15 To 45 CLAT 2021, GK - Questions PDF

MOCK CLAT #15
SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
Directions (Q.1- Q.39): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
(Q.1-Q.5) A study published last year has become the subject of controversy over the participation of
foreign researchers and a media report purportedly linking it to China’s coronavirus outbreak. Conducted
on members of a [1] tribe in 2017, the study sought to study viral transmissions between bats and human
beings in areas where they come into close contact. Bats are known “reservoirs for several zoonotic
pathogens, including [2]”. [2] include the deadly Ebola, and are known to cause haemorrhagic fever in
human beings.
The study found Ebola antibodies in some of the human subjects despite the fact that the disease, which
has killed thousands in Africa over the years, has never been reported in the area. It was conducted by
researchers from the India’s National Centre for Biological Sciences (NCBS, which comes under the Tata
Institute of Fundamental Research), China’s Wuhan Institute of Virology, Duke-NUS of Singapore, and
Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences, US. The study, published in the reputed PLOS
journal, was expected to help explore the prevention of diseases like Ebola, which caused thousands of
deaths in western Africa between 2013 and 2016.
1. Which of the following states will replace the blank [1]?

(a) Assam (b) Manipur (c) Mizoram (d) Nagaland
2. Which of the following pathogens have been replaced by [2]?

(a) Bunyavirus (b) Arenavirus (c) Bromovirus (d) Filovirus
3. Which of the following diseases is not an example of zoonotic diseases?

(a) Anthrax (b) E. coli infections (c) Malaria (d) Cholera
4. In what shape do antibodies exist?

(a) Helical shape (b) Double-helical (c) Y-shape (d) V-shape
5. Which of the following options about antibodies is correct?

(a) They are actually glucose molecules
(b) They are produced by the plasma cells
(c) These are used by the immune system to neutralize pathogens such as pathogenic bacteria and
viruses
(d) It is also known as immunoglobulin
(Q.6-Q.10): Indian Navy's [1]-class ship INS Jamuna, which has arrived in [2], will carry out detailed
hydrographic surveys and several shore-based survey activities over the two-month deployment period.
Over the two months deployment period, the ship will carry out detailed hydrographic surveys and several
shore-based survey activities.
[2] Navy personnel will embark the ship during the conduct of the joint survey. Additionally, they will also
be provided "hands-on survey training during every operational turn around in port."
The Hydographic survey is the measurement and study of features that affect maritime navigation. It also
includes offshore oil exploration, dredging, oil drilling and other related activities.
6. INS Jamuna is a specific class of ship of the Indian Navy, which has been replaced by [1]. What is it?
(a) Darshak (b) Sarvekshak (c) Sandhayak (d) Shivalik
7. Which of the following countries will fill [2]?

(a) Russia (b) Bangladesh (c) Sri Lanka (d) Iran
8. How many Indian Naval Ships are deployed in the hydrographic surveys?
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 1 of 192
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
9. Which of the following organizations will release the standards and specifications to conduct the survey?
(a) Indian Navy
(b) International Hydrographic Organization
(c) International Naval Research Organization
(d) Both b and c
10. Where is the headquarters of the Indian Naval Hydrographic Development situated?
(a) Cochin (b) Mumbai (c) Dehradun (d) Chennai
(Q.11-Q.15): The Union Cabinet has approved amendments to the Banking Regulation Act to bring 1,540
cooperative banks under the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulation. Cooperative banks have 8.6 lakh
account holders, with a total deposit of about 5 lakh crore.
The proposed amendments, along with the government’s decision to increase the insurance cover on
bank deposits from 1 lakh to [1], have been brought to strengthen the financial stability of cooperative
banks and boost public confidence in the banking system.
The move to bring cooperative sector banks under RBI purview comes after the collapse of [2].
11. Which of the following will fill the blank space [1]?
(a) 2 lakh (b) 3 lakh (c) 4 lakh (d) 5 lakh
12. Which of the following banks will fill [2]?

(a) Saraswat Bank
(b) Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank
(c) Janata Sahakari Bank
(d) Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank
13. What was the main problem of [2] that had led RBI to impose curbs?
(a) The bank had made huge investments in bad loans that had gone out-of-control
(b) The bank had made huge divergence in bad loan reporting
(c) The bank had under-reported its profits to escape from tax-liabilities
(d) The bank had ignored on the PSL-norms
14. Which of the following will not be the consequences of the banks coming under the RBI purview?
(a) Qualification for appointment of directors and pre-permission will be required for the appointment of
CEO
(b) Audit and other norms of the RBI will be implemented in the sector
(c) The RBI will now be able to lend money to the cooperative banks
(d) None of the above
15. Amongst all these decisions, the Cabinet has also given its ‘in-principle’ approval for setting up a major
port at Vadhavan. In which state is Vadhavan situated?
(a) Karnataka (b) Maharashtra (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Telengana
(Q.16-Q.20): The Union Cabinet has cleared a long-pending change to the Medical Termination of
Pregnancy Act, 1971 that raises the legally permissible limit for an abortion to [1] weeks from the current
20 weeks. Following the efforts of the Health Ministry, the change also accepts failure of contraception as
a valid reason for abortion not just in married but also in unmarried women.
The above decision to increase the period of abortion comes with the proviso that for pregnancies that
are between 20-[1] weeks opinions will be required from two doctors rather than one. This has been
specially done keeping in mind “vulnerable women including survivors of rape, victims of incest and other
vulnerable women (like differently-abled women, Minors) etc”.
Recently several petitions were received by the Courts seeking permission for aborting pregnancies at a
gestational age beyond the present permissible limit on grounds mainly of [2] or pregnancies due to
sexual violence faced by women. The proposed increase in gestational age will ensure dignity,
autonomy, confidentiality and justice for women who need to terminate pregnancy.
16. Which of the following will fill [1]?

(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 26 (d) 28
17. Which of the following reasons will fill [2]?

(a) foetal abnormalities (b) pregnancies before marriage
(c) societal pressures (d) both (b) and (c)
18. What is the main reason that the new amendment has proposed to include the contraceptive failure
clause for unmarried women as well?
(a) Previously the unmarried women with pregnancies were being left to the quacks
(b) The amendment has taken care of the societal pressure that is felt by the unmarried pregnant women
(c) To stop births out of wedlock
(d) All of the above
19. What is the gestational age in terms of a pregnancy?

(a) The period taken by the fetus to develop the final shape
(b) It is the common term used during pregnancy to describe how far along the pregnancy is
(c) It is the time period from 0 to 20 weeks of pregnancy
(d) It is the time period from conceiving to 3 months of pregnancy
20. Which of the following countries has recently announced a bill to decriminalize abortion so that it can be
treated as a health issue, rather than a crime?
(a) USA (b) Russia (c) China (d) New Zealand
(Q.21-Q.25): The highest incidence of children and women being trafficked were observed from the cities
of [1] and [2], according to the latest study by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB). The data on
missing children and women was compiled on the directions of the Supreme Court.
In 2011, the SC constituted a panel which submitted its report in 2019. The panel has asked the apex
court to direct the NCRB to compile data on missing children and women to identify the areas prone to
trafficking. According to the NCRB study, the common causes of trafficking were forced marriages, child
labour, domestic help and sexual exploitation, among others.
[3] recorded the maximum number of cases of missing children while [4] reported the most cases of
missing women.
21. Which of the following states will fill [1] and [2]?
(a) Indore and Mumbai (b) Mumbai and Kolkata
(c) Delhi and Kolkata (d) Delhi and Indore
22. Which of the following states will replace [3]?

(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) West Bengal
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
23. Which of the following states will replace [4]?

(a) West Bengal (b) Maharashtra (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
24. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding this report?

(a) More than 600 women and 180 children go missing every hour in India
(b) Maharashtra has shown a steep fall in missing children
(c) In 2011, the SC constituted a panel which submitted its report in 2019 that had asked the apex court
to direct the NCRB to compile data on missing children and women to identify the areas prone to
trafficking
(d) Assam has registered the maximum decline in number of missing children
25. Which of the following cities is the most populated city as per the Census 2011?
(a) Delhi (b) Mumbai (c) Kolkata (d) Chennai
(Q.26-Q.30): The [1] caucuses is traditionally the first event in the US presidential election calendar.
These signal the start of the long process by which the two major parties choose their nominees for the
presidential election.
Caucuses and primaries are the processes available to the 50 American states (plus Washington DC and
outlying territories) to choose the two major parties’ nominees for President. Some American states hold
primaries, some hold caucuses, and a third group holds a combination of the two systems.
Until the 1970s, most states held caucuses, but primaries are more popular now. 10 states and three
territories have a system of caucuses. This year, however, the Democrats will hold caucuses in just [2]
states.
However, chaos erupted as the results of the [1] caucuses were delayed much beyond the usual early
evening announcement. There were many repeated “inconsistencies” were found in the Iowa Democratic
Party’s reporting, primarily due to a mobile application failure.
26. Which of the following will replace [1]?

(a) New Hampshire (b) Iowa (c) Nevada (d) North Dakota
27. Who was declared the winner of the Democrats [1] caucuses?
(a) Joe Biden (b) Bernie Sanders (c) Pete Buttgieg (d) Elizabeth Warren

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
29. Which of the following statements regarding the primary race is incorrect?
(a) Primary elections are conducted by governments, while caucuses are private events held by the
parties
(b) Caucuses are much lengthier processes than the primaries
(c) Caucuses can be either ‘open’ or ‘closed’
(d) Bernie Sanders won the first primaries of the Democrats in 2020
30. The failure of technology in the [1] caucuses has led to fear for the same in India’s electoral environment.
Which Indian state recently piloted facial recognition to verify voters against their voter ID photographs,
resulting in 65-86% accuracy?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Telengana (c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu
(Q.31-Q.35): NASA astronaut [1] returned to Earth from the International Space Station, where she set
the record for the longest single spaceflight in history by a woman. [1] arrived along with Soyuz
Commander Alexander Skvortsov of Roscosmos and Luca Parmitano of European Space Agency.
[1] had completed [2] days in space. The previous longest single spaceflight by any woman was 289
days by Peggy Whitson, also an American, who set that record in 2017. Among Americans across
genders, just Scott Kelly (340 days) is ahead of Koch.
Koch’s extended mission will provide researchers the opportunity to observe effects of long-duration
spaceflight on a woman as the agency plans to return humans to the Moon under the [3] program and
prepare for human exploration of Mars.

(a) Jessica Meir (b) Anne McClain (c) Christina Koch (d) Sally Ride
32. Which of the following will replace [2], which is the number of days [1] had spent in space?
(a) 295 (b) 306 (c) 328 (d) 335
(a) Artemis Mission (b) Project Gemini (c) DART Mission (d) Mission Magellan
34. Who holds the world record for the most number of cumulative days in space across all genders?
(a) Gennady Padalka (b) Valery Polyakov
(c) Jeff Williams (d) Don Pettit
35. Which of the following experiments did [1] take part in the current mission?
(a) Vertebral Strength investigation
(b) Microgravity Crystals investigation
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
(Q.36-Q.39): The government has cleared an ambitious gene-mapping project that is being described by
those involved as the “first scratching of the surface of the vast genetic diversity of India”. The project is
said to be among the most significant of its kind in the world because of its scale and the diversity it
would bring to genetic studies.
The Project will involve 20 leading institutions including the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) in Bengaluru
and a few IITs, and will be rolled out soon.
Cleared by the Department of Biotechnology (under the Department of Science and Technology) late last
month, the first stage of the project will look at samples of “[1] persons from all over the country” to form a
“grid” that will enable the development of a “[2]”.

(a) 5000 (b) 10,000 (c) 15,000 (d) 20,000
37. Which of the following terms will fill [2]?

(a) Base Genome (b) Indian Genome
(c) Reference Genome (d) Primary Genome
38. What is the total outlay for the Genome India Project?
(a) Rs. 156 crore (b) Rs. 187 crore (c) Rs. 238 crore (d) Rs. 365 crore
39. The first migration of human beings as pointed out by scientists has taken place from –
(a) Europe to India (b) Africa to India (c) India to Africa (d) Africa to Europe
MOCK CLAT #16
SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
Directions (Q.1–Q.39): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): The Supreme Court has ruled that there is no fundamental right to reservations in
appointments and promotions under Indian Constitution’s articles 16(4) and 16(4A), which was
introduced in the year [1]. The apex court ruled that it was the discretion of the governments, either at the
state or central level, to grant reservation in promotions. The ruling has since evoked a sharp response
from various stakeholders and political parties.
The ruling came against a/an [2] High Court order. The Supreme Court decision came against pleas
regarding [2] government's September 5, 2012 decision to fill up all posts in public services in the state
without providing reservations to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The government's decision
was challenged in the [2] High Court, which struck it down.
The Constitution of India grants state government the power to reserve vacancies for backward sections,
and even grant reservation in matters of promotion for posts under it.
1. Which of the following years will replace [1]?

(a) 1992 (b) 1993 (c) 1994 (d) 1995

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Assam
3. "Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any provision for the reservation of
appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not
adequately represented in the services under the State." Which of the following articles provides for this?
(a) Article 16(1) (b) Article 16(2) (c) Article 16(4) (d) Article 16(4A)
4. Which of the following cases had introduced the concept of ‘creamy layer’?
(a) M. Nagraj v Union of India
(b) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
(c) C. A. Rajendran v Union of India
(d) M. R. Balaji v State of Mysore
5. Which of the following states currently has the highest reservation quota in favour of SC/ST/OBC besides
the economically weaker section of the general category?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Maharashtra (d) Chhattisgarh
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): The dreaded Coronavirus disease that has originated from the Chinese city Wuhan
was declared as a PHEIC by WHO as per the International Health Regulations (2005). the World Health
Organization (WHO) gave an official name to the disease caused by the novel coronavirus. The disease
will be called “COVID-19”; the “CO” stands for coronavirus, “VI” for virus and “D” for disease. The
coronavirus itself is called “[1]”.
The death toll from the virus has now crossed 1,000 and the disease has infected tens of thousands of
people, the majority of them in China. Names that are assigned by the WHO may or may not be
approved by the [2] at a later stage. The [2], which is also managed by the WHO, provides a final
standard name for each human disease according to standard guidelines that are aimed at reducing the
negative impact from names while balancing science, communication and policy.

(a) COVin
(b) nCOV
(c) SARI (Severe Acute Respiratory Infection)
(d) ARI (Acute Respiratory Infection)
(a) World Organisation for Animal Health
(b) Food and Agriculture Organization
(c) International Classification of Diseases
8. What name is given to the disease by WHO that has a very high initial case fatality rate?
(a) Acute (b) Severe (c) Serious (d) Epidemic
9. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Though being the host of the PHEIC, the WHO committee hasn’t recommended any travel or trade
restrictions
(b) The International Health Regulations 2005 is currently binding on 196 State Parties
(c) WHO has always avoided naming any diseases based on geographical locations
(d) After being declared a PHEIC countries are reminded that they are legally required to share
information with WHO
10. Other than PHEIC, there is another norm for a ‘notifiable disease’. Which of the following diseases in
India were asked by the Health Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan to be made notifiable?
(a) Malaria and dengue (b) Dengue and typhoid
(c) Typhoid and Tuberculosis (d) Malaria and Tuberculosis
Passage (Q.11-Q.15): India is set to give final approval to a $2.6 billion deal for military helicopters from
U.S. defence firm [1] ahead of a visit by U.S. President Donald Trump. India's defence purchases from
the United States have reached $17 billion since 2007 as it has pivoted away from traditional supplier
Russia, looking to modernise its military and narrow the gap with China.
The government cleared a big defence procurement of 24 US-made [2] multirole helicopters worth
around $2.5 billion for the Indian Navy. The [2] helicopters is actually manufactured by [3], which is
owned by [1]. These helicopters play a very key role in modern naval fleet operations and the Indian
Navy was trying to find a best fit for its operations for more than a decade. These choppers provide
crucial eyes, ears, and long arms for the Navy to hunt enemy submarines and conduct surveillance.

(a) Northrop Gruman (b) Raytheon (c) Boeing (d) Lockheed Martin
12. Which of the following helicopters will replace [2]?

(a) MH 60 Romeo (b) SH 60 Seahawk
(c) UH 60 Black Hawk (d) HH 60 Jay Hawk
13. Which of the following companies will replace [3]?

(a) Bell Textron (b) Sikorsky Aircraft (c) Bombardier (d) Aerokopter
14. Which of the following statements about [2] is correct?

(a) These have advanced combat systems like sensors, missiles, and torpedoes to track and hunt enemy
boats and submarines
(b) These have anti-surface, anti-submarine warfare, search and rescue missions capabilities
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
15. With how many countries is India authorized to export defence products currently?
(a) 36 (b) 38 (c) 40 (d) 42
Passage (Q.16-Q.20): The Surrogacy Bill proposes to allow altruistic ethical surrogacy to intending
infertile Indian married couples in the age groups [1] years (women) and [2] years (men). The couple
should have been legally married for at least five years and should be Indian citizens. The Bill has
already been scrutinised once earlier by the Standing Committee on Health and Family Welfare. It
requires surrogacy clinics to be registered, and national and state surrogacy boards to be formed, and
makes commercial surrogacy, and abandoning or disowning a surrogate child punishable by
imprisonment up to 10 years and a fine up to Rs 10 lakh.
The panel recommended that [3] aged between 35 and 45 years should be able to be a single
commissioning parent, and the need for a five-year waiting period for childless married couples could be
waived if there is a medical certificate that shows that they cannot possibly conceive.
The Select Committee also recommended that the ART Bill should be brought before the Surrogacy
(Regulation) Bill, 2019
Source: Edited and recreated from articles of The Indian Express and PRS India
16. Which of the following will replace [1] and [2] respectively?
(a) 23-50 & 26-55 (b) 25-50 & 28-55 (c) 28-55 & 30-58 (d) 30-55 & 32-60
17. Which of the following will replace will [3]?

(a) widowed women and men (b) divorced and widowed women
(c) divorced and widowed women and men (d) divorced men and women
18. Which of the following statements about the Surrogacy Bill?

(a) The Select Committee has recommended that only “close relatives” woman should be allowed to
become a surrogate mother
(b) The five years waiting period for childless couples could be removed if there is a medical certificate
that shows that they cannot possibly conceive
(c) The committee has not recommended expanding the definition of commissioning parent to include
singles, either men or women
(d) The committee has recommended that PIOs can opt for surrogacy services
19. What is meant by the ART Bill?

(a) Artificial Reproductive Technology (b) Assisted Reproduction Technique
(c) Artificial Reproduction Technique (d) Assisted Reproduction Technology
20. India has a rich history of employing ART, though the initial years went officially undocumented at that
time. In India the world’s _______ test-tube baby was created.
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth
Passage (Q.21-Q26): India hosted the first-ever BIMSTEC nations’ conference on “combating drug
trafficking” in the national capital. The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB), the federal agency for drug law
enforcement, will organise the two-day conference to be held on February 13-14 at the Vigyan Bhawan in
Delhi.
The conference is the result of the commitment made in this context by Prime Minister Narendra Modi
during the 4th BIMSTEC summit in [1] in 2018.
In December 2019, India had hosted the [2] for the BIMSTEC countries. Also in the run up to a planned
sailing expedition involving countries of the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and
Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC), two Indian Navy boats have begun a three-month journey. Recently
the [3] National Assembly adopted the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic
Cooperation (BIMSTEC) Convention on cooperation in combating international terrorism, trans-national
organized crime and illicit drug trafficking.

(a) Dhaka (b) Kathmandu (c) Naypyidaw (d) Thimpu

(a) International Seminar on Climate Smart Farming Systems
(b) International Seminar on Cyber-security
(c) International Seminar on Combating International Terrorism
(d) International Seminar on Climate Change in the Bay of Bengal Region

(a) Nepal (b) Myanmar (c) Bangladesh (d) Bhutan
24. What are the names of the two Indian vessels that have begun a three-month journey?
(a) Navika and Parikrama (b) Navika and Tarini
(c) Mhadei and Tarini (d) Mhadei and Parikrama
25. Which of the following lakes in India will host the BIMSTEC Water Sports Meet for the first time in India?
(a) Berijam (b) Pulicat (c) Bhoj Tal (d) Saputara
26. How many members are there in BIMSTEC?

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
Passage (Q.27-Q.30): India became world's fifth largest economy in 2019 in terms of nominal GDP,
leapfrogging [1] and [2], according to data from the IMF's October World Economic Outlook. India's
economy now has a nominal GDP of $2.94 trillion.
The report mentioned that in 2010, India was at 9th spot. India's rise is even more dramatic across the
past 25 years. Since 1995, the country's nominal GDP has jumped more than 700 per cent.
However, India's [3] growth has been dropping down for the last three consecutive years from 7.5 per
cent to 4.5 per cent. The GDP of the country fell 4.5 per cent in the second quarter (July-September) of
the year 2019-20. This was a fall of 0.5 per cent points compared to the previous quarter. India's
economic growth took a hit due to a number of factors - including slowdown in private consumption,
investment and export - but the key indicator is lack of credit (money to produce goods) growth and
demand in the market.
27. Which of the following countries will replace [1] and [2]?
(a) France and Italy (b) Brazil and the UK
(c) the UK and France (d) France and Brazil
28. What do you mean by the nominal GDP?

(a) The assessment of economic production in an economy but includes the current prices of goods and
services in its calculation
(b) The macroeconomic measure of the value of economic output adjusted for price changes
(c) The total domestic and foreign output claimed by residents of a country, plus factor incomes earned
by foreign residents, minus income earned in the domestic economy by nonresidents
(d) The measure of the value of goods and services produced in an area, industry or sector of an
economy

(a) nominal GDP (b) GNI (c) real GDP (d) GVA
30. Which of the following are the top three countries as per the World Economic Outlook?
(a) 1st – China, 2nd – USA, 3rd - Germany
(b) 1st – USA, 2nd – China, 3rd - Japan
(c) 1st – China, 2nd – USA, 3rd - Japan
(d) 1st – USA, 2nd – China, 3rd - Germany
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): India slipped 10 places to [1] position in the latest Democracy Index global
rankings published by [2]. Its score, down from 7.23 in 2018 to 6.90 in 2019, is its lowest ever since the
Democracy Index was begun in 2006, the report shows.
“The primary cause of the democratic regression was an erosion of civil liberties in the country,” the
report said. It mentioned the stripping of Jammu and Kashmir’s special status with the repeal of Articles
370 and 35A, the various security measures that followed the bifurcation of the state including restriction
of Internet access, and the exclusion of 1.9 million people from the final NRC (National Register of
Citizens) in Assam.
Based on the total score, countries are classified as “full democracy”; “flawed democracy”; “hybrid
regime”; or “authoritarian regime”.
31. Which of the following ranks will replace [1]?

(a) 45th (b) 49th (c) 51st (d) 54th

(a) International Monetary Fund (b) United Nations Development Programme
(c) The Economist Intelligence Unit (d) World Economic Forum
33. On how many categories is the Democracy Index based?

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
34. In which of the classification described in the passage has India been placed?
(a) Full democracy (b) Hybrid regime
(c) Flawed democracy (d) Authoritarian regime
35. Which of the following countries has topped the rankings?

(a) Iceland (b) Norway (c) Sweden (d) New Zealand
Passage (Q.36-Q.39): With the economy hitting a six-year low GDP growth, Union Finance Minister
Nirmala Sitharaman presented the Budget 2020 that focused on raising the purchasing power by cutting
income tax rates and boosting rural income. In a shot in the arm for the middle class, Sitharaman has
proposed a new simplified tax regime soon. Railways will set up [1] through PPP model so that
perishable goods can be transported quickly.
To boost infrastructure, Sitharaman says [2] of economic corridor will be set up. “Chennai-Bengaluru
expressway will also be started. Delhi-Mumbai expressway to be completed By 2023,” says FM.
The Nirvik (Niryat Rin Vikas Yojana) scheme to provide enhanced insurance cover and reduce premium
have been introduced for [3].

(a) Agri-Rail (b) Kisan-Marg (c) Kisan-Rail (d) Kisan-Market

(a) 7000 km (b) 8000 km (c) 9000 km (d) 10,000 km

(a) SMEs (b) Indian manufacturers
(c) Small exporters (d) Start-ups and entrepreneurs
39. The insurance cover for bank deposits have been increased from -
(a) Rs. 1 lakh to Rs. 2.5 lakh (b) Rs. 1 lakh to Rs. 3 lakh
(c) Rs. 1 lakh to Rs. 4 lakh (d) Rs. 1 lakh to Rs. 5 lakh
MOCK CLAT #17
Directions (Q.1 – Q.39): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): The killing of [1] has prompted the Government to take steps to tighten India’s
drone-rules. A newly launched, first-of-its-kind national unmanned traffic management mechanism called
the “[2]” — a live platform for registration of manufacturers and operators of drones has been launched.
The Centre’s regulatory policy on the use of drones classifies them based on their all-up weight — ‘nano’
(up to 250 grams), ‘micro’ (250 g to 2 kg), ‘small’ (2-25 kg), ‘medium’ (25-150 kg) and ‘large’ (over 150
kg). The [2] regulates all drones in the micro and higher categories and divides the Indian airspace into
three broad categories — Red, Yellow and Green.
Post the killings the Civil Aviation Ministry has announced a scheme for voluntary disclosure of “non-
compliant” unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs), or drones, being operated inside India to make up for the
lack of a comprehensive database. This voluntary disclosure scheme is being touted as the first step in
regulating the drone ecosystem in India. Upon successful submission of voluntary disclosure, a Drone
Acknowledgement Number (DAN) and an Ownership Acknowledgement Number (OAN) will be issued
online.

(a) Jamal Khashoggi (b) Qassem Soleimani (c) Abu Azrael (d) Esmail Ghaani

(a) National Counter Rogue Drone Guidelines
(b) Digital Sky Platform
(c) Unmanned Vehicles Platform
(d) Digital Sky Register
3. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) India has a ‘No Permission-No Takeoff’ (NPNT) policy for UAVs
(b) The all-up weight includes the weight of the drone as well as the fuel (batteries in most cases)
(c) Once the DAN or OAN is obtained it will confer all rights to operate drones in India
(d) In 2014, civil drone-flying was banned in India after a Mumbai based Pizzeria tried to use an
unmanned vehicle to air-drop pizzas in its vicinity
4. Other than the killing of [1], which country’s refinery was recently bombarded using drones?
(a) UAE (b) Kuwait (c) Iran (d) Saudi Arab
5. Which state of India has adopted a framework to use drones for last-mile delivery of essential medical
supplies such as blood and medical samples?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka (c) Telengana (d) Tamil Nadu
Passage (Q.6-Q.12): The global dirty money watchdog placed [1] on its blacklist after it failed to comply
with international anti-terrorism financing norms, a move that will deepen the country's isolation from
financial markets. The decision came after more than three years of warnings from the [1]-based
Financial Action Taskforce (FATF) urging the country to either enact terrorist financing conventions or
see its reprieve from the blacklist lifted and some counter-measures imposed.
In its plenary meeting held recently FATF decided to keep Pakistan on its “greylist” for monitoring its
record against terror financing. While the Pakistan government has yet to complete the 27-point action
plan it was given in June 2018, it has, according to the FATF, made some progress. As a result, the 39-
member group that includes India decided to extend Pakistan’s September 2019 deadline. [3] has joined
Pakistan on the “grey list” of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), an inter-governmental body which
sets anti-money laundering standards.
6. Which of the following countries will replace [1] that has been blacklisted recently?
(a) Syria (b) Yemen (c) Libya (d) Iran
7. Which of the following is an important convention for international organized crimes, which [1] has failed
to enact?
(a) Chicago Convention, 1944 (b) Palermo Convention, 2003
(c) Treaty of Bern, 1989 (d) Paris Convention, 2003
8. Which of the following places will replace [2]?

(a) Hague (b) Geneva (c) New York (d) Paris
9. Which of the following countries will replace [3]?

(a) Malaysia (b) Venezuela (c) Mauritius (d) Cuba

(a) [3] is the second-largest source of FPIs into India
(b) According to the recent FATF plenary meeting, Pakistan has completed about 14 of the 27-points
(c) The extended deadlines are till July 2020
(d) The three countries that might save Pakistan from getting black-listed are Turkey, China and Malaysia
11. Which of the following actions have somewhat helped Pakistan’s case in the recent FATF plenary meet?
(a) The hurried conviction of Masood Azhar on charges of terror financing by Pakistan
(b) Playing an important role in the US-Taliban talks
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
12. Who is the present President of FATF?

(a) Xiangmin Liu (b) Mohammed Barkindo
(c) Tod D. Walters (d) Audrey Azoulay
Passage (Q.13-Q.17): The Forest Advisory Committee, an apex body tasked with adjudicating requests
by the industry to raze forest land for commercial ends, has approved a scheme that could allow “forests”
to be traded as a [1]. If implemented, it allows the Forest Department to outsource one of its
responsibilities of reforesting to non-government agencies.
In the current system, industry needs to make good the loss of forest by finding appropriate non-forest
land — equal to that which would be razed. It also must pay the State Forest Department the current
economic equivalent — called [2] — of the forest land. It’s then the department’s responsibility to grow
appropriate vegetation that, over time, would grow into forests.
Nearly ₹50,000 crore had been collected by the Centre over decades, but the funds were lying unspent
because States were not spending the money on regrowing forests. The Supreme Court intervened, a
new law came about with rules for how this fund was to be administered.

(a) Shares (b) Stocks (c) Commodities (d) Both (a) and (b)

(a) Net Forest Value (b) Gross Forest Produce
(c) Net Present Value (d) Net Forest Produce
15. Which of the following schemes allows agencies to identify land and begin growing plantations?
(a) Green Credit Scheme (b) Van Ropan Yojana
(c) Forest Cover Plantation Scheme (d) Green Cover Yojana
16. According to the State of Forest Report which of the following dense forest type has the highest area-
cover in the country?
(a) Tropical moist deciduous (b) Tropical dry deciduous
(c) Tropical semi-evergreen (d) Tropical wet-evergreen
17. The State of Forest Report in India is published -
(a) Annually (b) Biennially (c) Triennially (d) Quadrennially
Passage (Q.18-Q.24): The government has cleared an ambitious gene-mapping project that is being
described by those involved as the “first scratching of the surface of the vast genetic diversity of India”.
The project is said to be among the most significant of its kind in the world because of its scale and the
diversity it would bring to genetic studies. The Rs 238-crore [1], which will involve 20 leading institutions
including the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) in Bengaluru and a few IITs, will be rolled out soon.
The first stage of the project will look at samples of “[2] persons from all over the country” to form a “grid”
that will enable the development of a “reference genome”. The first obvious use would be in personalised
medicine, anticipating diseases and modulating treatment according to the genome of patients. Several
diseases develop through metabolic polymorphisms. Similar benefits would come to agriculture if there is
a better understanding of the genetic basis of susceptibility to blights, rusts and pests. It may become
possible to deter them genetically, and reduce dependence on chemicals. Global science would also
benefit from a mapping project in one of the world’s most diverse gene pools, which would provide data
useful for the mapping of the spread and migration of a range of life forms in the Old World, from plants to
humans.
18. Which of the following names of the project will replace [1]?
(a) Indian Genome Project (b) Genome Mapping Project
(c) Project Genome India (d) Genome India Project

(a) 1,000 (b) 5,000 (c) 10,000 (d) 100,000
20. Which of the following is an example of effect of metabolic polymorphisms?

(a) COVID started from China but not in India
(b) A person gets affected by a communicable disease much easily than another person who doesn’t get
affected at all
(c) Cardiovascular disease generally leads to heart attacks in South Asians, but to strokes in most parts
of Africa
(d) Food-habits and genetic make-up of Indo-Aryan people are different from the Mongloids
21. Which of the following scientific journals recently reported the results of a decade-long global
collaboration involving 1,300 scientists to map genetic mutations that drive the development of cancer?
(a) Science Reporter (b) Nature (c) BioScience (d) World Health
22. According to the scientists associated with this project the first migration to India happened from -
(a) Europe (b) Australia (c) Africa (d) Central Asia
23. The genetic code is in the DNA of every organism. Which scientists had proved that the DNA has a
double helix structure?
(a) James Watson and Francis Crick
(b) Gregor Mendel and Rosalind Franklin
(c) Thomas Hunt Morgan and Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
(d) Hugo de Vries and Carl Linnaeus
24. Prior to this, the Human Genome Project or the HGP was done. In which year was its results published?
(a) 2000 (b) 2003 (c) 2005 (d) 2008
Passage (Q.25-Q.29):[1] has recently released the Sustainable Development Goals India Index 2019
(SDGII 2019). This is the second edition of the index. Overall, India’s score has improved from 57 to [2],
with notable progress on SDGs 3, 6, 7, 9 and 11.
Kerala achieved the first rank in the composite SDG Index with a score of 70, followed by [3] at 69.
Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Tamil Nadu ranked at the third position with the score of 67. The
biggest improvers since 2018 are UP (which has moved from the 29th position to the 23rd), Orissa (23rd
to 15th), and Sikkim (15th to 7th). While Bihar improved its score from 48 in 2018 to 50 in 2019, it still has
a long way to go in achieving the targets.
The SDG India Index 2019 tracks progress of all States and UTs on 100 indicators drawn from the
National Indicator Framework (NIF). The process of selection of these indicators included multiple
consultations with Union ministries/departments and States/UTs.

(a) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
(b) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) UNESCO

(a) 60 (b) 61 (c) 62 (d) 63

(a) Karnataka (b) Maharashtra (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Gujarat
28. Which of the following goals was left-out in the SDGII 2019 due to absence of data?
(a) SDG 4 (b) SDG 5 (c) SDG 12 (d) SDG 17
29. India is the _______ country in the world to publicly rank its sub-national governments on SDG.
(a) first (b) second (c) only (d) Both (a) and (c)
Passage (Q.30-Q.34): [1] was International Mother Language Day. It has been observed since 1999 to
promote “linguistic and cultural diversity and multilingualism”, according to the UN. Of the world’s 6,000
languages, 43% are estimated as endangered, according to the UN. On the other hand, just [2]
languages account for as many as 4.8 billion speakers — over 60% of the world population.
UNESCO declared International Mother Language Day in 1999, to commemorate a 1952 protest against
West Pakistan’s imposition of Urdu as the official language of East Pakistan (present-day Bangladesh).
According to a report in The Daily Sun, police opened fire on demonstrating Dhaka University students
and “some people were killed”. When thousands thronged the university the next day, police fired again,
killing more people. According to the South Asia Democratic Forum, five among those killed were
recognised as “language martyrs” — Abul Barkat, Abdul Jabbar, Rafiquddin Ahmad, Abdus Salman and
Shafiur Rahman.

(a) February 1 (b) February 10 (c) February 21 (d) February 25

(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 18
32. How many Indian languages are there in the top 10 most spoken languages in India?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None of these
33. Which of the following languages come second in the most spoken language list in the world?
(a) English (b) Hindi (c) Arabic (d) Mandarin
34. Which is the second-most spoken language in India (as per Census 2011)?
(a) Marathi (b) Bengali (c) Telugu (d) Punjabi
Passage (Q.35-Q.39): In early February, 47 new papers were published in a special supplement of The
Astrophysical Journal, analysing data from the first three flybys of the [1], NASA’s historic mission to the
Sun. The probe, launched on August 12, 2018, completed its fourth close approach — called [2] — on
January 29, whizzing past at about 3.93 lakh km/h, at a distance of only 18.6 million km from the Sun’s
surface.
Alongside another mission to the Moon, being planned for next year, and the first human space flight
scheduled for 2022, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is also preparing to send its first
scientific expedition to study the Sun. Named [3], the mission, expected to be launched early next year,
will observe the Sun from a close distance, and try to obtain information about its atmosphere and
magnetic field.

(a) Solar Orbiter Mission
(b) Parker Solar Probe
(c) Helios 2
(d) Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SHeO)

(a) Perihelion (b) Aphelion (c) Epihelion (d) Subhelion

(a) Aditya L1 (b) Suraj F2 (c) Surajyaan 1.0 (d) Aditya 1.0

(a) ISRO categorises [3] as a 800 kg-class satellite
(b) PSLV will be used to launch [3]
(c) It will have seven payloads to study the Sun’s corona, solar emissions, solar winds and flares, and
Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs)
(d) [3] won’t go as close to the Sun as [1]
39. What is the corona of the Sun made of?

(a) Gases (b) Plasma (c) Liquid (d) Solids
MOCK CLAT #18
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): The Centre cleared as many as 72 changes to the [1], including decriminalizing
various offences.
Addressing reporters after a cabinet committee meeting, Finance and Corporate Affairs Minister Nirmala
Sitharaman said the priority is to “decriminalize” provisions in the Act. As many as 23 offences would be
recategorized out of 66 compoundable offences under the new amended act. Besides, seven
compoundable offences would be omitted, Sitharaman said. She further said that the government would
remove provisions of imprisonment in various sections and also reduce penalties in case of various
compoundable offences.
Sitharaman added that those companies which have CSR obligation of less than Rs 50 lakh would not
have to constitute a CSR committee. These initiatives, she said, are aimed at ease of doing business.
In November, a government-appointed high-level panel proposed decriminalizing more than half of the
existing compoundable offences under the companies law as well as lower monetary penalties for
violations by startups, amid efforts to further improve the ease of doing business in the country.
Generally, compoundable offences are those which can be settled by paying a certain amount of money.
1. Which of the following option best defines Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)?
(a) Companies limiting themselves to using resources to engage in activities that increase only their
profits.
(b) Companies providing their employee with free healthcare.
(c) Companies reducing work hours to ensure better work-life balance and less human rights violation.
(d) Companies sharing responsibility towards the community and environment (both ecological and
social) in which it operates.
2. Fill [1] with suitable option.

(a) The Corporate Social Responsibility Act, 2013
(b) The Companies Act, 2013
(c) The Business Act, 2013
(d) The Corporate Act, 2013
3. According to the bill, all firms with net worth above 5 billion rupees, turnover over 10 billion rupees or net
profit over 50 million rupees are required to spend at least __ of their annual profits of the preceding year.
(a) 20% (b) 15% (c) 7% (d) 2%
4. 1Decriminalising provision of Companies Act will ____

(a) Make it easier for companies to do business in the country.
(b) Will make it more important to focus on CSR.
(c) Will make it difficult for companies to earn profit.
(d) Will increase employees efficiency.
5. According to World Bank’s annual report on the Ease of Doing Business 2020, India ranks __ out of 190
countries.
(a) 118 (b) 100 (c) 63 (d) 21
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): The [1] and the Taliban have signed an "agreement for bringing peace" to
Afghanistan after more than 18 years of conflict.
The [1] and Nato allies have agreed to withdraw all troops within 14 months if the militants uphold the
deal.
Talks between the Afghan government and the Taliban are due to follow. Under the agreement, the
militants also agreed not to allow al-Qaeda or any other extremist group to operate in the areas they
control.
The deal was signed by [1] special envoy Zalmay Khalilzad and Taliban political chief Mullah Abdul
Ghani Baradar with [1] Secretary of State Mike Pompeo as a witness.
In a speech, Mr Pompeo urged the militant group to "keep your promises to cut ties with al-Qaeda".
Within the first 135 days of the deal the [1] will reduce its forces in Afghanistan to 8,600, with allies also
drawing down their forces proportionately. The deal also provides for a prisoner swap. Some 5,000
Taliban prisoners and 1,000 Afghan security force prisoners would be exchanged by 10 March, when
talks between the Taliban and the Afghan government are due to start.
Mr Baradar said he hoped Afghanistan could now emerge from four decades of conflict.

(a) Russia (b) China (c) United States (d) United Kingdom
7. Al-Qaeda was founded in ___.

(a) 2011 (b) 2000 (c) 1992 (d) 1988
8. Which of the following country was a key ally of [1] offering support for military action from the start
preparations for the invasion of Afghanistan?
(a) China (b) United Kingdom (c) Iran (d) India
9. [1] and the Taliban mark the signing of their agreement in __.
(a) France (b) Tokyo (c) Doha (d) Kabul
10. During the negotiations of the peace agreement, which of the following topic is expected to arise as a
major issue?
(a) Protection of women’s rights
(b) Afghan Presidential election
(c) Employment issues of Afghani people
(d) Closing military bases
Passage(Q.11-Q.15): [1] masterfully devious class satire took Hollywood’s top prize at the Oscars on
Sunday night, along with awards for best director, best international film and best screenplay. In a year
dominated by period epics — 1917, Once Upon a Time … In Hollywood, The Irishman — the film
academy instead went overseas, to South Korea, to reward a contemporary and unsettling portrait of
social inequality in [2].
True to its name, [2] simply got under the skin of Oscar voters, attaching itself to the American awards
season and, ultimately, to history. The win was a watershed moment for the Academy Awards, which has
long been content to relegate international films to their own category.
The win for [2] — which had echoes of the surprise victory of Moonlight over La La Land three years ago
— came in year in which many criticized the lack of diversity in the nominees and the absence of female
filmmakers. But the triumph for [2] enabled Hollywood to flip the script, and signal a different kind of
progress.
In doing so, the film academy turned away another history-making event, again denying Netflix its first
best-picture win despite two contenders in The Irishman and Marriage Story, and a big-spending awards
campaign blitz.

(a) Martin Scorsese (b) Quentin Tarantino
(c) Bong Joon Ho (d) Noah Baumbach

(a) Joker (b) Ford v Ferrari (c) Parasite (d) 1917
13. The award was originally sculpted by ____ from a design sketch by Cedric Gibbons.
(a) Douglas Fairbanks (b) George Stanley
(c) Renee Zellweger (d) Emil Jannings
14. When has the first Academy award been awarded?

(a) 1929 (b) 1945 (c) 1994 (d) 2001
15. The 92nd Oscars was held at ____

(a) Dolby Theatre, Hollywood (b) The Rose, Pasadena
(c) Staples Center, Los Angeles (d) Royal Albert Hall, London
Passage (Q.16-Q.20): When you think of outer space, you think of big powers like the United States,
Russia and China. You might also note the collective European effort under the European Space agency
as well as the impressive national space programmes of India and Japan. Space programmes have for
long been viewed as either strategic or symbols of national prestige for big countries that are prepared to
invest significant resources in the pursuit of a credible presence in outer space.
Two small countries, the United Arab Emirates in the Gulf and the Grand Duchy of Luxembourg in
Europe have begun to demonstrate that the outer space need not be the playing ground for big powers
alone. If you are a sceptic, you might think it is pretentious for the UAE with its native population of barely
one million and Luxembourg with 600,000 people to think of a place for themselves in space.
But that is not stopping the two from thinking boldly about their possibilities in space. The interesting path
these two countries have set for themselves in outer space is a reminder that Delhi needs to adapt to the
rapidly changing dynamic in outer space. That size is not a constraint is reflected in the UAE’s plan to
launch its [1], later this year in partnership with a range of organizations across the world — including
three universities in the US. Japan is scheduled to launch the [1] this year. Last year, the first Emirati
Astronaut, Hazza al-Mansouri spent more than a week in the US-Russian space station.
The last decades of the 20th century saw significant expansion of satellite-based telecommunication,
navigation, broadcasting and mapping, and lent a significant commercial dimension to the space sector.
As the digital revolution in the 21st century transformed the world economy, the commercial space sector
has begun to grow in leaps and bounds. The global space business is now estimated to be around $ 400
billion and is expected easily rise to at least trillion dollars by 2040.

