d) Radar Frequency Identification

Chapter 07
Instructions
Answer the following questions and then press 'Submit' to get your score.

Question 1

In a materials processing operation the design capacity is defined as _____________?

a) the minimum output per given time.

b) the aggregate annual output.
c) the theoretical maximum output in a given time.
d) the most likely output in a given time.
Question 2

In a materials processing operation, the effective capacity of a machine is defined as

_________________?

a) the minimum output per given time.

b) the aggregate annual output.
c) the theoretical maximum output in a given time.
d) the most likely output in a given time.
Question 3

Machine utilization can be calculated by dividing ____________ by _____________.

a) Effective capacity by Design capacity

b) Achieved capacity by Design capacity
c) Achieved capacity by Effective capacity
d) Design capacity by Achieved capacity
Question 4

Machine efficiency is calculated by dividing _____________ by ______________.

a) Effective capacity by Design capacity

b) Achieved capacity by Design capacity
c) Achieved capacity by Effective capacity
d) Design capacity by Achieved capacity
Question 5

What additional factor does Overall Equipment Effectiveness take into account which
makes it more meaningful than efficiency or utilization?

a) Flexibility
b) Speed
c) Cost
d) Quality
Question 6

Which of the following is not a factor which makes managing capacity in a customer
processing operation (CPO) very challenging?
a) Most CPO's are in a fixed locatio.
b) Most CPO's produce services which are consumed at the same time as they
are produced.
c) Most CPO's have a constant demand.
d) The infrastructure of most CPO's is fixed.
Question 7

The two main approaches to forecasting are _____________ and _______________

a) Qualitative and Quantitative

b) Historical and Quantitative
c) Judgemental and Historical
d) Qualitative and Judgemental
Question 8
 Adjusting inputs to an operation so that outputs match demand is known as
____________________?

a) A level capacity strategy

b) A demand management strategy
c) A chase demand strategy
d) A yield management strategy
Question 9

Having a 'happy hour' in a pub or restaurant is an example of which type of capacity

management?

a) A level capacity strategy

b) A demand management strategy
c) A chase demand strategy
d) A yield management strategy
Question 10

Revenue management is a technique often used by hotels and airlines to manage demand.
It is also known as _____________________?

a) Level capacity
b) Demand management
c) Chase demand
d) Yield management

Chapter 08
Instructions
Answer the following questions and then press 'Submit' to get your score.

Question 1

The interaction between the customer and the service provider is often referred to as
____________________?

a) The service operation

 b) The service encounter
c) The Servicescape
d) The back office operation
Question 2

Which of these is not one of the four differences between customer processing operations
and materials processing operations?
a) Perishability
b) Simultaneity
c) Homogeneity
d) Intangibility
Question 3

Which of these is not one of the seven characteristics of a service encounter identified by

Czepiel et al (1985)?
a) Specific role for the employee only
b) Mostly task oriented
c) Narrow in scope
d) Follow a pre-determined set of rules
Question 4

The organization of customers for processing through a series of service encounters is

called a ____________________?

a) Payment system
b) Planning system
c) Processing system
d) Queuing system
Question 5

Which of the following queuing systems appears the most fair to customers?

a) First in First Out (FIFO)
b) Serve in Random Order (SIRO)
c) Last in First Out (LIFO)
 d) Shortest Processed First (SPF)
Question 6

Which of the following queuing systems appears the least fair to customers?

a) First in First Out (FIFO)
b) Serve in Random Order (SIRO)
c) Last in First Out (LIFO)
d) Shortest Processed First (SPF) 

Question 7

Joining a queue and then almost immediately leaving the customer thinks it will take too
long to disperse is called __________________?

a) Rejecting
b) Reneging
c) Balking
d) Refusing
Question 8

Joining a queue and then leaving after some time before being served is called
__________________?

a) Rejecting
b) Reneging
c) Balking
d) Refusing
Question 9

Which of the following is one of the usual responses in the psychology of waiting lines
put forward by Maister (1985)?

a) Unoccupied waiting time feels shorter than occupied time

b) Anxiety makes waiting times feel shorter
c) Unexplained waits seem longer than explained waits
d) Solo waiting feels shorter than group waiting
Question 10

Which of these operations are customers often happy to queue for?

a) Bank ATM
b) Supermarket checkout
c) Restaurant
d) Airport check-in

Chapter 09
Instructions
Answer the following questions and then press 'Submit' to get your score.

Question 1

Which of the following is a definition of quality?

a) Fitness for Purpose

b) Zero Defects
c) Right First Time
d) All of these (and more!) 