(a) Orion spacecraft (b) Space Launch System
(c) Artemis 1 program (d) Hope Mars Mission
17. The ___ mission will be India’s first solar mission that will help scientists study the solar corona.
(a) Gisat-12R (b) Aditya L1 (c) Gaganyaan (d) Risat-2BR2
18. Which of the following is likely to be the world’s most expensive Earth-Imaging Satellite?
(a) Chandrayaan-3 (b) Microsat (c) NISAR (d) GSLV-F10
19. The above passage mentions that, ‘As the digital revolution in the 21st century transformed the world
economy, the commercial space sector has begun to grow in leaps and bounds.’ Which one of the
following private sector company will be the best suitable example for this scenario?
(a) Amazon (b) SpaceX (c) soFi (d) Tanium
20. The first successful orbital launch was of the Soviet uncrewed ____mission on 4 October 1957.
(a) Apollo 1 (b) Sputnik 1 (c) Vostok 1 (d) Skylab
Passage (Q.21-Q.25): The movement towards decarbonisation in the West has built up strong
momentum. There are tangible markers. The most impactful is technology and innovation. Together, they
have almost bridged the competitiveness gap between the current fossil fuel dominant energy system
and a renewable clean energy alternative. Many reports provide supportive data of this trend. The
message is clear. There will be many obstacles to the creation of a non fossil fuel, clean energy system.
But competitiveness will not be one of them. Technology will overcome that obstacle. A second marker is
the conspicuous shift in the “decarbonisation” strategies of companies and financial institutions. These
entities have for long affirmed their green credentials but few have provided details of how they plan to
achieve their clean energy targets. Now, they are filling in these gaps. For instance, BP has announced
that it will achieve net zero carbon emissions across all of its operations by 2050 and Shell has said it will
become a major electricity company — it has invested in solar battery manufacturing and charging
solutions for electric vehicles. Goldman Sachs has stated it will not finance any new coal power plants
unless these plants have incorporated carbon emission reduction technologies and AXA , the insurance
giant, has indicated it will not insure new coal construction. These are just a few examples of the
paradigm shift in the corporate and financial world.
A third marker is the mix of regulatory, pricing and fiscal measures that Western governments have put in
place to contain the growth of fossil fuels in the energy mix, incentivise investment in technologies like
carbon capture and sequestration and, in general, reduce the per capita stock of GHG emissions. These
are heartening and necessary developments but they are not sufficient to move the world off the global
warming treadmill.
21. Two thirds of global carbon emissions come from the emerging economies particularly __.
(a) China and India (b) USA and Russia
(c) China and Japan (d) Norway and Greenland
22. 2020 UN Climate Change Conference (UNFCCC COP26) is expected to take place in which of the
following city?
(a) Paris (b) Doha (c) Glasgow (d) Perth
23. ____ is a Swedish environmental activist whose campaigning has gained international recognition.
(a) Malala Yusufzai (b) Greta Thunberg
(c) Winona La Duke (d) Sunita Narain
24. According to the passage, western governments have taken regulatory, pricing and fiscal measures to
reduce the per capita stock of GHG emissions. Which of the following is a primary greenhouse gas in
Earth’s atmosphere?
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Hydrogen peroxide
(c) Nitric oxide (d) Water vapour
25. Which of the following technology may help reduce the greenhouse gas emissions generated by fossil
fuels?
(a) CCUS (Carbon capture utilisation and storage)
(b) CDS (Carbon distribution and storage)
(c) GHGCS (Greenhouse gas capture and storage)
(d) LEHES (Low efficiency high emission system)
Passage (Q.26-Q.30): Economic and political polarization will rise this year, as collaboration between
world leaders, businesses and policy-makers is needed more than ever to stop severe threats to our
climate, environment, public health and technology systems. This points to a clear need for a multi
stakeholder approach to mitigating risk at a time when the world cannot wait for the fog of geopolitical
disorder to lift. These are the findings of the World Economic Forum’s Global Risks Report 2020,
published today.
The report forecasts a year of increased domestic and international divisions and economic slowdown.
Geopolitical turbulence is propelling us towards an “unsettled” unilateral world of great power rivalries at a
time when business and government leaders must focus urgently on working together to tackle shared
risks. Over 750 global experts and decision-makers were asked to rank their biggest concerns in terms of
likelihood and impact and 78% said they expect “economic confrontations” and “domestic political
polarization” to rise in 2020.
This would prove catastrophic, particularly for addressing urgent challenges like the climate crisis,
biodiversity loss and record species decline. The report, produced in partnership with Marsh & McLennan
and Zurich Insurance Group, points to a need for policy-makers to match targets for protecting the Earth
with ones for boosting economies – and for companies to avoid the risks of potentially disastrous future
losses by adjusting to science-based targets.
26. For the first time in the survey’s 10-year outlook, the top five global risks in terms of likelihood are all __.
(a) Environmental (b) Social (c) Economical (d) Geopolitical
27. Who is the president of the World Economic Forum?

(a) Jeff Bezos (b) Borge Brende (c) Jack Ma (d) Andre Hoffman
28. According to the report Human activity has already caused the loss of __ of all wild mammals and half of
plants – which underpin our food and health systems.
(a) 90% (b) 83% (c) 23% (d) 7%
29. Which of the following can be identified as a short term risk factor as described in the report?
(a) Domestic political polarization
(b) Food crises
(c) Major diversity loss and ecosystem collapse
(d) Unemployment
30. The Global Risks Report is part of the ___which brings stakeholders together to develop sustainable,
integrated solutions to the world’s most pressing challenges.
(a) Global Risks Initiative
(b) Global Disaster control and management
(c) Global Climate Crisis Initiative
(d) Global Hunger Index
Passage (Q.31-Q.34): Minister for Health and Family Welfare [1] introduced the Medical Termination of
Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020 in the Lok Sabha. The bill, which was approved last month by the
cabinet, seeks to extend the upper limit for permitting abortions from the current 20 weeks to 24 weeks.
The bill seeks to amend the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 and aims to expand access of
women to safe and legal abortion services on therapeutic, eugenic, humanitarian or social grounds.
It also extends the contraceptive-failure clause for termination to include “any woman or her partner” in
place of the present provision for “only married woman or her husband”.
According to the government, this proposed bill will ensure safe termination of pregnancies and also give
women reproductive rights over their bodies.
31. The bill introduces the requirement of the opinion of two registered medical practitioners for termination of
pregnancy of ___weeks of gestation.
(a) 20-24 (b) 10-12 (c) 10-15 (d) 15-17

(a) Piyush Goyal (b) Harsh Vardhan (c) Smriti Irani (d) Ramvilas Paswan
33. Which of the following was the first country to legalize abortion in cases of rape?
(a) France (b) Iran (c) Mexico (d) Netherlands
34. According to the bill, the “upper gestation limit” for medical termination of pregnancy will not be applicable
in cases of:
(a) Unmarried women (b) Differently abled women
(c) Victims of sexual assault (d) Substantial foetal abnormalities
Passage (Q.35-Q.39): Passengers travelling in domestic flights will now be able to use Wi-Fi following
permission from the pilot-in-command, according to a government notification.
“The pilot-in-command may permit the access of Internet services by passengers on board an aircraft in
flight, through Wi-Fi on board, when laptop, smartphone, tablet, smartwatch, e-reader or a point of sale
device is used in flight mode or airplane mode, provided that the Director-General shall certify the aircraft
for usage of Internet service in flight through Wi-Fi on board, subject to the procedures as specified in this
behalf,” the notification stated.
It added that for the purposes of this rule, an aircraft will be deemed to be in flight when all its external
doors are closed following embarkation until the moment when any such door is opened for
disembarkation.
[1] was one of the first players to secure the necessary approvals from the Department of Telecom near
the end of last year.
35. Which Central Ministry issued the notification allowing internet services on flight?
(a) Ministry of Civil Aviation
(b) Ministry of Communication
(c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(d) Ministry of electronics and information technology
36. Which airline will be first in India to provide internet services on flight?
(a) Air Asia (b) Jet Airways (c) Vistara (d) Spice Jet
37. Which was the first airline to launch internet services on flight?
(a) Alaska Airlines (b) Etihad Airways (c) Virgin America (d) Southwest Airlines
38. In 2018, which department had approved of wifi services on flight?

(a) Department of Telecommunication
(b) Department of Science and Technology
(c) Department of Civil Aviation
39. Which was the first company to start on board wifi services?
(a) Gogo (b) Google (c) Microsoft (d) Virgin Group
MOCK CLAT #19
Directions (Q.1-Q.39): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
(Q.1-Q.6): The dispute over Mahadayi river has resurfaced over the past few weeks and tensions have
been rife between [1] and [2]. The dispute over Mahadayi river began in the 80s and grew stronger in the
subsequent decades. The trigger was [2]’s move to design a number of dams, canals and barrages to
route the Mahadayi river water to the Malaprabha basin. The state claimed that channelling the river
water into the basin of Malaprabha, a tributary of the [3], would meet the requirements of its water-scarce
districts.
[1], seeking redressal to the dispute in 2002, sought the constitution of a water disputes tribunal. The
state also moved the apex court in 2006 with its demand. After sustained efforts by the [1] government,
the Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal was set up on November 16, 2010.
1. Which of the following states will replace [1] and [2] respectively?
(a) Goa and Karnataka (b) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu (d) Tamil Nadu and Kerala

(a) Godavari (b) Krishna (c) Tapti (d) Kaveri
3. Which of the following projects is being constructed by [2] on the Mhadei river?
(a) Kalasa-Banduri Nala Project (b) Belagavi-Bagalkot Project
(c) Bhima-Dindi Nala Project (d) Venna-Koyna Nala Project
4. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution provides the Parliament for the adjudication of
any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-
State river or river valley?
(a) 260 (b) 261 (c) 262 (d) 263
5. Other than [1] and [2], which other states does the Mhadei river flow through?
(a) Kerala (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Telengana (d) Maharashtra
6. Which of the following wildlife sanctuaries is the source of the Mhadei river?
(a) Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary (b) Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Sharavati Valley Wildlife Sanctuary (d) Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary
(Q.7-Q.11): [1] has been approved as an observer state for a five-nation grouping in the Western Indian
Ocean, which includes [5], Comoros, Seychelles, Mauritius and French Reunion.
The members of the [3] decided on [1] application at a meeting last week, officials said. With the decision,
[1] will join [2], which was made an observer in 2016, as well as the “International Organisation of the
Francophonie” or the 54-nation French-speaking collective, the European Union (EU) and Malta, which
were all admitted in 2017.
The decision to join the [3] marks a part of the government’s push for greater salience in the whole Indian
Ocean Region (IOR), including what is called the Western or African Indian Ocean. In December 2019,
the Ministry of External Affairs decided to include Madagascar, Comoros and Reunion as part of the IOR
(Indian Ocean Region) desk along with Sri Lanka, Maldives, Mauritius and Seychelles.
The [3] is also significant for its geographical location, as the islands sit around a “key choke-point” in the
Indian Ocean — the Mozambique Channel. This channel is being watched more closely as the U.S.-Iran
tensions threaten the Strait of Hormuz. Given China’s growing presence in the region, [1] hopes to
increase its naval presence and gain support for its maritime projects across the Indo-Pacific, beginning
at East African shores.
7. Which country has been replaced with [1] in the above passage?
(a) Srilanka (b) India (c) Maldives (c) Vietnam
8. Which country can be replaced with [2] in the above passage?
(a) Mauritius (b) Seychelles (c) India (d) China
9. Which organization can be replaced with [3] in the above passage?

(a) International Maritime Organization
(b) South Asian Ocean Committee
(c) South East Asia Ocean Committee
(d) Indian Ocean Commission
10. In which year the organization referred by [3] was set up?
(a) 1982 (b) 1983 (c) 1990 (d) 1989
11. Which country can be replaced with [5] in the above passage?
(a) Seychelles (b) Singapore (c) Sri lanka (d) None of the above
(Q.12-Q.16): The decision by the WADA to ban [1] from global sporting events for a four-year period is
arguably the biggest sporting crisis the country has faced till date. This move will hurt [1] the most at the
2020 Tokyo Olympic Games and the 2022 Beijing Winter Olympics where the nation’s flag, name and
anthem will not be allowed. [1] will inevitably approach the Court of Arbitration for Sport with an appeal,
but if the sentence is upheld it could bar the nation from participation in several high-profile global
sporting events including the 2022 football World Cup. The saga has its roots in the scandal that erupted
on the eve of the 2016 Rio Olympics, when whistle-blower reports nailed [1] for running one of the most
sophisticated doping programmes. The allegations centred around the active collusion of [1]n anti-doping
experts, the sports ministry and members of the country’s intelligence service in replacing dope-tainted
urine samples with clean ones during the 2014 Winter Olympics in Sochi. In September 2018, as part of
the resolution of that case, [1] reluctantly agreed to open up its database to corroborate the findings of
the reports. WADA has now ruled that the country manipulated this very database in order to cover up
large-scale violations.
However, ahead of the Rio games, Russia had recommended that [1] be expelled, but the International
Olympic Committee (IOC), under President Thomas Bach, had left the decision to individual sports’
governing bodies, and, subsequently, athletes who were cleared of doping were allowed to compete as
neutrals.
12. 2022 Football World Cup will be the ______ edition of the World Cup.
(a) 20th (b) 21st (c) 22nd (d) 23rd
13. In the above passage what has been redacted by [1]’?

(a) Russia (b) China (c) North Korea (d) Japan
14. Where is the headquarters of the WADA situated?

(a) Lausanne (b) Montreal (c) Paris (d) Geneva
15. The International Olympic Committee was found in ___.

(a) 1944 (b) 1916 (c) 1894 (d) 1780
16. How many medals did India win in the 2016 Rio Olympics?
(a) 25 (b) 18 (c) 11 (d) 2
(Q.17-Q.20): [1] will receive the Order of Merit for his conduct as leader of the ship that was quarantined
for nearly a month. He was the last to leave the ship just a few days ago.
The Italian captain of the Diamond Princess cruise ship will be given his country’s highest honor, the
Order of Merit, by President [2], the president’s office confirmed. [1] has been widely praised for the care
and concern he gave to the crew and passengers on the quarantined cruise ship, and for being the last
person to leave the ship.
[1] is still in Japan, where he is in temporary quarantine until local health officials are sure he is not
carrying the COVID-19 novel coronavirus.
17. Fill [1] with the suitable option?

(a) Gennaro Arma (b) Marianna Arma (c) George gill (d) Leonardo Vans
18. The Japanese authority imposed a quarantine process that would see __ passengers test positive for the
virus .
(a) 700 (b) 725 (c) 755 (d) 705
19. coronavirus disease (COVID-19) that was first reported from Wuhan, China, on ___ 2019?
(a) January 25th (b) February 25th (c) December 31st (d) February 1st

(a) Sergio Mattarela (b) Emmanuel Macron
(c) Angela Merkel (d) Marine Le pen
(Q.21-Q.25): Medical details of over 120 million Indian patients have been leaked and made freely
available on the Internet, according to a recent report published by [1], a German cybersecurity firm.
What is even more worrying is that the number of data troves containing this sensitive data went up by a
significant number in the Indian context a month after [1] initial report was published. The updated report
also places [2] at the top of the States affected by the leak.
The first report was published in October last year, in which [1] revealed a widespread data leak of a
massive number of records, including images of CT scans, X-rays, MRIs and even pictures of the
patients.
The follow-up report, which was published in November, classifies countries in the three categories
based on the action taken by their governments after the first report was made public. India ranks second
in the “[4]” category, after the U.S.
The report says that in 60 days after the first report was put out, the number of data troves bearing the
patients’ information went up from 6,27,000 to 1.01 million, and that the images of patients’ details rose
from 105 million to 121 million.
“It is a notable fact for the systems located in India, that almost 100% of the studies (data troves) allow
full access to related images,” the report states.
As per the follow-up report, [2] ranks the highest in terms of the number of data troves available online,
with 3,08,451 troves offering access to 6,97,89,685 images. The next is Karnataka, with 1,82,865 data
troves giving access to 1,37,31,001 images.
“The leak is worrying because the affected patients can include anyone from the common working man to
politicians and celebrities. In image-driven fields like politics or entertainment, knowledge about certain
ailments faced by people from these fields could deal a huge blow to their image. The other concern is of
fake identities being created using the details, which can be misused in any possible number of ways,” a
[2] cybersecurity officer said.
Medico-legal expert Lalit Kapoor said any communication between a doctor and a patient was privileged
one. “A doctor or a hospital is thus ethically, legally and morally bound to maintain confidentiality,” he
said.
PACS servers
[1] original report says the leak was facilitated by the fact that the Picture Archiving and Communications
Systems (PACS) servers, where these details are stored, are not secure and linked to the public Internet
without any protection, making them easily accessible to malicious elements.
21. Which firm can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?

(a) Greenhouse Sustainable Resilience
(b) Greenbone Sustainable Resilience
(c) Green Sustainable Resilience
(d) Greenhood Sustainable Resilience
22. Which state can be replaced by [2] in the above passage?

(a) Maharashtra (b) Kerala (c) Telangana (d) Karnataka
23. Which of the following bill has been tabled in Indian parliament to secure personal data of citizens?
(a) The Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019
(b) General Data Protection Regulation
(c) Data Security Bill, 2019
(d) Critical Data Protection Bill, 2019
24. In which category India has been placed in the above said report?
(a) Good (b) Bad (c) Ugly (d) Best
25. Which landmark judgment held the right to privacy to be the part of Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
(a) K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India
(b) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
(c) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
(d) Gurbaksh Singh v. Union of India
(Q.26-Q.29): The US and Taliban signed an agreement for “Bringing Peace to Afghanistan”, which will
enable the [1] to withdraw troops in the next [2] months. India attended the signing ceremony in Doha,
and was represented by Ambassador to Qatar P Kumaran.
The pact is between the “[3] which is not recognized by the United States as a state and is known as the
Taliban” and the US. The four-page pact was signed between Zalmay Khalilzad, US Special
Representative for Afghanistan Reconciliation, and Mullah Abdul Ghani Baradar, political head of the
Taliban.
While the agreement creates a path for the [1] to gradually pull out of its longest war, many feel that the
talks, scheduled to take place between the Afghan sides, could be much more complicated. The Afghan
government has been completely sidelined during the talks between the US and Taliban. The future for
the people of Afghanistan is uncertain, and will depend on how Taliban honours its commitments and
whether it goes back to the mediaeval practices of its 1996-2001 regime.

(a) US only (b) NATO only
(c) Both US and NATO (d) Allied

(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 16

(a) Islamic Caliphate of Taliban
(b) Taliban Afghan Caliph
(c) Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan
(d) Emirate of Afghan Talibans

(a) Within the first 135 days of the deal the forces in Afghanistan will be reduced
(b) The UN will lift sanctions on the Taliban
(c) The US will lift sanctions on the Taliban
(d) The deal has also provided for prisoner swap
(Q.30-Q.34): Finding the “missing millions” has always been the biggest challenge in achieving the global
goal of ending tuberculosis (TB) by _______. Of the estimated 4.3 million people who are “missed” by
health care systems, India, as per successive global TB reports, alone has one million “missing”.
However, as per Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s commitment, India has set its sights on achieving the
End TB goal five years earlier than the global deadline.
In a dramatic leap towards that aim, India has managed to trace 70 per cent — around 7 lakh TB patients
— in the last year, with a combination of incentives for doctors, expansion of diagnostic network, nutrition
support for patients and a legal provision to punish non-notification of patients by private sector doctors.
In 2018, India passed an order that said failure by clinical establishments to notify a tuberculosis patient
to the nodal officer and local public health staff can be punished with a jail term of six months to two
years. However, the provision, officials say, is sparingly used as the idea is not to harrass.
The National Strategic Plan for TB Elimination 2017-[1] says, “India has been engaged in TB control
activities for more than 50 years. Yet TB continues to be India’s severest health crisis. TB kills an
estimated 480,000 Indians every year and more than 1,400 every day. India also has more than a million
‘missing’ cases every year that are not notified and most remain either undiagnosed or unaccountably
and inadequately diagnosed and treated in the private sector.”
30. Which bacteria is responsible for causing TB?

(a) Actinobacteria tuberculosis (b) Mycobacteriaceae tuberculosis
(c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (d) None of the above
31. In which city National Tuberculosis Institute is situated?

(a) Delhi (b) Mumbai (c) Bangalore (d) Hyderabad
32. What is the deadline for National Strategic Plan for TB Elimination – [1]?
(a) 2022 (b) 2023 (c) 2024 (d) 2025
33. On which day the world TB day is celebrated?

(a) 24th March (b) 25th March (c) 24TH April (d) 25th April
34. Where was the first ever high-level meeting on tuberculosis held in?
(a) New York (b) Geneva (c) London (d) Washington
(Q.35-Q.39): The Indian Air Force (IAF) and the [1] have joined forces to commence the fifth edition of
Exercise Indradhanush.
EX Indradhanush – V 2020 is being conducted at Air Force Station Hindan, India, and will conclude on 29
February.
The theme of this year’s joint exercise is ‘Base Defence and Force Protection’. It highlights the recent
terror threats to military establishments.
Indradhanush will allow the IAF and [1] to strategise and share information, as well as learn from each
other’s operational experience. Through this exercise, the two airforces can plan scenarios and train on
tactics to counter terror threats and protect their installations.
Additionally, the forces will share their training philosophies and best practices along with contemporary
technologies.
The [1] team will include 36 specialised combatants of the [1] Regiment, whereas the IAF team will
comprise 42 combatants of the GARUD Force.
35. Exercise Indradhanush was last conducted in __ in UK.

(a) 2018 (b) 2017 (c) 2016 (d) 2015

(a) Air Force One (b) Royal Canadian Air Force
(c) British Royal Air Force (d) Russian Air Force
37. Who was the first Indian Air Force chief?

(a) Birender Singh Dhanoa (b) Subroto Mukerjee
(c) Rakesh Kumar Singh Bhadauria (d) Arup Raha
38. The Air Force Day is celebrated every year on ____, the day Indian Air Force was officially established in
1932.
(a) October 8 (b) December 21 (c) January 3 (d) April 2
39. Who among the following is the current Defence Minister of India?
(a) Rajnath Singh (b) Amit Shah
(c) Harsimrat Kaur Badal (d) Santosh K Gangwar
MOCK CLAT #20
(Q.1-Q.5): India has postponed the launch of its latest earth observation satellite "GISAT-1" onboard
powerful geosynchronous rocket due to "technical reasons", a day before its scheduled lift-off from the
spaceport of Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
"The launch of GISAT-1 onboard (1), planned for March 05, 2020, is postponed due to technical reasons.
Revised launch date will be informed in due course," the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
said in a statement.
The city-headquartered space agency, however, did not elaborate on the technical reasons that forced
the postponement of its first launch this year from Sriharikota.
The 2,268 kg "state-of-the-art agile" (2) that would operate from geostationary orbit, was tipped to
continuously observe land, ocean and atmospheric parameters at high resolution and send near real-time
images of earth immediately unlike remote sensing satellites which would take at least 14 days.
It was earlier planned for launch onboard (3), which is equal to the height of a 16-storey building, at 5.
43 pm on Thursday from the second launch pad of (4)
Scientists at ISRO for the first time designed the Geo- Stationary Launch Vehicle with a four-metre
diameter ogive shaped payload fairing (which houses the satellite) to accommodate a larger spacecraft.
Though India already has a number of earth observation satellites, these generally operate from low
earth orbits covering a relatively smaller region at a given time.
Since sectors like meterology and disaster management require imaging large areas of earth and
atmosphere very frequently, GISAT-1 was planned to be put in the geostationary orbit for seamless
observation of land, ocean and atmospheric parameters at a relatively higher resolution.
According to the space agency, GISAT-1 will facilitate near real-time observation of the Indian sub-
continent, under cloud-free condition, at frequent intervals.
The previous launch by ISRO in 2020 was telecommunication satellite GSAT-30 was from French Guiana
by Ariane-5VA-251 rocket in January.
In December 2019, ISRO launched the RISAT-2BR, an enhanced vision of a radar imaging satellite
RISAT-2B.
The postponed launch would have been the 14th flight of GSLV, eighth mission equipped with
indigeneous cryogenic upperstage and 76th launch vehicle mission from Sriharikota.
1. The satellite refered to in this passage was due to launch from which space center?
(a) Satish Dhawan Space Centre (b) K. Sivan Space Centre
(c) Sivanakota Space Centre (d) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
2. What is the full form of GISAT-1?

(a) Geosynchronous Satellite 1 (b) Geo Imaging Satellite 1
(c) Geo Information Satellite 1 (d) Geographic Information Satellite 1
3. What is the full form of GSLV?

(a) Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle
(b) Geo Satellite Launch Vehicle
(c) German Satellite Launch Vehicle
(d) Go Satellite Launch Vehicle
4. The GISAT-1 satellite was to be launched by which Vehicle?

(a) PSLV 10 (b) GSLV- A15 (c) GSLV-F10 (d) PSLV 15
5. At What altitude will GISAT-1 will be operating?

(a) 35,000 km (b) 40,000 km (c) 38,000 km (d) 36,000 km
(Q.6-Q.12): Russia had supported a recommendation to deepen OPEC+ global oil supply curbs to
compensate for a drop in demand caused by the [1]. A technical panel that advises the Organization of
Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) and its allies led by Russia proposed a provisional cut in output of
600,000 barrels per day (bpd), three sources told Reuters earlier. That is about 0.6 per cent of global
supply and would extend current curbs of 1.7 million bpd.
As a result of this the oil prices have gone up. Cut to recent development - OPEC and non-OPEC allies
failed to agree on how much oil production to cut, with Russia reportedly refusing to give the green light
to the deepest supply cuts since the global financial crisis.

(a) Iran-US crisis (b) Coronavirus threat
(c) Middle East crisis (d) Environmental crisis
7. Where is the headquarters of the OPEC located?

(a) Brussels (b) Riyadh (c) Vienna (d) Dubai
8. What quantity cut has been recommended by the OPEC+ Joint Technical Committee till the end of 2020?
(a) 1.5 million bpd (b) 1.8 million bpd (c) 2.1 million bpd (d) 2.4 million bpd
9. Which of the following countries has made the biggest output cut of the OPEC countries, voluntarily
holding its output to 400,000 beneath its quota?
(a) Kuwait (b) Saudi Arabia (c) UAE (d) Oman
10. From which of the following is the Brent Crude extracted?

(a) North Sea (b) Red Sea
(c) Mediterranean Sea (d) Baltic Sea
11. How many members are there in the OPEC+ group?

(a) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (d) 25
12. How many members are there in OPEC?

(a) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17
(Q.13-Q.17): A Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court has held that land acquisition proceedings
under the 1894 Act will not be deemed to have lapsed under Section 24(2) of the Right to Fair
Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, if the
authorities have tendered the compensation by deposit in the Treasury.
A five-judge Bench, led by Justice Arun Mishra, held that landowners, who had refused to accept
compensation or who sought reference for higher compensation, cannot claim that the acquisition
proceedings had lapsed under Section 24(2) of the 2013 Act.
With this, the Constitution Bench has affirmed the February 2018 ruling on Section 24 by a three-judge
Bench, led by Justice Mishra himself, in the Indore Development Authority case. The Bench has
overruled an earlier co-ordinate Bench ruling in the Pune Municipal Corporation case of 2014.
The Supreme Court on Friday reaffirmed its February 2018 ruling on Section 24 on land acquisition
compensation. The five-judge Constitution Bench was interpreting Section 24 (2) which concerns land
acquisition compensation awards made five years “prior or more” to the coming of existence of the 2013
Act, which replaced the 1894 law.
The new Act, which came into existence on January 1, 2014 replaced the colonial 1894 law. The
provision said that in such cases, if the physical possession has not been taken “or” the compensation is
not paid, the acquisition proceeding is “deemed to have lapsed”. The government, if it so wishes, would
have to initiate “fresh acquisition proceedings” under the new Act of 2013, which provides for “fair
compensation”.
The 319-page judgment authored by Justice Mishra, however, said compensation would be considered
paid if the amount is put in the Treasury. There was no obligation that the amount should be deposited in
the court in order to sustain the land acquisition proceedings under the 2013 Act. Further, the court held
that a land acquisition proceeding under Section 24(2) would only lapse if the authorities have neither
taken physical possession nor paid the compensation due to the landowner for five or more years prior to
January 1, 2014. For this, an “or” in the Section was “interpreted” as an “and”.
13. Which statement is true regarding the constitution bench?

(a) a bench consisting of more than 3 judges
(b) a bench consisting at least 5 judges
(c) a bench consisting at least 7 judges
(d) a bench consisting at least 11 judges
14. Which article of the Constitution of India talks about the constitution bench?
(a) Article 142 (b) Article 143 (c) Article 144 (d) Article 145
15. If a judgment is said to be overruled, which of the following statement is true?

(a) The law laid down in the overruled judgment ceases to operate.
(b) The new law laid down in the overruling judgment will come into force.
(c) The law laid down in the overruled judgment operates irrespective of its being overruled.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
16. Which article of the Constitution of India talks about the right to property?
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 300 (c) Article 300 A (d) None of the above
17. Which article of the Constitution of India talks about the acquisition of land and compensation in lieu of
such acquisition?
(a) Article 31 (b) Article 31A (c) Article 31B (d) Article 3C
(Q.18-Q.22): The preliminary hearings at the International Court of Justice (ICJ) seeking guarantees of
basic protection for Myanmar’s Rohingya Muslims arguably offer only symbolic hope to this long-suffering
community. Yet, the lengthy legal process at the ICJ on the plight of thousands forcibly exiled in refugee
camps in Bangladesh is key to forcing accountability on Yangon.
The case brought by [1], on behalf of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation, pertains to alleged
genocide in [2] committed by the Myanmarese military – Tatmadaw. The forces have insisted that their
actions were merely in response to the armed insurgency, notably by the Arakan Rohingya Salvation
Army.
The UN and several rights groups have documented orchestrated incidents of torched villages, mass
rape and other atrocities by the military, forcing over 700,000 Rohingya to flee to Bangladesh.
Rendering the lot of the Rohingya in Myanmar’s Rakhine state particularly vulnerable is the denial of
citizenship and the reference by nationalist sections to them as [3]. Oddly enough, arguing the defence of
the junta’s actions at the ICJ was Nobel Peace Laureate and Myanmar’s leader Aung San Suu Kyi,
whose National League for Democracy swept to power in 2015.
18. Which of the following terms is used by the Myanmar Government to describe the operations of
Tatmadaw against the Rohingyas by them?
(a) “Genocide operations” (b) “Homogenizing operation”
(c) “Clearence operations” (d) “Anti-terror operations”
19. Which of the following would fill [3]?

(a) Illegal Hindu immigrants (b) Illegal Muslim invaders
(c) Illegal Christian encroachers (d) Illegal Bengali immigrants
20. Who is the President of Myanmar?

(a) Aung San Suu Kyi (b) Min Aung Hlaing
(c) Win Myint (d) Htin Kyaw

(a) Sudan (b) Rwanda (c) Nigeria (d) Gambia
22. [1] would fall in -
(a) Northern Africa (b) Southern Africa (c) Eastern Africa (d) Western Africa
(Q.23-Q.27): [1] said the government was abolishing in “public interest” an anti-dumping duty that was
levied on imports of a chemical called [2]. Domestic manufacturers of polyester have called the move a
huge relief for the industry, claiming they had been fighting to remove the duty for four-and-a-half years.
[2] is a crucial raw material used to make various products, including polyester fabrics. [2] makes up for
around 70-80% of a polyester product and is, therefore, important to those involved in the manufacture of
man-made fabrics or their components, according to industry executives.
This includes products like polyester staple fibre and spun yarn. Our cushions and sofas may have
polyester staple fibre fillings. Some sportswear, swimsuits, dresses, trousers, curtains, sofa covers,
jackets, car seat covers and bed sheets have a certain proportion of polyester in them.
That particular product is a raw material for many of the industries. There has been persistent demand
that they should be allowed to source that particular product at an affordable rate, even if it means
importing it. Easy availability of this “critical input” at competitive prices was desirable to unlock
“immense” potential in the [4] sector, which is seen as a “significant” employment generator.
23. Which of the following minister will replace [1]?

(a) Piyush Goyal (b) Nirmala Sitharaman
(c) Shaktikanta Das (d) Ravishankar Prasad
24. Which chemical can be replaced by [2] in the above passage?

(a) Purified Terephthalic Acid (b) Phthalic acid
(c) Polyethylene terephthalate (d) Maleic acid
25. Which of the following is true regarding anti-dumping duty?

(a) It is imposed on imported goods to protect local business.
(b) It is imposed on local goods to support imported goods.
(c) It is imposed on imported goods to earn more revenue.
26. The chemical in question is highly used in which of the following sector-
(a) Textile industry (b) Petroleum industry
(c) Cement industry (d) Mining industry
27. The move of the government is aimed at:

(a) To make local Polyethylene terephthalate available at cheap price.
(b) To make imported Polyethylene terephthalate more expensive.
(c) To decrease the price of manufacturing polyester based fabrics.
(Q.28-Q.30): The [1], Hyderabad, has launched three ocean-based specialised products/services — the
Small Vessel Advisory and Forecast Services System (SVAS), the Swell Surge Forecast System (SSFS)
and the Algal Bloom Information Service (ABIS).
[1], an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, provides a number of free services
for users in the marine realm, including fishermen. While SVAS is aimed at improving the operations of
numerous small marine vessels, particularly fishing vessels, the SSFS forewarns the coastal population
about swell waves. The coastal region experiences frequent damages caused by swell waves that
originate from the distant Southern Indian Ocean.
The ABIS provides information on harmful algal blooms that are detrimental to coastal fisheries and also
tend to cause respiratory problems in the coastal population.

(a) National Meteorological Institute
(b) National Institute of Oceanography
(c) National Climate Control and Disaster Management Corporation
(d) Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services
29. Who among the following is the Minister responsible for the Ministry of Earth Sciences?
(a) Dr. Harsh Vardhan (b) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
(c) Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi (d) Giriraj Singh
30. [1], Hyderabad is the only operational agency for the ____ region providing detailed forecast information.
(a) Indian Ocean (b) Arabian Sea (c) Bay of Bengal (d) Atlantic Ocean
(Q.31-Q.35): Defending champion Australia claimed its [1] Women’s Twenty20 Cricket World Cup title
after thrashing India by 85 runs in the final at the Melbourne Cricket Ground. The International Cricket
Council had been hoping to set a world record for the biggest attendance at a women’s sporting event,
on the occasion of International Women’s Day. The crowd figure of 86,174 fell short of the 90,185 fans
who attended the FIFA Women's World Cup final between the United States and China in Pasadena,
California, in 1999.
[2] was named as the player of the tournament. For India’s point of view though it was their 16-year old
sensation, who now currently tops the ICC Women’s T20 rankings [3].
31. Fill [1] with suitable option
(a) Third (b) Fourth (c) Fifth (d) Sixth
32. Fill [2] with suitable option
(a) Heather Knight (b) Natalie Sciver (c) Alyssa Healy (d) Beth Mooney
33. Who among the following is the coach of the Indian womens’ national cricket team?
(a) Woorkeri Raman (b) Ramesh Powar
(c) Narendra Hirwani (d) Raman Lamba
34. Who out of the following will replace [3]?
(a) Taniya Bhatia (b) Veda Krishnamurthy
(c) Shafali Verma (d) Jemima Rodrigues
35. Who was the only woman to score a century in this World Cup?
(a) Heather Knight (b) Laura Wolvaardt (c) Smriti Mandhana (d) Beth Mooney
(Q.36-Q.39): India's world class facility for training asteroids will come up not in any metropolis but at [1],
on the Bengaluru Pune NH 4 in Chitradurga district of Karnataka.
Indian Space Research Organisation has proposed 2700 Cr master plan to create top infrastructure that
will house its young Human Space Flight Centre(HSFC) [2], ISRO Chairman told “Everything connected
with events and planning of Human Spaceflight Programme(HSP) will shift to our 400 acre campus at
[1]”. For having a sustained HSP and a large number of facilities for training astronauts ISRO has sought
the budget of Gaganyaan. In present scenario, we have to pay a hefty amount to train young Astronauts
. The first set of four astronaut candidates, for the first Gaganyaan mission of 2022 , are to train in [3].
36. India's first astronaut training center is proposed at (1). Fill the (1) with a suitable option.
(a) Channapatna (b) Hosadurga (c) Sira (d) Challakere
37. Fill [2] with a suitable option.
(a) Dr K .Sivan (b) A S Kiran Kumar (c) G N Nair (d) W S Ray
38. What is the government's budget allocation for the Gaganyaan mission?
(a) 8000 Cr (b) 10000 Cr (c) 12000 Cr (d) 14000 Cr
39. Where will be the astronauts for Gaganyaan be trained – [3]?

(a) France (b) USA (c) Russia (d) Germany
MOCK CLAT #21
Passage (Q.1-Q.5) Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution [1] announced that
a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) will be established by the first week of April. This was
after the Minister held consultations with industry representatives about the role and functioning of a
proposed CCPA.
The authority is being constituted under [2]. And the act repeals [3], and seeks to widen its scope in
addressing consumer concerns. The new Act recognises offences such as providing false information
regarding the quality or quantity of a good or service, and misleading advertisements. It also specifies
action to be taken if goods and services are found “dangerous, hazardous or unsafe”.
The CCPA, introduced in the new Act, aims to protect the rights of the consumer by [3] The CCPA will
have the powers to inquire or investigate into matters relating to violations of consumer rights or unfair
trade practices suo motu, or on a complaint received, or on a direction from the central government.
Sources said the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution is in the process of finalising
the rules relating to the composition and functioning of the CCPA, and these are expected to be notified
by April.
1. Who is the current Cabinet Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution?
(a) Ram Vilas Paswan (b) Raosaheb Danve
(c) Sharad Pavar (d) K.V Thomas
2. On which day National Consumer Day is observed?

(a) 24th December (b) 25th December
(c) 26th December (d) 27th December
3. The CCPA aims to protect the rights of consumers by;

(a) Cracking down on unfair trade practices
(b) Checking false and misleading advertisements
(c) Neither A or B
(d) Both A and B
4. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 replaced which earlier act?

(a) The Consumer Protection Act, 1982
(b) The Consumer Protection Act, 1983
(c) The Consumer Protection Act, 1985
(d) The Consumer Protection Act, 1986
5. What was the theme of National Consumer Day celebrated in 2019?

(a) Alternate Consumer Grievance/Dispute Redressal
(b) Building a Digital World Consumers can Trust
(c) Making Digital Marketplaces Fairer
Passage (Q.6-Q.10) The Union Cabinet has approved the [1], which, the government claims will regulate
the business of pesticides and compensate farmers in case of losses from the use of spurious agro
chemicals.
This will also empower farmers to get all information as the data would be in open source and in all
languages.
In February 2018, the Centre released a draft of the [1] that aims to replace the existing [3].
A key proposal in the 2018 version was to raise penalties on the sale of prohibited or spurious pesticides
to Rs.50 lakh and up to five years’ imprisonment, from the current ₹2,000 and up to three years’
imprisonment. It is unclear if these provisions have been retained in the latest version of Bill that was
cleared by the Union Cabinet.
If there is any loss because of the spurious or low quality of pesticides then there is a provision for
compensations. If required, the government will form a central fund which will take care of compensation.
6. Which bill can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?

(a) Pesticides Management Bill, 2020
(b) Insecticides Management Bill, 2020
(c) Weed Management Bill, 2020
(d) Pesticides Control Bill, 2020
7. Who is the current Information and Broadcasting minster of India – [2]?

(a) Ravishankar Prasad (b) Prakash Javdekar
(c) Nitin Gadkari (d) Sadanand Gowda
8. The business of pesticide is governed by which law – [3]?

(a) Agriculture Act, 1968 (b) Pesticides Act, 1968
(c) Insecticides Act, 1968 (d) Insecticides and Pesticides Management Act, 1968
9. How many types of pesticides have been classified by the World Health Organisation?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7
10. When a bill passed by the parliament finally becomes the Act?
(a) When it is passed by Lok Sabha (b) When it is passed by Rajya Sabha
(c) When it is passed both houses (d) When it receives the assent of the president
Passage (Q.11-Q.17): Led by the US’s International Development Finance Corporation (DF(C), the Blue
Dot network was jointly launched by the US, [1] and [2] in November 2019 on the sidelines of the 35th
ASEAN Summit in [3]. It is meant to be a multi-stakeholder initiative that aims to bring governments, the
private sector and civil society together to promote “high quality, trusted standards for global
infrastructure development”.
The network is like a “Michelin Guide” for infrastructure projects. This means that as part of this initiative,
infrastructure projects will be vetted and approved by the network depending on standards, as per which,
the projects should meet certain global infrastructure principles. The projects that are approved will get a
“Blue Dot”, thereby setting universal standards of excellence, which will attract private capital to projects
in developing and emerging economies.

(a) Germany (b) Israel (c) Japan (d) Canada

(a) Australia (b) France (c) UK (d) Saudi Arabia

(a) Singapore (b) Thailand (c) Malaysia (d) Indonesia
14. The Blue Dot Network seeks to counter _______

(a) the BRI (b) the QUAD
(c) the Look East Policy (d) the Golden Quadrilateral
15. Since which year was the _______ (answer to Question 3.4) adopted?
(a) 2011 (b) 2012 (c) 2013 (d) 2014
16. Which of the following regions does the Blue Dot Initiative target?
(a) Indian Ocean region (b) Bay of Bengal and Pacific region
(c) Indo-Pacific region (d) Arabian-Pacific region
(a) India has joined the BDN. It was agreed to in the recent visit of the US President.
(b) BDN would not offer public funds or loans for projects.
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
Passage (Q.18-Q.22) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced a draft reconstruction scheme for
the beleaguered Yes Bank, aimed at protecting depositors’ funds while bringing in the [1] as an investor.
For employees of the bank, service conditions, including remuneration, will remain the same, at least for
one year. This does not, however, include key managerial personnel, on whom the board can take a call.
The [1], which had earlier said its board was exploring an investment in Yes Bank, will pick up a [2]
stake, according to the scheme. The deal would be at a price not less than [3] per share with a face
value of Rs. 2. The SBI cannot reduce its holding below 26% before completion of three years from the
date of infusion of the capital, the RBI said. To pick up a [2] stake, the SBI will have to invest Rs. 2,450
crore.

(a) Government of India (b) SBI
(c) Life Insurance Corporation (d) Indian Banks Association

(a) 41% (b) 49% (c) 51% (d) 59%

(a) Rs. 5 (b) Rs. 7 (c) Rs. 10 (d) Rs. 12
21. The Yes Bank collapsed because it couldn’t fulfill the Basel III norms of Banking Regulation. Basel is a
city in the country of -
(a) Sweden (b) France (c) England (d) Switzerland
22. Yes Bank is the _______ largest private sector bank in India.
(a) Third (b) Fourth (c) Fifth (d) Sixth
Passage (Q.23-Q.27)The Supreme Court set aside an April 6, 2018, circular of the a central authority
that prohibited banks and entities regulated by it from providing services in relation to virtual currencies
(VCs).
“Till date, [1] has not come out with a stand that any of the entities regulated by it namely, nationalised
banks/scheduled commercial banks/cooperative banks/NBFCs, have suffered any loss or adverse effect
directly or indirectly, on account of VC exchanges,” a Bench comprising Justices Rohinton Nariman,
Aniruddha Bose and V. Ramasubramanian observed in a 180-page judgment.
Justice Ramasubramanian, who authored the ruling, found the [1] circular “disproportionate” with an
otherwise consistent stand taken by the central bank that VCs were not prohibited in the country.
Besides, the court found that the [1] did not consider the availability of alternatives before issuing the
circular.
Again, the April, 2018 circular was issued despite the fact that the central bank could not cite a single
instance in which VC exchanges “actually impacted entities regulated by [1]”. VCs are digital currencies
in which encryption techniques are used to regulate the generation of the currency units and verify the
transfer of funds, operating independently of a central bank.
Centre’s failure
Besides, the court referred to the Centre’s failure to introduce an official digital rupee despite two draft
Bills and several committees. “When the Government of India is unable to take a call despite several
committees coming up with several proposals, including two draft Bills, both of which advocated exactly
opposite positions, it is not possible for us to hold that the impugned measure [April 6, 2018 circular] is
proportionate,” Justice Ramasubramanian wrote.
The court expanded on how the Centre had been toying with plans for an official digital currency.
On November 2, 2017, the Centre constituted an Inter-Ministerial Committee, which initially
recommended the ‘Crypto-token Regulation Bill of 2018’. This Bill found a complete ban on VCs an
“extreme tool” and suggested regulatory measures. At that point, the committee was even fine with the
idea of allowing the sale and purchase of digital crypto assets at recognised exchanges.
The Supreme Court noted how the same committee did a “volte-face” in just two years.
From a permissive draft Bill, the Inter-Ministerial Committee went on to recommend a “total ban” on
private cryptocurrencies through a proposed legislation called ‘Banning of Cryptocurrency and Regulation
of Official Digital Currency Act’ in February 2019. This proposed law contemplated the creation of a digital
rupee as official currency and a legal tender by the Central government in consultation with the [1].
The court said that had this law come through, there would be an official digital currency. The Centre and
the [1] would have had monopoly over its creation and circulation.
23. Who is considered to be the founder of the first cryptocurrency?

(a) Sang Nakoto (b) Satoshi Nakamoto
(c) Aiko Nakoro (d) Nove of the above
24. Which is considered to be the first ever cryptocurrency?

(a) Bitcoin (b) Altcoin (c) Stablecoin (d) Ethereum
25. Which cryptocurrency has been proposed by the Facebook?

(a) Ripple (b) Litecoin (c) Libra (d) None of the above
26. Which central authority exclusively regulates currency in India?

(a) The Finance Ministry (b) The Central Bank of India
(c) The Reserve Bank of India (d) Department of Expenditure
27. Which of the following statement is true with respect to cryptocurrencies?

(a) A cryptocurrency is a digital or virtual currency.
(b) Cryptocurrency is high volatile.
(c) Cryptocurrency can be stored in digital wallets.
(d) All of the above.
Passage (Q.28-Q.32) Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s assertive stance on the need for all countries to
walk the talk on climate change action is to be welcomed as a signal of India’s own determination to align
domestic policy with its international commitments. Mr. Modi’s comments at the UN Climate Action
Summit have turned the spotlight on not just the national contributions pledged under the [Z] of the UN
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), but also the possibility of India declaring
enhanced ambition on cutting greenhouse gas emissions under the pact next year. Several aspects
place the country in the unenviable position of having to reconcile conflicting imperatives: along with a
declared programme of scaling up electricity from renewable sources to 175 GW by 2022 and even to
450 GW later, there is a parallel emphasis on expanding coal-based generation to meet peaks of
demand that cannot be met by solar and wind power. Advancing the national climate agenda in the spirit
of Mr. Modi’s action-over-words idiom requires the Central government to come up with a strong
domestic action plan. The existing internal framework, is more than a decade old. It lacks the legal
foundation to incorporate the key national commitment under the [Z]: to reduce the emissions intensity of
economic growth by a third, by 2030. It is equally urgent to arrive at a funding plan for all States to help
communities adapt to more frequent climate-linked disasters such as cyclones, floods and droughts.
There is, no doubt, wide support for India’s position that it cannot be held responsible for the stock of
atmospheric carbon dioxide influencing the climate; even today, per capita emissions remain below the
global average. Paradoxically, the country is a victim of climate events on the one hand and a major
emitter of GHGs in absolute terms on the other.
In the summit, Mr. Modi chose to rely on the country’s culture of environmentalism to reassure the
international community on its ability to act. In coming years, national actions will have to be
demonstrably effective in curbing carbon emissions.
28. Where was the UN Climate Action Summit for the year 2019 was held?
(a) Paris (b) New York (c) London (d) Tokyo
29. The _____, a policy document published in 2008 by the Government of India, aims at creating awareness
among the representatives of the public, different agencies of the government, scientists, industry and
the community as a whole, on the threats of climate change and proposing the necessary steps to
counter these threats.
(a) National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)
(b) National Adaption Fund on Climate Change (NAFCC)
(c) Climate Action Plan (CAP)
(d) Swachh Bharat Mission
30. In the above passage, the name of the international climate policy has been redacted by ‘[Z]’. What is the
name of the policy?
(a) Kyoto Protocol (b) Paris agreement (c) Brazil accord (d) Tokyo protocol
31. What is India’s rank in the 2019 Climate Change Performance Index presented on 10th December 2019
at the COP25 climate summit?
(a) 56th (b) 45th (c) 20th (d) 9th
32. As of June 2019, __ and __ are responsible for more than 40% of the world’s CO2 emissions.
(a) India and USA (b) India and China (c) China and USA (d) Qatar and India
Passage (Q.33-Q.36) Man Kaur will be conferred the prestigious [1] for her exceptional contribution
towards women empowerment.
The country’s highest civilian honour for women will be presented by President Ram Nath Kovind on
International Women’s Day, Kaur’s 82-year-old son Gurdev Singh told PTI on Saturday.
“It is a matter of great pleasure to inform you that you have been selected for the prestigious Puraskar,
2019, for your exceptional contribution towards women empowerment. The Puraskar carries an
honorarium of Rs 2 lakh and a Certificate,” according to the letter received by Man Kaur from the Union
Ministry of Women and Child Development.
33. With which award will Man kaur be awarded?

(a) Padmashri Award (b) President’s Award
(c) Veer Balika Award (d) Nari Shakti Award
34. Which Ministry in India looks after the Empowerment of women?

(a) Ministry of Social welfare
(b) Ministry of Defence
(c) Ministry of Culture and values
(d) Union Ministry of women and child development
35. In which place will Man kaur be presented with her award?
(a) Raj Bhawan (b) Rashtrapati Bhawan
(c) Red Fort (d) Ministry of women and child development.
36. Which of the following day is celebrated as the International Women’s Day ?
(a) March 8 (b) November 19 (c) august 3 (d) September 5
Passage (Q.37-Q.39) Indian women's rugby player Sweety Kumari has been picked as the 'International
young player of the year' by women's rugby website called Scrumqueens.
She hails from village Nawada in Barh tehsil of [1], and her father is a handy man while her mother works
for angandwadi, reported Indian Express.
The 19-year-old was earlier picked as 'Continent’s fastest player' by Asia Rugby. She started off as a
sprinter following the footsteps of her brother and later switched to Rugby on insistence of a rugby coach.
At 14, when came to know about rugby, she organised a team, entered the state championship. Three
years later, she was part of India's U-17 team and in 2019 made the cut into the senior team. (PT)
source edited and recreated from
37. Which of the following cities can be filled in (1)?

(a) Nalanda (b) Darbhanga (c) Gaya (d) Patna
38. Rugby World cup was instituted in the year -

(a) 1980 (b) 1975 (c) 1987 (d) 1990
39. Which nation was the winner of Rugby World cup, 2019 for men?
(a) America (b) South Africa (c) Japan (d) New Zealand
MOCK CLAT #22
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): In what could be a sign of the fast-improving ecosystem of Odisha’s [1] lake, India’s
largest brackish water lagoon, [2] Dolphins are now populating newer areas of the 1165 sq km water
body, Odisha wildlife officials said.
[1] is the single largest habitat of the slow-swimming dolphins in the world that got their names from [2]
river in Myanmar where they were first sighted.
“The direct sighting of 146 dolphins proves that the aquatic mammals are colonising new areas in central
and southern parts of the lake where they were not seen before. The dolphins were earlier seen only in
Satpada area, but now they are being seen in areas near Kalijai and Rambha. Removal of obstructions
like prawn gherries (netted enclosures in the lake for cultivation of shrimps) in the lake may have helped.
There are tell-tale signs of the dolphins migrating from Satpada side to other areas. Once they get bigger
area, then the population may increase in next couple of years,” said Sushanta Nanda, chief executive
officer of [1] Development Authority.
Though around six varieties of dolphins are found in India’s rivers, lakes and around coastline, wildlife
researchers say so far there is certainty about the numbers of Gangetic river dolphins and [2] dolphins
only.
Wildlife officials said freeing a large part of the lake from the net enclosures had not just led to migration
of dolphins to newer areas, but was also reflected in increased congregation of migratory birds in the lake
this year. Earlier this month, at least 11 lakh birds belonging to 184 species were counted in the lake, an
all-time high.
Conservationists, however, said the sightings of dolphins in newer areas may not mean anything for the
mammals considering they way tourists were hounding them out for a better view.
1. Which lake can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?

(a) Kanjia lake (b) Chilika lake (c) Tampara lake (d) Ansupa lake
2. Which species of dolphin can be replaced by [2] in the above passage?

(a) Baiji dolphin
(b) Ganges doplhin
(c) Indo-Pacific humpbacked dolphin
(d) Irrawaddy dolphin
3. Which of the following is true regarding dolphin mentioned in 2nd question?

(a) They are ‘Endangered’ as per the IUCN Red List.
(b) They are found in coastal areas in South and Southeast Asia, and rivers including the Mahakam (
(Indonesian Borneo) and the Mekong (China).
(c) Both a) and b)
4. Which of the following true regarding the above mentioned lake?

(a) In 1981, it was designated the first Indian wetland of international importance under the Ramsar (b
Convention.
(b) It is world’s largest salt-water lagoon.
(c) India’s biggest hydro power plant is built on it
(d) This lake is also known as floating lake
5. Which dolphin is the national aquatic animal of India?

(a) Ganges dolphin
(b) Indo-Pacific humpbacked dolphin
(c) Irrawaddy dolphin
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): Airports Authority of India (AAI) is in the process of seeking environmental
clearance from the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change for three, first-of-its-kind in the
country, water aerodromes in [1].
The AAI intends to develop water aerodromes in Long Island, Swaraj Island and Shaheed Island with a
total investment of ₹50 crore and sought clearance for preparing the Terms of References separately for
three airports.
These airports are part of the ten water aerodromes that the Centre intends to develop.
"It was recommended that 'ToR' along with Public Hearing prescribed by the Expert Appraisal Committee
(Infrastructure-2) should be considered for preparation of EIA/EMP report for the above mentioned
project in addition to all the relevant information as per the 'Generic Structure of EIA' given in Appendix III
and IIIA in the EIA Notification, 2006," an Expert Appraisal Committee under the ministry said in its
website.
The incoming of tourists at proposed project locations will lead to increase in tourism and hotel business
at local level.
The proposed projects will serve employment to local people.
The civil aviation ministry recently said it has invited bids for three unserved airports/airstrips in [1], and
one underserved airport in Lakshadweep Island under the fourth round of the regional air connectivity
scheme.
Director General of Civil Aviation last year issued licensing norms for water aerodromes, where
amphibian planes can land and takeoff.
6. Which island can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?

(a) Elephanta Island (b) Diu Island
(c) Majuli Island (d) Andaman and Nicobar
7. Which is the nearest landmass to Nicobar Island?

(a) Myanmar (b) Sumatra (c) Java (d) Borneo
8. Which is the southernmost point of India?

(a) Indira point (b) Vayu point
(c) South Andaman and Nicobar (d) Kanyakumari
9. Which is the only active volcano in India?

(a) Narcondam Island (b) Barren Island
(c) Chin Hills (d) Etna Hills
10. Saddle peak' is the highest peak of Andaman and Nicobar islands located in-
(a) Great Nicobar (b) Middle Andaman (c) Little Andaman (d) North Andaman
Passage (Q.11-Q.15): A Bill to regulate business of pesticides will be introduced in the ongoing session
of Parliament.
"As far as farmers are concerned because that is our primary concern, Pesticides Management Bill will
be introduced in this session of Parliament. The minister informed that a Bill in this regard was presented
before and that effort was done. Bill was presented. It was discussed thoroughly in Standing Committee.
After taking cue from standing committee recommendations, this new bill has been drafted.
The minister said farmers would essentially get the information from the dealers selling pesticides. The
minister informed that all pesticide manufacturers have to be registered and bound by the new Act, once
it is passed. Even their advertisements will be regulated that there should be no confusion or no cheating
in any way of the farmers.
The minister said this is an important bill for farming community and yet another step by the Modi
government for the welfare of farmers.
11. What is the name of the bill being discussed?

(a) The Pesticide Management Bill, 2017
(b) The Insecticide Act, 2017
(c) The Farming Act, 2017
12. What are/is the fundamental goals of the said bill?

(a) To ensure the availability of quality pesticides in free of cost
(b) To prevent or minimize the contamination of agricultural commodities from the pesticide residue.
(c) To make awareness that pesticides should not be used
(d) To restrict the import of pesticides
13. The said bill plans to supplant which ancient law?

(a) The Insecticides Act, 1968
(b) The Pesticide Act, 1968
(c) The Fertilizers Act, 1968
(d) The Fertilizers Act, 1978
14. Aside from managing the pesticides this bill additionally looks to?
(a) The Bill stipulates that any pesticide sold to a farmer, he must be informed about the pesticide.
(b) Under the Bill the affected users are entitled to get compensation under the provisions of the
Consumer Protection Act.
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
15. When was the first time this bill was introduced?
(a) 2006 (b) 2007 (c) 2008 (d) 2009
Passage (Q.16-Q.20): After a few judges spoke on the cardinality of the right to dissent and protest
peacefully, the Supreme Court ruled that one’s right to protest could not infringe upon the rights of others
as it upheld the Uttarakhand high court verdict initiating stringent action against lawyers.
Uttarakhand lawyers had moved the SC claiming that the HC verdict violated their right to free speech to
go on strike court work to protest against issues concerning them. They said it was a mode of peaceful
representation to express grievances of the lawyer community.
“To go on strike or boycott courts cannot be justified under the guise of right to freedom of speech and
expression under of the Constitution,” the SC bench said.
A PIL against the strikes was entertained by the HC, which passed a series of directions on the line of
law settled by the apex court banning strikes by lawyers. It also warned of contempt of court proceedings
against errant advocates.
The bench also took suo motu cognisance of lawyers resorting to strikes in several parts of the country
despite a series of judgments by the SC banning strikes by advocates. The court criticised the inaction of
BCI and state councils against lawyers indulging in strikes. “The day has now come for the BCI and bar
councils of states to step in and take concrete steps,” it said.
Writing the judgment endorsing the steps taken by the HC against lawyers of three districts of
Uttarakhand, Justice Shah said, “We direct all concerned and district bar associations to comply with the
directions issued by the high court in its true spirit. It is directed that if it is found that there is any breach
of any of the directions issued by the high court in the impugned judgment and order, a serious view shall
be taken and the consequences shall follow, including punishment under the Contempt of Courts Act.”
16. Which article in the Constitution of India provides right of peaceful protest?
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 20 (c) Article 21 (d) None of the above
17. Why Uttarakhand HC initiated stringent actions against lawyers?

(a) They are protesting violently
(b) They are hampering justice delivery system
(c) They have demanded for the closure of HC
(d) They wanted to have an increment in the salaries
18. How many Fundamental Right does a citizen of India enjoys?

(a) Five (b) Six (c) Seven (d) Four
19. What does BCI stands for?

(a) Barrister Council of India (b) Bar Council of Indians
(c) Bar Council of India (d) None of the above
20. Fundamental rights of an Indian Citizen can be suspended by______ under article ____.
(a) Parliament,329 (b) Supreme Court,349
(c) President,359 (d) Prime Minister,369
Passage (Q.21-Q.25): The [1] agreement is signed between the Government of India, Presided by the
Home Minister for Home Affairs, Shri Amit Shah, Governments of Tripura and Mizoram and
[1]representatives in New Delhi on 17 January, 2020. In the occasion Shri Zoramthanga, the Chief
Minister of Mizoram, Shri Biplab Kumar Deb, the CM of Tripura, Shri Himanta Biswa Sarma, Chairman of
NEDA, Shri Pradyot Kishore Debbarma, Chairman of TIPRA, representatives of [1] tribes and some other
senior officers were present.
What is the [1] crisis?
During [4], about 5000 [1] families i.e. around 30,000 [1] tribals were displaced because of ethnic
violence in Mizoram. To permanently rehabilitate these refugees, the Government of India, since 2010
has been making sustained efforts. Till 2014, around 1622 [1] families returned to Mizoram in different
batches. Further, an agreement was also signed on 3 July, 2018 between the Union Government, the
two-State Governments and representatives of [1] refugees decided to increase the aid that were given
to the families.
Dance is an integral part of their life. The most attractive form of dance is Hozagiri with melodious tune of
flute. Ethnically Reangs are divided into two major clans namely Meska and Molsoi. They speak "Kaubru"
language which has a tonal effect of Kuki language and broadly it is Kok-Borok dialect.
It is said that they are polytheists and believe in multiple Gods and Goddesses. They pray different
deities like Mwtaikotorma, Tuibuma, Mailoma, Ganga etc. They also believe in spirits and existence of
soul. We can say that by religion they are Hindus. Let us tell you that among Reangs followers of
Vaishnavism are also found in good numbers.
Like other Tripuri tribes of Tripura, the marriage system is similar. There is no dowry system. They are
endogamous and don’t marry outside their community. The village council chief is “RAI” who permits
Divorce and Widow Marriage. They cremate their dead bedside of the river or chara after observing
series of rites and rituals and funeral procession.
21. Which tribe can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?

(a) Bodo (b) Kuki (c) Bru-Reang (d) Garo
22. Which of the following is true regarding above said tribe?

(a) In Meghalaya, they are recognised as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group.
(b) For their livelihood they pursue Hilltop Jhum Cultivation.
(c) They practice many rituals similar to Telangana tribe.
(d) They are settled tribes
23. Which of the following is true regarding the agreement?

1. Under the agreement, the centre has announced a package of Rs. 600 crore under this agreement.
2. Each family will be given Rs. 5,000 cash per month for two years.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
24. What is the starting year of crisis that can be replaced by [4] in the above passage?
(a) 1996 (b) 1997 (c) 1998 (d) 1999
25. Which of the following statement is true regarding tribe mentioned by [1] ?
(a) It is the largest tribe of Meghalaya
(b) It is the largest tribe of North East.
(c) It is the second largest tribe of Tripura.
(d) This tribe inhabitant are immigrated from North America
Passage (Q.26-Q.30): The International Day of Happiness is celebrated across the world every year.
World Happiness Day theme 2020 is all about being happier together. As nowadays migration is
increasing, people from different countries and backgrounds are living side by side. Communities are now
made up of people with several beliefs like religious, political, etc.
International Day of Happiness: History and Significance
The first-ever International Day of Happiness was celebrated with the launch of UNDO Happiness. Ten
Steps to Global Happiness, was declared as the global campaign themes that year and it has since
become an annual tradition. These ten steps to global happiness are ten easy steps any individual,
organization, or country, can take on the international day of happiness, and throughout happiness week,
to celebrate the international day of happiness, while also advancing the happiness, wellbeing, and
freedom of all life on earth by 2050, when the United Nations forecasts global population to reach 10
billion.
The UN in 2015 launched 17 Sustainable Development Goals, which seek to end poverty, reduce
inequality, and protect our planet. These are the three key aspects to lead well-being and happiness.
26. When International Day of Happiness is celebrated every year?

(a) March 20 (b) March 19 (c) March 21 (d) None of the above
27. The International Day of Happiness was founded by?

(a) James Gun (b) Jayme Illien (c) James Webb (d) None of the Above
28. A new economic framework was proposed in 2006 by the CEO of the United Nations New World Order
project for encouragement of Happiness for the 21st century and past, to supplant old world Economic
frameworks. What is the name of that framework?
(a) Capitalism (b) Workism (c) Happytalism (d) Communism
29. What is the theme of this year International Day of Happiness?

(a) Happiness for all
(b) Happiness for all, for ever
(c) Happiness for the deserving
30. In which year the UN did adopted the resolution for the International Day of Happiness?
(a) 2011 (b) 2010 (c) 2012 (d) 2014
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): The Election Commission (EC) is not in favour of State funding of elections as it
will not be able to prohibit or check candidates’ own expenditure over and above provided for by States.
In a written reply to Lok Sabha, Minister of State for Finance Anurag Thakur said the ECI’s view is that for
addressing the real issues, there have to be radical changes in the provisions regarding receipts of funds
by political parties and the manner in which such funds are spent by them so as to provide for complete
transparency in the matter.
Thakur further said that in order to discourage cash transactions and bring in transparency in the sources
of funding of political parties, the Government has amended the Income Tax Act and limited anonymous
cash donations to Rs [1].
The Government introduced the ‘Electoral Bond Scheme 2018’ to establish a transparent political funding
system in the country with well established audit trail.
In another reply, he said the number of assessees filing Income Tax Returns (ITRs) has consistently
increased during each of the last three years as well as in the current year.
As per the data provided by him, the total number of e-returns (excluding revised returns) were 5.18 crore
in assessment year 2016-17 and 6.35 crore during Assessment Year (up to Feb 15, 2020).
The belated returns of AY 2019-20 can be submitted up to March 31, 2020,
therefore, this number will increase further, the Minister said.
Thakur said the Income Tax Department has implemented the Non-Filers Monitoring System (NMS)
which assimilates and analyses in-house information as well as transactional data received from third
parties to identify such persons/entities who have undertaken high value financial transactions but have
not filed their returns.

(a) Rs. 1000 (b) Rs. 2000 (c) Rs. 3000 (d) Rs. 4000
32. Which law allows political parties to accept funds?

(a) Elections rules, 1974
(b) Representation of the People Act, 1951
(c) Regulations made by Election Commission
(d) Elections Act,1952
33. Which part of the Indian constitution deals with Election Commission?
(a) XIII (b) XIV (c) XV (d) XVI
34. Who was the first election commissioner of India?

(a) Sukumar Sen (b) TN Seshan (c) HJ Kania (d) Kalyan Sundaram
35. When was the first general election held since India became independent?
(a) 1948-49 (b) 1949-50 (c) 1950-51 (d) 1951-52
Passage (Q.36-Q.39): The idea of this autonomous institution of national importance was first mooted by
the Chief of Staff Committee in 1967 and again endorsed by the in-house Lt Gen Sethna Committee in
1982. It was revived by the Kargil Review Committee and endorsed by the Group of Ministers (GoM)
Report. The Ministry of Defence (MoD) on 23 July 2001 appointed a Committee on National Defence
University (CONDU) under the chairmanship of Late [4]. Based on GoM approval and recommendations
of CONDU made in 2002, headquarters Integrated Defence Staff was tasked to process the case through
the MoD for the establishment of [1].
It took another 8 years for the cabinet to approve it in May 2010. The foundation stone was laid on 23
May 2013 by then Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, at [3] on the land donated by the government. The
final Detailed Project Report (DPR), which was a blueprint explaining the physical construction of the
university, its act and statutes, plans for faculty development and the overall intellectual approach was
submitted a year later in 2013. As per the press release by MoD on 5 August 2016, infrastructure
development on the acquired land for this purpose had commenced in December 2015.
The draft of Bill was put online for public consultation in August 2016. The Comptroller and Auditor
General (CAG), in a report tabled in the Lok Sabha, has observed that the project cost had increased
from Rs 395 crore in May 2010 to Rs 4,007.22 crore in December 2017. Chief of Defence Staff General
Bipin Rawat, who as permanent chairman of the Chief of Staff Committee is also the pro-chancellor, has
recently brought the focus back on the [1].
36. Which university can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?

(a) Army War College
(b) Military Engineering College
(c) Indian National Defence University
(d) Armed Forces Medical College
37. Who will be the vice chancellor of University?

(a) Defence minister (b) Chief of Army Staff
(c) Chief of NavyStaff (d) Chief of Army Staff
38. In which city lies the above said university?

(a) Delhi (b) Gurugram (c) Karnal (d) Chandigarh
39. Who headed the Committee on the National Defence University (CONDU)?
(a) Vijay Keshav Gokhale (b) K. Subrahmanyam
(c) P Narahari (d) Ram S. Charan
MOCK CLAT #23
(Q.1-Q.5): The last decade was India's hottest on record with the national weather office calling the
impact of global warming "unmistakable" and extreme weather killing more than 1,500 people last year.
India, home to 1.3 billion people, is at the forefront of climate change suffering devastating floods, dire
water shortages and baking temperatures. The southern city of Chennai last year declared "day zero" as
taps ran dry.
Temperatures between 2010 and 2019 were 0.36 degrees Celsius (0.65 degrees Fahrenheit) above the
long-term average, the hottest decade since records began in 1901, the Indian Meteorological
Department said on Monday.
Extreme weather also killed more than 1,500 people last year, the seventh-hottest, the IMD said.
They included 850 people killed by heavy rain and flooding and another 350 in summer temperatures of
up to 51C (123.8F). Lighting and storms killed another 380 people.
India's five warmest years on record all fell in the last 10 years, with 2016 being the hottest.
Eleven of the 15 warmest years were also during the past 15 years, the IMD said.
The average for 2019 would have been higher were it not for record cold in northern India in December.
Last year also saw eight cyclones form over the north Indian Ocean, below the record of 10 last reached
in 1976, including five over the Arabian Sea, equalling the previous high of 1902, the IMD said.
"The impact of global warming on India is unmistakable," IMD chief MrityunjayMohapatra told the Times
of India newspaper. "The past year had extreme weather during all seasons."
The United Nations said in December that the past decade was set to be the planet's hottest since
records began. Each of the last four decades has been hotter than the preceding one.
1. What is heat wave according to World Meteorological Department?

(a) When the daily maximum temperature of 10 consecutive days exceeds average maximum
temperature by 5 degrees Celsius.
(b) When the daily maximum temperature of 10 consecutive days exceeds average maximum
(c) When the daily maximum temperature of 5 consecutive days exceeds average maximum temperature
by 5 degrees Celsius.
(d) When the daily maximum temperature of 15 consecutive days exceeds average maximum
2. Which country has recently created 1 million USD worth prizes to feed billion of people to address the
climate change threats towards food supply?
(a) Netherlands (b) Denmark (c) Norway (d) Sweden
3. Which of the following ice sheet has recorded highest temperature since 1982?
(a) Perito Moreno Glacier (b) Fitz Roy
(c) Antarctica (d) Cerro Torre
4. When World Meteorological Day is celebrated?

(a) 21 March (b) 22 March (c) 23 March (d) 24 March
5. Which of the following is known as the scientific study of climate?

(a) Meteorology (b) Climatology (c) Biogeography (d) Weather Science
(Q.6-Q.10): The much awaited Draft [1] was issued by the Ministry of Electronics & Information
Technology (“MeitY”) on August 26, 2018 for public consultation along with [2] report on ‘A Free and Fair
Digital Economy – Protecting Privacy, Empowering Indians’ (“Data Protection Committee Report”). The
said Bill contains a lot of hot issues which have created a sensation among the industries and individuals
who are going to be affected by it. One such issue which has drawn a special attention of industries and
general public is ‘Right to be Forgotten’. The said right has been incorporated in the PDP Bill on verge of
European Union’s data protection regime i.e. [3] with some modifications.
The ‘Right to be Forgotten’, as envisage under Section 27 of Bill, gives ‘data principal’ a right to restrict or
prevent continuing disclosure of his/ her personal data by ‘data fiduciary’ . Though the language of the
said right under Bill is not exactly similar to that contained under [3] but the genesis of the same has
been taken from [3].
The foundation of the ‘Right to be Forgotten’ was laid down by the European Court of Justice in the case
of Google Spain SL v/s Agencia Española de Protección de Datos& Mario Costeja Gonzalez3 (“Google
Spain Case”). The dispute in the said case arose in the year 2010 when Mr. Costeja Gonzalez lodged a
complaint against a newspaper publisher and Google with Spanish data protection agency. The case of
Mr. Costeja Gonzalez was that whenever an internet user enters his name on the Google search page,
link of two pages of La Vanguardia newspaper dated Jan. 19 and March 09, 1998 appears on the result
page. These pages contained personal information of Mr. Costeja Gonzalez relating to an attachment
proceeding for recovery of social security debt which was later resolved. In the complaint made to the
data protection agency, Mr. Gonzalez requested that La Vanguardia and Google shall remove or take
measures to conceal the personal data concerning him. In response, the data protection agency rejected
his compliant relating to La Vanguardia newspaper as the information published was legally justified but
upheld the complaint against Google as the operators of search engines were subjected to the
Directives. In an appeal by Google, the European courts and the European Court of Justice held that the
operators of search engines fall under the definition of ‘controller’ as envisaged under Article 2(d) of the
Directives. Further, the courts also confirmed the individual’s ‘Right to be Forgotten’ if the personal data
concerning him/ her is no longer needed for which it was collected.
6. Which bill has been enacted to protect the personal data of individuals in India that can be replaced by [1]
in the above passage?
(a) Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019
(c) Information Technology Amendment Bill, 2019
(d) Sensitive and Critical Data Protection Bill, 2019
7. Which judge, that can be replaced by [2], headed the committee set up for data protection framework?
(a) Justice Lodha (b) Justice Loya
(c) Justice ArijitPasayat (d) Justice BN Srikrishna
8. Which law has been enacted by EU to protect the personal data of individuals that can be replaced by [3]
in the above passage?
(a) Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019
(c) Information Technology Amendment Bill, 2019
(d) Sensitive and Critical Data Protection Bill, 2019
9. Which current law governs data protection in India?

(a) Data Protection Act, 2000 (b) Information Technology Act, 2000
(c) Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (d) Both (a) and (b)
10. Which article of India constitution can be considered as the genesis of the above said bill?
(Q.11-Q.15): The [2] has expressed "anguish" and "resentment" on behalf of over 20 lakh advocates of
the country at the government's decision to bring lawyers within the purview of the Consumer Protection
Act.
In a letter to the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, the [2] said that the proposal
should be withdrawn or else the lawyer fraternity would be left with no option but to launch a massive
agitation and protest against it. The Delhi HC Bar Association also wore white armbands as a mark of
protest.
The [2] said it was a judicially acknowledged fact that advocates are not part of any trade, commerce or
industry nor does their work fall within the ambit of Service Tax Act but it was merely an activity in aid and
assistance of the justice administration system.
It said the [1] is sufficient enough to safeguard interests of litigants and it has a proper mechanism in
place to hold a lawyer guilty in case of any professional misconduct.
Bringing lawyers under the Consumer Protection Act will hamper their professional activities and
encourage frivolous complaints which would undermine the legal profession and would also be
demeaning for the advocates, it further said.
11. Which law, that can be replaced by [1], regulates the professional misconduct of advocates?
(a) Bar Council of India Act, 1928 (b) Indian penal Code, 1860
(c) Advocates Act, 1861 (d) Rules made by Bar Council of India
12. Which statutory body,that can be replaced by [2], governs the legal practice and legal education in India?
(a) Bar Council of India (b) Bar association of advocates
(c) Advocates on record (d) Both (a) and (c)
13. Who is the current chairman of above said statutory body?

(a) Manan Kumar Mishra (b) SatishDeshmukh
(c) VivekDebroy (d) Deepak MishrA
14. Which of the following is true regarding Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
(a) The act has the provision of the establishment of the Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions
(CDRCs) at the national, state and district levels.
(b) It replaces in Consumer Protection Act, 2016
(c) It is rejected by 5 states
15. Who is considered as the father of modern legal education?

(a) Faizan Mustafa (b) NanabhoyPalkhivala
(c) Soli Sorabjee (d) NR MadhavMenon
(Q.16-Q.20): Climate change and gradual warming of migratory birds habitat is a threat to animal
migration. The migratory populations or species could become partly or wholly sedentary under influence
of climate change.
This was observed by the research paper ‘Transboundary Wildlife Conservation in A Changing Climate:
Adaptation of the Bonn Convention on Migratory Species and Its Daughter Instruments to Climate
Change.’ The paper further said that there are ample observational evidence of migratory birds becoming
more sedentary because of climate change.
The research publication stated that the effect of climate change would thus be more of a threat to animal
migration as a phenomenon than to species survival. Common buzzards in Europe appear to becoming a
sedentary species. Paper states that observers at the migration bottleneck of Gibraltar will witness the
last time a common buzzard glides across the Strait to Africa, whereas numbers of buzzards crossing
another migration bottleneck, at Falsterbö (Sweden), are also dropping.
The paper states that both for migratory and non-migratory species, climate change considerably
augments the need for international cooperation in wildlife conservation. The paper states that the
Conventional on Biological Diversity’s governing body has resolved to “take measures to manage
ecosystems so as to maintain their resilience to extreme climate events and to help mitigate and adapt to
climate change and to integrate climate change adaptation measures in protected area planning,
management strategies, and in the design of protected area systems.”It was also suggested to reduce
the negative impacts from climate change as far as ecologically feasible, through conservation and
sustainable management strategies that maintain and restore biodiversity. The paper stated that reducing
non-climate stresses, such as pollution, over-exploitation, habitat loss and fragmentation was the need of
the hour. Also to for reducing climate related stresses was through enhanced adaptive and integrated
water resource and marine and coastal management.
The paper states that climate change has been formally acknowledged as an actual or potential threat to
the conservation of the species concerned under various MoUs. Further research or monitoring of climate
impacts have been issued to study climate change.
16. Convention on Biological Diversity is the outcome of which summit?

(a) Earth summit (b) Stockholm summit
(c) Bio summit (d) COP 20
17. Who is the governing body of Convention on Biological Diversity, also known as CBD ?
(a) Secretary of CBD
(b) Members of UN General Assembly
(c) Conference of the Parties
(d) Members of UNEP
18. Which country hosted the 13th Conference of Parties (COP) of the UN Convention on the conservation of
migratory species?
(a) Germany (b) France (c) Italy (d) India
19. Which animal was declared endangered species at 13th Conference of Parties (COP) of the UN
Convention on the conservation of migratory species?
(a) Asian Elephant (b) Great Indian Bustard
(c) Bengal Florican (d) All the above
20. What was the mascot for 13th Conference of Parties (COP) of the UN Convention on the conservation of
migratory species?
(a) African Squirrel (b) Great Indian Bustard
(c) Asiatic Lions (d) Red Panda
(Q.21-Q.25): Dressed in white, people from Delhi, Gurugram and Faridabad took out a symbolic funeral
procession march to highlight the grave danger looming over the Aravali forests — the NCR’s lifeline for
clean air and water security — and sought the roll-back of the controversial amendments to the [1].
Slogans of “Withdraw Amendment Bill”, “AravalliBachao”, “Stop illegal constructions in our forests”
reverberated through the air as more than 100 people, consisting of students and people from different
walks of life marched from Sikanderpur metro station to Mehrauli-Gurgaon road metro station and back.
“The Amendment Bill, 2019, which has been signed by the Governor is the death knell for our forests. If
notified that 60,000 acres of [1] protected Aravalli forests and 10,000 acres of Shivalik forests near
Chandigarh will be opened for real estate development. This amounts to a loss of 33% of our forests
when Haryana already has the lowest forest cover in India — barely 3.62% as compared to the national
average of 20%,” said Dr. SarikaVerma, an ENT surgeon.
“The [1] Amendment Bill seeks to only benefit the real estate sector at the cost of forests, wildlife, water
security, air quality and the health and well-being of millions of men, women and children living in the
NCR cities, including our future generations,” said Roma Vinayak, an entrepreneur.
Aravalli forests in south Haryana are Gurugram, Faridabad and NCR’s green lungs, barrier against
desertification and critical water recharge zone.
“People have invested their hard-earned money to make the NCR their home but they never imagined
that they would have such a low quality of life where the average air quality index remains over 300
throughout the year. The Amendment Bill is equivalent to a mass genocide as it will further destroy our
negligible green lungs,” said Rahul Khera, another protester.
21. Which of the following Act can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?
(a) Haryana Land Preservation Act, 1900
(b) NCR Land Preservation Act, 1900
(c) Punjab Land Preservation Act, 1900
(d) Delhi Land Preservation Act, 1900
22. Which is the highest peak of Aravalli range?

(a) Naga Hills (b) Khasi Hills (c) Guru Shikhar (d) Lushai Hills
23. Which of the following state is not touched by Aravalli?

(a) Gujarat only (b) Rajasthan only
(c) Himachal Pradesh only (d) Gujarat and Rajasthan
24. Which of the following river does not originate from Aravalli range?
(a) Banas (b) Luni (c) Banas (d) Tapi
25. Which of the following is true regarding Aravalli Hills?

(a) River Narmadais born in Aravallis.
(b) They contain several lakes such as Lake Sambhar, Lake Dhebar Lake Jaisamand etc.,
(c) They contain the largest granite deposits in India.
(d) They are the youngest mountain chain
(Q.26-Q.30): The ISC was held at the University of Agricultural Sciences in [1] from January 3 to 7, 2020
will also have other events — Women Science Congress, Children Science Congress and Science
Communicators Meet. The theme this year was [2].
As part of the congress, a science exhibition themed ‘Pride of India’ was planned. The exhibition
showcased cutting-edge tech, leading scientific products and services, path breaking R&D initiatives,
schemes and achievements of India’s foremost and leading public and private sector players,
government departments, research labs, educational institutions, corporate and defence. The expo
spread over an area of 15,000 sqmetres and over 150 organisationshad participated.
The Women Science Congress was inaugurated by DRDO’s eminent missile scientist and Director
General of Aeronautical Systems. The session was held on January 4-6 where in a total 24 women
achievers in different fields of Science and Technology shared their experiences. Around 164 poster
presentations will also be made by PhD / MSc scholars. Nearly 1,800 women participants have
registered.
26. Which city hosted the 107th edition of Indian Science Congress – [1]?
(a) Mumbai (b) Kolkata (c) Bangalore (d) Guwahati
27. Which of the following event was held for the first time at 107th Indian Science Congress?
(a) Women Science Congress (b) Children Science Congress
(c) Health Science Congress (d) Farmer’s Science Congress
28. What was the theme of the 107thIndian Science Congress – [2]?
(a) Science and Technology: Rural Development
(b) Reaching the Unreached through Science and Technology
(c) Future India: Science and Technology
(d) Science and Technology for National Development
29. Which organization organizes the Indian Science Congress?

(a) DRDO (b) ISRO
(c) Indian Science Congress Association (d) ICMR
30. Who is known as the missile woman of India?

(a) Anuradha TK (b) Tessy Thomas (c) NandiniHarinath (d) MuthayyaVanitha
(Q.31-Q.35): Oil prices have more than halved in value since the start of the year, tumbling below $30 a
barrel.North American oil and gas producers have cut capital spending by about 30% on average,
according to data compiled by Reuters. Russia will not be the one to first demand a stop to the oil price
war with Saudi Arabia because Russian President Vladimir Putin is unlikely to yield to what he sees as
“Saudi blackmail,” sources familiar with Moscow’s thinking.The OPEC+ coalition between OPEC’s leader
Saudi Arabia and the leader of the non-OPEC nations in the production cut deal, Russia, abruptly ended
earlier this month after Russia refused to back a huge additional supply cut in response to depressed
demand. Saudi Arabia didn’t take that break-up too well, and made a U-turn in its oil policy, saying it will
be pumping at will and supply the oil market with record-high volumes of crude oil in the coming months.
31. Which of the following is not member of Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)?
(a) Saudi Arabia (b) Russia (c) Venezuela (d) Congo

(a) Mohammed Barkindo is the Secretary General of OPEC
(b) Its headquarter is in Baghdad
(c) Brent crude and West Texas Intermediate arethe two main benchmark prices for purchases of oil
worldwide
33. The global oil prices is seeing biggest fall in 2020. It is the biggest fall since –
(a) Iraq-Iran war (b) Vietnam war (c) Kuwait Invasion (d) Gulf war
34. Which of the following is the reason of fall in global oil prices?
1. Corona virus
2. Over-production of crude oil by OPEC+ members
3. Over-production of shale oil by USA
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
35. Which country has the world’s largest oil refinery?

(a) Russia (b) India (c) Saudi Arab (d) Venezuela
(Q.36-Q.39): State-owned Oil and Natural Gas Corp (ONGC) has begun gas production from its most
promising block in the [1] basin in the Bay of Bengal and is planning a ramp up production in coming
weeks, officials said.
It is doing a build-up mapping and the production is likely to rise to 0.75 mmscmd within next few weeks.
ONGC is investing USD 5.07 billion in developing the oil and gas discoveries in the block.
The project will cumulatively produce around 25 million tonne of oil and 45 billion cubic meters of gas with
peak production of 78,000 barrels per day of oil and 15 million standard cubic meters per day.
After successfully commissioning its first deepwater project [2] in eastern offshore in March 2018 (which
would be yielding about 4.3 mmscmd of gas), ONGC is now concentrating on the flagship project from
NELP block in the deepwater of eastern offshore.
36. Which basin can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?

(a) Mahanadi Basin (b) Koromandel Basin
(c) Bengal Proper Basin (d) Krishna Godawari Basin

(a) S1 Vashishta (b) McDermott F2 (c) S1 Chraka (d) Vijaygarhi F1
38. In which of the following category ONGC can be classified?

(a) Maharatna (b) Navratna (c) Miniratna (d) None of the above
39. Which is the largest river basin in India?

(a) Narmada basin (b) Ganga basin (c) Godavari basin (d) Krishna basin
MOCK CLAT #24
Directions (Q.1-Q.39): Read the information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
(Q.1-Q.5): India will be moving to include in the list of species that merit heightened conservation
measures. The list will be debated at the 13th Conference of Parties (COP) of the Convention on the
Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS), an environment treaty under the United
Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
The COP is scheduled to be organised from February 17 to 22. There are 130 parties to the convention
and India has been a member since 1983.
“We expect the COP to clear the inclusion of the as it has been vetted by technical experts and reflects
the consensus of several countries. The elephant faces risks particularly in neighbouring Bangladesh and
Nepal,” SoumitraDasgupta, a senior official in the Union Environment Ministry told The Hindu.
India is home to several migratory species of wildlife, including the snow leopard, Amur falcons, bar-
headed geese, black-necked cranes, marine turtles, dugongs and hump-backed whales.
Having the them in the list — more formally known as Appendix 1 — would coax countries neighbouring
India, where wild animals such as tigers and elephant foray into, to direct more resources and attention to
protecting them. There are now 173 species in the Appendix 1.
Representatives from across the world, and conservationists and international NGOs working in wildlife
conservation, are expected to attend the COP, which will also see Prime Minister NarendraModi address
the gathering via video conference.
The pachyderm merits the highest level of protection, or Schedule 1, under the Wildlife Protection Act, a
country has been designated the President of the COP for the next three years. “The government of India
has been taking necessary actions to protect and conserve migratory marine species. Seven species that
include Dugong, Whale Shark, Marine Turtle (two species), have been identified for preparation of
Conservation and Recovery Action Plan,” the Ministry said.
1. Which species are to be included in the merit of heightened conservation measures by India?
(a) Great Indian Bustard, Asian Elephant (b) Whale Shark, River Dolphin
(c) Wild Dog, River Dolphin (d) Asian Elephant, Whale Shark
2. Who is the mascot for 13th Conference of Parties (COP) of the Convention on the conservation of
migratory species of wild animals (CMS)?
(a) Asian Elephent (b) Gibi (c) Whale Shark (d) Marine turtle
3. The COP is scheduled to be organised from February 17 to 22 in-

(a) Ahmedabad (b) Sabarmati (c) Gandhinagar (d) Vadodara
4. What is the theme of CMS COP13 in India?

(a) Migratory species connect the planet and we welcome them home
(b) Migratory species are essential
(c) Do not harm migratory species
5. Which country has been designated the President of the COP for the next three years?
(a) Germany (b) Nepal (c) Bangladesh (d) India
(Q.6-Q.10): In its mission to Mars this summer, NASA is sending a new laser-toting robot as one of seven
instruments aboard the Mars 2020 rover.
[1] packs what would typically require several sizable pieces of equipment into something no bigger than
a cereal box. It fires a pulsed laser beam out of the rover’s mast to vaporise small portions of rock from a
distance, providing information that will be essential to the mission’s success.
NASA lists five things to know
* From more than 7 m away, [1] can fire a laser to study rock targets smaller than a pencil point. That lets
the rover study spots it can’t reach with its arm.
* [1] looks at rock textures and chemicals to find those that formed or changed in water on Mars long
ago.
* [1] looks at different rock and “soil” ,
* Scientists can learn about how atmospheric molecules, water ice, and dust absorb or reflect solar
radiation. This helps predict Martian weather better.
[1] includes a microphone so scientists can listen each time the laser hits a target. The popping sound
created by the laser subtly changes depending on a rock’s material properties. The Mars 2020 rover
marks the third time this particular microphone design will go to the Red Planet. In the late 1990s, the
same design rode aboard the Mars Polar Lander, which crashed on the surface. In 2008, the Phoenix
mission experienced electronics issues that prevented the microphone from being used.
6. What is the name of the mars rover which is scheduled to be launched in 2020?
(a) Curiosity (b) Houston (c) Perseverance (d) Supercam
7. Which Instrument aboard the Mars rover could potentially detect fossilised microbial life?
(a) SuperCam
(b) Scanning Habitable Environments with Raman and Luminescence for Organics and Chemicals
(c) Mars Oxygen ISRU Experiment
(d) Battery
8. For the first time the mars 2020 rover will also carry on its mission to mars a;
(a) Helicopter (b) Drill (c) Water (d) Jet engine
9. From which of the following islands, Mars 2020 Rover will be launched?
(a) Kodiak Island, Alaska (b) Cape Canaveral, Florida
(c) Wallops Island, Virginia (d) Fraser Island, Australia
10. Which instrument aboard the Mars 2020 rover could identify which elements in the Martian dust may be
harmful to humans?
(a) Scanning Habitable Environments with Raman and Luminescence for Organics and Chemicals
(b) Mars Oxygen ISRU Experiment
(c) SuperCam
(Q.11-Q.14): In a recent report, a Select Committee of Parliament has recommended that the contentious
clause limiting surrogacy only to “close relatives” be removed from the Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2019.
A look at the genesis of the Bill, its provisions and why the current report could signal some progressive
amendments in the Bill:
It was first mooted in 2016 in the wake of repeated reports of exploitation of women.The Select
Committee chaired by BJP RajyaSabha MP BhupenderYadav recommended that the “close relatives”
clause should be removed, and any “willing” woman should be allowed to become a surrogate mother
provided all other requirements are met and the appropriate authority has cleared the surrogacy. It has
strongly backed the ban on commercial surrogacy.
The committee has not, however, recommended expanding the definition of commissioning parent to
include singles, either men or women. This means people like TussharKapoor, Karan Johar and
EktaKapoor, all from the entertainment industry, would still not qualify for using the surrogacy route for
children. All of them have already used that route.
The Select Committee also recommended that the ART Bill (which deals with assisted reproductive
technologies) should be brought before the Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2019, so that all the highly
technical and medical aspects could be properly addressed in the Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2019.
What is the ART Bill?
The ART(Regulation) Bill has been in the making since 2008. It aims to regulate the field through
registration of all IVF clinics and sperm banks, segregation of ART clinics and gamete banks etc. It also
requires national and state boards to be established for the purpose of regulation of the fertility market.
11. What does ART bill stands for?
(a) Assisted Reproductive Technology
(b) Assisted Reproduction Technology
(c) Assistance in Reproduction Technology
12. Which report of LCI (Law Commission of India) recommended for suitable legislation towards the ART
practices being followed in the country?
(a) 200th law commission report (b) 228th law commission report
th
(c) 250 law commission report (d) 225th law commission report
13. The highlights of ART bill is/are?

(a) The bill aims at setting up of a national board and as state board to implement a legal framework.
(b) The bill also proposes to establish a central data base of banks and clinics all over the country.
(c) It will help in identifying people that are involved in illegal embryo sale and trafficking.
14. In 2005, who had framed guidelines for ART (Assisted Reproductive Technologies) Clinics?
(a) ICMR (Indian Council of Medical Research)
(b) Parliament
(c) Law commission
(d) MHRD
(Q.15-Q.19): With Donald Trump’s relaunch last week of US space command [1], terrestrial Trump has
appropriated the title for himself. While this may be a big step for the man in the White House, it’s a giant
leap backwards for mankind. Fresh from his bungled attempt to expand America’s frontiers by buying
Greenland, Trump is now suggesting the US has a right to colonise outer space, treating it as a free-fire
zone for unlimited superpower competition in “the next war-fighting domain”. Trump has watched too
many repeats of Independence Day. The universe does not belong to America.
Unfortunately, the treaty does not prevent military activities in space, military space forces or
weaponisation – and it is these objectionable aims that lie at the heart of [1]’s new mission.
According to, [1] commander, being top dog in space is a “vital [US] national interest” that is threatened
by rivals, notably China and Russia. “The scope, scale and complexity of this threat... is real and
concerning,” he said. “Although space is a war-fighting domain, our goal is to actually deter a conflict
extending into space. The best way I know to do that is to be prepared to fight and win... We are the best
in the world at space.”