Question 2

A quality criterion which can be measured is called a ___________?

a) Quality variable
b) Quality component
c) Quality attribute
d) Quality characteristic
Question 3

A quality criterion which can be assessed and either accepted or rejected is called a
_____________________?

a) Quality variable
b) Quality component
 c) Quality attribute
d) Quality characteristic
Question 4

Which of these is a quality variable for a motor car?

a) Comfort of the seating

b) Time to reach a give speed
c) Road holding ability
d) Headlights are working
Question 5

Which of these is a quality attribute for a stay in a hotel?

a) Cost of the stay

b) Time for staff to clean the room
c) Comfort of the bed
d) Number of other guests staying in the hotel
Question 6

In the quality gap model which gap is explained by the gap between the standards set by
management for their product or service compared to their understanding of the
customers' needs?

a) Positioning
b) Specification
c) Delivery
d) Perception
Question 7

In the quality gap model which gap is explained by the gap between the standard of
product or service made and supplied to the customer and that expected by them?

a) Positioning
b) Specification
c) Delivery
 d) Perception
Question 8

The 4 costs of quality are external failure costs, internal failure costs, assurance costs and
_________________ costs.

a) Inspection
b) Prevention
c) Performance
d) Insurance
Question 9

The quality management strategy which is most associated with quality standards such as
ISO9000 is _________________?

a) Quality Inspection
b) Quality Control
c) Quality Assurance
d) Total Quality Management
Question 10

Which of the following is the correct cycle for the implementation of a Six Sigma quality
improvement programme?

a) Design, Monitor, Analyse, Control, Improve

b) Define, Measure, Analyse, Improve, Control
c) Design, Measure, Control, Improve, Analyse
d) Define, Measure, Improve, Analyse, Control

Chapter 10
Instructions
Answer the following questions and then press 'Submit' to get your score.

Question 1

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a well-designed process?

 a) Each element is consistent with the purpose of the operating system.
b) The process is user-friendly.
c) Consistency is not easy to maintain at every stage.
d) The whole process is cost-effective.
Question 2

Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-designed process?

a) The whole process is not easy to understand.
b) The whole process is robust.
c) The whole process has ineffective links.
d) The whole process is not cost effective.
Question 3

What is a robust process?

a) One that can take small variations.

b) One that is very strong in parts.
c) One that is very consistent.
d) One that is easily understood.
Question 4

According to Value Creation Partners which of the following does not indicate that a

process is not working?
a) Some operations take too long.
b) There are too many process reviews and changes.
c) Inventory sits idle.
d) Complexity and exceptions are unlikely to occur.
Question 5

The three types of process map are a relationship map, a cross-functional map and a
______________________?

a) Process Blueprint map

b) Process Flowchart map
c) Process Distribution map
 d) Process Delivery map
Question 6

In a process flow chart transportation is depicted by _____________?

a) A circle
b) A square
c) A triangle
d) An arrow
Question 7

In a process flow chart storage is depicted by _____________?

a) A circle
b) A square
c) A triangle
d) An arrow
Question 8

A useful process improvement tool is Pareto Analysis. This is also known as the
________________?

a) 60/40 rule
b) 70/30 rule
c) 80/20 rule
d) 90/10 rule
Question 9

A useful process improvement tool to search for the root cause of a problem is the
_____________________ process?

a) 3 Whats
b) 4 Whos
c) 5 Whys
d) 6 Wheres
Question 10

Technology is widely used in operations. What type of technology interaction is a typical

hotel check in?

a) Passive self-service
b) Customer and employee interaction
c) Hidden technology interaction
d) No customer interaction with the technology

Chapter 11
Instructions
Answer the following questions and then press 'Submit' to get your score.

Question 1

What percentage of employees in most organizations work in operations?

a) 40 - 50%
b) 50 - 60 %
c) 60 - 70%
d) 70 - 80%
Question 2

The three major criteria managers should look for when selecting employees are physical,
mental and ____________ capability?

a) Intellectual
b) Emotional
c) Psychological
d) Physiological
Question 3

Adam Smith is most associated with which type of job design?

a) Division of labour
b) Scientific Management
 c) Ergonomic design
d) Empowerment
Question 4

Work design and work measurement are part of which type of job design?

a) Division of labour
b) Scientific Management
c) Ergonomic design
d) Empowerment
Question 5

A job design which enables employees to determine the method of working is known as
___________________?

a) Division of labour
b) Scientific Management
c) Ergonomic design
d) Empowerment
Question 6

Ergonomic design is about the way jobs are carried out and under what conditions. Which
of the following would not be part of an ergonomic analysis?
a) Height of the work station
b) Cleanliness of the work station
c) Distance between work stations
d) Output from the work station
Question 7

A system for providing employees with regular feedback on their performance is known
as ___________________?

a) Empowerment
b) Enrichment
c) Appraisal
 d) Enhancement
Question 8

Giving an employee more tasks of the same type is an example of job _____________?

a) Empowerment
b) Enrichment
c) Enlargement
d) Enhancement
Question 9

Which of the following is not usually associated with a highly motivated workforce?

a) High quality work output
b) High staff turnover

c) High work satisfaction

d) High staff involvement
Question 10

Which of the following organizations is an example of one which would most likely
exhibit role culture as identified by Deal and Kennedy (1982)?

a) Newspaper publishing
b) Formula 1 motor racing
c) Computer games design
d) Retail banking