(a) SpaceJour (b) Spaceman (c) SpaceCom (d) SpaceUS
16. The United States Space Force when established would be______ branch of United States armed
forces.
(a) Fifth (b) First (c) Sixth (d) Fourth
17. What is the purpose of Outer space treaty,1967?

(a) It states principle that governs the activities of States on how to explore and use outer space
(b) It states how the division of outer space takes place for exploration
(c) It states the principles regarding satellite launching
(d) It states the set of rules for space organisations of the world
18. Which was the first country to launch a man in Space?

(a) China (b) Russia (c) USA (d) North Korea
19. The 1967 Space treaty prohibits the counties from;

(a) that no nation may claim sovereignty over outer space or any celestial body
(b) prohibits the deployment of nuclear weapons and other weapons of mass destruction
(c) No commercial use of space
(d) Only ‘a’ and ‘b’
(Q.20-Q.24): Only [3] of children in Class 1 in 26 surveyed rural districts can read text at the prescribed
level, while almost [3] cannot even recognise letters, according to the [1] 2019, released by [2] .
Only 41% of these children could recognise two digit numbers.
However, [1] found that the solution is not to spend longer hours teaching children the 3Rs.
Counter-intuitively, the report argues that a focus on cognitive skills rather than subject learning in the
early years can make a big difference to basic literacy and numeracy abilities.
[1] surveyors visited almost 37,000 children between 4 and 8 years in 26 rural districts across 24 States.
They asked each child to do a variety of tasks testing cognitive skills — sort images by colour and size,
recognise patterns, fit together a four-piece animal puzzle — as well as simple literacy and numeracy
tests. Social and emotional development was tracked through activities using cards with faces showing
happiness, sadness, anger and fear.
The survey shows that among Class 1 children who could correctly do none or only one of the tasks
requiring cognitive skills, about 14% could read words, while 19% could do single digit addition. However,
of those children who could correctly do all three cognitive tasks, 52% could read words, and 63% could
solve the addition problem.
“[1] data shows that children’s performance on tasks requiring cognitive skills is strongly related to their
ability to do early language and numeracy tasks,” says the report. “This suggests that focusing on play-
based activities that build memory, reasoning and problem-solving abilities is more productive than an
early focus on content knowledge.”
Global research shows that 90% of brain growth occurs by age 5, meaning that the quality of early
childhood education has a crucial impact on the development and long-term schooling of a child. The [1]
report shows that a large number of factors determine the quality of education received at this stage,
including the child’s home background, especially the mother’s education level; the type of school,
whether anganwadis, government schools or private pre-schools; and the child’s age in Class 1.
20. Which report can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?

(a) The Annual Status of Education Report
(b) NITI Aayog Report
(c) NCERT Report
(d) The Status of Learning in India Report
21. Which of the following can be replaced by the [2] in the above passage?
(a) Ministry of Human Resource and Development
(b) National Council for Education Research and Training
(c) Pratham
(d) Central Board of Secondary Education
22. Which of the following is not true according to the above report?
(a) Only 16% of children in Class 1 in 26 surveyed rural districts can read text at the prescribed level
while almost 40% can’t even recognise letters.
(b) Number of girls enrolled in government schools is higher than number of boys.
(c) 4 out of every 10 children entering Class I are more than 6 years old.
(d) The existing network of Anganwadi Centres should be strengthened and expanded.
23. Which Article of Indian Constitution guarantees Right to Education?

(a) Article 21 (b) Article 21A (c) Article 22 (d) Article 23
24. At which age children should enter Class I according to Right to Education Act, 2005?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
(Q.25-Q.29): India has been ranked at the [1] position among 180 countries and territories in the
Corruption Perception Index (CPI) prepared by [2]. The CPI, released, ranks 180 countries and territories
by their perceived levels of public sector corruption, according to experts and business people.
Other countries in the top level are Norway (7th rank), the Netherlands (8th), Germany and Luxembourg
(9th).
With a score of 41, India is at the [1] spot. The rank is also shared by China, Benin, Ghana and Morocco.
Neighbouring Pakistan is ranked at the 120th place. This year's analysis shows corruption is more
pervasive in countries where big money can flow freely into electoral campaigns and where governments
listen only to the voices of wealthy or well-connected individuals, [2] said.
Not only are more than two-thirds of countries -- along with many of the world's most advanced
economies -- stagnating, some are seriously backsliding. In the last eight years, only 22 countries have
shown significant improvement on the CPI, while almost as many have declined, it noted.
[2] Chair Delia Ferreira Rubio said governments must urgently address the corrupting role of big money
in political party financing and the undue influence it exerts on our political systems.
25. What is the rank of India in Corruption Perception Index?

(a) 76 (b) 78 (c) 80 (d) 120
26. Which of the following can be replaced by [2] in the above passage?
(a) World Economic Forum (b) Transparency International
(c) United Nations Global Compact (d) Freedom House
27. Which country has secured first place in Corruption Perception Index?
(a) Denmark (b) Sweden (c) Finland (d) Singapore
28. Which is the most corrupted state in India according to India Corruption Survey 2019?
(a) Bihar (b) Jharkhand (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
.
29. Which of the following is not true regarding Corruption Perception Index 2019?
(a) It is released by non-profit, non-governmental organization based in Berlin, Germany.
(b) It was released at World Economic Forum.
(c) India’s ranking has improved as compared to last years’ index.
(d) The first place has been secured by two nations.
(Q.30-Q.34): The Army has initiated the process of identifying potential industry partners to implement
the [1] model.
A Request For Information (RFI) was issued to shortlist service providers with experience in
“warehousing, logistics and supply chain management” for Central Ordnance Depot (COD), Kanpur.
Separately, the Army’s Master General of Ordnance (MGO) began evaluating the [1] model for Army
Base Workshops (ABWs) and PricewaterhouseCoopers Pvt. Ltd. (PwC) hired as a consultant to run this
engagement is scheduled to hold conferences and consultations with the industry.
“The agenda of these interactions would be to understand from interested industry participants their
views on opportunities envisaged and issues/concerns if ABW(s) were to be run under [1] model,” a
notice issued by the Army says and the last date to send responses is January 10.
The eight ABWs identified are located in Delhi, Jabalpur (Madhya Pradesh), Kankinara (West Bengal),
Allahabad, Agra and Meerut (Uttar Pradesh), Kirkee near Pune and Bengaluru.
The tasks undertaken by these workshops include depot level (D level) repairs and overhaul of T-72 and
T-90, guns, mortars and small arms, vehicles, communication systems, radars, air defence systems,
armoured personnel carriers and manufacture of spares (indigenisation) and overhaul of aviation
rotables.
Based on the recommendations, the government has “decided to disband two advance base workshops,
one static workshop and four ordnance depots” and eight ABWs are recommended to be corporatised on
[1] model.
30. Which of the following model can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?
(a) Government Owned Contractor Operated Model
(b) Semi Government Contractor Operated Model
(c) Private Contractor Operated Model
(d) Independent Contractor Operated Model
31. Which of the following committee recommended the above mentioned model?
(a) K.S. Subramaniam Committee (b) Prakash Singh Committee
(c) D.B. Shekatkar Committee (d) Rangrajan Committee
32. What is the primary objective of above mentioned model?

(a) Maintenance of Army Base workshops by improving operational efficiency.
(b) To privatize construction in Army.
(c) To remove burden from the shoulders of Army bringing private players.
(d) All the above
33. Which day is celebrated as Army Day in India?

(a) 6 December (b) 15 January (c) 29 October (d) 16 November
34. Who is known as the father of Indian Army?

(a) Eyre Coote (b) Allured Clarke (c) Hector Munro (d) Stringer Lawrence
(Q.35-Q.39): The Union Environment Ministry has selected 12 beaches in India to vie for a ‘[1]
certification, an international recognition conferred on beaches that meet certain criteria of cleanliness
and environmental propriety.
These beaches are at Shivrajpur (Gujarat), Bhogave (Maharashtra), Ghoghla (Diu), Miramar (Goa),
Kasarkod and Padubidri (Karnataka), Kappad (Kerala), Eden (Puducherry), Mahabalipuram (Tamil
Nadu), Rushikonda (Andhra Pradesh), Golden (Odisha), and Radhanagar (Andaman & Nicobar Islands).
International standards
“To achieve the internationally recognised highest standard for the purpose of beach management,
planning and execution of projects for infrastructure development, cleanliness, safety and security
services, these beaches have been identified for [1] Certification in different States and Union
Territories,” reads a notification by the Ministry
33 criteria
There are nearly 33 criteria that must be met to qualify for a [1] certification, such as the water meeting
certain quality standards, having waste disposal facilities, being disabled- friendly, have first aid
equipment, and no access to pets in the main areas of the beach. Some criteria are voluntary and some
compulsory.
India is set to apply for certification for two beaches, at Shivrajpur and Ghogla, by the end of this month.
About ₹20 crore have been spent on each and the jury will decide by October if these beaches meet the
mark, an official in the Ministry told The Hindu.
If approved, beaches are given the qualification for a year and must apply annually to continue meriting
the right to fly the flag at their locations. To help Indian beaches meet these criteria, the Ministry has
allowed structures such container toilet blocks, change rooms, shower panels, mini grey water treatment
plants in an enclosed structure, mini solid waste recycling plants and off-grid solar photovoltaic panels,
provided they are a minimum 10 metres from the high tide line.
35. Which of the following certification can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?
(a) White Flag (b) Red Flag (c) Green Flag (d) Blue Flag
36. Which was the first beach in India to get above certification?
(a) Baga Beach, Goa (b) Calangute Beach, Goa
(c) Chandrabhaga, Odisha (d) Marina Beach, Tamil Nadu
37. Which organization runs the above mentioned certification program?

(a) United Nations Economic and Social Council
(b) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
(c) Foundation for Environmental Education
(d) Society for Integrated Coastal Management
38. Which country has highest above mentioned certification in the world?
(a) Spain (b) Greece (c) France (d) South Africa
39. Which of the following statement is not true regarding certification program?
(a) It started in 1985.
(b) Beaches from Japan and South Korea have also certification.
(c) It was first started in France.
(d) India got its first certification in 2015.
MOCK CLAT #25
(Q.1-Q.5): All jewellers will need to register themselves with the [1] as the government has made
hallmarking of gold jewellery and artefacts mandatory. Union Minister Ram Vilas Paswan, jewellers would
not be allowed to sell non-hallmarked jewellery after January 2021.
The initiative will help reduce corruption in the gold business and ensure consumers are not be cheated
while buying gold.
As per the minister, the purity of the gold will soon be in only three caratages -- 14, 18 and 22. The
caratage is marked on jewellery in addition to fineness for convenience of consumers. For example, for
22-carat jewellery, 22K will be marked in addition to 916, and for 18-carat jewellery, 18K will be marked in
addition to 750.
For the 14-carat jewellery, 14K will be marked in addition to 585. Paswan said the businesses would be
given a year to comply with the new norms. This will give them enough time for registration and to clear
old or existing stock before the new rules kick-in.
He said private entrepreneurs would also be allowed to set up additional A&H (Assaying and
Hallmarking) centres at various locations to facilitate customers and that priority should be given to
districts where such centres were not present.
As on December 31, 2019, there were 892 A&H centres in 234 districts across the country. Total 28,849
jewellers have registered with the [1] so far.
1. Which of the following authority can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?
(a) Department of Consumer Affairs (b) Bureau of Standard Certification
(c) Bureau of Indian Standards (d) Bureau of Metal Standard
2. When did the authority mentioned as [1] come into existence?

(a) 1985 (b) 1986 (c) 1987 (d) 1988
3. Which ministry regulates the authority mentioned as [1]?

(a) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
(b) Ministry of commerce and industry
(c) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(d) Ministry of consumer affairs, food and public distribution
4. Which act regulates hallmarking of jewelry?

(a) Consumer Protection Act, 2019 (b) Indian Penal Code, 1860
(c) Shop and establishment act, 1948 (d) None of the above
5. Which of the following statement is true regarding authority mentioned as [1]?

(a) Its headquarters are in Mumbai.
(b) It is the National Standard Body of India for the harmonious development of the activities
of standardization, marking and quality certification of goods.
(c) It represents India in the International Organization for Standardization .
(d) It provides safe reliable quality goods, promoting exports and imports substitute, minimizing health
hazards to consumers, control over proliferation of varieties etc. through standardization, certification
and testing.
(Q.6-Q.10): The merger of RajyaSabha and LokSabha Television is in its final stages, with the six-
member Committee expected to submit its final report in two weeks time. There has been overwhelming
demand that live transmission of the proceedings of the two houses should not be disrupted.
The Committee was constituted on November 7. The mandate laid down for the Committee was “to work
out the modalities and prepare the guidelines for pooling resources, manpower and technology for the
merger of the two channels”.
The Committee is expected to submit its report by end of this month to RajyaSabha Chairman Venkaiah
Naidu and LokSabha Speaker Om Birla. The final decision will be taken by them.
According to sources, the Committee is weighing between two options. The first is to have a single
channel and, during the Parliament sessions, to have a “variant” to broadcast the live debate of both the
houses. The second option, according to sources, is to continue with the two channels but under an
“integrated management” with a common pool of technical and human resources. “The Parliament is in
session for close to 100 days in a year and for the remaining period, we don’t really need two channels,”
an official said.
RajyaSabha TV professionals, who get an year-long contract, have been given a six-month contract up to
June this year, to ensure that no contractual problems arise when the two channels are remodelled.
6. In which year LokSabhatv was launched?

(a) 2006 (b) 2007 (c) 2008 (d) 2009
7. Who headed the Committee for the merger of two channels?

(a) Surya Prakash (b) Ganpati Bhatt
(c) ShikhaDarbari (d) Manoj Kumar Pandey
8. Who was the first LokSabha Speaker?

(a) NeelamSanjeeva Reddy (b) I.K Gujral
(c) K.S. Hegde (d) Ganesh VasudevMavalankar
9. India has adopted parliamentary form of government by which country?

(a) USA (b) Germany (c) Canada (d) Britain
10. Which of the following is not true regarding RajyaSabha?

(a) RajyaSabha is the second chamber of the parliament and represents the states and union territories
of the nation.
(b) Twelve members are nominated to the RajyaSabha by the President of India for six-years term for
their contributions towards arts, literature, sciences, and social services.
(c) Out of 7 union territories, only Delhi and Puducherry have representation in RajyaSabha.
(d) All the above
(Q.11-Q.15): The CES contains details about the spending patterns of households. Data collected from
this becomes a vital source of information to improve economic planning and budgetary allocation.
According to the report, leaked to and published by Business Standard, consumer spending fell for the
first time in 40 years. A remarkable analysis of the report by Professor S. Subramanian in ‘The India
Forum’ compares the Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) from the CES 2011-2012
and 2017-2018. It presents a grim picture of rural India.
According to his article, if we rank the rural population from the poorest to the richest, and divide them
into 10 groups (or deciles), we find that the MPCE fell for every group.
Observing such inconvenient truths, the government tried to shun the survey results citing “data quality
issues”. This tendency to move from transparency to opacity when confronted with uncomfortable facts is
not new. The government had kept delaying the release of the 2017-2018 Periodic Labour Force Survey
(PLFS) data. In January 2019, the PLFS data was leaked, revealing that unemployment under the BJP-
led government had reached a [1]-year high.
Recent NSO reports suggest that Consumer Food Price Index inflation increased from 2.99% in August
2019 to more than 14% in December 2019.
As per the 2011 Socio-Economic Caste Census, 56% of the households don’t own land and around 51%
of the households depend on casual manual labour for income. For this segment, the MGNREGA can
serve as a lifeline.
11. The Consumer Expenditure Survey (CES) is meant to be conducted once every 5 years by which of the
following organization?
(a) CFPI (b) NSO (c) MGNREGA (d) PLFS
12. Which of the following fact can be concluded from ranking the rural population from the poorest to the
richest, and dividing them into 10 groups (or deciles) to find that the MPCE fell for every group?
(a) This means that consumption has increased but not income
(b) This means that consumption has decreased and income slightly increased
(c) This means that consumption — and so income — in the entire cross-section of the rural society
decreased.
(d) Nothing could be concluded from this

(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 45
14. In the 2019 Global Hunger Index out of 117 qualifying countries, what is the rank of India?
(a) 100 (b) 101 (c) 102 (d) 103
15. In which of the following year MGNREGA was started?

(a) 2002 (b) 2004 (c) 2005 (d) 2007
(Q.16-Q.20): Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Saturday said the Aviation Ministry will launch the
[1] scheme to assist farmers in transporting agricultural products so that it improves their “value
realisation”.
“[1] will be launched by the on international and national routes. This will immensely help improve value
realisation (on agricultural products), especially in the north-east and tribal districts,” said Sitharaman
during her budget speech.
The Modi government had launched [1] in 2016 to improve regional connectivity. Finance minister
Nirmala Sitharaman as part of her budget speech said on February 1, 2020 that to boost agriculture
introduced a [1] scheme to help farmers.
Under the scheme, financial incentives in terms of concessions from the Centre, state governments and
airport operators are extended to selected airlines to encourage operations from unserved and
undeserved airports, and keep airfares affordable.
As at least half of the seats in flights are offered at subsidised fares, and the participating carriers are
provided a certain amount of viability gap funding (VGF) — an amount shared between the Centre and
the state concerned.
In scheme, the VGF has been enhanced for aircraft having more than 20 seats and that would operate in
priority areas — Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, northeastern states,
Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.
16. Which scheme can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?

(a) Krishi Utthan (b) Krishi Vikas Yojna
(c) Krishi Udan (d) Krishi Saarthi Yojna
17. Which ministry can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?

(a) Ministry of Civil Aviation
(b) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
(c) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
(d) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
18. Which article of Indian Constitution talks about Union Budget?

19. What is the fiscal deficit government has estimated under Union Budget for 2020-21?
(a) 3.5% (b) 3.3 % (c) 3.8% (d) 3.4 %
20. Who presented the first Union Budget of Independent India?

(a) John Matthai (b) C. D. Deshmukh (c) V. K. Menon (d) R. K. ShanmukhamChetty
(Q.21-Q.25): A state recorded the highest percentage of newborn deaths of 11.5% against the total
admissions to government-run sick newborn care units (SNCUs) in the past three years across the
country, a rate ominously spiralling since 2017, The country’s average is 7%
Although admissions of neonates (under 28 days) in the State have dropped from April 2017 to
December 2019 — remaining lower than West Bengal, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh — the percentage
of deaths at 12.2% surpassed Bihar’s last year.
Meanwhile, West Bengal, where 34,344 neonatal deaths occurred in the period, the most in the country,
the declining percentage of deaths from 9.2% in 2017 to 8.9% in 2019 coincided with a slump in
admissions.
As the units are located at hospitals with the delivery load of more than 3,000 infants per year, mostly in
district headquarters, transporting neonates on time is crucial. “Although there is a dedicated service to
transport pregnant women to hospitals from remote areas, there is none for neonates, who are mostly
dependent on the 108 ambulance service,” said Dr. Sidana.
Even with a sex ratio of 931 as per the 2011 census, 663 girls were admitted against 1,000 boys in the
three years, against the country average of 733.
Bias against girls “In almost three fourths of the cases relating to boys, more admissions can be
attributed to the prevailing bias against the girl child in society,” said an official, requesting anonymity.
Under-reported deaths“Urban areas report a higher death percentage as they offer tertiary care, and
admit several serious cases from peripheral districts,” said the official, who stated that several districts
had under-reported deaths as well.
The issue of under-reporting is illustrated by the Child Health Review 2019-2020, which highlights 43
districts where government officials didn’t report more than 50% of deaths of children under five, to falsely
jack up their score.
21. Which State has recorded the highest percentage of new-born deaths as per the report by the National
Health Mission?
(a) West Bengal (b) Bihar (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Orissa
22. Which state has the maximum number of neo natal deaths?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) West Bengal (c) Orissa (d) Bihar
23. The data the Child Health Review 2019-2020 was released by;
(a) National health mission (b) National Rural Health Mission
(c) National Urban Health Mission (d) None of the above
24. According to the report which one of the following is not the reason for neo natal deaths and high infant
mortality rate?
(a) absence of a special neonatal transport service to health centres
(b) lack of trained staff
(c) lack of awareness
(d) availability of doctors
25. National Health Mission (NHM) was launched by the government of India in?
(a) 2012 (b) 2013 (c) 2014 (d) 2011
(Q.26-Q.30): The Supreme Court dismissed the Union government’s submissions that women are
physiologically weaker than men as a “sex stereotype” and declared that (SSC) women officers are
eligible for permanent commission and command posts in the Army irrespective of their years of service.
“Women officers of the Indian Army have brought laurels to the force. Their track record of service to the
nation is beyond reproach. To cast aspersion on their abilities on the ground of gender is an affront not
only to their dignity as women but to the dignity of the members of the Indian Army — men and women —
who serve as equal citizens in a common mission. The time has come for a realisation that women
officers in the Army are not adjuncts to a male-dominated establishment, whose presence must be
‘tolerated’ within narrow confines,” a Bench of Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and Hemant Gupta observed
in a 54-page judgment.
The verdict came on a nearly 10-year-old appeal filed by the government against a March 12, 2010
decision of the Delhi High Court to grant SSC women officers permanent commission. The Supreme
Court ordered the government to implement its judgment in three months.
The order castigated the government for submitting a note containing written submissions portraying
women as physiologically unfit for answering the “call beyond duty” of the Army. The note had shown
women officers in a poor light, saying isolation and hardships would eat into their resolve and they would
have to heed to the call of pregnancy, childbirth and family. The note had mentioned that women ran the
risk of capture by enemy and being taken prisoner of war.
Justice Chandrachud, who wrote the judgment, countered that 30% of women officers were deputed in
conflict zones. He said the note screamed of the age-old patriarchal notion that domestic obligations
rested only with women. The court found the remarks in the note not only constitutionally invalid but also
discriminatory, affecting the dignity of women officers.
The Supreme Court, which castigated the government for its stand on permanent commission for Short
Service Commission women officers, favourably saw a policy statement filed separately by the
government as a letter on February 25, 2019. It noted that the government’s note and the February 2019
policy statement clashed with each other.
“The policy decision of the Union government is a recognition of the right of women officers to equality of
opportunity,” the court said.
SSC for women is available only in the ‘Combat Support Arms’ and ‘Services’ wings of the Army.The
exclusion of women from combat operations was not examined by the court as it was not the contested in
the appeal.
The court dismissed the government’s stand that only women officers with less than 14 years of service
ought to be considered for permanent commission, and those with over 20 years of service should be
pensioned immediately.
Applying the judgment retrospectively, the court declared that all serving women officers would be eligible
for permanent commission. The court held that a blanket ban of women SSC officers from command
posts cannot be sustained by law.
26. What does SSC in the above article stands for?

(a) Service selection commission (b) Short Service Commission
(c) Staff Service Commission (d) None of the above
27. With this ruling women can enter which stream too?
(a) Army Education Corps (b) Intelligence Corps
(c) Combat arms (d) None of the above
28. The rule that girls cannot enter into combat was in violation of which Article of the Indian Constitution?
29. After implementation of the judgement, a woman can rise to the rank of?
(a) General (b) Admiral (c) Colonel (d) None of the above
30. What is the maximum numbers of years one can serve under SSC?
(a) 14 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 10
(Q.31-Q.35): Over a fifth of India’s bird diversity, ranging from the Short-toed Snake Eagle to the Sirkeer
Malkoha, has suffered strong long-term declines over a 25-year period, while more recent annual trends
point to a drastic 80% loss among several common birds, a new scientific report jointly released by 10
organisations.
The 2020 SoIB assessment raises the alarm that several spectacular birds, many of them endemic to the
sub-continent, face a growing threat from loss of habitat due to human activity, widespread presence of
toxins, including pesticides; hunting and trapping for the pet trade. Diminishing population sizes of many
birds because of one factor brings them closer to extinction because of the accelerated effects of others,
the report warned. For every bird species that was found to be increasing in numbers over the long term,
11 have suffered losses, some catastrophically.
Of 101 species categorised as being of High Conservation Concern — 59 based on range and
abundance and the rest included from high-risk birds on the IUCN (International Union for Conservation
of Nature) Red List — endemics such as the Rufous-fronted Prinia, Nilgiri Thrush, Nilgiri Pipit and Indian
vulture were confirmed as suffering current decline, and all except 13 had a restricted or highly restricted
range, indicating greater vulnerability to man-made threats.
The SoIB was produced using a base of 867 species, and analysed with the help of data uploaded by
birdwatchers to the online platform, Adequate data on how birds fared over a period of over 25 years
(long-term trend) are available only for 261 species. Current annual trends are calculated over a five-year
period.
The severe long-term decline of vultures, recorded and analysed for years now, is underscored by the
report.
Migratory shorebirds, along with gulls and terns, seem to have declined the most among waterbirds, the
report states, consistent with population trends among Arctic-breeding shorebirds based on independent
assessments.
31. What does SOiB stands for?

(a) State of India’s Birds (b) Status of India’s Birds
(c) State of Indian Birds (d) None of the above
32. The SOiB project was first conceived in the year?

(a) 2019 (b) 2018 (c) 2017 (d) 2016
33. The report was released on 17 February 2020 at the 13th Conference of Parties to the Convention on
Migratory Species held at?
(a) Gandhinagar (b) Ahmedabad (c) Delhi (d) Mumbai
34. Which species of bird has been in decline in the urban cities?
(a) Pigeons (b) House sparrow (c) Eagle (d) None of the above
35. The SOiB gathered data online through-

(a) eBird (b) eAnimals (c) esurvey (d) none of the above
(Q.36-Q.39): The Environment Ministry has relaxed Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) rules that restrict
construction near beaches to help States construct infrastructure and enable them to receive ‘Blue Flag’
certification.
Last year, the Ministry selected beaches in India to vie for the certificate. This is an international
recognition conferred on beaches that meet certain criteria of cleanliness and environmental propriety.
The earmarked beaches are — Ghoghala beach (Diu), Shivrajpur beach (Gujarat), Bhogave beach
(Maharashtra), Padubidri and Kasarkod beaches (Karnataka), Kappad beach (Kerala), Kovalam beach
(Tamil Nadu) etc.
The Blue Flag certification, however, requires beaches to create certain infrastructure — portable toilet
blocks, grey water treatment plants, a solar power plant, seating facilities, CCTV surveillance and the like.
However, India’s CRZ laws don’t allow the construction of such infrastructure on beaches and islands.
Via an order on January 9, the Environment Ministry eased these restrictions for the “purposes of Blue
Flag certification”.
“...Central Government hereby declares that for the purpose of Blue Flag Certification in such identified
beaches, the following activities and facilities shall be permitted in the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ),
including Islands, subject to maintaining a minimum distance of meters from HTL (High Tide Line),” the
gazette notification notes.
The certification is accorded by the Denmark-based Foundation for Environment Education, with 33
stringent criteria under four major heads for the beaches, that is, (i) Environmental Education and
Information (ii) Bathing Water Quality (iii) Environment Management and Conservation and (iv) Safety
and Services.
The ‘Blue Flag’ beach is an ‘eco-tourism model’ and marks out beaches as providing tourists and
beachgoers clean and hygienic bathing water, facilities/amenities, a safe and healthy environment, and
sustainable development of the area.
The Blue Flag Programme started in France in 1985 and has been implemented in Europe since 1987,
and in areas outside Europe since 2001, when South Africa joined.
36. The Environmental Ministry selected how many beaches in India to vie for the certificate?
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13
37. Blue flag programme was launched by:

(a) Foundation for Environmental Education
(b) United Nations Environment Programme
(c) International Environment agency
38. Which country has the highest number of Blue Flag Beaches?
(a) Greece (b) France (c) Spain (d) USA
39. Which was the first Indian state to get blue flag certification?
(a) Goa (b) Kerala (c) Orissa (d) Tamilnadu
MOCK CLAT #26
Directions (Q.1-Q.39): Read the informations carefully and answer the questions based on it.
(Q.1-Q.5): The [2] Global Gender Gap Report 2020 says men and women will have pay equality in 257
years. Of the 153 countries studied for the report, India ranks [1] on the overall Global Gender Gap
Index. The economic gender gap runs particularly deep and has gotten significantly wider.
Research from India’ leading diversity and inclusion consulting firm Avtar Group shows that women are
paid 34% less than men for performing the same job with the same qualifications.
However, for every dismal number on gender parity, there is equal evidence that gender is a business
and economic imperative. Last month, a joint report by Bain & Company and Google revealed that
women in entrepreneurship can generate transformational employment in India with 150–170 million job
opportunities, which is more than 25% of the new jobs required for the entire working-age population by
2030. The report, ‘Women Entrepreneurship in India – Powering the economy with her’, underlined the
need to step up efforts to grow female entrepreneurs in India to solve the country’s employment
challenges.
While on one hand, the skill and wage mismatch is further exacerbated by the Indian societal norms—
marriage, maternity and mobility causing a deep dent in women’s workforce participation, on the other,
there are progressive companies that are playing catalysts in women achieving equal pay.
Says Saundarya Rajesh, Founder-President, Avtar Group, “Achieving gender parity is not just the fair
thing to do, it is social mobility accelerator that enables women to exercise greater purchasing power,
decision making and independence.”
1. What is India’s rank, that can be replaced by [1], at Global Gender Gap Index?
(a) 110 (b) 112 (c) 119 (d) 121
2. Which organization can be replaced by [2] in the above passage?

(a) World Economic Forum
(b) United Nations Entity for Gender Equality and the Empowerment of Women
(c) United Nations International Research and Training Institute for the Advancement of Women
(d) The Convention on the Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination Against Women
3. Which of the following city organized annual meeting of above mentioned organisation?
(a) Geneva (b) Davos (c) Zurich (d) Bern
4. Which of the following is true regarding Global Gender Gap index?

(a) It was first published in 2000.
(b) It is measured by collecting data based on gender gap between women and men in four key areas:
education, economy, health, and politics.
(c) Iceland, Norway, Finland, and Sweden are at the top four places in this year’s overall ranking in the
index.
(d) All the above
5. Which Constitutional Amendments have provided 33 percent reservation for women in local bodies to
remove gender inequality?
(a) 108th and 109th (b) 112th (c) 73rd and 74th (d) 113th
(Q.6-Q.10): The newly-created [1] in the Defence Ministry has got cracking on delivering “tangible
outcomes” within 100 days as per Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s directions, even before it has had time
to be established and settled.
The instructions to the [1] were passed on by Modi during sectoral briefings by selected secretaries
earlier this week. The briefing for all ministries dealing with national and internal security was done by
Defence Secretary Ajay Kumar.
“The [1] has got to hit the ground running after the PM expressed his desire to show tangible outcomes
from this major reform he has undertaken, and he has given a deadline of 100 days. It has meant that
they have had little time to settle down and establish themselves,” a senior government official told The
Indian Express.
As per a government order, the CDS has been given a time-bound task to be done within three years —
to bring about jointness in operations, logistics, transport, training, support services, communications, and
repairs and maintenance of the three services. The head of [1] has to also facilitate the restructuring of
military commands for optimal utilisation of resources by bringing about jointness in operations, including
through establishment of joint/ theatre commands.
6. Which is the newly created department under ministry of defence that can be replaced by [1]?
(a) Defence Staff (b) Department of Military Affairs
(c) Staff of Military Affairs (d) Department of Defence Forces
7. Who is the first head of newly created department mentioned above?

(a) Rajnath Singh (b) Subhash Bhamre (c) Bipin Rawat (d) Ajay Kumar
8. Which of the following is not department under ministry of defence?

(a) Department of Defence Research and Development
(b) Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare
(c) Department of Defence Production
(d) Department of Defence Forces
9. Which of the following is not true regarding newly created post of Chief of Defence Staff?
(a) It will act as the principal military adviser to the defence minister on all matters relating to tri-services.
(b) It will also function as the Military Adviser to the Nuclear Command Authority.
(c) It will be a three-star post.
(d) It will serve as the permanent chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (CoSC).
10. Which of the following committee first recommended the creation of post of Chief of Defence Staff?
(a) Kargil review committee (b) Naresh Chandra committee
(c) Malhotra committee (d) Rajamannar committee
(Q.11-Q.15): [1] and footballer Lionel Messi were declared joint winners of the prestigious Laureus World
Sportsman of the Year Award at a glittering ceremony.
The Laureus Sporting Moment Award (2000-2020) public fan vote was won by [2]. Voted by sports fans
around the world, the Award celebrated moments from the past two decades where sport has unified
people in the most extraordinary way.
[1] and six-time FIFA World Player of the Year Messi were so close in terms of their achievements in
2019 that even the ultimate sporting jury, the Laureus World Sports Academy, could not split them, with
the voting being tied for the very first time in the 20-year history of the Laureus Awards.
The duo pipped golfing great Tiger Woods, Kenyan marathoner Eliud Kipchoge, tennis legend Rafael
Nadal and Moto GP champion Marc Marquez to the award.
The 2019 Rugby World Cup winner South Africa won its second Laureus World Team of the Year Award,
beating Jurgen Klopp’s Liverpool and the US women’s football team, among others.
The memory of Siya Kolisi, South Africa’s historic first black Test rugby captain, lifting the Webb Ellis
Trophy in Yokohama, was an iconic moment in sport. The team’s victory united communities back in
South Africa, and was proof of sport’s ability to change the world. The winners were revealed as
sportsperson gathered together to be part of the most important annual awards ceremony, this year
celebrating the 20th anniversary of Laureus.
The event was hosted by actor Hugh Grant and the legends of sport, past and present, were treated to
entertainment from British singer-songwriter Liam Payne, former member of One Direction. A tribute was
paid to American basketball legend Kobe Bryant, who recently died in a helicopter crash.
American gymnast [4] confirmed her place in the history of Laureus, winning her third coveted Laureus
Sportswoman of the Year Award as she continued to push the boundaries of the sport.
She beat American footballer Megan Rapinoe, Japanese tennis sensation Naomi Osaka, American track
and field athlete Allyson Felix and skier Mikaela Shiffrin.
11. Which of the following sportsman can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?
(a) Sebastian Vettel (b) Lewis Hamilton (c) Max Verstappen (d) Charles laclerc
12. Who is the first Indian to win Laures Sports Award?

(a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Vignesh Phogat (c) Abhinav Bindra (d) Prakash Padukone
13. Who holds the record of most Laurel Sports Award?

(a) Novak Djokovic (b) Tiger Woods (c) Michael Phelps (d) Roger Federar
14. Who can be replaced by [4] in the above passage?

(a) Simone Biles (b) Chloe Kim (c) Alice Tai (d) Oksana Master
15. Which of the following statement is not true regarding Laures Award?
(a) The awards are presented in 7 different categories with the potential for additional discretionary
Awards given.
(b) It was started in 2000.
(c) It is given by International Sports Federations.
(d) Award ceremony was held in Monaco in 2020.
(Q.16-Q.20): The Tulu speaking population of the country has been urging the government to expedite
the steps to list it under schedule [1]. As per the census, there are as many as 18,46,427 of them.
Here we discuss the advantages of getting listed under schedule [1] and the wider implications of the
issue. India is a land of cultural and linguistic diversity As per 2001 census, about 30 of Indian languages
are being spoken by over a million people each. Besides this list, around 122 languages are spoken by
not less than 10,000 people. There are also 1,599 other languages, most of which are considered as
dialects belonging to some specific regions. For quite long, there have been demands to include many of
these languages into the list of scheduled languages.
In 1967, Sindhi was added. In 1992, Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included. In 2003, the four
remaining languages including Dogiri, Bodo, Maithali, and Santhali were included. For so long, the
speakers of many other languages have been demanding that their language be included.
As many as 37 languages including Angika, Banjara, Bazika, Bhojpuri, Bhoti, Bhotia, Bundelkhandi,
Chhattisgarhi, Dhatki, Garhwali (Pahari), Gondi, Gujjari, Ho, Kachachhi, Kamtapuri, Karbi, Khasi, Kodava
(Coorg), Kok Barak, Kumaoni, Kurak, Kurmail, Lepcha, Limbu, Mizo, Magahi, Mundari, Nagpuri,
Nicobarese, Himachali, Pali, Rajasthani, Sambalpuri, Shaurseni, Siraiki, Tenyidi, and Tulu -- are currently
want the government to include them under schedule.
16. How many scheduled languages are there under Indian Constitution?
(a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24
17. What are the benefits of inclusion of language in schedule [1]?

1. It will become mandatory for the government to spare the efforts to develop the scheduled language
2. It will be considered as an official language of the nation.
3. Sahitya Academy will start recognizing the language
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
18. Tulu language is majorly spoken in two coastal districts of which state?
(a) Kerala (b) Goa (c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu
19. Fill [1] with a suitable option

(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10
20. Tulu is _____ language.

(a) Dravidian (b) Sanskrit (c) Urdu (d) None of the above
(Q.21-Q.24): India’s world-class facility for training astronauts will come up not in the space headquarters
in Bengaluru, nor in any glitzy metropolis. It will be established in three years at Challakere, a shrubby,
arid oilseeds town on the Bengaluru-Pune NH4 in [1] district of Karnataka.
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has proposed a ₹ 2,700-crore master plan to create top
infrastructure that will house its young Human Space Flight Centre (HSFC).
ISRO Chairman and Secretary, Department of Space, told The Hindu, “Everything connected with events
and planning of the HSP [Human Spaceflight Programme] will shift to our campus at Challakere. We want
to establish a self-contained facility there so that in future, whatever training and activities we are now
doing in Russia for the Gaganyaan crew can all be done by us here.” When ready, the 400-acre ISRO
land at Challakere will be the single-stop consolidating infrastructure and activities related to space
travellers.
The country pays a hefty, unnamed sum to use such facilities abroad. The first set of four astronaut
candidates for the first Gaganyaan mission of 2022 are to train in Russia. The amount sought for the
HSFC is over and above the ₹10,000-crore approved budget of Gaganyaan. Pending its approval, the
centre may take 2-3 years at the earliest to be set up, but would come up after the first Indian crewed
flight.
21. Which district can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?

(a) Mysore (b) Vijayapur (c) Hassan (d) Chitradurga
22. Which of the following is known as ‘Science City’?

(a) Challakere (b) Chitradurga (c) Hassan (d) Haveri
23. Who was the first chairman of ISRO?

(a) Udupi Ramachandra Rao (b) Satish Dhawan
(c) M.G.K. Menon (d) Vikram Sarabhai
24. Which was the India’s first satellite launched in 1975?

(a) Brahmaputra (b) Aryabhata (c) Bhaskara (d) Rohini
(Q.25-Q.29): Even as the world battles the novel coronavirus which continues to claim lives, Earth Hour,
observed annually, will still be celebrated this year today, albeit digitally. With public events cancelled due
to the pandemic, the [1] is encouraging people to switch off the lights from 8.30 pm to 9.30 pm as per
their local time. The idea is to refrain from the use of non-essential lighting to save energy in a symbolic
call for environmental protection.
People from across the world have been urged to join the climate movement from their homes via a
digital livestream. With impactful social media challenges, [1] India is also urging people to pledge to
protect the planet and its invaluable biodiversity.
Tipped as the world’s “largest grassroots movement for climate change” by its organisers, the movement
has gained significant appeal throughout the globe.
As per [1]India’s Earth Hour kit, there are many things that people can do while being at home, besides
switching off non-essential lights and posting switch-off pictures on social media.
People are encouraged to take up the Give Up pledge by posting what they would give up to reduce their
carbon footprint, and as a result be the ‘voice for the planet’. This includes a pledge to give up single use
plastics or paper wastage or water wastage or food wastage.
For the specially created Earth Hour track by Grammy award composer, Ricky Kej, participants have
been asked to take up the ‘Step-up for the planet challenge’ where they can come up with innovative
dance moves.
Are you a ‘Give Up Warrior’? [1] is urging citizens to acquaint themselves with special ‘Give Up’
characters created by [1] to “awaken the planet superhero in everyone”.
There is also an Earth Hour quiz that can be taken up.
25. Who organizes Earth hour?

(a) UNICEF (b) UNESCO (c) WWF (d) Greenpeace
26. Which of the following is not true regarding the organizer of Earth Hour?
(a) It is an important arm of United Nations.
(b) It was founded in 1961.
(c) It is working in the field of the wilderness preservation and reduction of human impact on the
environment.
(d) It publishes famous ‘Living Planet Report’ (started in 1998).
27. In which year Earth Hour was started?

(a) 2006 (b) 2007 (c) 2008 (d) 2009
28. When Earth Hour is held every year?

(a) On last Saturday of every March
(b) On last Sunday of every March
(c) On second last Saturday of every March
(d) On second last Sunday of every March
29. What was the theme of Earth Hour 2020?

(a) Raise your voice for nature
(b) #Connect2Earth
(c) Reduce, Reuse, Change the Way We Live
(d) Our choice for the planet
(Q.30-Q.34): In 2016, the [1] pulled out of the Commonwealth terming “unjust” the grouping’s decision to
penalise the country over former President [4] controversial ouster in 2012. It followed the
Commonwealth Ministerial Action Group (CMAG)’s warning to [1] of suspension from the bloc, voicing
“deep disappointment” over the country’s lack of progress in resolving the political crisis during former
President Abdulla Yameen’s presidency, whose authoritarian slant sparked concern domestically and
internationally.
A file photo of the flag of Republic of [1]. However, months after President Ibrahim Mohamed Solih won
the 2018 presidential elections, promising to restore democracy, he wrote to the Commonwealth,
requesting to re-join the bloc.
Following the island nation’s readmission Commonwealth Secretary-General Patricia Scotland said: “The
reform process under way in [1] aligns with the values and principles of the Commonwealth and we
encourage the nation to continue on this path.”
President Solih said in a tweet: “A short while ago, I had a conversation with the Commonwealth’s
Secretary General who informed me that the [1] has been formally reinstated into the Commonwealth as
its 54th member state..”
New Delhi-Male ties witnessed a significant shift following the poll defeat of former President Yameen,
perceived to be a friend of China. India said it would continue working with [1] in achieving its “democratic
and developmental aspirations.”
30. Which country can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?

(a) Mauritius (b) Malaysia (c) Maldives (d) Malta
31. What was the reason behind Maldives’ suspension from Commonwealth of Nations?
(a) Human rights violation
(b) Political support to regional terrorism
(c) End of trade ties with other members of Commonwealth of Nations
(d) Lack of separation of power
32. Which of the following is not true regarding Commonwealth of Nations?
(a) It is a political association of 54 member states, mostly former territories of the British Empire.
(b) It is not a political union of any sort, and does not allow the United Kingdom to exercise any power
over the affairs of the organization’s other members.
(c) British Prime Minister is the head of Commonwealth of Nations.
(d) The member states of the commonwealth are not legally liable or bound to each other.
33. Which leader can be replaced by [4] in the above passage?

(a) Maumoon Abdul Gayoom (b) Mohamed Latheef
(c) Mohammed Waheed Hassan (d) Mohammad Nasheed
34. Which of the following military exercise was jointly conducted by India and Maldives?
(a) Hand in Hand (b) Ekuverin (c) Garuda Shakti (d) Surya Kiran
(Q.35-Q.39): Five years after it started the ‘Station’ programme to bring free public Wi-Fi to 400 busiest
railway stations in India, Google has decided to gradually wind down the service globally as it believes
that better data plans and improving mobile connectivity have made it “simpler and cheaper” for users to
get online.
However, users in India will be able to continue using the existing facilities at the over 400 stations via
[1], Google’s partner in India for the programme. The technology giant said that through the year 2020, it
would be working with its partners to transition existing sites so that they could remain useful resources
for the community.
The programme was kick-started in India in 2015 as a partnership between Google, Indian Railways and
[1] to bring fast and free public WiFi.
35. Which Indian company can be replaced with [1] in the above passage?
(a) Reliance (b) MTNL (c) BSNL (d) Railtail
36. Which of the following is not true regarding above company replaceable with [1]?
(a) It is a public sector unit.
(b) It is one of the largest neutral telecom infrastructure providers in the country owning a Pan-India optic
fibre network on exclusive Right of Way (ROW) along Railway track.
(c) It provides wifi services under brand name ‘Railwire’.
(d) It is a maharatna company.
37. Which station became India’s 5500th railway station to get free wifi facility?
(a) Tori Junction (b) Kumendi (c) Mahuamilan (d) Chetar
38. Which was the first Indian railway station to get free wifi services?
(a) Habibganj (b) Lokmanya Tilak Station
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus (d) New Delhi Railway Station
39. Who is the first Indian CEO of Google?

(a) Satya Nadella (b) Sundar Pichai (c) Indra Nooyi (d) Rajiv Suri
MOCK CLAT #27
(Q.1-Q.5): Ministry of [X] has announced the results of the first (April-June) and second (July-
September) quarters of Swachh Survekshan 2020.Swachh Survekshan 2020 is the [Y] edition of the
annual urban cleanliness survey conducted by the Ministry.Around 4,372 cities participated in the league.
The ranks for Swachh Survekshan League are assigned on the basisof 2 categories of cities. First, cities
with a population between 1 lakh and 10 lakh and second, the cities having population of over 10
lakhs.The focus of the survey was on waste water treatment, faecal sludge management, implementation
of ODF+, water plus and ODF+.
1. What is replaced by [Y] in the above passage?

(a) 3rd (b) 4th (c) 5th (d) 6th
2. Which city topped in the category of 10 lakh plus population cities?

(a) Jamshedpur (b) Surat (c) Bhopal (d) Indore
3. Which city topped in the category of between 1 lakh and 10 lakh population cities?
(a) New Delhi (b) Khargone (c) Indore (d) Jamshedpur
4. Which city was ranked at the bottom of the ranking of 49 major cities across both quarters?
(a) Kolkata (b) Chennai (c) Jaipur (d) Hyderabad
5. Which of the following Union Ministry is replaced by [X] in the above passage?
(a) Ministry of Health (b) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(c) Ministry of Education (d) Ministry of Urban Development
(Q.6-Q.9): The [X] has designated the year 2020 as the “Year of the Nurse and midwife”.It is in the
honour of the 200th birth anniversary of Florence Nightingale.The declaration of “Year of the Nurse and
midwife” will help to strengthen nursing and midwifery for Universal Health Coverage.The declaration will
also help to endorse “The NursingNow!” a three-year campaign (2018-2020) to improve health globally by
raising the status of nursing. Moreover, the organization is also leading the development of the first-ever
State of the World’s Nursing report which will be launched in 2020.
6. Which organization is replaced by [X] in the above passage?

(a) United Nations (b) UNESCO
(c) WHO (d) CDC (Centre for Disease Control and Prevention)
7. The reports were released prior to 73rd session of [X], to be held between February 3 and 8, 2020, at?
(a) Geneva (b) Vienna (c) Paris (d) Tokyo
8. Florence Nightingale organized camps for wounded soldiers and also served as a manager of nurses
during which of the given war?
(a) Crimean War (b) Caucasian War
(c) Battle of Waterloo (d) Siege of Sevastopol
9. The birth date of Florence Nightingale is celebrated as International Nurse Day. The date is?
(a) May 2 (b) May 12 (c) May 18 (d) June 2
(Q.10-Q.14): The __th Indian Science Congress (ISC) was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi
on January 3, 2019 at the University of Agricultural Sciences. Indian Science Congress is a major focal
point for scientists, researchers and academicians interested in various aspects of scientific discoveries
and technologies. The previous (2019) session was held at Lovely Professional University (LPU) in
Jalandhar, Punjab.The five-day summit is expected to witness participation from several policymakers,
scientists, academians, inventors and politicians from across the world. Two Nobel Prize winners, Stefan
Hell and Ada Yonath are also expected to attend the congress and conduct lectures.
10. This was the __th edition of Indian Science Congress.

(a) 106th (b) 107th (c) 108th (d) 109th
11. The ISC was held at University of Agricultural Sciences, which is situated in?
(a) Bengaluru (b) Lucknow (c) Chandigarh (d) Patiala
12. The theme of the 2020 Congress was?

(a) “Science & Technology: Rural Development”
(b) “Technology and Agriculture”
(c) “Science for Agricultural Development”
(d) “Science & Technology for Rural Agriculture”
13. During the Congress, the Indian Railways has announced that it will build a hydrogen-powered rail
engine by the end of ___.
(a) 2021 (b) 2022 (c) 2024 (d) 2025
14. The only country to demonstrate the technology of hydrogen-powered rail engine is?
(a) USA (b) UK (c) Japan (d) Germany
(Q.15-Q.18): The [X] published the annual Crime in India Report 2018.It was published with provisional
data, as five States — West Bengal, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya and Sikkim — did not send
clarifications despite repeated reminders.[X]has also released Accidental Death and Suicides in India
2018 report which outlines death and suicide statistics of the country.According to the report, 3, 78, 277
cases of crime against women were reported in the country, up from 3,59,849 in 2017.
15. What is replaced by [X] in the above passage?

(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Bureau of Police Research and Development
(c) National Informatics Centre
(d) National Crime Records Bureau
16. According to the list, which state has topped the list in Crime against Women?
(a) Haryana (b) UP (c) Bihar (d) Rajasthan
17. According to the data, maximum Suicides were reported from which state?
(a) UP (b) Delhi (c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan
18. Which state reported the maximum number of Economic Offences, according to the data?
(a) UP (b) Maharashtra (c) Karnataka (d) Delhi
(Q.19-Q.21): World Hindi Day is celebrated every year on __ to promote the Hindi language all around
the world.It was first celebrated to commemorate the anniversary of the first World Hindi Conference
which was held in Nagpur on January 10, 1975. World Hindi Day is also celebrated by Indian embassies
located in various parts of the world.World Hindi Day is different from Hindi Divas or National Hindi Day.
Hindi got its name from the Persian word Hind, meaning 'land of the Indus River'. Turk invaders in the
early 11th century named the language of the region Hindi, 'language of the land of the Indus River'.It is
the official language of India, English being the other official language.
19. World Hindi Day is celebrated on?

(a) January 10 (b) January 14 (c) January 21 (d) January 24
20. When is the Hindi Divas or National Hindi Day celebrated?
(a) September 10 (b) September 14 (c) October 10 (d) October 14
21. World Hindi Day was first celebrated in?

(a) 1975 (b) 1999 (c) 2006 (d) 2014
(Q.22-Q.24): The world's second tallest statue of Gautam Buddha is proposed to be built in Dev Ni Mori,
Sabarkantha district. The proposed statue would be second in the world. Ni Mori was excavated by the
state archaeology department in 1953. The remains of a Buddhist monastery belonging to 3rd-4th
century AD have been unearthed from Devni Mori.The most important discovery from the site however
was a 1,700 year old casket which has bodily relics of Buddha.The inscription clearly mentions that the
casket contains bodily relics of Buddha.
22. The statue is proposed to be built in Dev Ni Mori, Sabarkantha district, in the state of?
(a) Gujarat (b) UP (c) Maharashtra (d) Haryana
23. The height of the said statute is going to be?

(a) 108m (b) 120m (c) 136m (d) 148m
24. World’s tallest statue of Buddha is present in?

(a) Cambodia (b) Sri Lanka (c) China (d) None of these
(Q.25-Q.28): The __th edition of Raisina Dialogue is being held in [X]. The conference will host 700
participants from more than 100 countries and at least 40% of the speakers will be women.Raisina
dialogue is a multilateral conference organized annually by India’s Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) and
Observer Research Foundation. This dialogue is organized on the lines of Shangri-La Dialogue held in
Singapore. The Dialogue has been India’s contribution to global efforts to discover solutions, identify
opportunities and provide stability to a century that has witnessed an eventful two decades. A session will
be held on the Indo-Pacific, including military or naval commanders from the “Quadrilateral or Quad”.
25. What place is replaced by [X] in the above passage?

(a) New Delhi (b) Lucknow (c) Chennai (d) Bangalore
26. This was the __th edition of the Raisina Dialogue.

(a) 2nd (b) 3rd (c) 4th (d) 5th
27. What is the theme of the Raisina Dialogue 2020?

(a) “New Geometric Fluid Partnership Uncertain Outcomes”
(b) “Managing Disruptive Transitions: Ideas, Institutions and Idioms”
(c) “Navigating the Alpha Century”
(d) None of these
28. A session will be held on the Indo-Pacific, including military or naval commanders from the “Quadrilateral
or Quad”. Which of the given is not a part of the mentioned Quad?
(a) India (b) Australia (c) Japan (d) France
(Q.29-Q.31):[X] released a survey ranking of the fastest-growing urban areas across the world which
features three cities from India among the top 10.The list is based on data from the United Nations
Population Division.The Economist has listed the rate at which the populations of the UAs are expected
to increase between 2015 and 2020 and it provides a measure of the pace of urbanization.
29. Which agency or institution is replaced by [X] in the given passage?

(a) United Nation (b) World Bank
(c) Economist Intelligence Unit (d) World Economic Forum
30. The list is topped by which of the following cities?
(a) Sharjah, UAE (b) Can Tho, Vietnam
(c) Muscat, Oman (d) Malappuram, India
31. Which of the following Indian cities was not a part of top 10 in the list?
(a) Kollam (b) Malappuram (c) Kozhikode (d) Tiruppur
(Q.32 and Q.33): The Environment Ministry has relaxed Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) rules that
restrict construction near beaches to help States construct infrastructure and enable them to receive ‘__
Flag’ certification.The Ministry selected beaches in India for the certificate in 2019.India’s CRZ laws do
not allow the construction of infrastructure on beaches and islands.The government notified that
construction activities and facilities shall be permitted in the CRZs, including Islands, for the purpose of
the Certification in beaches.
32. Fill the above left blank.

(a) Green Flag (b) Blue Flag (c) Red Flag (d) Coastal Flag
33. How many beaches did the Ministry selected in India for the certificate in 2019?
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 13
(Q.34-Q.37): Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has launched telecommunication satellite [X]
into a Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO), lauched by European Ariane-5 VA-251.The satellite will
replace INSAT-4A which was launched in __. A European communication satellite named EUTELSAT
KONNECT was also launched with it. It weighs 3,357-kg and will be gradually adjusted into a orbit 36,000
km from the earth. It was launched from the foreign launcher because it is much heavier than the lifting
capacity of its geostationary launch vehicle GSLV-MkII (It has the capacity to lift 2500kg).

(a) GSAT 30 (b) GSAT 31 (c) GSAT-17 (d) GSAT-33
35. The satellite will replace INSAT-4A which was launched in __?
(a) 1995 (b) 2002 (c) 2005 (d) 2009
36. The satellite was launched from?

(a) Wheeler Island (b) Salvation’s Island
(c) Kourou, French Guiana (d) Sriharikota
37. ISRO plans to use the upcoming MkIIIs mainly for which of its first human space flight mission in 2022?
(a) Chandrayan III (b) Aditya- L2 (c) Gangayaan (d) Aryabhatt 3
(Q.38 and Q.39): The __ edition of ‘The Death Penalty in India: Annual Statistics’ was published by
Project 39A. The report states that higher number of death sentences awarded in India in recent years
relates to the cases of sexual offences.The number of death sentences awarded for murders involving
sexual offences in 2019 was the highest in four years.Trial courts: Imposed 102 death sentences in 2019,
a significant drop from 162 death sentences in 2018.. High Courts: 65.38% of cases of confirmations of
death sentences involved sexual offences along with murder. Supreme Court: In 2019, the SC dealt with
27 capital punishment cases, the highest number since 2001.
38. The report was published by the Project 39A of which of the following NLU?
(a) NLSIU (b) NALSAR (c) NLIU (d) NLU, Delhi
39. This was the __th edition of the report?

(a) 2nd (b) 3rd (c) 4th (d) 5th
MOCK CLAT #28
Directions (Q.1-Q.39): Read the informations carefully and answer the questions.
(Q.1-Q.5): The central government will release a report card of 100 selected smart cities. According to
the Union Ministry, it will help cities in better planning and moving towards data-driven governance that
will eventually improve their live ability.
"We are using data to change lives. The government is ranking cities on economy, sustainability and
other. We have converted citizens' aspirations into our outcome," Kumar told PTI.
He said in the category of climate, cities will be ranked based on their works in promoting matters related
to the environment. The country's urban population was 37.7 crore (31 per cent) in 2011 census and it is
projected to increase to 60 crore (40 per cent) by 2030, an official said.
Thirty-five per cent weightage will be given to 'quality of life', 30 per cent to citizen participation, 20 per
cent to sustainability and 20 per cent to economic viability, the official said.
Municipal performance assessment will help urban local bodies in reducing the complex realities of
governance into a few understandable dimensions that can be measured and quantified.
The verticals that are covered in the index include services (30 per cent weightage), finance (20 per cent)
technology (15 per cent), planning (15), governance (20 per cent).
The ministry said that the value of tendered smart city projects so far is over ₹1,62,000crore. The value of
work orders issued so far is around ₹1,20,000crore and the value of all completed projects is more
than ₹25,000 crores.
1. In which year Smart City mission was launched?

(a) 2014 (b) 2015 (c) 2016 (d) 2017
2. The Union Ministry has paired up 20 best performing smart cities with least performing cities. They will
work as-
(a) Twin cities (b) Sister cities (c) Associated cities (d) Quad cities
3. Which of the following is not separate category on the basis of which report of smart cities will be made?
(a) Ease of living index (b) Performance of municipalities
(c) Climate (d) Water
4. Which Union Ministry is responsible for Smart City mission?

(a) Ministry of Human Resource and Development
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
(d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
5. How much smart cities contribute to the GDP of India?

(a) 59 (b) 63 (c) 71 (d) 41
(Q.6-Q.10): The Andhra Pradesh assembly passed a resolution to abolish the state’s legislative council,
with 133 legislators of the ruling YSR Congress Party (YSRCP), which has 151 seats in the 175-member
assembly, backing the decision.
The move comes after the main Opposition Telugu Desam Party (TDP), which has 27 members out of
the total of 58 in the council, sent two bills related to the decentralization of Andhra Pradesh’s capital to a
select committee.
The YSRCP, miffed with the constant opposition in the council, decided to dissolve it.
Last week, during a special winter assembly session, TDP, led by former chief minister N. Chandrababu
Naidu, created a roadblock for the YSRCP in the council by sending the Andhra Pradesh Capital Region
Development Authority Repeal Bill 2020 and the Andhra Pradesh Decentralisation and Inclusive
Development of all Regions Bill 2020, which deal with the capital’s decentralizaton, to a select committee
for further deliberation, after it was passed in the assembly.
Once the bills, which deal with decentralizing the state’s capital between Amaravati, Visakhapatnam, and
Kurnool, reach the select committee, they will have to be deliberated upon for one to three months, after
which they will be sent back to the assembly. However, once the assembly passes the bills for a second
time, it will be deemed to have been passed in the council, as the powers of the upper House are limited.
“Everybody knows that if the council was allowed to continue, our party would get a full majority. But the
need for reaching out to the people through welfare programmes is more important to us than increasing
the party strength. Hence, the resolution was passed for the abolition of the Council," YSRCP leader and
chief minister Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy said while addressing the assembly on Monday.
A YSRCP leader, who did not want to be named, said that Naidu, as an Opposition leader, had opposed
the creation of the legislative council in 2004, when the bill to create it was proposed by the late former
chief minister Y.S. Rajasekhara Reddy, the father of Jagan Mohan Reddy.
In December, the state-government appointed an expert committee headed by G.N. Rao, which
recommended that Visakhapatnam be made the executive capital and Kurnool in the Rayalaseema
region the legal capital with the high court located there. The committee suggested that Amaravati could
house the governor’s office and the assembly, becoming the legislative capital of the state. This was
followed by the state government setting up a high-power committee to examine the recommendations of
the G.N. Rao committee.
Farmers in the Amaravati capital city region have been up in arms mainly because the previous
government, which was led by Naidu, had acquired 33,000 acres of farm land from hundreds of them for
the development of Amaravati as the capital.
6. Which was the first state to abolish legislative council?

(a) Assam (b) West Bengal (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Jammu Kashmir
7. Which of the following is not true regarding the legislative council?

(a) One-third of the members retire in every two years.
(b) The Governor is the sole authority that can provide for the abolishment of a state legislative council or
creation of a council in a state that has no council till now.
(c) It is a permanent body unless abolished by the due procedure.
(d) The tenure of a Member of the Legislative Council (MLC) is six years.
8. Which article of Indian Constitution gives power to create or abolish the Legislative Council?
(a) 171 (b) 168 (c) 169 (d) 170
9. Which of the following state does not have Legislative Council?

(a) Bihar (b) Karnataka (c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan
10. In which year Andhra Legislative Council was reconstituted?

(a) 2005 (b) 2006 (c) 2007 (d) 2008
(Q.11-Q.15): Indian Railways first waste-to-energy plant has been commissioned at [1]! In a big boost
towards sustainable development and energy-efficiency solutions, Indian Railways has taken a great step
towards solid waste management. The East Coast Railway (ECoR) zone of the Railway Ministry has
opened the first waste-to-energy plant in the city of [1]. The plant, at the Mancheswar Carriage Repair
Workshop at [1] was inaugurated on January 22, 2020, by Rajesh Agarwal, Member, Railway Board
(Rolling Stock). This is the first such plant of the Indian Railways network and the third such plant across
the country. The total cost of installation is Rs 1.79 crore and the maintenance cost of the plant is Rs 10.4
lakh per annum.
According to Railways, the waste to energy plant is an important initiative as a big chunk of non-ferrous
scrap is generated in Indian Railways workshops for which there is no efficient method of disposal and
treatment. As a result, the scrap is sent to landfills, which is environmentally hazardous as its treatment is
difficult. In order to tackle this problem, the East Coast Carriage Repair Workshop has come up with an
innovative way for solving this problem, with a patented technology known as ‘[2]’.
[2] is the world’s very first patented heterogeneous catalytic process which converts multiple feedstocks
into hydrocarbon liquid fuels, gas, carbon as well as water. The waste which is generated from the
carriage workshop, the coaching depot and railway stations at [1] will become the feeder material for the
waste to energy plant. The energy which will be produced at the plant, will be in the form of light diesel oil
and this oil will be used to light furnaces. The plant, having a capacity of 500 kg per batch can be fed with
the following:
• All kinds of existing plastic
• Petroleum sludge
• Un segregated MSW with moisture up to 50 per cent
• E-waste
• Automobile fluff
• Organic waste including bamboo, garden waste
• Jathropa fruit and palm bunch
11. Which place can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?

(a) Bhubneshwar (b) Mumbai (c) Gurgaon (d) Kharagpur
12. Which technology replaceable by [2] has been used to commission waste to energy plant?
(a) Adnocrat (b) Polycrack (c) Thermocrack (d) None of the above
13. Which company set up the first waste to energy plant in India?
(a) Larsen and Toubro (b) Infosys
(c) Hindalco (d) TCS
14. Which of the following is headquarter of Eastern Railway Zone?

(a) Bhubneshwar (b) Kolkata (c) Vishakhapatnam (d) Howrah
15. In which year Indian railway was started?

(a) 1853 (b) 1911 (c) 1850 (d) 1868
(Q.16-Q.20): In accordance with the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute’s (SIPRI) annual
report titled “Trends in international arms transfers, 2019”, India is the world’s second largest arms
importer during 2015-19 with its global share of 9.2% after [X], who has topped the ranking with global
share of 12%. On the other hand, India ranked 23rd in terms of world’s largest arms exporters with global
share of 0.2% and its main clients being Myanmar (46%), Sri Lanka (25%), and Mauritius (14%). [Y]
topped the list in this section with a share of 36%.
[Z] is largest supplier of arms to India; however, share of weapons purchased has declined from 72% to
56% during 2015-19, which accounted 25% of total Russian arms exports.
Contrarily, Israel and France’s share increased, by 175% and 715% respectively, which have become
second and third largest suppliers to India during 2015-19. It should be noted that India’s arms import
declined by 32% since 2015 due to “Make in India” initiative.
16. India is the second largest Arms importing country in the world. Country at the top, redacted as [X]?
(a) North Korea (b) Saudi Arabia (c) Syria (d) Iraq
17. Which country is the highest exporter of arms in the world?

(a) Russia (b) Israel (c) U.S. (d) France
18. The largest arms supplier to India, redacted as [Z] is–

(a) U.S. (b) Russia (c) Germany (d) China
19. Who is the current Defence Minister of India?

(a) NirmalaSitharaman (b) Rajnath Singh
(c) SmritiIrani (d) None of the above
20. Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) is based in Stockholm, Sweden. Who is the
Prime Minister of Sweden?
(a) Erna Solberg (b) Stefan Lofven (c) Andreas Norlen (d) Mette Frederiksen
(Q.21-Q.25): The National Commission for Indian System of Medicine Bill, 2019 and the National
Commission for Homoeopathy Bill, 2019 were passed in the Upper House by voice vote.
The National Commission for Indian System of Medicine Bill was introduced on January 7, 2019. Later, it
was sent to a standing committee, which submitted its report in November.
AYUSH Minister Shripad Yesso Naik He said the such medical systems were not only popular in India
but are also gaining foothold across the world. Earlier several members while supporting the two bills had
raised objection over non-inclusion of some components of AYUSH. Some members also complained
that the government has not included in the bills several suggestions made by the Parliamentary
Standing Committee on Health.
Starting the debate on the bills, Ram Gopal Yadav of the Samajwadi Party, who is also the chairman of
Parliamentary Standing Committee on Health and Family Welfare, said several suggestions was ignored
by the government while drafting the bills.
The parliamentary panel had also asked to have a provision of an appellate tribunal in the National
Commission for Indian System of Medicine Bill, 2019 and the National Commission for Homoeopathy Bill,
2019, which was not accepted.
Amar Patnaik of the BJD that the bills lack vision on several aspects, including scientific research in the
field.
Banda Prakash of the TRS said that major recommendation of the committee are missing in the bill and it
should have more representation from the states.
P Wilson of the DMK opposed the two bills saying that the proposed commissions would be manned by
bureaucrats and professionals would have very minuscule say. The bills should be sent back to the
standing committee, Wilson said.
He said the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine Bill recognises only Sanskrit as the
traditional Indian language and not Tamil, which is violative of Article 14 of the Constitution.
21. What is the key feature of the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine Bill?
(a) setting up a National Commission for Indian System of Medicine
(b) to repeal the Indian Medicine Central Council Act, 1970
(c) Making Indian system of medicine free for the poor
22. What is one of the main proposal by the National Commission for Homoeopathy Bill?
(a) To repeal the Homoeopathy Central Council Act, 1973.
(b) To constitute a National Commission for Homoeopathy
(c) To help the government to strengthen homoeopathy
23. The National Commission for Indian System of Medicine Bill, 2019 and the National Commission for
Homoeopathy Bill were passed by?
(a) The President of India (b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha (d) Both (c) and (d)
24. What was the main purpose of passing The National Commission for Indian System of Medicine Bill,
2019 and the National Commission for Homoeopathy Bill, 2019?
(a) To provide for quality medical education system in homoeopathy and promote Indian systems of
medicines.
(b) To promote homeopathy because it’s cheaper
(c) To stop international medicines from entering India
(d) To make India a cheaper place for treatment.
25. What does AYUSH stands for?

(a) Minister of State for Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unnati, Siddha and Homoeopathy
(b) Ministry for Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy
(c) Minister of State for Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy
(d) Minister of State for Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathic Therepy
(Q.26-Q.30): A colourful procession titled ‘Vivek Shobha Yatra’ was taken out under the aegis of
Ramakrishna Mission from the Old Jail Road to Ramakrishna Mission Ashrama, marking the 157th birth
anniversary of Swami Vivekananda, which is celebrated as the National Youth Day.
Vice Admiral Satish Ghormade, Chief of Staff of Eastern Naval Command (ENC) flagged off the yatra at
the south side of the Central Park. Around 1,000 youths from various colleges and schools participated in
the procession that covered Seven Hills Hospital Junction, Green Park Hotel Junction, Pandimetta Road,
Novotel Hotel and RK Beach before culminating at the the Mission Ashrama.
The participants raised slogans such as “Arise awake and stop not till the goal is reached”, “Strength is
life- Weakness is death” and “You are creator of your own destiny” .
Speaking on the occasion, Andhra University former Rector A. Prasanna Kumar recalled the reply of
Swami Vivekananda to the question of a journalist when he returned India after delivering his ‘Chicago
speech’.
Visakhapatnam Port Trust (VPT) Deputy Chairman P.L. Harinadh said the need of the hour is to follow
the teachings of Swami Vivekananda.
National teacher awardee and former Principal of Ramnath Secondary School, NSTL, C.V. Narasimham
advised the students to aim big in life.
Ramakrishna Mission Ashrama secretary Swami Atmavidananda, Indian skater and Pradhan Mantri
Rashtriya Bal Puraskar Awardee Priyam Tated, World Karate Champion B. Anmish Varma, organic
farmer C. Ganesh, CMD of SRK Infra M. Satyanarayana Raju were present.
26. Which date is celebrated as National Youth Day?

(a) 26 January (b) 12 January (c) 15 February (d) 26 March
27. What was the theme of National Youth Day 2020?

(a) Youth for Digital India
(b) Sankalp Se Siddhi
(c) Channelizing Youth for Nation Building
(d) Indian Youth for Development, Skill and Harmony
28. What is the pre-monastic name of Swami Vivekananda?

(a) Surendra Nath Datta (b) Narendra Nath Datta
(c) Jitendra Nath Datta (d) Surendra Nath Bannerjee
29. The Government has been organizing National Youth Festival (NYF) since 1995. The theme of the NYF
2020 was-
(a) FIT YOUTH FIT INDIA
(b) BE THE VOICE OF NEW INDIA
(c) FIND SOLUTIONS AND CONTRIBUTE TO POLICY
(d) INDIA’S YOUTH UNITED
30. Who was Swami Vivekanand’s guru?

(a) ShriRamkrishna Paramhamsa
(b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh
(d) Shri Swami Padmaguru
(Q.31-Q.35): Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the United Nations (UN) Convention on
Migratory Species (CMS) through video conferencing.
The summit is likely to bring together 1200 delegates from over 110 countries to deliberate on the
alarming decline of migratory species.
Topics such as the impact of infrastructure development on the migratory patterns of animals will be
discussed in the 13th meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Migratory Species
(CMS COP13).
India is marking the beginning of a super year of Biodiversity with the hosting of the 13th Conference of
Parties (COP) of the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS).
The Opening Ceremony and Plenary session of the COP will be followed by side events and working
group meetings until the closing ceremony. Numerous national and international organisations will
showcase best practices in wildlife conservation during the course of the conference.
Representatives from 130 Parties and eminent conservationists and international NGOs working in the
field of wildlife conservation will attend the UN summit.
31. Where did theUnited Nations (UN) Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) COP 13, 2020 took place?-
(a) Gandhinagar (b) Ahmedabad (c) Delhi (d) Mumbai
32. What was the theme ofCMS COP13 ?

(a) Protect Endangered Species from Extinction
(b) Together we protect
(c) Atithi Devo Bhawa
(d) Migratory species connect the planet and we welcome them home
33. Under the aegis of which UN organisation did CMS COP 13 took place?
(a) UNESCO (b) UNEP (c) UN- IPCC (d) IUCN
34. The Logo of CMS COP is inspired from?

(a) Tiger (b) Dugong (c) Kolam (d) Flamingo
35. The Government of India issued a special stamp edition in the event. The stamp showed which of these
animals?
(a) Indian Vulture (b) Great Indian Bustard
(c) White- Bellied Heron (d) Himalyan Quail
(Q.36-Q.39): Tony Lewis, one of the men behind the DLS method used in weather-affected limited-overs
matches, has died aged 78, the England and Wales Cricket Board announced.
It is with much sadness that the ECB has learned of the passing of Tony Lewis MBE, aged 78,” said a
statement.
A career academic, and not the Welshman of the same name who captained England, Lewis received an
MBE (Member of the Order of the British Empire) for his services to cricket and mathematics in 2010.
“Cricket is deeply indebted to both Tony and Frank’s contributions to the sport,” the ECB added.
“We send our sincere condolences to Tony’s family.”
The formula came about in response to the extraordinary climax of a rain-interrupted 1992 World Cup
semifinal in Sydney.
The method then in use was based on removing the lowest-scoring overs from each team’s innings.
But it produced a farcical finish to a showpiece semifinal when South Africa, which had faced the
challenging but achievable target of 22 runs off 13 balls to beat England, was left with the impossible task
of scoring 21 runs off one ball after a rain delay.
The big difference between the DLS and previous methods was that it gave credit to sides defending a
target for taking wickets as well as chasing sides for scoring runs.
Significantly, this meant the target could be adjusted proportionately in the event of more than one
stoppage.
36. What does DLS stand for?

(a) Dennis-Lewis-Simon (b) Dexter-Lewis-Sawyer
(c) Duckworth-Lewis-Stephen (d) Duckworth-Lewis-Stern
37. Where is ICC headquartered?

(a) London (b) Edinburgh (c) Dubai (d) Sharjah
38. Who are the current Chairman & the CEO of ICC?
(a) Manu Sawhney, Shashank Manohar
(b) ShashankManohar, Manu Sawhney
(c) Zaheer Abbas , Manu Sawhney
(d) Shashank Manohar, Zaheer Abbas
39. In January 2020, which cricketer was awarded with the Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy for Best Cricketer of
the Year?
(a) Rohit Sharma (b) Virat Kohli (c) Ben Stokes (d) Kane Williamson
MOCK CLAT #29
(Q.1-Q.5): With the novel coronavirus pandemic severely affecting the global economy, some experts
have begun comparing the current crisis with the Great Depression — the devastating economic decline
of the 1930s that went on to shape countless world events. Experts have warned that unemployment
levels in some countries could reach those from the 1930s era, when the unemployment rate was as high
as around 25 per cent in the United States. Currently, unemployment levels in the US are already
estimated to be at 13 per cent, highest since the Great Depression, according to a New York Times
report.
The Great Depression was a major economic crisis that began in the United States in 1929, and went to
have a worldwide impact until 1939. It began on October 24, 1929, a day that is referred to as [X], when
a monumental crash occurred at the New York Stock Exchange as stock prices fell by 25 per cent. While
the Wall Street crash was triggered by minor events, the extent of the decline was due to more deep-
rooted factors such as a fall in aggregate demand, misplaced monetary policies, and an unintended rise
in inventory levels. In the United States, prices and real output fell dramatically. Industrial production fell
by 47 per cent, the wholesale price index by 33 per cent, and real GDP by 30 per cent. Unemployment in
the US increased from 3.2 per cent to 24.9 per cent between 1929 and 1933. In the UK, it rose from 7.2
per cent to 15.4 per cent between 1929 and 1932.
The Depression had an important impact on India’s freedom struggle. Due to the global crisis, there was
a drastic fall in agricultural prices, the mainstay of India’s economy, and a severe credit contraction
occurred as colonial policymakers refused to devalue the rupee. The effects of the Depression became
visible around the harvest season in 1930, soon after Mahatma Gandhi had launched the [Y] in April the
same year. There were “No Rent” campaigns in many parts of the country, and radical Kisan Sabhas
were started in Bihar and eastern UP. Agrarian unrest provided a groundswell of support to the
Congress, whose reach was yet to extend into rural India.
The endorsement by farming classes is believed to be among the reasons that enabled the party to
achieve its landslide victory in the 1936-37 provincial elections held under the Government of India Act,
1935– which significantly increased the party’s political might for years to come.
1. Which day is redacted as [x] in the above passage which marked the beginning of the Great Depression?
(a) Black Wednesday (b) Black Thursday
(c) Black Friday (d) Black Sunday
2. Which US president was responsible for ‘new deal’ initiative to overcome the Great Depression?
(a) John F Kennedy (b) Ronald Reagan
(c) Woodrow Wilson (d) Franklin D. Roosevelt
3. Which was the major country among these which was known to be not affected by the Great Depression?
(a) Japan (b) China (c) USSR (d) Australia
4. Which was the famous movement in Indian freedom struggle redacted as [y]?
(a) Quit India Movement (b) Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Non- Cooperation Movement (d) Swadeshi Movement
5. Which of the following events is accredited for the ending of the Great Depression?
(a) End of World War II (b) End of World War I
(c) Beginning of World War II (d) None of the above
(Q.6-Q.10): In a significant judgement that will ensure more equity in any case of marital discord, a two-
judge bench of Supreme Court reinterpreted the provisions of the Domestic Violence Act of 2005.
A Bench of Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and Hemant Gupta interpreted the provisions of the Domestic
Violence Act of 2005 to confirm an order of a Panipat Sessions Judge that respondent should pay
maintenance to the widow and minor child of his dead brother.
Both brothers lived in the ancestral family home on different floors. After the brother’s death, the widow
was not permitted to live in the same house.
The Supreme Court defined “relationship” in the case of Hindu undivided family (HUF).
According to the court, relationship in case of HUF means “relationship where two persons live or have
lived together at any point of time in a shared household when they are related by consanguinity,
marriage or through a relationship in the nature of marriage, adoption or are members living together as a
joint family”.
The court further read the term “shared household” to include “such a household which may belong to the
joint family of which the respondent is a member, irrespective of whether the respondent or the aggrieved
person has any right, title or interest in the shared household”.
Source: Edited and recreated from https://currenthunt.com/2019/05/change-in-the-provision-of-the-
domestic-violence-act/
6. Which section in Indian Penal Code deals with Dowry related violence and cruelty?
(a) 496-A (b) 497-A (c) 498-A (d) 499-A
7. In which year did the Supreme Court removed the words ‘Adult male’ from Domestic Violence Act of
2005, making it gender neutral?
(a) 2015 (b) 2016 (c) 2017 (d) 2018
8. Which of the following does NOT amount to ‘economic abuse’ according to Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
(a) deprivation of all or any economic or financial resources to which the aggrieved person is entitled
under any law or custom
(b) disposal of household effects, any alienation of assets whether movable or immovable, valuables,
shares, securities, bonds and the like or other property in which the aggrieved person has an interest
or is entitled to use by virtue of the domestic relationship
(c) prohibition or restriction to continued access to resources or facilities which the aggrieved person is
entitled to use or enjoy by virtue of the domestic relationship
9. Who appoints the ‘Protection Officers’ mentioned in the Domestic Violence Act of 2005?
(a) Union Government (b) State Government
(c) Local Government (d) None of the above
10. According to Domestic Violence Act of 2005, The Magistrate may pass a protection order in favour of the
aggrieved person and prohibit the respondent from—
(a) committing any act of domestic violence
(b) attempting to communicate in any form, whatsoever, with the aggrieved person
(c) causing violence to the dependants, other relatives or any person who give the aggrieved person
assistance from domestic violence
(Q.11-Q.16): The virtual summit was planned by [X], which is the current chair of the group, to discuss
the global challenges posed by the coronavirus outbreak and to come up with a coordinated response.
For the first time, the group of major 20 economies in the world convened virtually to discuss a global
crisis. The Prime Minister tweeted saying that the G20 has an important global role to play in combating
the COVID 19 pandemic and that he looks forward to productive discussions.
The G20 leaders pledged to inject $5 trillion into the global economy to reduce the economic impact of
the coronavirus pandemic. They agreed to take all the required steps to contain the coronavirus
pandemic and extend support to strengthen WHO’s mandate in the fight against pandemic including
delivery of diagnotic tools, treatments, medical supplies and vaccines. They also agreed to use all the
available policy tools to minimise the economic and social cost of the outbreak and restore global growth,
strengthen market resilience and stability. Besides their USD 5 trillion, the leaders also agreed to
contribute to WHO’s [Y] on voluntary basis.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi noted the rising social and economic cost of COVID-19 pandemic and
added that 90 percent of the coronavirus cases and 88 percent deaths were in G20 nations, which share
about the 80 percent of the world’s GDP and 60 percent of the world’s population. PM Modi called on the
G20 nations to come up with a concrete action plan to fight coronavirus.
The extraordinary virtual G20 Summit was a culmination of the meeting of the G20 Sherpas, finance
ministers and central bank governors on the COVID-19 pandemic. This current situation is expected to
bring about one of the worst recession the world has ever seen. The global growth outlook for 2020 is
projected to be negative.
11. Where was the 15th G-20 meeting held?

(a) Berlin, Germany (b) Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
(c) Brussels, Belgium (d) Paris, France
12. What was the theme of 15th G-20 meeting?

(a) Building consensus for fair and sustainable development
(b) Realizing Opportunities of the 21st Century For All
(c) Environment, Energy and Innovation
(d) Shaping an Inter-connected World
13. How many countries are there in G20?

(a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (d) 21
14. When was G-20 formally established?

(a) 1998 (b) 1999 (c) 2000 (d) 2001
15. Which country is the current chair of G-20, redacted as [X] in the above passage?
(a) Italy (b) Japan (c) Saudi Arabia (d) Mexico
16. Which of the following funds have been redacted by [Y]?

(a) COVID-19 Solidarity Response Fund
(b) COVID-19 Aid Fund
(c) COVID-19 Restructuring Fund
(d) COVID-19 World Reconstruction Fund
(Q.17-Q.22): The Election Commission on March 24, 2020 decided to postpone the Rajya Sabha
Elections, which were scheduled to be conducted on March 26. The decision comes amidst the complete
lockdown imposed by states and union territories to tackle the spread of coronavirus.
The biennial elections for 55 Rajya Sabha seats were scheduled to be held on March 26, 2020, as per an
announcement by the Election Commission on February 25th. However, Delhi went under complete
lockdown on March 23 followed by imposition of curfew on March 24.
The stringent measures have been taken by the Delhi Chief Minister, Arvind Kejriwal to tackle the
increasing risk of community transmission of novel coronavirus. The preventive measures have been put
in place to force people to stay inside their homes to break the chain of transmission.
Rajya Sabha Elections 2020
 The elections for 55 Rajya seats, almost 1/4th of house was scheduled for March 26. The last date for
filing of nominations was March 13.
 Though the elections have been postponed now, 37 candidates have already been elected without
any contest.
 Some of the re-elected members include NCP chief Sharad Pawar, Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman
[X] and Union minister Ramdas Athawale.
 The Election Commission will now announce a fresh schedule for the remaining 18 seats after
reviewing the circumstances.
 If the elections are not held soon, the strength of the house will be reduced, as the term of the 18
MPs will end on April 2nd.
Former Chief Justice of India [Y] also took his oath as a member of the upper house recently after
receiving nomination from the President. The coronavirus cases have so far crossed 500 in the nation,
as per Union Health Ministry.
17. Who is the current Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman redacted as [X] in the above passage?
(a) P.J. Kurien (b) K. Rahman Khan
(c) Harivansh Narayan Singh (d) Pratibha Patil
18. Who is the former CJI redacted as [Y] in the above passage?
(a) Dipak Mishra (b) J.S. Khehar (c) T.S. Thakur (d) Ranjan Gogoi
19. How many seats are there in Rajya Sabha according to the Constitution?
(a) 235 (b) 245 (c) 250 (d) 265
20. Which of the following statements is true about Rajya Sabha elections?
(a) Elections to the Rajya Sabha are indirect
(b) Members representing States are elected by elected members of legislative assemblies of the States
in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote
(c) Those representing Union Territories are chosen in such manner as Parliament may by law prescribe
(d) All of the above.
21. Who is the current Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(a) Sunil Arora (b) Om Prakash Rawat
(c) Nasim Zaidi (d) V. S. Sampath
22. Till which year did the Election Commission of India function as a single-member body?
(a) 1988 (b) 1989 (c) 1990 (d) 1991
(Q.23-Q.28): While India has improved its score and made notable progress on a number of indicators
including health, water and sanitation, more needs to be done on the poverty, hunger, gender and
climate fronts. In the Sustainable Development Goals India Index 2019 (SDGII 2019), 68 indicators have
been directly borrowed from the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation’s National Indicator
Framework (NIF) while another 20 are modified versions of NIF indicators and 12 have been developed
in consultation with Union ministries. This alignment of indicators will pave the way for better coordination
among government agencies for tracking India’s performance on SDGs.
Overall, India’s score has improved from 57 to [X], with notable progress on SDGs 3, 6, 7, 9 and 11.
While, a decline in the Maternal Mortality Ratio has contributed to our improved performance in the area
of ‘Good Health and Well-Being’, ramping up toilet coverage under Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan has raised
the country’s score on ‘Clean Water and Sanitation’.
The commendable performance on Goal 7 is due to expanded access to clean cooking fuel and the
government’s massive electrification drive. Similarly, on Goal 9, the progress can be attributed largely to
a significant improvement in rural road connectivity and increased mobile phone penetration. Our
performance on Goal 11 has been boosted by better access to housing through the Pradhan Mantri
Aawas Yojana as well as more widespread adoption of door-to-door waste collection and processing.
While this progress is heartening, there are certain indicators where focussed attention is required. For
instance, India’s tuberculosis notification rate is still high, thus limiting our overall progress on Goal 3.
Further, there are some SDGs on which the whole country needs to step up its performance
considerably, namely those pertaining to poverty, hunger, gender and climate action.
India is the only country to publicly rank its sub-national governments on SDGs. While the exercise needs
strengthening in terms of scope and quality on an ongoing basis, it is a valuable effort that needs to be
persisted with as it helps to bring the SDG agenda into the limelight at the national level as well facilitates
its localisation at the level of States and UTs.
23. The Sustainable Development Goals India Index 2019 was released by?
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) The Ministry of Development
(c) The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
(d) The Ministry of Human Resource Development
24. Which state ranked best in The Sustainable Development Goals India Index 2019?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Kerala
25. Which state performed worst in The Sustainable Development Goals India Index 2019?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Orissa
(c) Bihar (d) Assam
26. How many Sustainable development goals were covered by the 2019 index?
(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18
27. When was NITI Aayog formed?

(a) 2012 (b) 2013 (c) 2014 (d) 2015
28. What score will come in place of [X]?

(a) 59 (b) 60 (c) 61 (d) 62
(Q.29-Q.34): The [1] State government has decided to set up 55 Grama Nyayalayas, village courts, in
various locations in different districts across [1].
The Gram Nyayalaya would be headed by [2], and would be assisted by head clerk, junior assistant-cum-
typist, stenographer and office subordinate (attender).
The Supreme Court on February 3, 2020 directed the states to set up 'Gram Nyayalayas'. The states
have been directed to issue notification regarding the same within four weeks. The ruling was delivered
by an SC bench headed by Justice N V Ramana. The bench noted that some states are yet to come out
with notifications for establishing the Gram Nyayalayas. The bench also noted that though several states
have issued notifications for establishing the Gram Nyayalayas, most were not functioning except in three
states- [3].
Gram Nyayalayas are village courts that aim to provide speedy and easy access to the judicial system in
rural areas of the country. The courts will provide all, including the rural people, with easy and cheap
access to justice at their doorstep.
29. Which state can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?

(a) Maharashtra (b) Telangana (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Karnataka
30. Which of the following Law governs Gram Nyayalayas?

(a) Advocates Act, 1961 (b) Gram Panchayat Adhiniyam, 2000
(c) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 (d) Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008
(a) District Magistrate (b) Tehsildar
(c) Sarpanch (d) Nyayadhikari
32. Which of the following is not true regarding Gram Nyayalayas?

(a) It has both civil and criminal jurisdiction over the offences.
(b) The Court can function as a mobile court at any place within the jurisdiction of such Gram
Nyayalaya, after giving wide publicity to that regards.
(c) An appeal against a judgement of the Gram Nyayalaya is filed before the High Court.
(d) It exercises the power of a Civil Court with some modification such as special procedure as
mentioned in the act.
33. Which Article of Indian Constitution says that law declared by the Supreme Court is binding?
34. Which of the following states will come in place of [3]?
(a) Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Kerala
(b) Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Gujarat
(c) Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal
(d) Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(Q.35-Q.39): Reports of a person in [1] dying due to a virus called hantavirus have spread panic
at a time when the world is battling the pandemic of novel coronavirus. The novel coronavirus
has killed over 16,000 people around the world and the outbreak is yet to be brought under
control. However, it turns out, hantavirus is not a new virus and has been infecting humans for
decades.
In the US, 10 confirmed cases of hantavirus infection in people who visited Yosemite National
Park in California, US, in November, 2012, were reported. Similarly, i n 2017, CDC assisted
health officials in investigating an outbreak of Seoul virus infection that infected 17 people in
seven states.
The United State's Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), on its website, writes that
hantaviruses are a family of viruses spread mainly by rodents and can cause varied disease
syndromes in people across the world.
Any man, woman, or child who is around mice or rats that carry harmful hantaviruses can get
HPS.
If people get HPS, they will feel sick one to five weeks after they were around mice or rats that
carried a hantavirus. At first people with HPS will have: Fever Severe muscle aches Fatigue After
a few days they will have a hard time breathing. Sometimes people will have headaches,
dizziness, chills, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and stomach pain. Usually, people do not have a
runny nose, sore throat, or a rash.
35. Hantavirus has been named after which of the following?

(a) Mountain (b) Species of rodent
(c) River (d) Island
36. Which country can be replaced by [2] in the above passage?

(a) South Korea (b) Vietnam (c) Indonesia (d) China
37. Which of the following is not true regarding Hanta Virus?

(a) One can never be infected by it through breathing.
(b) People can also become infected when they touch mouse or rat urine, droppings, or nesting
materials that contain the virus.
(c) Human to Human transmission is very rare.
(d) It is also known as Orthohantavirus.
38. What is the name given to hantavirus in America?

(a) Old World Hantavirus (b) New World Hantavirus
(c) American Hantavirus (d) Mice virus
39. Which of the following is caused by Hantavirus in Europe and Asia?

(a) Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (b) Hemorrhagic Fever With Renal Syndrome
(c) Old World Syndrome (d) Mice Syndrome
MOCK CLAT #30
(Q.1-Q.4):[X] has come out with its first-ever Global Social Mobility Report. The Social Mobility Report
showed that across the Global Social Mobility Index; only a handful of nations have put in place the right
conditions to promote social mobility. The Global Social Mobility Index assesses the 82 economies on “10
pillars” spread across the following five key dimensions of social mobility: Health; Education; Technology;
Work; Protection and Institutions.

(a) International Monetary Fund (b) UNO
(c) World Economic Forum (d) World Bank
2. As per the Index, which country took the first spot in the report?
(a) Norway (b) Finland (c) Sweden (d) Denmark
3. What is the rank of India as per the above released report?

(a) 76th (b) 77th (c) 78th (d) 79th
4. The country which is ranked at 82nd, which is the last on the index is?
(a) Ivory Coast (b) Senegal (c) Cameroon (d) Bangladesh
(Q.5-Q.7): The scientists have developed a novel artefact that is neither a traditional robot nor a known
animal species. The [X] is being referred to as a living machine produced by repurposing living cells.
They are capable of transporting payloads like drugs and also healing themselves. The tiny robots have
been built from the cells of the African clawed frog. Scientists have repurposed living cells scraped and
assembled them into entirely new life-forms. The robots have been named after Xenopus laevis, found
across sub-Saharan Africa from Nigeria and Sudan to South Africa.
5. The name of the robot is replaced by [X] in the above passage is?
(a) Xenbot (b) XenopusB (c) Xenrobot (d) Xenobot
6. The country which developed the robot is?

(a) USA (b) Germany (c) Israel (d) Japan
7. The robots have been named after Xenopus laevis, which is a specie of?
(a) Bat (b) Rat (c) Chameleon (d) Frog
(Q.8-Q.12): [X] has released Democracy Index for the year 2019.The Democracy Index (began in 2006),
provides a snapshot of the state of democracy worldwide in 165 independent states and two territories.
India’s score is down from 7.23 in 2018 to 6.90 in 2019. This is the lowest score since 2006.Based on
their scores, each country is classified as one of four types of regimes: Full democracy (scores greater
than 8);Flawed democracy (greater than 6 and up to 8);Hybrid regime (greater than 4 and up to 6); and
Authoritarian regime (less than or equal to 4).
8. What agency or organization is replaced by [X] in the above passage?

(a) Economic Intelligence Unit (b) World Economic Forum
(c) Oxford Analytica (d) UNO
9. The index is topped by which of the given country?

(a) Iceland (b) Norway (c) Sweden (d) Denmark
10. What was the rank of India in the given index?
(a) 41st (b) 47th (c) 51st (d) 54th
11. What change has occurred in the ranking of India in the index, in comparison to the previous index?
(a) Fall by 5 (b) Rise by 5 (c) Fall by 10 (d) Rise by 10
12. The average global score has fallen from 5.48 in 2018 to __ in 2019. This is the worst average global
score since 2006.
(a) 5.45 (b) 5.44 (c) 5.42 (d) 5.46
(Q.13-Q.17): India’s ranking in the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI-2019) has slipped compared to the
year 2018.Corruption Perceptions Index ranks countries and territories based on how corrupt a country’s
public sector and judiciary are perceived to be by experts and business executives. The scores indicate
the perceived level of public sector corruption on a scale of 0-100. A score of 0 points that a country is
perceived as highly corrupt and 100 points that a country has sound integrity systems.
13. The ranking is released by which of the following agency/group/organization?

(a) World Bank (b) Corruption Control International
(c) World Economic Unit (d) Transparency International
14. What was the rank of India in the given ranking index?
(a) 76th (b) 78th (c) 80th (d) 81st
15. Which two countries have emerged as the topper of the list with equal score?
(a) Norway and Iceland (b) Sweden and Iceland
(c) New Zealand and Norway (d) New Zealand and Denmark
16. Which country has the lowest score and last rank in the CPI2019?
(a) Somali (b) South Sudan (c) Syria (d) Afghanistan
17. The CPI was first launched in the year?

(a) 1995 (b) 1999 (c) 2001 (d) 2005
(Q.18-Q.20): India has helped the [X] in tackling measles outbreak by providing over 30,000 doses of
Measles and Rubella (MR) vaccine. The outbreak comes years after the World Health Organisation
(WHO) declared the [X] measles-free. The [X] presented a certificate of appreciation to the Government
of India for the “gesture of goodwill and solidarity”. Both the countries signed a Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU) on Health cooperation in June 2019. Both are the members of the WHO’s Regional
Committee for South-East Asia.
18. Which country is replaced by [X] in the given passage?

(a) Myanmar (b) Maldives (c) Nepal (d) Bangladesh
19. WHO declared the [X] measles-free in which of the following year?
(a) 2015 (b) 2016 (c) 2017 (d) 2018
20. Which of the given is the correct pair of Microorganism, which causes Measles and Rubella respectively?
(a) Virus and Bacteria (b) Bacteria and Virus
(c) Virus and Protozoa (d) Virus and Virus
(Q.21-Q.23): In the recently released 2020 Global Talent Competitiveness Index, India has scaled up to
eight places from the previous edition ranking. The list or index was started in 2013 and is an annual
benchmarking report that measures the ability of countries to compete for talent, their ability to grow,
attract and retain talent. The report stated that India's GTCI score and GDP per capita are both lower
than the other emerging market economies such as BRICS - Brazil (80th), Russia (48th), China (42nd),
and South Africa (70th).India's key strength relates to growing talent, due to its levels of lifelong learning
and access to growth. However, more could be done to improve India’s educational system.
21. Which country has topped the 2020 Global Talent Competitiveness Index?
(a) Norway (b) Denmark (c) Singapore (d) Switzerland
22. What was the rank of India in the above list or index?
(a) 66th (b) 72nd (c) 74th (d) 78th
23. What was the theme for the 2020 Global Talent Competitiveness Index?
(a) Global Talent in the new Decade
(b) Global Talent development in Changing world
(c) Global Talent development of Sustainable Earth
(d) Global Talent in the Age of Artificial Intelligence
(Q.24-Q.28): The [X]th edition of National Voters' Day (NVD) is organized by Election Commission of
India to mark 70 years of Election Commission of India (ECI).NVD is celebrated to encourage, facilitate
and maximize the voter enrolment, especially for the new voters. The day is utilized to spread awareness
among voters for promoting informed participation in the electoral process.

(a) 70th (b) 65th (c) 10th (d) 7th
25. The National Voters’ Day is celebrated on?

(a) 22nd January (b) 23rd January (c) 25th January (d) 28th January
26. What was the theme for NVD 2020?

(a) Electoral Literacy for Democracy
(b) Electoral Literacy for Indian Democracy
(c) Electoral Transparency for Good Democracy
(d) Electoral Literacy for Stronger Democracy
27. The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an autonomous ___ authority responsible for administering
Union and State election processes in India. Choose the correct option to fill the above statement.
(a) Constitutional (b) Non-Constitutional
(c) Statutory (d) Sub-Judicial
28. After the Election Commissioner Amendment Act of the year [Y], EC became a multi-member body. What
is replaced by [Y] in the statement?
(a) 1986 (b) 1989 (c) 1991 (d) 1993
(Q.29 and Q.30): The Padma Awards are announced annually on the eve of Republic Day (26th
January).It is one of the highest civilian honours of India.The Award seeks to recognize achievements in
all fields of activities or disciplines where an element of public service is involved. In 2020, the President
has approved conferment of 141 Padma Awards including 4 duo cases (in a duo case, the Award is
counted as one).The list comprises of 7 Padma Vibhushan, 16 Padma Bhushan and 118 Padma Shri
Awards.
29. The Padma Awards were institutionalized in which of the following year?
(a) 1954 (b) 1956 (c) 1958 (d) 1960
30. Unlike the Padma Awards, the Bharat Ratna is limited to a maximum of how many in a particular year?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) No limit
(Q.31-Q.33): United Nations Conference of Parties to the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS COP-
13) is to discuss the effects of insects decline on migratory species for the first time. In order to protect
the migratory species throughout their range countries, a Convention on Conservation of Migratory
Species (CMS), has been in force since 1983, under the aegis of the United Nations Environment
Programme. The draft resolution has been presented by the European Union for the discussion at CMS
COP 13. This will help to understand insects die off and its effects on migratory species.
31. The CMS COP-13 was hosted by which of the given nation?
(a) France (b) South Africa (c) Australia (d) India
32. What was the theme of CMS COP-13?

(a) Migratory species connect the planet and we welcome them home
(b) Migration and Conservation
(c) Migration of species and giving them a better home
(d) None
33. The 13th Conference of Parties (COP) of the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of
Wild Animals (CMS) was held at?
(a) Paris (b) Cape Town (c) New Delhi (d) Gandhinagar
(Q.34-Q.36): The Minister of Road Transport & Highways represented India at the 3rd Global Ministerial
Conference on Road Safety. It is organised by the World Health Organization (WHO) in association with
the [X] and minister-led delegations from more than 80 countries. It intends to bring road safety on the
global agenda and renew the world community's commitment to safer roads. It also aims to define ways
to accelerate action on proven strategies to save lives.
34. What organization or group is replaced by [X] in the above passage?

(a) United Nations (b) World Bank
(c) IMF (d) Asian Development Bank
35. The 3rd Global Ministerial Conference on Road Safety was held at?
(a) Stockholm (b) Oslo (c) Helsinki (d) Warsaw
36. The theme for the conference was?

(a) Achieving Global Goals 2030
(b) Road and Safety Goals in New World
(c) Achieving Safety Goals 2030
(d) Road Safety prevails
(Q.37-Q.39): Union Cabinet has approved the constitution of the [X] edition of Law Commission of India
for a period of three years. The Law Commission will consist of a full time Chairperson. It has four full
time members. Also, secretaries from Department of Legal Affairs and Legislative department. It works as
an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice. The Law Commission undertakes research in law
and review of existing laws in India for making reforms therein and enacting new legislations on a
reference made to it by the Central Government or suo-moto.
37. What edition is the Law commission, which is replaced by [X] in the passage?
(a) 21st (b) 22nd (c) 23rd (d) 24th
38. The Law Commission of India is a ____ body constituted by the Government of India from time to time.
Fill the blank with the correct answer.
(a) Constitutional (b) Statutory (c) Non-Statutory (d) Judicial
39. The first Law Commission of independent India was established in which of the given year?
(a) 1951 (b) 1954 (c) 1955 (d) 1956
MOCK CLAT #31
(Q.1-Q.9): According to eyewitnesses, people initially thought it was a fire accident. But as the pungent
smell spread, people rushed out of their homes, carrying children and supporting the elderly.
Eleven people, including a six-year-old girl, died and over 350 were admitted to hospitals after [1]
monomer gas leaked from a chemical plant belonging to LG Polymers India at R.R. Venkatapuram in [2].
The gas is not lethal but prolonged exposure to it could effect the central nervous system, which lead to
depletion of oxygen to the brain cause nausea, vomiting and breathlessness.
[1] is an organic compound which is a derivative of benzene. It is stored in factories in liquid form, at a
temperature below 20 degree centigrade.
As per the Environment Protection Agency (EPA), short-term exposure to the substance can result in
respiratory problems, irritation in the eyes, irritation in the mucous membrane, and gastrointestinal issues.
And long-term exposure could drastically affect the central nervous system and lead to other related
problems like peripheral neuropathy.
1. Which has been replaced by [1] in the above passage ?

(a) Styrene (b) Nitrous Fumes (c) Arsine (d) Phosphine

(a) Bhopal (b) Kanpur (c) Vishakapatnam (d) Guwahati
3. What is the Chemical formula of [1] which has been released in city [2] ?
(a) C8H8 (b) C6H2 (c) C5H10 (d) C9H9
4. The Head quarter of the United states Environmental Protection Agency is located at-
(a) New York (b) California (c) Houston (d) Washington D.C
5. Which gas was leaked in the 1984 Gas Tragedy of Bhopal ?

(a) Phosphine (b) Methyl iisocynate (c) Azide (d) Arsine
6. The National Pollution Control Day was celebrated every year on -

(a) 2nd December (b) 4th December (c) 5th June (d) 9th April
7. The source of the gas leak was a [1] plant owned in the Area by which South Korean electronic company
?
(a) LG (b) SAMSUNG (c) TOSHIBA (d) ORION
8. Before the Bhopal Gas Tragedy of 1984,which of the following laws prevailed in India for liability of such
incidents ?
(a) The Public liability Act (b) Environmental Protection Act
(c) Both (d) Neither
9. The National Green Tribunal deals with the matter pertaining to the cases related to environmental
protection and conservation of forests. It was established in the year -
(a) 2010 (b) 2011 (c) 2005 (d) 2004
(Q.10-Q.14): The Indian Navy has launched Operation [1] to repatriate Indian citizens from overseas.
Different Naval ships are enroute to the port of Male to evacuate people. The government said only those
who test Covid-19 negative would be allowed to travel.
India will operate 10 flights to the UAE, seven flights each to the US and the UK, five flights to Saudi
Arabia, five flights to Singapore and two flights to Qatar to repatriate Indian nationals. Approximately,
2,000 people from abroad will fly back to India daily.
The Government has said priority will be given for return to India to compelling cases in distress,
including migrant workers, labourers who have been laid off and those faced with expiry of short term
visas. Persons with medical emergency, pregnant women, elderly, those required to return to India due to
death of family member, and students would also be given preference.
It is one of the largest evacuation exercises since the 1990 Kuwait operation, the government will operate
64 flights from May 7 to 13 to bring home thousands of Indian nationals.
10. What is the Name given to the Mission in which people are coming back to India amid COVID-19 crisis ?
(a) Vande Bharat (b) Operation Red dawn
(c) Persian Mission (d) Operation Wrath
11. Which of the following has been replaced by [1] in the above passage ?
(a) Operation Samudram (b) Operation Gibraltor
(c) Operation Thunder (d) Operation Samudra Setu
12. What is the name of the movie based on the 1990 Kuwait extraction of the Indians ?
(a) Special 26 (b) Baby (c) Extraction (d) Airlift
13. Who is the Minister of External Affairs of India ?

(a) S Jaishankar (b) Anurag Thakur (c) Smriti Irani (d) Prakash Javdekar
14. Who holds the post of the Minister of the Civil Aviation of India ?
(a) DV Sadanand Gowda (b) Ramvilas Paswan
(c) Ravi shankar Prasad (d) Hardeep Singh Puri
(Q.15-Q.18): This is the first time India has developed an indigenous [1] test for coronavirus. While
ELISA tests for coronavirus are already available in other countries, procuring them in large numbers
may be a challenge, particularly during a pandemic. In contrast, availability will be a non-issue when a
locally developed test is manufactured in India.
The company that has been licensed to manufacture the [1] test kit will have about a month to make the
tests available as collection of 30,000 blood samples taken randomly from the general population in the
75 hotspot districts will begin by the third week of May.
Since the [1] test is based on detection of certain things, it can only help in knowing if the person has
been previously infected by coronavirus. Since it detects antibodies, even people who have remained
symptom-free (asymptomatic) during the entire course of the infection will test positive.
While the RT-PCR (reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction) test, which detects the RNA of the
coronavirus, enables detection of current infection, it will not be useful if the testing is carried out days
after the infection clears as the virus will no longer be present.

(a) ELISA (b) SARS CoV2 (c) N CoV (d) Molecular Test
16. [1] allows for rapid screening and quantification of the presence _______ in a sample.
(a) Amino Acid (b) DNA (c) Antigen (d) Vitamins
17. Where is the Head Quarter of the National Institute of Virology is located ?
(a) Kolkata (b) Mumbai (c) Chennai (d) Pune
18. Where is the Head quarter of the Indian Institute of Medical Research is located ?
(a) Bhopal (b) Warangal (c) New Delhi (d) Chandigarh
(Q.19-Q.24): The Union Minister of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj has recently issued guidelines
regarding the SVAMITVA scheme.The scheme will help in streamlining planning and revenue collection
in rural areas and ensuring clarity on property rights.The scheme will enable creation of better-quality
Gram Panchayat Development Plans (GPDPs), using the maps created under this programme.The Gram
Panchayats are constitutionally mandated for preparation of Gram Panchayat Development Plans
(GPDP) for economic development and social justice.The GPDP is based on a participatory process in
convergence with schemes of all related Central Ministries/Line Departments related to 29 subjects.
19. Which of the following ministry/deparrtment is not a part of the Swamitva scheme ?
(a) Ministry of Sanitation
(b) State Panchayati Raj Departments
(c) State Revenue Departments
(d) Survey of India.
20. The Swamitva Scheme is cureently been implemented in Six states of the country. Which of the following
state has been not covered in this scheme ?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Haryana (d) Punjab
21. The National Panchayat Day is celebrated every year on -

(a) 24th April (b) 26th April (c) 13th April (d) 9th April
22. Who is the current Rural Development Minister of Panchayati Raj of India ?
(a) Rajnath Singh (b) Narendra Singh Tomar
(c) Arjun Munda (d) Thwar Chand Gehlot
23. Which of the following committee recommended for Panchayati Raj system in India ?
(a) Punchhi Samiti (b) Singvi Committee
(c) Balwantrai Mehta Committee (d) Wamankar Committee
24. Which of the following statement regarding the Panchayati Raj system is not correct ?
(a) Panchayati Raj was established in India by Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Madhya Pradesh was the first state which implemented The Panchayati Raj system in India.
(c) 73rd Constitutional amendment was implemented in 1992.
(d) Tamil Nadu has adopted bicameral method.
(Q.25-Q.29): The row over construction of an Indian road linking Dharchula in Uttarakhand to Lipulekh as
part of the Mansarovar Yatra route deepened after Nepal Prime Minister [1] took a swipe at India and his
government released a new map including territory on Indian maps.
India hit back within hours. The Government of Nepal has released a revised official map of Nepal today
that includes parts of Indian territory. This unilateral act is not based on historical facts and evidence. It is
contrary to the bilateral understanding to resolve the outstanding boundary issues through diplomatic
dialogue. Such artificial enlargement of territorial claims will not be accepted by India.
In Kathmandu, [1] said he had doubts on whether India subscribed to “Sinhaev Jayate” (the lion prevails)
or “Satyamev Jayate” (truth prevails) – a reference to India’s official emblem and slogan.
25. Which of the following Indian states shares border with China ?
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Sikkim
3. Uttrakhand
4. West Bengal
5. Bihar
Choose the correct options
(a) 1,2,3 (b) 2,3,5 (c) 2,4,5 (d) All of the above
26. Which has been replaced by [1] in the above Passage ?

(a) KP Sharma Oli (b) Pushpa Kamal Dahal
(c) Sher Bahadur Deuba (d) Sushil koirala
27. The Treaty of Saugauli which ends the territorial war between Nepal and East India company was signed
in which year ?
(a) 1803 (b) 1813 (c) 1816 (d) 1820
28. The Kalapani territory which was disputed between India and Nepal lies in which district of Uttrakhand ?
(a) Darchula (b) Kumaun (c) Pithoragarh (d) Tehri Garhwal
29. The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) is one of the five Central Armed Police Forces of India,which was
raised under the CRPF Act. In which year it was formed ?
(a) 1960 (b) 1956 (c) 1969 (d) 1962
(Q.30-Q.34): Over the recent enactment of the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), massive protests were
held in the North-eastern states and several references have been made to the Inner Line Permit system
in the large parts of the region. Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) is inapplicable to the tribal areas of
_____ included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution and to the areas falling under the Inner Line
Permit (ILP) system. On December 19, the Assembly of the state of [X] unanimously adopted a
resolution urging the Centre to implement Inner Line Permit in the state. Earlier on December 11, the
inner line permit regime was extended to [Y] with President signing the order to this effect. The concept
of the Inner Line Permit comes from the colonial area. Under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act,
1873, the British framed regulations restricting the entry and regulating the stay of outsiders in
designated areas. The ILP system is in force in four Northeastern states — Arunachal Pradesh,
Nagaland, Mizoram and now Manipur — and no Indian citizen can visit any of these states without permit
unless he or she belongs to that state, nor can he or she overstay beyond the period specified in the ILP.
30. With respect to the blank space in the above passage, Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals
with the Provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in certain states. Which of these is not
included in the same?
(a) Tripura (b) Meghalaya (c) Manipur (d) Assam
31. What is being replaced by [X] in the above passage?

(a) Meghalaya (b) Manipur (c) Sikkim (d) None of these
32. What is being replaced by [Y] in the given passage?

(a) Mizoram (b) Manipur (c) Meghalaya (d) None of these
33. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in certain states to
safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states. This special provision is provided under
Article __ and __ of the Constitution.
(a) 244(2) and 275(1) (b) 242(1) and 303
(c) 275 and 313 (d) None of these
34. How many times the Citizenship act is been amended till date ?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d)7
(Q.35-Q.39): The SPG (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced in the lower house of the parliament by
the Union Home Minister Amit Shah on November 25, 2019. The bill seeks to amend the Special
Protections Group Act, [1].
The Union Home Minister Amit Shah stated that the main objective behind introducing the amendment
was to make the SPG act more effective in ensuring the security of the Prime Minister.
The SPG Act amendment bill was moved just days after the centre decided to withdraw SPG security
cover for Congress President Sonia Gandhi, former Congress President Rahul Gandhi and Congress
Gen Secretary Priyanka Gandhi. The SPG cover was also withdrawn from former Prime Minister
Manmohan Singh earlier in the year.
The government stated that the decision was taken after reviewing the threat level.
The Union Government stated that the SPG (Amendment) Bill, 2019 lays focus solely on the security of
the Prime Minister, as ensuring the security of the head of the government is of great importance for
governance and national security.

(a) 1988 (b)1990 (c) 1992 (d) 1997
36. The SPG security is not given to which of the following?

(a) Prime Minister (b) Immediate Family of PM
(c) Former PM (d) None
37. As per the amendment in the SPG act 1988,the time period for which the SPG will be given to Former
PM and their immediate family members will be ?
(a) 6 years (b) 7 years (c) 5 years (d) 10 years
38. How many types of security cover is been provided in India ?

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
39. The SPG is the highest tier of security, to protect the Prime Minister of India after the assassination of
late PM Indira Gandhi. It was setup in the year ?
(a) 1987 (b) 1989 (c) 1985 (d) 1984
MOCK CLAT #32
(Q.1-Q.7): India continues to be on the [1] of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) for lack of
adequate intellectual property (IP) rights protection and enforcement, the USTR said in its Annual [2].
India remained one of the most challenging economies for IP enforcement and protection and the
country’s overall IP enforcement was inadequate, it said.
The annual [2] identifies trade barriers to US companies due to IP laws of other countries. The US placed
[x] countries, including some of its major trading partners like India and China, on the list, alleging that
enforcement of the intellectual properties have deteriorated or remained at inadequate levels and the
Americans who rely on their protection have difficulty with fair and equitable market access.
Despite India’s justifications of limiting IP protections as a way to promote access to technologies, the
report noted that India maintains extremely high customs duties directed to IP-intensive products such as
medical devices, pharmaceuticals, Information and Communications Technology (ICT) products, solar
energy equipment, and capital goods.
Source: Edited and recreated from news report of the Economic Times
1. Which of the following categories has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Watch List (b) Alarming Watch List
(c) Priority Watch List (d) Black List
2. What is the name of the report that has been redacted by [2]?
(a) Special 300 Report (b) Special 301 Report
(c) Special 310 Report (d) Special 331 Report
3. Which of the following countries has been excluded from the [1] category this year?
(a) Algeria (b) Canada (c) Thailand (d) Kuwait
4. How many countries have been placed in the category of [1] this year?
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12
5. The report has specifically highlighted a section of the Indian Patent Act that denies patents on items that
are not significantly different from their older versions. Which is the section that has been mentioned?
(a) Section 1(c) (b) Section 2 (b) (c) Section 3 (d) (d) Section 4 (a)
6. In which year did India accede to the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) Internet Treaties
and the Nice Agreement?
(a) 2016 (b) 2017 (c) 2018 (d) 2019
7. Which of the following statements regarding this topic is incorrect?

(a) There are only 2 categories in the report in which countries are classified
(b) Pakistan has been kept in the same category of India
(c) As per the report India lacks an effective system for notifying interested parties of marketing
approvals for follow-on pharmaceuticals
(d) For India, levels of trademark counterfeiting continue to remain problematic
(Q.8-Q.16): Manipur black rice, popularly known as ‘[1]’ by the locals, has bagged the Geographical
Indication (GI) tag, according to official sources. Other than this [2] Terracotta and Kadalai Mittai of [3]
bagged Geographical Indication tag.
A GI or Geographical Indication (GI) tag is used on the products having specific geographical origin to
prevent its misuse by other people. The tag assures the quality and distinctiveness of the products. It
also attributable the geographical origin of the product and the owner has exclusive rights over the
products. The GI Tag right enables the right holders to use the indication to prevent its use by a third
party whose product does not belong to the particular region and doesn't have the required quality and
standards.
Worth to mention that, a protected geographical indication does not enable the right holder to prevent
someone from making a product using the same techniques as used by the right holder. In India more
than 350 products have got GI tag.
Source: Edited and recreated from various articles of different newspapers
8. Which of the following has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Junang (b) Chakhao (c) Gunjam (d) Ronglioth
9. Which of the following places has been redacted by [2]?

(a) Gorakhpur (b) Bareilly (c) Thanjavur (d) Aligarh

(a) Thoothukudi (b) Tirunelveli (c) Karaikudi (d) Kovilpatti
11. Which of the following was the first product to get GI Tag in India?
(a) Aranmula Kannadi (b) Pochampalli Ikat
(c) Darjeeling Tea (d) Chanderi Sarees
12. What are the Kadalai Mittais of [3]?

(a) Burnt brick miniature statues
(b) A special beetle leaf
(c) Peanut candy
(d) A beverage resembling mango shake
13. Which of the following ministries is related to the Geographical Indication Tags?
(a) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(c) Ministry of Agriculture
(d) Ministry of Intellectual Property Rights
14. A few more products have recently earned GI tags in May 2020. Which of the following are these?
1. Coimbatore Wet Grinder
2. Arumbavur Wood Carvings
3. Thanjavur Netti Works
4. Kashmir Saffron
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2, 3 and 4 (c) Only 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
15. In India, Geographical Indications registration is administered by the Geographical Indications of Goods
(Registration and Protection) Act of _______ -
(a) 1999 (b) 2000 (c) 2001 (d) 2002
16. Geographical Indications are part of the intellectual property rights that comes under the _________
Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property.
(a) Geneva (b) New York (c) Brussels (d) Paris
(Q.17-Q.20): The Centre has directed [1] government to take up as a "matter of priority" the alleged
exclusion of 65,875 Chakmas and [2] from the state's "economic package for vulnerable sections in
these difficult times of COVID-19 pandemic".
On Tuesday, the human rights body Rights and Risks Analysis Group (RRAG) had highlighted the issue
and sought Prime Minister Narendra Modi's intervention. In a statement, the RRAG said the directive to
the [1] government was issued by the Ministry for Development of North Eastern Region (DONER).
On April 27, the RRAG had sought the PM's intervention alleging the Arunachal government did not
provide any relief to the Chakmas and [2]. It alleged the government had issued a notification on April 14
to sell rice at Rs 29 per kg in the open market under which Chakmas and [2] had to buy while the same
rice was being sold by Food Corporation of India at Rs 22 across India and the Arunachal government at
Rs 11 per kg for the Above Poverty Line families.
Source : Edited and recreated from the news report of The New Indian Express
17. Which of the following states has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Assam (b) Nagaland (c) Mizoram (d) Arunachal Pradesh
18. Which of the following tribes has been redacted by [2]?

(a) Mishing (b) Khampti (c) Sherdukpen (d) Hajong
19. Who out of the following is the Chief Minister of [1]?

(a) Sarbananda Sonowal (b) Pema Khandu
(c) Neiphiu Rio (d) Zoramthanga
20. Who is the Union Minister for the Ministry of DONER?

(a) Dr. Jitendra Singh (b) Ramesh Pokhriyal
(c) Kiren Rijiju (d) Prakash Javadekar
(Q.21-Q.25): India’s gross expenditure in R&D has [1] between 2008 & 2018 driven mainly by Govt
sector and scientific publications have risen placing the country internationally among the top few. This is
as per the R&D Statistics and Indicators 2019-20 based on the national S&T survey 2018 brought out by
the National Science and Technology Management Information (NSTMIS), Department of Science and
Technology (DST).
The report shows that with the rise in publication, the country is globally at the [2] position on this score
as per the NSF database, [2] in the number of Ph.D. in science & engineering. The number of
researchers per million population has doubled since 2000.
The report captures the R&D landscape of the country through various Input-Output S&T Indicators in the
form of Tables and graphs. These pertain to Investments in national R&D, R&D investments by
Government and Private sector; R&D relationship with economy (GDP), Enrolment of S&T personnel,
Manpower engaged in R&D, Outrun of S&T personnel, papers published, patents and their international
S&T comparisons. The survey included more than 6800 S&T Institutions spread across varied sectors
like central government, state governments, higher education, public sector industry, and private sector
industry in the country, and a response rate of more than 90% was achieved.
Source: Edited and recreated from PIB India

(a) Doubled (b) Tripled (c) Quadrupled (d) Five times
22. Which of the following rank has been redacted by [2]?

(a) 2nd (b) 3rd (c) 4th (d) 5th
23. According to WIPO what is India’s rank in the Patent Filing Offices in the world?
(a) 5th (b) 6th (c) 7th (d) 8th
24. Which of the following countries is/are above India globally in the scientific publication?
1. USA
2. UK
3. China
4. Japan
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 3 (c) Only 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
25. Which of the following is incorrect about this issue?

(a) Two main contributors were Department of Science and Technology and Department of
Biotechnology.
(b) In terms of Resident Patent Filing India was ranked 9th in the world.
(c) According to the report, India is currently spending 185 USD per researcher and is ahead of Russia,
Hungary, Israel, UK and Spain in this spending.
(d) The number of researchers per million has tripled in India since 2000.
(Q.26-Q.29): With tourists flocking to see the beautiful pink blossoms, it only means one thing that is the
Cheery Blossom Festival is just around the corner.
Japan’s Cherry Blossom Festival is well known around the world for its radiance and transient beauty.
The pretty in pink full bloom not only symbolize the return of spring but are a majestic sight to behold.
While you might have to wait for a few more months for the Japanese festival, did you know you no
longer need to fly all the way to Japan to witness the blush-tinted blooms? India is all set to have its very
own Cherry Blossom Festival.
First started in 2016,[1] hosts the fourth edition of the India International Cherry Blossom Festival from
November 13 to November 16, 2019. The festival celebrates the unique autumn flowering of Himalayan
Cherry Blossoms. The event feature several fashion shows, concerts, a beauty pageant, a disco, martial
arts, Japanese cosplay and an amateur golf tournament for the visitors to participate in.
26. Which has been replaced by [1] in the following passage ?

(a) Sikkim (b) Meghalaya (c) Manipur (d) Arunachal Pradesh
27. Which was the partner country at this year’s festival?

(a) Japan (b) Myanmar (c) South Korea (d) Indonesia
28. What is the cherry blossom festival in Japan known as?

(a) Hanami (b) Sakurima (c) Harakiri (d) Jitensha
29. Who is the currentChief Minister of [1]?

(a) Conrad Sangma (b) Williamson Sangma
(c) DD Lapang (d) Donkupar RoyS
(Q.30-Q.34): Reservation for members of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs), given
for the past 70 years in Lok Sabha and state assemblies, ends on January 25, 2020. The reservation for
Anglo-Indians in the form of "nomination" is set to expire on January 25 as the bill does not extend the
facility to the community.
With approval of both the Houses, the bill was sent to states for ratification by 50 per cent of the
assemblies before it comes into force.
Parliament passed the Constitution amendment bill to extend quota to SCs and STs in Lok Sabha and
state assemblies by another [1] years with Law Minister [2] asserting that the Modi government will never
stop the reservation system.
The Amendment Bill was passed in Rajya Sabha with 163 members voting in favour and none against it.
30. Which has been replaced by [1] in the above passage?

31. Which amendment to the Constitution was this?

(a) 127th (b) 125th (c) 126th (d) 128th
32. Which Article of the Constitution originally provided for reservation of seats?

(a) Harsimrat Kaur (b) Ravishankar Prasad
(c) Prakash Javadekar (d) Narendra Singh Tomar
34. In which Article,the procedure for amendment of the constitution is mentioned ?

(Q.35-Q.38): Arogya Setu app is based on the idea of ‘technological solutionism’ (technology providing
an impartial solution to complex social problems).
However, concerns over the Aarogya Setu App were raised when a French 'ethical hacker' claimed to
have access to the users' data and highlighted security bugs within the app which could have privacy
ramifications.
The app seeks continuous access to location information (through GPS and Bluetooth technologies) to
alert people to follow social distancing protocols and avoid Covid-19 hotspots.
Policy on Adoption of Open Source Software for Government of India was launched in 2014. The thrust
of the policy requires the various ministries of the Government of India to prefer Open Source Software in
all e-Governance systems.
Technology can help us to be safe, but it must not infringe people’s right to privacy. In this context, India
must seriously contemplate legislation around the app, which strikes a balance between disease
containment and privacy.
35. Who has developed the Arogya Setu app ?

(a) NIC (b) Infosys (c) C-DAC (d) Wipro
36. Who headed the Committee which has proposed the Data Protection Bill ?
(a) Justice B N Srikrishna (b) Justice Katju
(c) Justice Narsimhan (d) Justice K P Sharma
37. Supreme Court has given a Landmark judgement making individual right of a citizen a fundamental right
protected by the constitution. Right to privacy is a part of which Article ?
38. Policy on Adoption of Open Source Software for Government of India was launched in which year ?
(a) 2011 (b) 2012 (c) 2013 (d) 2014
MOCK CLAT #33
Direction (Q.1-Q.39): Read the information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
(Q.1-Q.5): Working to bail out the troubled Yes Bank, Reserve Bank of India unveiled a reconstruction
scheme that suggested a clear possibility of the State Bank of India (SBI), India’s largest bank, acquiring
a certain per cent equity stake in the private sector lender. The acquisition cost is likely to be around Rs
11,760 crore as per the face value of Yes Bank share fixed by the [1].
In the “Yes Bank Reconstruction Scheme, 2020,” issued less than 24 hours after it superseded the board
of the bank and appointed an administrator, the central bank said: “State Bank of India has expressed its
willingness to make investment in Yes Bank and participate in its reconstruction scheme”. However, the
RBI did not indicate whether other lenders are involved in the scheme.
Earlier in the day, RBI Governor [2] said: “The resolution (Yes Bank) will be done very swiftly, it will be
done very fast… 30 days which we have given is the outer limit. You will see very swift action from RBI.”

(a) Yes Bank (b) RBI (c) Finance ministry (d) SEBI
2. What is the meaning of face value of share as specified in the paragraph?

(a) Value that is indicated on the certificate of the stock in question
(b) Value that is based on the market supply mechanism
(c) Value that is based on the market demand mechanism
(d) Both b and c
3. The scheme stated in the paragraph is that the investor bank should agree to invest in the equity of the
reconstructed bank (Yes Bank) to the extent that post-infusion, it holds _____ per cent shareholding.
(a) 30% (b) 49% (c) 59% (d) 100%

(a) Urjit Patel (b) Shaktikanta Das (c) Raghuram Rajan (d) Viral Acharya
5. Enforcement Directorate raided premises associated with Yes Bank’s founder and former managing
director Rana Kapoor, and charged with:
(a) Tax evasion (b) Money laundering
(c) Deposit of less CRR with RBI (d) Murder Charges
(Q.6-Q.10): The government has appointed Justice [X] as the officiating chairperson of the National
Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT).
NCLAT Chairperson Justice [Y] retired.
The appointment of Justice Bhat, a former judge of the J&K High Court, is “for a period of three months
with effect from 15.03.2020 or until a regular Chairperson is appointed or until further orders, whichever is
earliest,” according to an official notification.
Justice Bhat had joined NCLAT as a judicial member on October 17, 2017.
6. Who has been appointed as the officiating chairman of NCLAT redacted as [X] ?
(a) Jyoti Mukhopadhyaya (b) Bansi Lal Bhatt
(c) Piyush Pandey (d) A.I.S. Cheema
7. Who was the first chairman of NCLAT redacted as [Y]?

(a) Shankar Roy Chakraborty (b) Sujata Kriplani
(c) Sudhanshu Jyoti Mukhopadhaya (d) A.I.S. Cheema
8. NCLAT hears appeals from which forums?

(a) National Company Law Tribunal
(b) Competition Commission of India
(c) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
9. NCLAT has been established under which Act?

(a) Companies Act 2013
(b) Insolvency and Bankruptcy code 2016
(c) National Company Law Tribunal Act 2013
10. Who appoints the chairman of NCLAT?

(a) Chief Justice of India (CJI) or his nominee
(b) Central Government
(c) President
(d) Central Government in consultation with CJI
(Q.11-Q.15): A. Martyr’s Day

On 30 January Martyr's Day or Shaheed Diwas is celebrated in the memory of Mahatma Gandhi and on
23rd March also Martyr's Day is celebrated to pay tribute to three extraordinary revolutionaries of India
who were hanged to death by the British namely Bhagat Singh, Shivaram Rajguru and Sukhdev Thapar.
And on 30 January 1948 Mahatma Gandhi, the father of Nation was assassinated at [X].
30 January is celebrated as Shaheed Diwas or Martyr’s Day in the memory of Mahatma Gandhi and 23rd
March is celebrated as Martyr's Day to remember the sacrifice of three extraordinary freedom fighters of
India. On 23rd March three heroes of our Nation were hanged to death namely Bhagat Singh,
Shivaram Rajguru and Sukhdev Thapar by the British. No doubt, they also sacrificed their lives for the
welfare of our nation whether they have chosen a different path from Mahatma Gandhi. They are the
source of inspiration for the youth of India. At such a young age, they came forward and for the
independence they fought with bravery. So, to pay homage to these three revolutionaries Martyr's Day is
also celebrated on 23rd March.
About Bhagat Singh and his companions
Bhagat Singh was born on 28 September, 1907 in the Lyallpur, Punjab. Bhagat Singh together with his
companions Rajguru, Sukhdev, Azad, and Gopal fought for the assassination of Lala Lajpat Rai. Bhagat
Sing became an inspiration for youngsters due to his daring adventures. He with his companions on 8th
April, 1929 threw bombs over the [Y]by reading the slogan "Inquillab Zindabad". And for this, a murder
case was charged against them. On 23rd March, 1931 in the Lahore Jail they were hanged. Their body
was cremated at the banks of the Sutlej River. Let us tell you that a big Shaheedi Mela or Martyrdom Fair
is held in the birthplace, at the National Martyr's Memorial in the Hussainwala or Indo-Pak border.
Who was Mahatma Gandhi?

Mahatma Gandhi was born on 2nd October, 1869 in Porbandar, Gujarat, India, and his full name was
Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi. He was married at the age of 13 and went to England for his studies.
11. Mahatma Gandhi was assassinated at, redacted as [x]?

(a) Birla House (b) Pathankot (c) Porbandar (d) Gandhinagar
12. What is the other name given to Martyrs day?

(a) Swatantrata Sangram Diwas (b) Swadeshi Diwas
(c) Sarvodaya Diwas (d) Amar Jawan Jyoti Diwas.
13. Which other date is also celebrated as Police Martyrs Day in India?
(a) 18th October (b) 21st October (c) 26th January (d) None of the above
14. Where did they throw the bomb redacted as [y]?

(a) Central Legislative Assembly (b) Secretariat
(c) Provincial Council (d) None of the above
15. Bhagat Singh assassinated John Saunders because he mistook him to be ______?
(a) Andrew Simon (b) General Dyer (c) James Scott (d) General Richard
(Q.16-Q.20):Constitutional changes allowing Vladimir Putin to run for President again in 2024 sailed
through Russia’s lower house of Parliament on Wednesday, opening the way for him to potentially stay in
power until 2036. Mr. Putin, a former KGB officer, is currently required by the Constitution to step down in
2024 when his second sequential and fourth presidential term ends. But the amendment would formally
reset his presidential term tally to zero. The 450-seat State Duma, the lower house of Parliament, on
Wednesday voted in favour of the change, along with other amendments to the Constitution, by 383
votes. Nobody voted against, but 43 lawmakers abstained. Twenty-four lawmakers were absent. If, as
Mr. Putin critics expect, the constitutional court now gives its blessing to the amendment and it is backed
in a nationwide vote on April 22, Mr. Putin would have the option to run again for President in 2024.
Kremlin critic and opposition politician Alexei Navalny has said he believes Mr. Putin will now try to
become President for life. Two people staged lone pickets outside the State Duma on Wednesday.
16. The President of Russia, flags referendum for major constitutional changes, Which are?
(a) Shifting major powers of the President of Russia to the lower house of the Russian Parliament called
State Duma.
(b) Asked for the resignation of Russian Prime Minister.
(c) Neither (a) or (b)
17. Who is the Current Prime Minister of Russia?

(a) Dmitry Medvedev (b) Vladmir Putin
(c) Mikhail Vladimirovich Mishustin (d) None of the above
18. Since which year is Vladmir Putin is holding the office of President of Russia?
(a) 2012 (b) 2000 (c) 2005 (d) None of the above
19. Which is the most populous nation in Europe?

(a) United Kingdom (b) Turkey (c) Russia (d) None of the Above
20. What is the term of office of President in Russia?

(a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) 4 years (d) None of the Above
(Q.21-Q.25): The coronavirus outbreak has been accompanied by a spurt of information across social
media, a lot of it false or misguided. While the [1] is yet to label the outbreak a “pandemic”, it has labelled
the spread of information a “massive ‘infodemic’ — an overabundance of information — some accurate
and some not — that makes it hard for people to find trustworthy sources and reliable guidance when
they need it”.
This is not the first time that a global outbreak has been accompanied by misinformed claims on social
media. But while this happened mostly on Facebook during previous outbreaks, the emergence of
WhatsApp and the growth of Twitter have amplified such forwards and posts.
Google has an “SOS Alert” for those searching about the virus. Facebook CEO Mark Zuckerberg wrote in
a March 4 post about the efforts that the company was making, including free advertising and removal of
conspiracy theories. [2] has banned more than one million products that claimed to prevent or cure
infection with the virus.
21. Which of the following media platform existed during 2003 SARS?
(a) Facebook (b) Twitter (c) Whatsapp (d) None of the above existed

(a) India (b) WTO (c) WHO (d) USA
23. EPI-WIN, is an initiative of:

(a) AYUSH, India (b) China (c) WHO (d) South Korea

(a) Alibaba (b) Flipkart (c) GoI (d) Amazon
25. In 2009, ________ outbreak occurred.

(a) SARS (b) Swine Flu (c) Ebola (d) Nipah virus
(Q.26-Q.29): The U.N. General Assembly has decided to hold elections for the five non-permanent
members of the Security Council next month under the new voting arrangements due to the COVID-19
restrictions, with India assured a win being the sole contender for the Asia Pacific seat.
The 193-member General Assembly adopted the decision on Friday titled ‘Procedure for holding
elections by secret ballot without a plenary meeting during the coronavirus disease (COVID-19)
pandemic’.
The elections of non-permanent members to the Security Council and the election of members to the
Economic and Social Council will be held simultaneously in June 2020 without a plenary meeting.
Election for the five non-permanent members of the 15-nation council for the 2021-22 term was originally
scheduled on June 17.
It is argued by critics that India has still not signed the NPT and also refused to sign the CTBT in 1996.
26. Which of the following is not a permanent member of UNSC ?

(a) China (b) Russia (c) Brazil (d) France
27. Where is the Head Quarter of UNSC is located ?

(a) Washinton D.C (b) Montreal (c) New York (d) New Jersey
28. How many Non permanent members are there in the UNSC ?
(a) 15 (b) 10 (c) 9 (d) 12
29. Where is the Head Quarter of the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization is located ?
(a) Vienna (b) New York (c) Canberra (d) Sydney
(Q.30-Q.34): Major [1] of the Indian Army, who served as a peacekeeper with the United Nations Mission
in South Sudan (UNMISS) in 2019, has won the prestigious United Nations Military Gender Advocate of
the year Award, the Army said.
Major [1] received the award from the UN Secretary General during an online ceremony at the UN
Headquarters on the occasion of International Day of United Nations Peacekeepers.
Carla Monteiro de Castro Araujo, a Brazilian Naval officer, also received the award.
As a military observer in UNMISS from November 2018 to December 2019, Major [1] was the principal
focal point of contact for gender issues for military observers in the mission. “The officer encouraged
participation in joint military patrols to maintain gender balance, irrespective of the hardships under
extreme field conditions,” the Army said, adding she also strived to integrate gender perspective into the
planning and military activity in the mission.

(a) Major Suman Gawani (b) Major Gunjan Saxena
(c) Seema Rao (d) Sheetal Chauhan
31. Where is the Head Quarter of United Nations is located ?

(a) New york (b) Geneva (c) Washington (d) Los Angeles
32. Internationalday of United Nations Peacekeepers is celebrated every year on-

(a) 25th May (b) 27th May (c) 29th May (d) 31st May
33. Who is the current United Nations General Secretary?

(a) Kofi Annan (b) Filippo Grandi (c) Ban ki moon (d) Antonio Guterres
34. _________: The Kargil Girl,the upcoming Indian biopic movie is based on the story of which Indian Air
Force pilot ?
(a) Seema Pahwa (b) Gunjan Saxena (c) Avni Chaturvedi (d) Vishaka Parashar
(Q.35-Q.39): Representatives from most of the 194 member countries of the World Health Organization
gather in [1] each May for the World Health Assembly. This is a flagship event for the World Health
Organization, and for global health more broadly. It is at the WHA that representatives of these
governments set the agenda for the World Health Organization and make other decisions about the
WHO’s budget and overall operations.
WHO membership is only given to countries that are members of the United Nations - which does not
recognise [2] - or whose applications are approved by the World Health Assembly. What this means is
that [2] has been excluded from emergency meetings and important global expert briefings on the
coronavirus pandemic. This even though [2] is seen as one of the few places in the world which has
successfully stemmed the spread of the coronavirus without resorting to draconian measures.
This year, the WHA was held virtually on May 18 and 19. And, as one would expect the virtual gathering
was exclusively focused on COVID-19. However, lurked in the background of this meeting was the
question of Taiwan’s status at the WHO. World The member states agreed during their main annual
assembly on Monday (May 18) to delay a controversial discussion on granting [1][3] status, despite the
United States and others stepping up pressure in recent days.
Source: Edited and recreated from UN-Dispatch

(a) New York (b) Copenhagen (c) Geneva (d) The Hague
36. Which of the following countries/disputed places has been redacted by [2]?
(a) Hong Kong (b) Taiwan (c) Thailand (d) North Korea
37. What status was being discussed to be provided to [2] in the World Health Assembly this year – [3]?
(a) Membership (b) Observer (c) Dialogue Partner (d) Permanent membership
38. The whole issue exploded further recently after a controversial interview of the WHO assistant director-
general. Who is s/he?
(a) Tedros Adhanom (b) Yvonne Tong (c) Bruce Aylward (d) Maria Van Kerkhove
39. Which of the following statements regarding this year’s World Health Assembly incorrect?
(a) The EU Resolution was accepted by consensus
(b) China finally agreed to a China-centred investigation
(c) Calls for reforming the WHO specifically because it was born of the ashes of the World War II were
made
(d) Beijing is vehemently opposed to participation of [2] in the WHO
MOCK CLAT #34
Directions (Q.1-Q.39): Read the information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
(Q.1-Q.5): The South Central Railway ran two more migrant special trains, one from Telangana and
another from Andhra Pradesh, carrying over 2,000 passengers towards Bihar and Maharashtra,
respectively, early on Tuesday.
The State governments have picked up the ticket costs for the travel, identified the passengers, thermal
screened them and brought them to the departing stations in buses under police escort. He operation of
Shramik Special trains from Kerala held up over the refusal of the Bihar government to issue a No
Objection Certificate (NOC) have been sorted out.
The Railways operated five special trains to Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar, and Odisha for the benefit
of the stranded workers.
With Bihar issuing the NOC on Tuesday, Railways operated a special train from Alappuzha to Bettiah in
Bihar. A special train was operated from Ernakulam South to Lucknow in Uttar Pradesh while another
one was operated to Jasidh Junction in Jharkhand later in the day.
With the five Shramik Specials operated since Monday night, the number of special trains had gone up to
16. As only 1,140 people could be accommodated in these trains in view of the social distancing norms,
only 18,272 of the 2.75 lakh migrants who wanted to return home had been moved out of the State.
1. Which of the following ministry issued notification for the starting of ‘Shramik Trains’?
(a) Ministry of Railways (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Skill Development (d) Ministry of Transportation
2. Shramik Trains were started from:

(a) 27th April, 2020 (b) 1st May, 2020 (c) 10th May, 2020 (d) 22nd May, 2020
3. Shramik Trains are for:

1. Migrant workers
2. Piligrims and tourists stranded at a place due to lockdown
3. Students stucked in lockdown
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
4. _______ is the top state where maximum trains were terminated.

(a) Jharkhand (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
5. Piyush Goyal is the minister of Railways as well as ________________.

(a) Minister of MSME (b) Minister of Commerce and Industry
(c) Minister of Agriculture (d) Minister of Finance
(Q.6-Q.10): As tensions between the U.S. and China rise over the novel coronavirus pandemic, India,
which is set to take over as the next Chairperson of the World Health Organization’s decision-making
executive body in May, is faced with a major choice on whether to support a U.S. move to reinstate
Taiwan’s observer status at the World Health Assembly (WHA) or to China’s opposition to it.
On Monday, External Affairs Minister [1] attended a seven-nation virtual meeting of Foreign Ministers,
convened by U.S. Secretary of State Mike Pompeo, which appeared to be part of Washington’s efforts to
gain support for its move to effect changes at the WHO.
[1] will take part in a virtual meeting of the [2]-nation Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) led by
China and Russia, which will discuss responses to the pandemic. The meeting was held on the same day
the U.S. Senate passed an Act (S.249) to “direct the Secretary of State to develop a strategy to regain
observer status for Taiwan in the World Health Organization”, beginning with its decision-making body,
the WHA.
(a) Shyam Nandan Prasad Mishra (b) Jaswant Singh
(c) Sushma Swaraj (d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
7. China put forward a formula, known as "________", under which both Beijing and Taipei agree that
Taiwan belongs to China.
(a) One Country, one system (b) One Country, two systems
(c) Two Countries, one system (d) Two countries, 2 systems
8. India’s Dr. Harsh Vardhan took over the chairmanship of WHO from which country?
(a) Germany (b) South Korea (c) Japan (d) Russia

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
10. What is the term of Chairman of WHO?

(Q.11-Q.16): The Jammu and Kashmir government’s orders do not reveal any reason for making mobile
4G Internet inaccessible across the Union Territory (UT), the Supreme Court said in an order.LE
Besides, the government orders snipping the Internet speed to 2G were meant to operate for only a
limited time.
“Although the present orders indicate that they have been passed for a limited period of time, they do not
provide any reasons to reflect that all the districts of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir require
the imposition of such restrictions. At the same time, we do recognise that the Union Territory has been
plagued with militancy, which is required to be taken into consideration,” a three-judge Bench led by
Justice N.V. Ramana observed in the 19-page order.
The order was based on petitions filed separately by media professionals, school associations and
private citizens claiming that lack of access to high-speed Internet in J&K had crippled medical efforts to
contain the COVID-19 contagion and pulled the rug under online education and businesses. The
government, on the other hand, maintained that high-speed Internet was a facilitator of terrorism in the
UT.
11. Access to internet is the fundamental right under which article of the Indian constitution?
12. When did first telecom spectrum suction held in India?

(a) 1992 (b) 1994 (c) 1998 (d) 2002
13. According to new J&K Reorganisation Act 2019,which of the following is/are in J&K UT?
1. Leh
2. Kargil
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. When Government of India barred all broadband as well as mobile internet services in J&K?
(a) August 2019 (b) December 2019 (c) January 2020 (d) March 2020
15. What was the duration of J&K’s legislative assembly before the implementation of reorganisation act?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
16. Who was the last governor of Jammu and Kashmir before the abrogation of Article 370 ?
(a) Satya Pal Malik (b) Karan Singh
(c) Narendra Nath Vohra (d) G C Saxena
(Q.17-Q.21): Observations of the [1] system made a few years ago with the ALMA provided the first hints
of ongoing planet formation. In the ALMA images, astronomers spotted two spiral arms of dust and gas
within in the inner region of the [1] disk. Then, in 2019 and early 2020, Dr. Boccaletti and his colleagues
from France, Taiwan, the United States and Belgium used the [2] instrument to perform imaging of [1] in
polarized and unpolarized near-infrared light in order to study the morphology of its disk and search for
signs of planet formation.
The astronomers confirmed the presence of the spiral arms first detected by ALMA. “Spirals of this type
signal the presence of baby planets, which ‘kick’ the gas, creating disturbances in the disk in the form of
a wave, somewhat like the wake of a boat on a lake,” said co-author Dr. Emmanuel Di Folco, an
astronomer in the Astrophysics Laboratory of Bordeaux.“As the planet rotates around the central star, this
wave gets shaped into a spiral arm.”
Source: Edited and recreated from article of the Sci News Magazine
17. Which of the following systems has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Arcturian (b) Zeta Reticuli (c) Pleiades (d) AB Aurigae
18. Which of the following instruments has been redacted by [2]?

(a) VOLTEC (b) VLT-SPHERE (c) EMRGE (d) GEM
19. What does the ALMA stand for?

(a) Atacama Large Millimeter/submillimeter Array
(b) Antarctic Large Millimeter/submillimeter Array
(c) American Large Millimeter/submillimeter Array
(d) Alpine Large Millimeter/submillimeter Array
20. Recently Wasp-76b was in news. Which of the following reasons brought it in news?
(a) This was a newly discovered exoplanet that had suitable conditions for sustaining life
(b) This is the most recently discovered dead-star
(c) This is an exoplanet where there was an instance of raining iron
(d) Wasp-7b was a meteorite that recently flew past the earth in close proximity

(a) The planet is located at a distance about the distance of the planet Neptune from the Sun in our solar
system
(b) The planet appears to be a rocky planet and not a gas planet
(c) The planet is bigger than the biggest planet of our solar-system
(d) Jupiter is the biggest planet of our solar-system
(Q.22-Q.25): Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Chinese President Xi Jinping meets in the ancient
coastal town of [1] in Tamil Nadu, some 50 kilometres south of Chennai, for a second Informal Summit
on October 11-12. The two countries convened their first Informal Summit in central China’s [2] in April
2018, where they exchanged views on issues of global and bilateral significance.
Since Informal Summits allow discussion on wide-ranging issues, they are not particularly purpose-
specific, and are sometimes considered to play bigger roles in diplomatic dialogue than formal exchanges
— the reason is that they tend to be more in-depth, and relatively flexible in intent and the scope of
discussion.
For instance, in [2], Prime Minister Modi and President Xi discussed a range of subjects, including the
India-China boundary question, bilateral trade and investment, terrorism, economic development and
global peace, and reached a “broad consensus”.
(a) Mamallapuram (b) Madurai (c) Coimbatore (d) Chennai
(a) Guangzhou (b) Wuhan (c) Taipei (d) Lhasa
24. [1] is an ancient historic town and one of two major port cities by the 7th century within the ________
kingdom.
(a) Chola (b) Chera (c) Pallava (d) Bahamani
25. What is the approx length of the Indo China border ?
(a) 3488 km (b) 2178 km (c) 5509 km (d) 1909 km
(Q.26-Q.28): The SARFAESI Act, which is now rarely being used after the Insolvency and Bankruptcy
Code has come into existence in [1], allows banks to seize, take control, manage and sell assets of
defaulting borrowers without the intervention of any court/tribunal and also ensures speedy recovery.
In a landmark judgment, a Supreme Court five-judge Constitution Bench on ruled that cooperative banks
can use the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest
Act for recovery of debts from its defaulters and can seize and sell their assets to recover dues.
Holding that cooperative banks, registered under state-specific acts and multi-state level cooperative
societies registered under the Multi State Cooperative Societies Act, come under the SARFAESI Act
2002, a bench led by Justice Arun Mishra, unanimously ruled that ‘Parliament has legislative competence
under to provide additional procedures for recovery (of debts) under SARFAESI Act with respect to co-
operative banks’.
Upholding the central government notification of January 28, 2003 which brought co-operative societies
within the purview of the Act, the bench held that co-operative banks are ‘banks’ for the purposes of
Section 2(1)(c) of the SARFAESI Act.
(a) 2012 (b) 2014 (c) 2015 (d) 2016
27. Commercial Banks in India are managed by the Banking regulation Act. The banking regulation act came
in which year ?
(a) 1951 (b) 1949 (c) 1961 (d) 1962
28. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the division of powers between Union government
and State governments ?
(a) 6th Schedule (b) 7th Schedule (c) 8th Schedule (d) 9th Schedule
(Q.29-Q.34): India is set to give final approval to a $2.6 billion deal for military helicopters from U.S.
defence firm [1] ahead of a visit by U.S. President Donald Trump. India's defence purchases from the
United States have reached $17 billion since 2007 as it has pivoted away from traditional supplier
Russia, looking to modernise its military and narrow the gap with China.
The government cleared a big defence procurement of 24 US-made [2] multirole helicopters worth
around $2.5 billion for the Indian Navy. The [2] helicopters is actually manufactured by [3], which is
owned by [1]. These helicopters play a very key role in modern naval fleet operations and the Indian
Navy was trying to find a best fit for its operations for more than a decade. These choppers provide
crucial eyes, ears, and long arms for the Navy to hunt enemy submarines and conduct surveillance.
Source: Edited and recreated from various news reporting of the Economic Times

(a) Northrop Gruman (b) Raytheon (c) Boeing (d) Lockheed Martin
30. Which of the following helicopters will replace [2]?

(a) MH 60 Romeo (b) SH 60 Seahawk
(c) UH 60 Black Hawk (d) HH 60 Jay Hawk
31. Which of the following companies will replace [3]?
(a) Bell Textron (b) Sikorsky Aircraft (c) Bombardier (d) Aerokopter
32. Which of the following statements about [2] is correct?

(a) These have advanced combat systems like sensors, missiles, and torpedoes to track and hunt enemy
boats and submarines
(b) These have anti-surface, anti-submarine warfare, search and rescue missions capabilities
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
33. With how many countries is India authorized to export defence products currently?
(a) 36 (b) 38 (c) 40 (d) 42
34. Rafale fighter aircraft is built by which of the following companies ?

(a) Airbus (b) Boeing (c) Dassault Aviation (d) Bedek Aviation Group
(Q.35-Q.39): Indian Navy's [1]-class ship INS Jamuna, which has arrived in [2], will carry out detailed
hydrographic surveys and several shore-based survey activities over the two-month deployment period.
Over the two months deployment period, the ship will carry out detailed hydrographic surveys and several
shore-based survey activities.
[2] Navy personnel will embark the ship during the conduct of the joint survey. Additionally, they will also
be provided "hands-on survey training during every operational turn around in port."
The Hydographic survey is the measurement and study of features that affect maritime navigation. It also
includes offshore oil exploration, dredging, oil drilling and other related activities.
Source: Edited and Recreated from news reporting of The Times of India
35. INS Jamuna is a specific class of ship of the Indian Navy, which has been replaced by [1]. What is it?
(a) Darshak (b) Sarvekshak (c) Sandhayak (d) Shivalik
36. Which of the following countries will fill [2]?

(a) Russia (b) Bangladesh (c) Sri Lanka (d) Iran
37. How many Indian Naval Ships are deployed in the hydrographic surveys?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
38. Which of the following organizations will release the standards and specifications to conduct the survey?
(a) Indian Navy
(b) International Hydrographic Organization
(c) International Naval Research Organization
(d) Both (b) and (c)
39. Where is the headquarters of the Indian Naval Hydrographic Development situated?
(a) Cochin (b) Mumbai (c) Dehradun (d) Chennai
MOCK CLAT #35
(Q.1-Q.6): A 21,000 tonne (approximately 23,000 U.S. ton) oil spill that prompted Russian President
Vladimir Putin to declare an emergency last week has now reached a pristine Arctic lake [1], and there
are concerns it could contaminate the Arctic Ocean. Environmentalists and local officials have raised
alarms about the disaster, which they say is the worst of its kind in the Russian Arctic, according to BBC
News. So far, the oil has spread 12 miles from the initial spill site, a fuel tank that collapsed May 29.
The oil started leaking on 29 May. So far about 21,000 tonnes have contaminated the [2] river and
surrounding subsoil. Lake [1] serves as the basin for the river, which flows to the Kara Sea, part of the
Arctic Ocean. From October to June that river is usually ice-bound. Clean-up teams have removed about
23,000 cubic metres (812,000 cubic feet) of contaminated soil, Ria Novosti news reports. The pollution
"will have a negative effect on the water resources, on the animals that drink that water, on the plants
growing on the banks", said Vasily Yablokov of Greenpeace Russia.
1. Which of the following lakes has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Khanka (b) Taymyr (c) Pyasino (d) Chany
2. Which of the following rivers has been redacted by [2]?

(a) Pyasina (b) Ambarnaya (c) Amur (d) Kama
3. Consider the following statements –

1. The spill happened when a fuel tank at a power plant near the Siberian city of Norilsk
2. The power plant's director Vyacheslav Starostin has been taken into custody until 31 July
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Russian prosecutors have ordered checks at "particularly dangerous installations" built on permafrost.
What are permafrosts?
(a) Level lands over glaciers
(b) Ground that is frozen continuously for two or more years
(c) Level lands built artificially over thick ice-sheet
(d) Ground over ice sheet artificially prepared by hardening the ice permanently underneath with liquid
nitrogen
5. The company that owns the power-plant is the world’s highest producer of -
(a) Zinc and nickel
(b) Nickel and palladium
(c) Palladium and Zinc
(d) Magnesium and Nickel
6. Greenpeace has compared it to the 1989 Exxon Valdez disaster in -

(a) Greenland (b) Hawaiian Islands
(c) Alaska (d) Iceland
(Q.7-Q.12): In an effort to make India self-reliant in the energy sector, Prime Minister Narendra Modi
today launched the auction of [1] coal mines for commercial mining, via video conference. In his address,
PM Modi said for decades, the country’s coal sector was entangled in a web of captive and non-captive
and was excluded from the competition. Narendra Modi added that the commercial coal mining auction is
an event in challenging times, which will increase transparency in the sector and make the country less
reliant on imports. The Prime Minister further said that consumption and demand are rapidly approaching
the pre-COVID levels, hence, there cannot be a better time for a new beginning.
India has the [2]-largest coal reserves and the country is the [3]-largest producer of coal. PM Modi
underlined that India will get new resources from today’s step and the states will get higher revenue from
coal sector liberalisation. Therefore, in line with the vision to build an ‘Atma Nirbhar Bharat’, a slew of
reforms to promote commercial mining of coal in India, has been announced. Allowing commercial mining
may help to address India’s coal production needs, provide investment opportunities and save precious
foreign exchange.
(a) 36 (b) 39 (c) 41 (d) 47

(a) Second (b) Third (c) Fourth (d) Fifth

(a) Second (b) Third (c) Fourth (d) Fifth
10. In which year was the nationalization of coal done in India?

(a) 1970 (b) 1971 (c) 1972 (d) 1973

1. Coal India Limited is the largest coal miner in the world
2. Revenue sharing model has been fixed in this scheme
Which of the above is/are correct?

1. The regulation requiring power plants to use “washed” coal has been done away with
2. The “washing” requirement was introduced in 1997
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
(Q.13-Q.18): The Supreme Court Friday refused to order a stay on work for the Central Vista project with
the Centre stating that there was no violation of process in the grant of clearances for the Rs [1]
redevelopment project in the heart of the National Capital.
Earlier, Advocate Shikhil Suri, who appeared on behalf of the petitioner, Rajeev Suri, who is also an
advocate, said that various construction activities associated with the project were being cleared despite
the fact that the case is pending before the Supreme Court. He said that environmental clearance has
also been recommended for the project, and sought a direction against carrying out further steps. “There
is a series of various administrative clearances that is going on. No objection to clearances being
granted. My prayer is for no change of ground situation even though there is paperwork,” Senior
advocate Sanjay Hegde submitted on behalf of another petitioner, Lt Col (retd) Anuj Srivastava.
Appearing for the Centre, Solicitor General Tushar Mehta said the government cannot give an assurance
that no work will be done on the ground. The court can direct that whatever happens will be subject to
orders, and there is “no over-reaching of process of the Court”, Mehta said. “Can we restrain authorities
from acting as per law?” a Bench of Justices A M Khanwilkar, Dinesh Maheshwari and Sanjiv Khanna
asked the petitioner, who had pointed out that administrative clearances were being given and
groundwork may begin if a stay was not granted. The petitioner had approached the court challenging the
notification issued by the Delhi Development Authority (DDA) regarding the project under which a new
Parliament building and central government offices will be constructed.
13. What amount has been redacted by [1]?

(a) 10,000 crore (b) 15,000 crore (c) 20,000 crore (d) 25,000 crore
14. In which year was it decided to shift the capital of India from Calcutta to Delhi?
(a) 1906 (b) 1908 (c) 1911 (d) 1913
15. Which of the following ministries had proposed the Central Vista Redevelopment project?
(a) Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(b) Union Ministry of Finance
(c) Union Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Both (a) and (c)
16. In the Central Vista Redevelopment project what will be the shape of the new Parliamentary building?
(a) Square (b) Rectangular (c) Hexagonal (d) Triangular
17. Who had designed the existing Parliamentary building?

(a) Lutyens and Baker (b) George Walker and Tiden
(c) Mansfield and Lutyens (d) Baker and George Walker
18. Who is the union minister of Housing and Urban Affairs?

(a) Hardeep Singh Puri (b) Ravi Shankar Prasad
(c) Harsimrat Kaur Badal (d) Ram Vilas Paswan
(Q.19-Q.24): The Centre has extended the tenure of the OBC Commission by six months. The panel will
submit its report to the government by January 31, 2021. This is the [1] extension given to the OBC
Commission. The decision to extend the OBC Commission’s tenure was taken during the Cabinet
meeting presided over by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Javadekar said that the panel’s work was
affected due to the coronavirus outbreak, therefore, the Cabinet decided to grant an extension to the
panel.
The panel was tasked with making various recommendations related to Other Backward Classes. Among
other things, the panel was also mandated to examine the issue of sub-categorisation within the OBC in
different states. The Union Cabinet had earlier in January approved an extension of six months in the
tenure of a Commission. The Commission was constituted under Article [2] of the Constitution. The
Commission headed by [3] has since interacted with all the states/UTs which have subcategorized OBCs,
and the State Backward Classes Commissions.

(a) Sixth (b) Seventh (c) Eighth (d) Ninth
20. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution has been redacted by [2]?
(a) 335 (b) 337 (c) 340 (d) 343
21. Who out of the following has been redacted by [3]?

(a) Justice S. B. Sinha (b) Justice G. Rohini
(c) Justice Leila Seth (d) Justice Gita Mittal
22. In which year was the Commission formed?

(a) 2016 (b) 2017 (c) 2018 (d) 2019
23. The decision comes just before a state assembly election in [x], where sub-categorization of OBC plays a
strong political factor in elections. What is [x]?
(a) Jharkhand (b) Odisha (c) Bihar (d) Chhattisgarh
24. National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) gain the constitutional status by which Constitution
Amendment Act?
(a) 100th (b) 101st (c) 102nd (d) 105th
(Q.25-Q.33): A day after his meeting with the military brass on the situation along the Line of Actual
Control in Ladakh, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh reached Moscow Monday night to start a three-day
visit. External Affairs Minister [1], meanwhile, will be participating in a virtual meeting of the foreign
ministers of Russia, India and China (RIC). This will be [1]’s first face-to-face meeting with Chinese
counterpart [2] after the Galwan Valley incident in which 20 Indian Army personnel, including the
Commanding Officer of 16 Bihar, were killed in violent clashes with Chinese troops on the night of June
15.
[1] shall also be attending the Victory Day Parade in Moscow where the troops of India and China are
also participating along with troops of other countries. Singh will meet the Russian defence brass and is
expected to review supplies of defence equipment in the coming months. During his discussions with
Russian Deputy Prime Minister Yury Borisov and Defence Minister Sergei Shoigu, he is likely to raise the
issue of the delivery of the S-400 missile defence systems as well.

(a) Ravishankar Prasad (b) S. Jaishankar
(c) Nitin Gadkari (d) S. Subramaniam

(a) Wang Yi (b) Wei Fenghe (c) Xiao Jie (d) Zhao Kezhi
27. In which year was the RIC grouping conceptualized?

(a) 1988 (b) 1994 (c) 1998 (d) 2001

1. This year the 75th Parade Day Celebrations will be celebrated in Moscow
2. This day marks the victory over the Tzar empire by the Russian Government
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. China does not recognize Crimea as part of Russia
2. Russia does not recognize China’s claims in the South China Sea
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
30. In 2018, on the sidelines of the G20 Summit, the RIC grouping met for the first time after a gap of 12 long
years. Where was the G20 Summit held at that time?
(a) Moscow (b) Shanghai (c) Buenos Aires (d) Brasilia
31. In 2018 G20 Summit, other than the resumption of the G20 grouping another grouping was formed.
Which of the following is it?
(a) JAI (b) AJAI (c) CAAJI (d) BAJI
32. The RIC Foreign Ministers Meet has also discussed about the International North-South Transport
Corridor (INSTC). What is its length?
(a) 1000 km (b) 4700 km (c) 5600 km (d) 7200 km
33. Which of the following countries are being connected to Europe by the INSTC?
(a) India, China and Russia
(b) India, Afghanistan and Central Asian countries
(c) Central Asian countries, Russia and India
(d) India, Russia and Afghanistan
(Q.34-Q.38): The Madhya Pradesh High Court has passed an order directing the State government to
ban single-use plastic in the State, curb use of plastic altogether across educational institutions and make
biodegradable carry bags of other material affordable for consumers.
The (2) in gwalior, comprising Justices Sheel Nagu and Rajeev Kumar Shrivastava, on February 26,
directed the State government to issue directions to industries to immediately stop the production and
use of single-use plastic.
Furthermore, the Bench ordered the government to ensure that bags and packets made of biodegradable
material are sold at subsidised rates. The Bench also stated that plastic waste shall be used at thermal
power plants.
To ensure compliance, the court directed all stakeholders to submit progress reports every three months.
The Bench, while passing the order on a plea, stated that “the time had come to make citizens and
stakeholders aware of their duties and liabilities”.
34. What is the deadline given by Prime Minister to ban single use plastic?
(a) 2021 (b) 2022 (c) 2023 (d) None of the above.
35. Which bench gave the order in the above passage?

(a) Single bench (b) Divisional bench
(c) Full bench (d) Constitutional bench
36. Which of the following cities has High Court of Madhya Pradesh?
(a) Bhopal (b) Indore (c) Gwalior (d) Jabalpur
37. Which Indian State was the first to ban single use plastic bags?
(a) Telangan (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Maharastra (d) Sikkim
38. Which is the nodal ministry responsible for scheme to eradicate single use plastic?
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(d) Ministry of Earth Sciences
39. What was the theme of the Swachhta hi Seva scheme 2019?
(a) Plastic waste awareness and management
(b) Zero Plastic Campaign
(c) Plastic free India
(d) Plastic Awareness campaign.
MOCK CLAT #36
Passage (Q.1-Q.4): Beijing to take aim at the protests that have roiled the semiautonomous city and
posed a direct challenge to the Communist Party and its leader, Xi Jinping.
China signaled on Thursday it would move forward with laws that would take aim at antigovernment
protests and other dissent in Hong Kong. It is the clearest message yet that the Communist Party is
moving to undermine the civil liberties the semiautonomous territory has known since the [1] British
handoff. It is largely seen government move as a replacement of the, Article [2], which was suspended
after the massive protest in 2003.
The plan also revives the threat of violent demonstrations that convulsed the city for months, and risks
worsening China’s deteriorating relationship with the Trump administration, which said the United States
would respond strongly to any crackdown in Hong Kong.
In the Communist Party’s view, tightened security laws in Hong Kong are necessary to protect China from
external forces determined to impinge on its sovereignty. The legislation would give Beijing power to
counter the Hong Kong protests, which are seen as a blatant challenge to the party and China’s leader,
Xi Jinping.

(a) 1990
(b) 1993
(c) 1997
(d) 2002
2. Which of the following has been passed by the Chinese government which caused widespread protests?
(a) Hong Kong name has been changed
(b) Chinese government is decided to handle again Hongkong to UK
(c) To make laws in Hong Kong Chinese government won’t need nod from the local citizens
(d) Lack of health facilities to fight against COVID 19 in Hong Kong

(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 23
4. What is the regional language of Hong Kong?

(a) Cantonese
(b) Ryukyuan
(c) English
(d) Korean
5. British Hong Kong was a colony and British Dependent territory of the United Kingdom from 1841 to
1997, apart from brief period under Japanese occupation during:
(a) First World War
(b) Second World War
(c) First Opium War
(d) Hong Kong was never under Japan
Passage (Q.6-Q.11): The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020 was
passed by the Lok Sabha on March 17, 2020. The bill seeks to amend the [x] and increase the upper
limit of legal abortions to [y] for special categories of women.
The bill was passed in the lower house of the Parliament through a voice vote. Union Health Minister
stated that the proposed bill seeks termination of pregnancy in cases involving victims of incest, rape
survivors, minor girls, differently-abled girls or in case of a pregnancy that has substantial foetal
abnormalities.
The Union Cabinet had approved the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill on January
29, 2020 under the chairmanship of PM Narendra Modi.
Medical Termination of Pregnancy Amendment bill: Key Features

• The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020 proposes requirement for an opinion
from one provider for termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks of gestation and introducing the
requirement of opinion from two providers for termination of pregnancy up to the abovementioned
weeks of gestation.
• The amended bill proposes increasing the upper gestation limit for special categories of women such
as vulnerable women including survivors of rape, victims of incest and others such as differently-
abled women and minors.
• Under the amendment bill, the upper gestation limit will not apply in cases of substantial foetal
abnormalities diagnosed by the Medical Board. The composition, functions and other details of the
Medical Board will be prescribed subsequently in Rules under the Act.
• Further, the name and other details of the woman whose pregnancy has been terminated shall not be
revealed except to a person authorised by the law.
6. Name the statute mentioned as x in the above passage to which the amendment was made.
(a) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1949
(b) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971
(c) Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act, 1994
7. What is the time limit redacted as y in the above passage?

(a) 18 weeks
(b) 20 weeks
(c) 22 weeks
(d) 24 weeks
8. As per the abovementioned statute what is the minimum period prescribed for normal abortion of
pregnancy wherein the consent of only one registered medical practitioner is required?
(a) 8 weeks
(b) 12 weeks
(c) 15 weeks
(d) 18 weeks
9. Which amongst these is not a legal abortion as per the above Act?
(a) If continuation of the pregnancy poses any risks to the life of the mother or to her physical or mental
health
(b) If the foetus has any severe abnormalities
(c) If pregnancy occurred as a result of failure of contraception (but this is only applicable to unmarried
women)
(d) If pregnancy is a result of sexual assault or rape
10. Who is the current Union Health Minister of India?

(a) Smriti Irani
(b) Harsh Vardhan
(c) Rajnath Singh
(d) Najma Heptulla
11. In which of the following countries sex determination is legal?
1. Thailand
2. Singapore
3. Dubai
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2, and 3
Passage (Q.12-Q.14): US Secretary of State Mike Pompeo recently held a video conference with his
counterparts on issues related to the coronavirus pandemic. Pompeo and his counterparts discussed the
importance of international cooperation, transparency, and accountability in combating the COVID-19
pandemic and in addressing its causes.
Regional coalition known as the ‘Quad’. All four nations find a common ground of being the democratic
nations and common interests. Quad is an opportunity for like-minded countries to share notes and
collaborate on projects of mutual interest. All four countries share a vision of an open and free Indo-
Pacific. Each is involved in development and economic projects as well as in promoting maritime domain
awareness and maritime security.
Quad meetings are no longer unusual. But this one was special because it included [1] additional Indo-
Pacific powers. The call, was intended to exchange notes on how these powers were tackling the
COVID-19 pandemic.
The Quad-plus countries have held subsequent meetings, discussing not just battling the current
pandemic situation but also sharing of technologies, and more importantly, ways to get the global
economy back on track without significant setback. They also appear to have agreed on the need to
initially focus on the public health dimension of the crisis, and therefore will first target the development of
vaccines, manufacture of equipment and calibrating treatment options.
India had been somewhat uncomfortable with the Quad because of the perception that it was a
containment effort against China.
12. Which of the following countries are not included in the ‘Quad’?
(a) Japan
(b) Germany
(c) India
(d) Australia

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
14. Which country’s prime minister firstly mooted the idea of Quad?
(a) USA
(b) India
(c) Germany
(d) Japan
Passage (Q.15-Q.19): The Supreme Court said the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), 2019, is
“uppermost in everybody’s minds”, but refused to stay the law without hearing the government first.
A three-judge Bench led by Chief Justice of India (CJI) Sharad A. Bobde did not heed pleas to even
postpone the process of collecting population data to identify illegal migrants or “doubtful citizens” on the
basis of their religion.
The CJI indicated that the CAA challenge may eventually be referred to a Constitution Bench for a
decision on merits.
The Bench issued notice on at least 80 more fresh petitions filed for and against the CAA. It gave the
government four weeks to file its response. The government urged the court to “freeze” the number of
petitions filed in the case.
144 petitions
A total of 144 petitions were listed before the Bench that also comprised Justices S. Abdul Nazeer and
Sanjiv Khanna.
The court said it would list the case in February to pass interim orders. It asked the senior lawyers
involved in the case to categorise the petitions and work out a schedule for hearing them.
“I don’t think anything [any law like the CAA] is irreversible. There will have to be a date for hearing this
interim prayer [for a stay of the CAA)... This case is uppermost in everybody’s minds,” the CJI said,
reacting to the concerns.
15. Which of the following is the definition of illegal migrant?

1. Person who entered the India without valid documents
2. Person overstayed in India without permission of government
Choose the correct option.
(a) 1only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
16. Mark the correct statement.

(a) India is a signatory of 1951 Refugee Convention
(b) India is not a signatory of 1951 Refugee Convention
(c) In 2010, India withdrew its membership from 1951 Refugee convention
(d) All of the above are correct
17. In which year Citizenship Act, first came into existence?

(a) 1950
(b) 1952
(c) 1955
(d) 1958
18. Through how many methods, citizenship of India can be acquired?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
19. Under which article of Indian constitution, does SC exercise the power of Judicial review?
(a) 136
(b) 146
(c) 156
(d) 168
Passage (Q.20-Q.23): Mylan NV said on Monday that it had received approval from the [1] to
manufacture and market [x] for treatment of the coronavirus disease (Covid-19), making it the third
company after Cipla Ltd and Hetero Drugs Ltd to get the regulatory nod to make and sell US-based [2]’s
patented anti-viral drug in India.
The drug will be launched under the brand name DESREM in India and will be available to patients at a
price of ₹4,800 per 100mg vial. The cost of treatment for five days is around ₹20,000 and ₹30,000. The
[1] has been granting accelerated approvals under emergency use authorisation to address urgent needs
amid the evolving Covid-19 pandemic. The emergency authorisation allows products to be used for
treatment without full data on their safety and efficacy, which has to be still submitted as trials continue.
Mylan’s drug will be available in retail at hospitals on a valid doctor’s prescription, said the company. It is
approved for the treatment of suspected or laboratory confirmed incidences of Covid-19 in hospitalized
patients with severe illness.
20. Which of the following regulatory bodies has been redacted by [1]?
(a) DCGI
(b) ICMR
(c) DGCA
(d) MCI-AIIMS
21. Which of the following drug has been redacted by [x]?

(a) Hydroxychloroquine
(b) Ritonavir
(c) Fluvoxamine
(d) Remdesivir
22. Which of the following US-based company has been redacted by [2]?
(a) Moderna
(b) Pfizer
(c) Inovio Pharmaceuticals Inc.
(d) Gilead Sciences Inc.
23. Recently [1] has given approval to an Indian company to conduct human clinical trials of COVID-19
vaccine. Which company is that?
(a) Glenmark
(b) Cipla
(c) Zydus Cadila
(d) Sun Pharma
Passage (Q.24-Q.29): Ngangom Bala Devi, the star player from the Indian women’s football team,
became the first Indian woman footballer to bag a professional contract with the [x]. The 29-year-old who
hails from Irengbam, a small village near [y], created history by becoming the first Asian international to
join Rangers Women FC. The move was facilitated by the Indian Super League club Bengaluru FC.
The Rangers are on a signing spree and Bala Devi was among the 14 new players to be signed by them.
The Indian striker was handed the all-important number 10 jersey and according to Rangers legend Mark
Hateley, “Bala will be a key player for us. We don’t give that shirt that easily! She impressed us all.”
Bala Devi, who’s currently India’s top goal scorer, was over the moon with her move she said, “I’m
excited to get this 18-month contract and to play in the No. 10 jersey. For the Indian team too I played in
the No. 10 jersey. That makes it doubly sweet. Now I want to do well over there and motivate youngsters
in our country. I want to tell them that they can also dream big and play for top clubs (sic).”
Bala recalled her childhood when she used to play with the boys in her locality. She also mentions the
new club ICSA that was especially started for girls in her village. Bala said, “I joined the club and slowly
climbed my way up to play for the national team. When I was showing my skills, I used to hear positive
comments from the coaches. It gave me the confidence to do well (sic).”
24. Which team is redacted as x in the above passage?

(a) Scottish club Rangers FC
(b) Andorran club FC Rànger's
(c) Concord Rangers F.C.
(d) Hong Kong Rangers FC
25. Where does Bala Devi hail from redacted as y in the above passage?
(a) Imphal
(b) Gangtok
(c) Kakching
(d) Jiribam
26. Who was the first Indian male to play for a European club?
(a) Bhaichung Bhutia
(b) Mohammad Salim
(c) Gurpreet Singh
(d) Sunil Chetri
27. Bala’s big inspiration has been ________ her fellow statemate and the first Indian woman footballer to
bag the Padma Shri award and nicknamed as “Durga of Indian Football”. Fill in the blank.
(a) Oinam Bembem Devi
(b) Aditi Chauhan
(c) Maymol Rocky
(d) Dalima Chhibber
28. Who is the captain of Indian National Women’s Football Team and is also the second Indian woman ‘to
play’ for a foreign club ?
(a) Loitongbam Ashalata Devi
(b) Sasmita Malik
(c) Poonam Yadav
(d) Maymol Rocky
29. Sam Kerr is the top female footballer of the world. She is in _______ team
(a) Germany
(b) Australia
(c) Malaysia
(d) England
Passage (Q.30-Q.34): Prime Minister Modi, who addressed the grand ‘Howdy,Modi!’ event in Houston,
described data as the “new oil” and the “[1]”. He also indicated that India was in a strong position to lead
the world in the industry [2] revolution, that relies on big data analytics and digital technology to improve
manufacturing. Making a strong pitch to potential investors in America, the Prime Minister also referred to
the cheap cost of mobile data in India and referred to the increasing use of digital technology to set up
businesses, facilitate economic transactions and interact with the government.
A new India build on a strong foundation of data and digital technology. Data in India can drive growth,
industrial revolution [2] and bring governance closer to those governed.
Making a strong pitch to potential investors in the United States, the Prime Minister also referred to the
cheap cost of mobile data in India and referred to the increasing use of digital technology to set up
businesses, facilitate economic transactions and interact with the government.
“Today it is said that data is the new oil. I will also add that data is the [1]. Industry [2] is focused on data.
Now, please listen carefully, if there is one country in the world where data is cheapest, then that is
India,” the Prime Minister said, adding, “Digital India is India’s new face to the world”.

(a) New Rise
(b) New Gold
(c) New Beginning
(d) New Field

(a) 3.0
(b) 4.0
(c) 5.0
(d) 6.0
32. Which of the following is not a key project of Digital India?

(a) Digilockers
(b) SBM Mobile app
(c) Deployment of Wi-Fi hotspots under BSNL
(d) All of the above are included under the project
33. During the India’s visit of US President in February 2020, he visited ____ cities of India.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
34. What is the name of India -US first tri-service military exercise, took place in 2019?
(a) Lion Roar
(b) Tiger Triumph
(c) Fearless Enemy
(d) Simba
Passage (Q.35-Q.39): Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman today presented the Union Budget 2020-21
in the Lok Sabha. This is the second budget after Narendra Modi led National Democratic Alliance
returned to power for a second term. This year's Union Budget centres around three ideas — Aspirational
India, Economic development, A Caring Society. Central government to provide ₹99,300 crore for
educational sector in FY21. New education policy will be revealed soon, said Sitharaman.
Sitharaman today also proposed new income tax slabs and lower rates. These income tax rates are
optional and are available to those who are willing to forego some exemptions and some deductions.
This year's Economy Survey projected economic growth to rebound and hit 6%-6.5% in the next financial
year starting April 1.
In the 2020-21 budget, funds of ₹12,000 crore have been allocated for construction of new lines, ₹2,250
crore for gauge conversion, ₹700 crore for doubling, ₹5,786.97 crore for rolling stock and ₹1,650 crore for
signalling and telecom.
35. Name the initiative that will be launched by the Civil Aviation Ministry on international and national routes,
improving value realization, especially in the north-east and tribal districts.
(a) Kisan Udan
(b) Kisan Rail
(c) Kisan Jet
36. Government in the budget has announced that it will launch a system under which, _____will be allotted
instantly on the basis of Aadhaar.
(a) PAN
(b) GSTIN
(c) Passport
(d) Voter ID
37. Announcement has been made to conduct a standardized online proctored test for foreign students
seeking scholarships with Study in India (SII). Name the exam.
(a) Ind-SAT
(b) SET
(c) FSAT
(d) IIFT
38. The Budget lays major emphasis to the PM KUSUM Scheme. What is the full form of this Scheme?
(a) Pradhan Mantri Kirti Urja Suraksha evem Utthan Mahabhiyan
(b) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Urja Suraksha evem Utthan Mahabhiyan
(c) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evem Utthan Mahabhiyan
(d) Pradhan Mantri Kirti Urja Suraksha evem Uttham Mahabhiyan
39. The Minister proposed the formation of a National Recruitment Agency. This agency shall be responsible
for the recruitment of which class of individuals?
(a) All Gazetted posts
(b) Grade 3 and above gazetted posts
(c) Grade 3 and below gazetted posts
(d) Non-Gazetted posts
MOCK CLAT #37

Passage (Q.1-Q.5): The European Green Deal aims to transform the 27-country bloc from a high- to a
low-carbon economy, without reducing prosperity and while improving people’s quality of life, through
cleaner air and water, better health and a thriving natural world. Climate neutrality, which can also be
expressed as a state of net-zero emissions, is realised when a country’s emissions are balanced by
absorptions and removal of [1] from the atmosphere.
The massive green stimulus program, called [2], is aimed at giving a fillip to renewable energy sector,
accelerate the transition to clean mobility, and also increase energy savings. The funds will, however,
have to get the majority vote in the European Parliament and the unanimous nod of all the 27 members
of the bloc in the European Council, which may take months in negotiations. As the world grapples with
the coronavirus pandemic, governments across the world are under pressure to balance the transition
from managing a health crisis to charting out an economic recovery.
Source: Edited and recreated from the article “What is the European Green Deal and will it really cost
€1tn?” from The Guardian
1. Which of the following components has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Carbon
(b) Chlorofluorocarbons
(c) Green House Gases
(d) Both b and c
2. The stimulus name has been redacted by [2]. What is it?

(a) EU Green Deal
(b) Next Generation EU
(c) Green Gen EU
(d) European Climate Pact
3. Who out of the following is the President of the European Commission?

(a) Charles Michel
(b) Christine Lagarde
(c) David Sassoli
(d) Ursula von der Leyen
4. The deal has set up a bloc-wide goal of net zero carbon emissions by the year -
(a) 2040
(b) 2045
(c) 2050
(d) 2055
5. The ‘frugal four’ is a grouping existing within the bloc who wants to fast-track their journey to achieve
climate neutrality. Which of the following countries belong to the ‘frugal four’?
(a) Netherlands, Denmark, Sweden and Austria
(b) Norway, Denmark, France and Austria
(c) Netherlands, Norway, Switzerland and Austria
(d) Netherlands, Denmark, Poland and Switzerland
Passage (Q.6-Q.11): More popularly known by the title, ‘[1]’, renowned conservationist JadevPayeng of
Assam was feted with the prestigious Karmayogi Award for 2020 in New Delhi .
Payeng received the honour in recognition of his contribution to afforestation on a sandbar of the River
Brahmaputra. Now named Molai after Payeng’s nickname, the sandbar is part of [2], the world’s largest
river island.
Speaking after his felicitation, Payeng told a full house, “My work is above religion or politics; it is about
nature!”
He then went on to speak about his journey in life and the dire need to make people aware of the need to
conserve nature, sprinkling his narration with interesting episodes from his own eventful life.
Once when he learned that some people had come to his area to fell down trees, he confronted them
with the warning, “Cut me up before you cut them down. I won’t allow you to cut down any trees!”
Additional commissioner of Delhi Police and co-head of SPUNER, Hibu Tamang, who was also present
on the dais, said that achievers like Payeng were a source of inspiration for everyone, including people of
the Northeast region.

(a) Environmentalist of India
(b) Forest Man of India
(c) Climate Checker of India
(d) Zoologist of India
7. In 2020, JadevPayeng awarded the ______ edition of Karmayogi award, instituted by _______.
(a) 4th , Forest India
(b) 6th, My Home India
(c) 4th, My Home India
(d) 6th, Forest India
8. Which is the world’s largest riverine island, redacted as [2] in the above passage?
(a) Munroe Island
(b) Majuli Island
(c) Divar Island
(d) Rica Island
9. The Brahmaputra is the ______ largest river in South Asia and is the main freshwater source of _______.
(a) First, Thailand
(b) Second, India
(c) First, India
(d) Second, Bangladesh
10. Jadav Payeng has been awarded with the fourth-highest civilian honour of India. What is the name of the
award?
(a) Bharat Ratna
(b) Padma Bhushan
(c) Padam Shri
(d) Padma Vibhushan
11. Which of the following are the United Nations highest environmental honour?
(a) Activist of Earth
(b) Champions of the Earth
(c) Creators of the Earth
(d) Makers of the Earth
Passage (Q.12-Q.16): With the northern region of the country grappling with an intense heat wave, the
peak power demand on 25 May crossed the 163 Gigawatt (GW) mark, registering the highest jump in the
peak demand so far in May. Earlier the country recorded the highest peak demand of 160 GW on 23
May. Data available with Power System Operation Corporation (POSOCO) shows demand for power has
been inching closer to the pre-lockdown level due to heat wave conditions that have intensified in the
northern states of the country. Mercury has already hit the 46 degree Celsius mark in many parts of
Delhi. Although the peak demand is still short of the 172 GW recorded last year on the same day, the
jump is so far the highest recorded since the government imposed a nationwide lockdown to contain the
spread of Covid-19 pandemic.
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) had on Sunday issued a “red” warning of intense heatwave
for regions in Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh and Rajasthan for 25 and 26 May. Heatwave
conditions over some parts with severe heatwave over isolated pockets are very likely over Punjab,
Haryana, Chandigarh, Delhi, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, East Madhya Pradesh and Vidarbha during 26-
27 May, IMD has said. According to POSOCO, the northern region of the country has witnessed
maximum energy consumption since mid-May due to the soaring temperature. The total energy
consumption on May 25 touched 3,740 gigawatt per hour (Gwh) with the northern region registering the
highest consumption at 1,229 Gwh.
12. Power is a subject of ______ list of the Indian constitution.

(a) Centre
(b) State
(c) Concurrent
(d) It s not included in any of the above list
13. Why part of the package announced by Finance Minister into power distribution companies?
(a) To increase their power units in selected cities
(b) To clear their dues with GENCOS
(c) To distribute free electricity in the lockdown period
(d) To upgrade technology
14. Which of the following schemes was launched to fix the problem of power sector?
(a) PMJDY
(b) UDAY
(c) Stand up India
(d) PM – SYM
15. The biggest thermal power plant of India is located in:

(a) Karnataka
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Jharkhand
16. Why power sector is one of the weakest sector in terms of financials?
1. Due to different electricity price for certain segments
2. Problem of AT & C
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage (Q.17-Q.21): The Union Minister for Communications, Law & Justice and Electronics &
Information Technology, Shri Ravi Shankar Prasad has said that the Mobile Security should be our
National Priority because the mobile handset became an important tool for all online activities. He was
addressing the gathering, here today, after launching a Web Portal called ‘(CEIR)’ for the customers of
Delhi to facilitate blocking and tracing of Stolen/Lost Mobile Phones in Delhi. The Lt. Governor of NCT of
Delhi, Shri Anil Baijal, the Secretary, Telecom and the Chairman, Digital Communications Commission,
Shri Anshu Prakash, the Commissioner of Delhi Police, Shri Amulya Patnaik, the Member (Technology),
Digital Communications Commission, Shri S.K. Gupta were also present on the occasion.
Shri Ravi Shankar Prasad said that Government has decided to give 5G Spectrum for trial to all operators
in the country. This may take few years to launch it fully all over the country, he added. UPI Payments
interface has become primary means for all online money transactions in the country and we need to
make it a Global beacon for making Indian rupee much stronger.
The Minister for Communications said that this is the age of communication and communication is power,
and this is the age of technology and the technology is power. He further said that while we exploit use
and make optimum involvement of technology for development the equally smart criminals induce
technology for their own end. Therefore, we need a technology that safeguards our interests, he added.
Shri Ravi Shankar Prasad said that Aadhar is a digital identity to confirm our physical identity and the
digital India is for digital inclusion. Digital India is empowering ordinary Indian to the power of technology
which is leading to digital inclusion, he said. Industry should be more innovative and Indian players
should imbibe new innovations in IT, he added.
The Lt. Governor of NCT of Delhi, Shri Anil Baijal while addressing said that in the NCR Delhi itself the
mobile theft cases are increasing to the tune of 40,000 cases per year and there should be a mechanism
to address this problem. He requested the Minister for Communication to consider the integration of
ZIPNET with the CEIR for better functioning.
The Secretary, Telecom and the Chairman, Digital Communications Commission, Shri Anshu Prakash
said that the Tele-density in the country has increased to 242 mobiles for 100 populations and the mobile
handset became a means to fulfil all day-to-day requirements. Therefore, securing mobile with a system
is the need of the hour.
IMEI is supposed to be a unique identity of a mobile phone device. A phone with one/two slots of SIM
Card is programmed with one/two IMEI number as the case may be. IMEI number being programmable,
some miscreants do reprogram the IMEI number, which results in cloning of IMEI causing multiple
devices with same IMEI number. As on date, there are many cases of clones/duplicated IMEI handsets in
the network.
If such IMEI is blocked, a large number of mobile phones will get blocked being handsets with same IMEI
causing inconvenience to many genuine customers. Thus, there is a need to eliminate duplicate/fake
IMEI mobile phones from the network.
17. What is the full form of CEIR?

(a) Central Entity Identity Register
(b) Central Equipment Identification Register
(c) Central Entity Identification Registry
(d) Central Equipment Identity Registry
18. Which was the first country to adopt IMEI?

(a) India
(b) USA
(c) Australia
(d) China
19. What is the length of any IMEI code?

(a) 12 digits
(b) 14 digits
(c) 15 digits
(d) 16 digits
20. CEIR will also have access to the global database of IMEI number which is currently held by which of the
following associations?
(a) CDMA
(b) ACTO
(c) TRAI
(d) GSMA
21. Lt. Governor of NCT of Delhi, Shri Anil Baijal requested the Minister for Communication to consider the
integration of ZIPNET with the CEIR for better functioning. Which among the following statements is not
true about ZIPNET?
(a) ZIPNet (Zonal Indian Police Network) was introduced in the year 2004 under the guidance and
supervision of Shri. Sudhir Yadav, IPS, Additional Commissioner of Police, Crime, Delhi, INDIA.
(b) The main objective of the Project is to share Crime and Criminal Information in real-time. Project is
approved by the MHA, INDIA.
(c) The information published on it, relates to Public Interest.
(d) Initially, it was brought forward with the collaborative efforts of Delhi, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh,
Rajasthan Police. Subsequently, in the year 2008, Punjab and Chandigarh Police also joined it.
Uttrakhand Police has also joined it in the month of October, 2008. Himachal Pradesh Police joined
the project on 25.1.2012.
Passage (Q.22-Q.26): In 2014, Malala became the youngest recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize in
recognition of her efforts for children’s rights which started even before she was shot in the head two
years ago by Taliban militants.
“The attack made waves around the world, and was widely condemned. On Human Rights Day that year,
a special tribute to Malala was held at the Paris headquarters of the UNESCO, pushing for action to
ensure every girl’s right to go to school, and to advance girls’ education as an urgent priority,” the UN
wrote in the review report.
“Malala’s activism and profile have only grown since the assassination attempt. She became a UN
Messenger of Peace in 2017, with a special focus on girls’ education,” it added.
The 22-year-old was also recently chosen by Teen Vogue as its cover person for its last issue of the
decade.
The magazine announced it had decided to “reflect” the last 10 years with the education activist.
22. Malala Yousufzai was co-awarded the 2014 Nobel Peace Prize. Name the other dignitary with whom she
was awarded this Prize?
(a) Abiy Ahmed
(b) Juan Manual Santos
(c) Kailash Satyarthi
(d) Nadia Murad
23. Malala Yousufzai is the second Pakistani to receive a Nobel Prize after 1979 laureate Abdus Salam. For
achievement in which of the following fields was he awarded a Nobel Prize?
(a) Peace
(b) Literature
(c) Medicine
(d) Physics
24. When is the World Human Rights Day celebrated?

(a) 10 December
(b) 12 October
(c) 18 August
(d) 2 October
25. Which organisation awards the Nobel Peace Prize?

(a) The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences
(b) The Nobel Assembly at the Karolinska Institute
(c) The Swedish Academy
(d) The Norwegian Nobel Committee
26. Nobel Peace Prize 2019 was awarded to which of the following dignitaries?
(a) Abiy Ahmed
(b) Juan Manual Santos
(c) Denis Mukwege
(d) International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons
Passage (Q.27-Q.31): The preliminary hearings at the International Court of Justice (ICJ) seeking
guarantees of basic protection for Myanmar’s Rohingya Muslims arguably offer only symbolic hope to this
long-suffering community. Yet, the lengthy legal process at the ICJ on the plight of thousands forcibly
exiled in refugee camps in Bangladesh is key to forcing accountability on Yangon.
The case brought by [1], on behalf of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation, pertains to alleged
genocide in 2017 committed by the Myanmarese military – [2]. The forces have insisted that their actions
were merely in response to the armed insurgency, notably by the Arakan Rohingya Salvation Army.
The UN and several rights groups have documented orchestrated incidents of torched villages, mass
rape and other atrocities by the military, forcing over 700,000 Rohingya to flee to Bangladesh.
Rendering the lot of the Rohingya in Myanmar’s Rakhine state particularly vulnerable is the denial of
citizenship and the reference by nationalist sections to them as [3]. Oddly enough, arguing the defence of
the junta’s actions at the ICJ was Nobel Peace Laureate and Myanmar’s leader Aung San Suu Kyi,
whose National League for Democracy swept to power in 2015.
27. Which of the following terms is used by the Myanmar Government to describe the operations of 2017
against the Rohingyas by them?
(a) “Genocide operations”
(b) “Homogenizing operation”
(c) “Clearence operations”
(d) “Anti-terror operations”
28. Which of the following would fill [3]?

(a) Illegal Hindu immigrants
(b) Illegal Muslim invaders
(c) Illegal Christian encroachers
(d) Illegal Bengali immigrants
29. Who is the President of Myanmar?

(a) Aung San Suu Kyi
(b) Min Aung Hlaing
(c) Win Myint
(d) Htin Kyaw
30. Where is the headquarters of the OIC situated?

(a) Riyadh
(b) Dubai
(c) Abu Dhabi
(d) Jeddah
31. [1] would fall in -

(a) Northern Africa
(b) Southern Africa
(c) Eastern Africa
(d) Western Africa
Passage (Q.32-Q.35): Russia has been handed a four-year ban from all major sporting events by the
[1].It means the Russia flag and anthem will not be allowed at events such as the Tokyo 2020 Olympics
and Paralympics and football's 2022 World Cup in Qatar.But athletes who can prove they are untainted
by the doping scandal will be able to compete under a neutral flag.Russian prime minister Dmitry
Medvedev said the ban was part of "chronic anti-Russian hysteria".
It comes after Rusada was declared non-compliant for manipulating laboratory data handed over to
investigators in January 2019.It had to hand over data to [1] as a condition of its controversial
reinstatement in 2018 after a three-year suspension for its vast state-sponsored doping scandal. [1] says
Rusada has 21 days to appeal against the ban. If it does so, the appeal will be referred to the Court of
Arbitration for Sport (Cas).
The saga has its roots in the scandal that erupted on the eve of the 2016 Rio Olympics, when whistle-
blower reports nailed Russia for running one of the most sophisticated doping programmes. The
allegations centred around the active collusion of Russian anti-doping experts, the sports ministry and
members of the country’s intelligence service in replacing dope-tainted urine samples with clean ones
during the 2014 Winter Olympics in Sochi. In September 2018, as part of the resolution of that case,
Russia reluctantly agreed to open up its database to corroborate the findings of the reports. [1] has now
ruled that the country manipulated this very database in order to cover up large-scale violations.
However, ahead of the Rio games, [1] had recommended that Russia be expelled, but the International
Olympic Committee (IOC), under President Thomas Bach, had left the decision to individual sports’
governing bodies, and, subsequently, athletes who were cleared of doping were allowed to compete as
neutrals.
32. Which of the following country is scheduled to host the 2022 Football World Cup?
(a) South Korea
(b) Japan
(c) Qatar
(d) India
33. In the above passage what has been redacted by ’[1]’?

(a) World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)
(b) International Sports Federation (IFs)
(c) National Anti-Doping Organizations (NADOs)
(d) International Olympic Committee (IOC)
34. The Soviet Union (USSR) competed in the Olympic Games for the first time at the _ Summer Olympics.
(a) 1945
(b) 1952
(c) 1976
(d) 1967
35. How many medals did India win in the 2016 Rio Olympics?
(a) 25
(b) 18
(c) 11
(d) 2
Passage (Q.36-Q.39): China attempted to raise the [1] issue at the United Nations Security Council
(UNSC) at the behest of “all-weather” ally Pakistan failed to bear fruit as most members sought a bilateral
resolution to the conflict between neighbors.According to sources US, UK, France, and Russia were of
the opinion that the [1] issue did not need to be discussed at the UNSC and should instead be settled
bilaterally.
Last month also these four countries France, the United States, United Kingdom, and Russia had foiled
an attempt by China to discuss [1] at a closed-door meeting of the UNSC.
India’s Permanent Representative to UN Syed Akbaruddin welcomed the move and said the outcome
was on expected lines. “We are happy that neither the alarming scenario painted by the representatives
of Pakistan nor any of the baseless allegations made repeatedly by many representatives of Pakistan in
UN fora were found to be credible,” he added
The difference between the Russian and Chinese positions is evident from the fact that the Russian
ambassador emphasised the ‘bilateral’ nature of the dispute but the Chinese highlighted the role of past
UNSC resolutions while including bilateral Indo-Pak treaties in the formula.
36. Which of the following can be filled in (1)?
(a) Punjab
(b) Kashmir
(c) Uttrakhand
(d) Sikkim
37. What is the headquarter of United Nations Security Council?

(a) Chicago
(b) New York
(c) Paris
(d) Geneva
38. The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations was
formed in year -
(a) 1942
(b) 1944
(c) 1945
(d) 1946
39. Who among the following is NOT a permanent member of UNSC?

(a) China
(b) Russia
(c) France
(d) Belgium
MOCK CLAT #38
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): The Central government is working on the establishment of an exclusive body to
implement projects for linking rivers.
To be called the National Interlinking of Rivers Authority (NIRA), the proposed body is expected to take
up both inter-State and intra-State projects. It will also make arrangements for generating funds, internally
and externally.
An official of the [1], which is responsible for the formulation of proposals of the linking of rivers, said an
updated draft Cabinet note has been circulated to other Ministries in the Central government. On receipt
of comments, the note will be finalised by the Ministry of Jal Shakti and sent to the Union Cabinet for
approval.
The proposal for an apex body on river linking has been under discussion for the past 18 months.
However, the official said that as of now, no specific timeline has been determined for the constitution of
the Authority. Also, the earlier idea of framing a Bill, envisaging the creation of the NIRA, is not being
pursued now.

(a) National Water and Sanitation Agency
(b) National Water Development Agency
(c) National Water Cleaning Agency
(d) National Water and Purification Agency
2. [1] has been established by the government during which five year plan?
(a) Fifth
(b) Sixth
(c) Seventh
(d) Eighth
3. What is the reason behind interlinking of rivers?

1. To save the drought regions
2. To save the flood regions
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. What was the first Indian river water interlinking project?

(a) Ken - Betwa project
(b) Damanganga - Pinjal project
(c) Mahandai - Godavari
(d) Teesta – Ganga
5. Ken and Betwa are the tributaries of :

(a) Chambal
(b) Yamuna
(c) Godavari
(d) Tapti
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): Black carbon concentrations near the Gangotri glacier rose 400 times in summer
due to [1] and [2], and triggered glacial melt, says a study by scientists at the Wadia Institute of
Himalayan Geology (WIHG).
The team of scientists from WIHG, led by P.S. Negi, measured variations of black carbon concentration
at Chirbasa, near the Gangotri glacier , located at an altitude of 3,600 metres, during the year 2016. “The
monthly mean concentration of EBC (equivalent black carbon) was found to be minimum in August and
maximum in the month of May. The observed seasonal mean concentrations of EBC indicated a pristine
glacial source and an absence of EBC sources in the locality,” a press statement noted.
The concentration varied from a minimum of 0.01g/cubic metre in winter to 4.62g/cubic metre during
summer.
6. Fill [1] and [2] with a suitable option.

(a) Vehicular pollution and defence equipment testing
(b) Vehicular pollution and stubble burning
(c) Stubble burning and forest fires
(d) Forest fires and Vehicular pollution
7. What is the lifespan of Black Carbon in the atmosphere?

(a) 20 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 2 years
(d) Some days to weeks
8. India is the _______ emitter of black carbon in the world.

(a) Largest
(b) Second largest
(c) Least
(d) Third largest
9. Gangotri Glacier is located in which state of India?

(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Punjab
10. How Black Carbon is originated in the atmosphere?

(a) By incomplete combustion of fossil fuel and biomass
(b) By complete combustion of fossil fuel and biomass
(c) By the use of air conditioning devices
(d) By the acid rain
Passage (Q.11-Q.14): US officials and Taliban representatives have signed a final peace deal after
months of negotiations in Qatar’s capital to end the United States’s longest war, fought in Afghanistan.
Agreement, signed in the presence of leaders from Pakistan, India, Indonesia, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan,
will pave the way for the United States to gradually withdraw its troops. The two sides have long wrangled
over the US demand for a ceasefire before the final peace agreement was signed. The Taliban ordered
all its fighters to halt fighting and “refrain from attacks”. Mohammed Naeem, a Taliban representative,
described the deal as “a step forward”. The US invaded Afghanistan weeks after the September 2001
attacks by the Afghanistan-based al-Qaeda group. More than 2,400 US troops have been killed during
the conflict. About 12,000 are still stationed in the country. President Trump has promised to put an end
to the conflict.
It lays out a 14-month timetable for the withdrawal of “all military forces of the United States, its allies, and
Coalition partners, including all non-diplomatic civilian personnel, private security contractors, trainers,
advisors, and supporting services personnel.”
11. Why Afghanistan has been attacked by the US?

(a) Taliban attacked US with a nuclear missile
(b) Taliban Islamists attacked Americans resided in USA
(c) Taliban Islamists protected Osama Bin Laden
(d) Taliban Islamists attacked oil refineries of USA
12. In which city the above peace agreement was signed?

(a) Doha
(b) Washington DC
(c) Kabul
(d) Dubai
13. Why this deal does not include Afghanistan’s government?

(a) Taliban does not consider them legitimate ruler
(b) Government itself back stepped
(c) US government does not consider them a legitimate ruler
(d) China wanted Afghanistan to be excluded from this deal
14. In which city headquarters of NATO is located?

(a) Doha
(b) London
(c) Brussels
(d) Luxembourg City
Passage (Q.15-Q.19): This year’s Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) reveals that a majority of countries
are showing little to no improvement in tackling corruption.
Our analysis also shows corruption is more pervasive in countries where big money can flow freely into
electoral campaigns and where governments listen only to the voices of wealthy .
The index ranks 180 countries and territories by their perceived levels of public sector corruption,
according to experts and business people. It uses a scale of zero to 100, where zero is highly corrupt and
100 is very clean. More than two-thirds of countries score below 50 on this year’s CPI, with an average
score of just 43. Similar to previous years, the data shows that despite some progress, a majority of
countries are still failing to tackle public sector corruption effectively.
The bottom countries are Somalia, South Sudan and Syria with scores of 9, 12 and 13, respectively.
These countries are closely followed by Yemen (15), Venezuela (16), Sudan (16), Equatorial Guinea (16)
and Afghanistan (16).
15. India’s ranking in the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI-2019) has slipped from ___ to _____ compared
to the year 2018.
(a) 69,72
(b) 72,80
(c) 78,80
(d) 80,85
16. Which of the following Global Agency has released the corruption perception index, 2019 ?
(a) Greenpeace
(b) Freedom House
(c) Transparency International
(d) Reporters without Borders
17. When was the index first published by the above organization?
(a) 1888
(b) 1995
(c) 2000
(d) 2016
18. Which of the following countries topped the Index?

(a) Denmark
(b) USA
(c) UK
(d) Sweden
19. Transparency International has recommended a series of measures to combat rising corruption across
the world. Which of the following is/are not one of them?
(a) Manage conflicts of interest
(b) Control political financing
(c) Support preferential treatment
(d) Reinforce checks and balances
Passage (Q.20-Q.25): The latest edition of the Democracy Index spells gloom for India. The world’s
biggest democracy slipped [1] places in the 2019 global ranking to [2] place.
The survey published attributes the primary cause of “the democratic regression” to “an erosion of civil
liberties in the country”.
India’s overall score fell from 7.23 to 6.9, on a scale of 0-10, within a year (2018-2019) — the country’s
lowest.
The report, “A year of democratic setbacks and popular protest”, — the research and analysis division of
the publisher organization.

(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 30

(a) 45th
(b) 51st
(c) 60th
(d) 72nd
22. Based on their scores on 60 indicators within these categories, each country is classified as one of _____
types of regime
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
23. India's 2019 score is its lowest ever since the Democracy Index was begun in:
(a) 2000
(b) 2006
(c) 2010
(d) 2012
24. Which of the following countries topped the index?

(a) Sweden
(b) Denmark
(c) Norway
(d) France
25. Which of the following organizations release the Democracy Index?

(a) World Economic Forum
(b) IMF
(c) World Bank
(d) Economist Intelligence Unit
Passage (Q.26-Q.30): Issues concerning the production localisation of [1] light utility helicopters are in
the process of being resolved, N.M. Srikanth, Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Indo-Russian
Helicopters Limited (IRHL). The final deal for manufacturing the helicopters in India has been held up for
a while.
At the ongoing Defexpo 2020, Russian Helicopters (RH) signed a road map with IRHL for localisation of
[1] helicopter production in India.
Putin and Modi inspected a [1] that was flown to Vladivostok where the leaders had arrived for the
Eastern Economic Forum summit. Putin was quoted by TASS as telling Modi, “I flew on this helicopter, I
liked it, it’s really comfortable. It’s good because it has coaxial rotors, there is no back rotor.
[1] is a design of Russia's famed Kamov design bureau. It is a light helicopter, with a maximum take-off
weight of over 3.5 tonnes and can carry a payload of up to 1 ton.
26. Which light utility helicopter can be replaced with [1] in the above passage?
(a) Kalashnikov
(b) S400
(c) Kamov 226 T
(d) Kazan Ansat
27. Which Indian company is part of joint-venture with Russian company to manufacture above said
helicopters?
(a) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(b) DRDO
(c) Rostech Limited
28. Why Coaxial rotors are suitable for India?

(a) They provide good thrust at higher altitudes like Himalayas
(b) They are maintenance free rotors
(c) This technology was first invented by India
(d) Their blades are of material that is only available in India
29. In which city 11th edition of DefExpo 2020 was organized?

(a) Delhi
(b) Bangalore
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Lucknow
30. Which indigenous air to ground missile was unveiled at DefExpo 2020?
(a) Khatarnak
(b) Khagantak
(c) Urja VII
(d) Urja VII
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): The Indian Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced [1] measures for the
MSME sector as part of the Modi government’s ₹20 lakh crore stimulus package.The [1] measures for the
Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) include collateral-free loans, additional debt and equity
infusion. The government has also announced a new policy that will shield the Indian MSME businesses
from unfair competition from foreign companies.
According to the MSME Development Act, [2], enterprises which are in the manufacturing and service
sectors qualify as MSMEs, subject to investment and turnover limits.
“MSMEs are critical for employment preservation and growth; firing up the MSME sector is the surest way
to accelerate job creation. The Finance Minister’s schemes announced today will provide relief for
MSMEs that need immediate succor for their survival as well as help those enterprises that need a fillip to
grow. Expanding the definition of MSMEs and introducing new thresholds based on turnover while
elevating the investment ceilings for each segment are welcome." said, Arun M. Kumar, Chairman and
CEO, KPMG."Reduction of TDS being taken by the GOI will positively infuse the much-needed liquidity in
such turbulent times. Very bold and decisive steps by the Modi government." said, Rajat Prakash,
Partner, Athena Legal.

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 10

(a) 2000
(b) 2002
(c) 2006
(d) 2010
33. Recently, definition of MSME has changed by Finance minister. What is the reason behind it?
(a) To allow for relatively bigger companies to avail the benefits of cheaper and priority loans
(b) To include agriculture based industries
(c) To make eligible for WTO loans
(d) To promote Make in India
34. An emergency credit line of ₹3 lakh crore for MSMEs from Banks and NBFCs. The credit line will be up to
______ of all outstanding credit as on February 29, 2020.
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
35. Which of the following is not the measure taken by Finance Minister for MSME sector?
(a) ₹3 lakh crore collateral-free Automatic Loans for Businesses, including MSMEs
(b) ₹20,000 crore subordinate debt for Stressed MSMEs
(c) Global tenders to be allowed up to ₹200 crores
(d) All the pending dues from the government or government-owned companies will be cleared in the
next 45 days.
Passage (Q.36-Q.39): The Jammu and Kashmir administration slapped the stringent Public Safety Act
(PSA) against former Chief Ministers Mehbooba Mufti and Omar Abdullah.
“Yes, my mother [Mehbooba] received it [the PSA order] around 9.30 p.m.,” Ms. Mufti’s daughter Iltija
Mufti told The Hindu.
A National Conference leader also confirmed that Mr. Abdullah was formally served the PSA order.
By virtue of these PSA notices, the detention of PDP leader Ms. Mufti and NC leader Mr. Abdullah is
extended by three months, and could be extended further.
“As a child, I have memories of my mother going from pillar to post to free boys wrongfully detained by
security forces. Today, as I fight for her freedom, life has come full circle. We live to fight another day,”
Ms. Iltija said.
Earlier, the Act was slapped on NC general secretary Ali Muhammad Sagar and PDP general secretary
Sartaj Madni.
36. When did J&K Public safety Act came into existence?
(a) 1945
(b) 1960
(c) 1978
(d) 2000
37. The law allows the government to detain any person above the age of _____ without trial for a period of
______.
(a) 20, 6 months
(b) 10, 12months
(c) 16, 2 years
(d) 25, 5 years
38. PSA does not provide for a judicial review of detention. From which of the following countries' features of
judicial review has been taken?
(a) Italy
(b) UK
(c) USA
(d) Germany
39. After which instance the government kept the above personalities under PSA?
(a) Pulwama attack
(b) Scraping of Article 370
(c) Attack on LoC
(d) Parliament attack
MOCK CLAT #39
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): The State of India’s Birds report is the [1] comprehensive assessment of the
distribution range, trends in abundance, and conservation status for most of the bird species that
regularly occur in India. With their ubiquity and ecological importance, birds are excellent indicators of the
state of our natural world and are potent cultural symbols of nature. This national-level assessment of
birds is a significant step forward in the monitoring and conservation of India’s rich and varied
biodiversity.
Jerdon’s Babbler, a songbird, often sighted at the Harike Wetland in [2] has been identified as the
“species of the most conservation concern”.
During the last two decades, over half the species assessed have declined. This trend is even more
pronounced in recent times, with nearly 80% of the species assessed showing declines over the last five
years. To the previous list of globally threatened Indian bird species previously identified by the IUCN (as
critically endangered, endangered or vulnerable), the report adds 34 more species. The number of
species of high conservation concern in India is now 101.
Assessing the status of our birds poses a variety of challenges. For a start, there are over 1,300 species
of birds in India. While some are loud, colourful or diurnal, and hence relatively easier to detect, others
are quiet, shy, or nocturnal. Further, finding them also means having to look in a wide variety of habitats:
in forests, wetlands, farmlands, cities, mountains and even open oceans. And to complicate matters
further, hundreds of species migrate into and out of our country at different times of the year.

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth

(a) Punjab
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) West Bengal
3. Which of the following birds has registered a dramatic jump in its population?
(a) White-rumped vulture
(b) Pacific Golden Plover
(c) Curlew Sandpiper
(d) Peacock
4. Which of the following species of birds have been mentioned in the report as having declined in large
cities but remaining almost stable overall?
(a) Small minivet
(b) House sparrow
(c) Indian peafowl
(d) Indian thick-knee
5. The report was released at the 13th Conference of Parties of the Convention on the Conservation of
Migratory Species of Wild Animals. Where was this held?
(a) Delhi
(b) Jaipur
(c) Gandhinagar
(d) Hyderabad
(a) 319 bird species have been categorized as “moderate concern”
(b) Indian vultures has experienced catastrophic population declines starting in the early 1990s
(c) The report is actually a ‘citizen science data’ to assess the distribution and trends of common Indian
birds
(d) Open-country raptor species has increased in India
Passage (Q.7-Q.13): [1], i.e. World Health Day is the day to celebrate the work of nurses and midwives
and remind world leaders of the critical role they play in keeping the world healthy. Nurses and other
health workers are at the forefront of COVID-19 response - providing high quality, respectful treatment
and care, leading community dialogue to address fears and questions and, in some instances, collecting
data for clinical studies. Quite simply, without nurses, there would be no response.
Put “quite simply”, without the aid of nurses there would have been “no response” to COVID-19
emergency or any other public health emergency. The World Health Day is observed to celebrate the
efforts put in by nurses and midwives, and “remind world leaders of the critical role [that] they play in
keeping the world healthy”.
The WHO also released the [2] ‘State of the World’s Nursing Report 2020’ which provides the “most up-
to-date evidence on and policy options for the global nursing workforce”. The report also makes the case
for higher investment in nursing education, jobs and leadership.
On the occasion of the World Health Day, several leaders took to Twitter to greet their followers. Vice
President M Venkaiah Naidu took to Twitter and asked the people of India to respect the selfless work
being done by the medical community. He also emphasised that any assault or attack on doctors and
nurses is unacceptable.
7. On which day World Health Day is celebrated?

(a) 5th April
(b) 6th April
(c) 7th April
(d) 8th April

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
9. What is the theme of World Health Day 2020?

(a) Year of Nurse and Midwife
(b) Support Nurses and Midwives
(c) Universal health coverage: everyone
(d) A global fight against COVID19
10. WHO has announced to publish a similar report on midwifery workforce. In which year will that be done?
(a) 2020
(b) 2021
(c) 2022
(d) 2023
11. Which of the following designation has been given to year 2020?
(a) International Year of Nurse and Midwife
(b) International Year of global fight against COVID19
(c) International Year of Universal health coverage
(d) International Year of Doctors and Health workers
12. Where is the International Council of Nurses headquartered?

(a) Copenhagen
(b) New York
(c) Paris
(d) Geneva
13. Which of the following statements regarding the World’s Nursing Report 2020?
(a) The largest shortfall in absolute numbers is in the South-East Asian region, while in the Americas and
Europe
(b) Globally, there are roughly 36.9 nurses per 10,000 people
(c) There are almost 10 times more nurses in the Americas than in the African region
(d) Within the health workforce in India, nurses comprise 23% per cent of the medical staff after doctors
(47%)
Passage (Q.14-Q.19):Vyommitra is a female humanoid - something that has an appearance resembling

a human but is robotic - built by ISRO. She has been built for ISRO's first unmanned Gaganyaan mission.
She is the prototype for a half-humanoid that will eventually fly to space on an unmanned mission later
this year, aiming to lay the ground for ISRO’s [1].
A humanoid is basically a robot with the appearance of a human being. It is also being called a half-
humanoid since she will only have a head, two hands and a torso, and will not have lower limbs. The
activities that Vyommitra will be able to perform, once fully developed for the unmanned flight, will include
procedures to use equipment on board the spacecraft’s crew module such as safety mechanisms and
switches, as well as receiving and acting on commands sent from ground stations.
Like any robot, a humanoid’s functions are determined by the computer systems to which it is connected.
With the growth of artificial intelligence and robotics, humanoids are being increasingly used for repetitive
jobs, such as that of a waiter at a restaurant. The artificial intelligence technologies that power modern
systems such as autonomous cars, or voice-operated systems such as Alexa, Siri, Google Assistant,
Cortana and Bixby, are extended in a humanoid to perform simple functions that include walking, moving
things, communicating and obeying commands.
14. Which of the following missions has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Chandrayaan-3
(b) Gaganyaan
(c) Mangalyaan-2
(d) ExpoSAT
15. Recently a mannequin was flown on the Dragon crew capsule, launched on a SpaceX Falcon rocket, and
sent to the International Space Station. What was the name of the mannequin?
(a) Dallas
(b) Selena
(c) Malcolm
(d) Ripley
16. Which of the following countries/regional-bloc had sent a humanoid robot, Fedor to the ISS in 2019 to
carry out mechanical functions on the space station?
(a) Russia
(b) Japan
(c) USA
(d) EU
17. Which of the following launchers will be in use for the [1] launch?
(a) GSLV Mk III
(b) PSLV Mk III
(c) GSLV Mk IV
(d) PSLV Mk IV
18. Where is the half-humanoid Vyommitra being developed?

(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Thiruvananthapuram
(d) Kochi
19. Which of the following is/are a proposed ISRO mission?

1. Shukrayaan
2. Aditya L-1
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage (Q.20-Q.24):A Chinese spacecraft is on its way to Mars after launching successfully from
Hainan Island in southern China. The mission — named [x], which means ‘questions to heaven’ — is the
country’s first attempt to land on the red planet.
The 5,000-kilogram spacecraft, which contains a lander, orbiter and rover, blasted off from the Wenchang
Satellite Launch Center aboard a Chinese Long March-5 rocket at 12:41 p.m. local time on 23 July.
[x] is one of three daring missions to the red planet this year. The United Arab Emirates (UAE) launched
its [y] orbiter earlier this week, and the United States’ craft — a six-wheeled rover named Perseverance
— is likely to launch next week.
Together with the success of the UAE’s orbiter, [x] adds weight to a new reality “that Solar System
exploration is not the prerogative of the Euro-American world, but a global enterprise”, says geologist Jon
Clarke, who is president of the Mars Society Australia based in Canberra. China, India and Japan have
previously sent probes into space, including missions to the Moon, Mars, Venus and some asteroids.
[x] is now coasting through space before it reaches its destination in February. The craft will then spend
several months positioning itself for the landing. In April, the orbiter will release the lander and rover into
the Martian atmosphere, and these will touch down somewhere on Utopia Planitia — a vast plain littered
with volcanic rocks within a large basin, and where NASA’s Viking 2 lander touched down more than
three decades ago. If the landing is successful, China will be only the second country after the United
States to softly land a rover on Mars, says Flannery. The six-wheeled, solar-powered rover will explore
areas of scientific interest.
20. What is the name of the Chinese mission redacted as [x] in the passage?
(a) Shenzhou – 8
(b) Chang’e 1
(c) Tianwen-1
21. What is the name of the UAE Mars orbiter that was launched on 19th July, 2020?
(a) Nayif – 1
(b) Khalifa
(c) Hope
(d) NewHorizon
22. [x] is China’s second attempt to land an orbiter on moon after its first attempt was failed. What is the
name of the China’s first exploratory probe to Mars?
(a) Dongjing
(b) Yayae
(c) Yinghuo – 1
23. What is the name of NASA’s exploratory probe scheduled to launch in July 2020, redacted as [z] in the
passage?
(a) Felicity
(b) Artemis
(c) Aquarius
(d) Perseverence
24. If the Chinese Mars Mission becomes successful, China’s Space agency will be the ________ space
agency in the world to have successfully launch a mission to mars.
(a) 3rd
(b) 4th
(c) 5th
(d) 6th
Passage (Q.25-Q.29): For the first time in its history, the United Nations will not have the hustle and
bustle that goes with the convergence of world leaders, ministers, diplomats, civil society members and
journalists for a General Assembly this year.
Rather, heads of states and governments have been asked to send pre-recorded video statements that
will be played out as the UN General Assembly (UNGA) session goes “virtual", thanks to covid-19
pandemic sweeping the globe.
According to the programme schedule, UNGA will begin on 15 September. The General Assembly
meeting to commemorate the [x]th anniversary of the UN will take place on 21 September with a
declaration formally adopted at the end of it. The General Debate– which would under normal
circumstances have seen leaders and ministers from 193 UN member states address a global audience
from behind the iconic lectern in the General Assembly hall -- will start on 22 September.
Besides this, a bio-diversity summit is scheduled for 30 September, a meeting of the GA on the 25th
anniversary of the Fourth World Conference on Women is on 1 October while another to promote the
International Day for the Total Elimination of Nuclear Weapons is on 2 October. World leaders have been
requested to submit their recorded messages for these events as well.
A well documented anecdote is how former prime minister Rajiv Gandhi met former Turkish leader Turgut
Ozal in an impromptu setting at the UN in 1985 that led to an exchange of visits and an unfreezing of ties
between India and Turkey fraught over New Delhi’s support to the Greek Cypriots and Ankara’s support
to Pakistan over Kashmir.
25. Where was the UN General Assembly supposed to take place?

(a) New York
(b) Hague
(c) Switzerland
(d) Geneva
26. Who will be the chairman of this session of UNGA?

(a) Tijjani Muhammad-Bande
(b) Miroslav Lajčák
(c) Volkan Bozkır
(d) María Fernanda Espinosa
27. Which UNGA session is this redacted as [x] in the above passage?- 75
(a) 74
(b) 75
(c) 78
(d) 79
28. Who is UN’s current Secretary General?

(a) António Guterres
(b) Ban Ki-moon
(c) Kofi Annan
(d) Albaq Ghali
29. Who will be India’s next permanent representative to the UN, New York?
(a) Hardeep Singh Puri
(b) T. S. Tirumurti
(c) Indra Mani Pandey
(d) Samarendranath Sen
Passage (Q.30-Q.34):In our joint fight against Covid-19, India has extended medical and other
assistance to over 150 countries, said Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Friday at High-Level Segment of
the United Nations Economic and Social Council Session, 2020, via video conference.
"Today, the United Nations brings together 193 member countries. Along with its membership, the
expectations from the organisation have also grown," said Modi in his virtual address at Ecosoc session.
"From the very beginning, India has actively supported the UN's development work and the Ecosoc. The
first president of Ecosoc was an Indian. India also contributed to shaping the Ecosoc agenda," Modi
added.
"Today, through our domestic efforts, we are again playing a salient role in achieving Agenda [x] and the
Sustainable Development Goals. We are also supporting other developing countries in meeting their
Sustainable Development Goals," Modi further said.
"In India, we have tried to make the fight against the pandemic a people's movement, by combining the
efforts of Government and civil society," PM said.
"Multilateralism needs to represent reality of contemporary world. Only reformed multilateralism with
reformed UN at its centre can meet aspirations of humanity. While celebrating 75 years of UN, let us
pledge to reform global multilateral system. UN was originally born from furies of World War II and today,
fury of COVID-19 pandemic provides context for its rebirth and reform," said Modi.
30. What is the theme of the 2020 session of ECOSOC?

(a) Accelerated action and transformative pathways: realizing the decade of action and delivery for
sustainable development
(b) To the next Decade
(c) Evolving Warfare: An Insight into the Changing Realm," "the Technological Revolution
(d) Gender Just World
31. Who was the first president of ECOSOC whose mention is made in the above passage?
(a) Chinmaya Rajaninath Gharekhan
(b) Mohammad Mir Khan
(c) Munir Akram
(d) Ramaswami Mudaliar
32. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are a collection of 17 global goals designed to be a
"blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all". The SDGs, set in 2015 by the United
Nations General Assembly and intended to be achieved by the year [x], are part of UN Resolution 70/1,
the [x] Agenda. Narendra Modi in the abovementioned address made a reference to this agenda referred
to as [x] in the above passage. What is [x]?-
(a) 2022
(b) 2025
(c) 2030
(d) 2050
33. India’s prime minister made a mention of helping the other developing nations in the above passage. One
of these operations include supplied 6.2 tonnes of essential medicines to Maldives, as assistance in the
fight against COVID 19. Name the operation.
(a) Cactus
(b) Ekuverin
(c) Sanjeevani
(d) Neer
34. How many members are there in ECOSOC?

(a) 52
(b) 53
(c) 54
(d) 56
Passage (Q.35-Q.39):Prime Minister Narendra Modi participated in the online Summit of Non Aligned
Movement (NAM) Contact Group held on the evening of May 4, 2020 to discuss response to the ongoing
COVID-19 pandemic crisis.
The online NAM Contact Group Summit on the theme of “[x]”. was hosted by the current Chairman of
NAM, President of Republic of Azerbaijan[y]. The objective of the Summit was to promote international
solidarity in the fight against the COVID-19 pandemic and to mobilise efforts of States and international
organisations to address the pandemic.
PM Modi’s participation underlined India’s longstanding commitment to the principles and values of NAM
as one of its leading founding-member. In his intervention, Prime Minister emphasized the importance of
a coordinated, inclusive and equitable response by the world to this crisis, outlining the steps India had
taken domestically and internationally, while reaffirming India’s readiness to offer assistance in solidarity
with the Movement, to the extent possible. PM also emphasized the importance of a continued effort by
the world against other viruses, in particular terrorism and fake news.
PM Modi was joined by over 30 other Heads of State and Government and other leaders, including from
member States in Asia, Africa, Latin America and the Caribbean, and Europe.
Overall, NAM Leaders assessed the impact of COVID-19, identified needs and requirements for possible
remedies and urged action-oriented follow-up measures. Following the Summit, leaders adopted a
Declaration underlining the importance of international solidarity in the fight against COVID-19. Leaders
also announced the creation of a ‘Task Force’ to identify needs and requirements of member States
through the establishment of a common database reflecting their basic medical, social and humanitarian
needs in the fight against COVID-19.
35. What was the theme of the Summit, redacted as [x] in the baove passage?
(a) United against COVID-19
(b) Unified World against COVID-19
(c) War against Corona
(d) Transparency and Unification during Pandemic
36. Who is the current Chairman of NAM redacted as [y] in the above passage.
(a) Josip Broz Tito
(b) Gamal Abdel Nasser
(c) Houari Boumediène
(d) Ilham Aliyev
37. In the abovementioned Summit the leaders also commemorated the International day of__________?
(a) Multilateralism and Diplomacy for Peace.
(b) Gender Equality
(c) Global Peace
(d) Commemoration in Memory of the Victims of the Holocaust
38. Which among the following Conferences is the predecessor of NAM?

(a) Bretton Woods Conference
(b) Bandung Conference
(c) Yalta Conference
(d) Maastricht Conference
39. How many members are there in NAM currently?

(a) 120
(b) 122
(c) 125
(d) 130
MOCK CLAT #40
Directions(Q.1-Q.39): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): In a speech in front of Mount Rushmore, President Donald Trump appeared to slur
as he stumbled over several words - most notably “totalitarianism”.
The speech was an official presidential address that at times felt more like a campaign event, and saw
the president accuse “angry mobs” of deploying “cancel culture” to demand “total submission from
anyone who disagrees” - referring to protests regarding statues of controversial historical figures.
“This is the very definition of totalitarianism,” he said.
George Conway, co-founder of the Lincoln Project and husband of Kellyanne Conway, senior adviser to
the president, attempted to spell out what was said phonetically on Twitter: “Totallie-tario-tism”.
The president also appeared to struggle with saying "Ulysses S Grant", and appeared to briefly freeze
while talking about Thomas Jefferson.
Other than mangling the word totalitarianism, its very use was questioned, given continued attacks on
government oversight by the administration.
Many on social media decried that the president not only couldn’t pronounce the word, but also that he
doesn’t seem to understand what it means.
Michael McFaul, professor of political science at Stanford University, said: “Trump obviously has no idea
what words like fascism and totalitarianism mean. To those who wrote that speech, shame on you. To
those that cleared on this speech, shame on you. Perhaps the most un- American speech ever delivered
by an American president, on the eve of July 4th.”
The Lincoln Project, the group of Republicans vehemently opposed to the Trump administration, quickly
tweeted out footage of the president saying the word, preceded by: “We must stop the spread of”.
The group also said that the speech sounded very much like the president hadn’t read it before and was
unprepared.
While the speech was intended to be a bombastic rejuvenation of the president's flagging campaign, in
light of the deadly mishandling of the Covid-19 pandemic and the subsequent economic fallout, it also
underlined how much the campaign wants to turn the page on current problems.
“My only solace from his speech is that its degree of craziness is probably best explained by Trump's
current level of desperation,” Professor McFaul tweeted. “A confident president seeking re-election would
never have to resort to calling fellow Americans fascists or totalitarians.”
1. On which occasion trump gave the speech at Mount Rushmore?

(a) Election campaigning
(b) Press conference
(c) Independence Day
(d) Death of George Floyd
2. Where Mount Rushmore is located?

(a) Montana
(b) Nebraska
(c) South Dakota
(d) Wyoming
3. Which of the following president’s face carving is not featured on Mount Rushmore?
(a) George Washington
(b) Abraham Lincoln
(c) Theodore Roosevelt
(d) Woodrow Wilson
4. Which hill was carved as Mount Rushmore?

(a) Black Hills
(b) Bear Mountain
(c) Odakota Mountain
(d) Mount Shashta
5. Why Native Americans protested against Trump’s plan to visit Mount Rushmore?
(a) Because of his inability to handle COVID-19 situation.
(b) Because of increased unemployment in the USA
(c) Because of death of George Floyd
(d) Because of land was stolen from native Americans
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): India recently revised its Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy. The government
said firms in neighbouring countries wanting to invest in Indian companies would first need its approval.
An entity of a country that shares a land border with India can now invest in firms here “only under the
Government route”. This also applies to “beneficial” owners — even if the investing company is not
located in a neighbouring country, it would still be subject to these conditions if its owner is a citizen or
resident of such a country.
While the note did not name any country, analysts see the amendments as aimed at possible Chinese
investments. The decision came days after China’s central bank, the People’s Bank of China (PBoC) had
raised its shareholding in HDFC to over 1 per cent. HDFC vice chairman and CEO Keki Mistry had said
that PBoC had been an existing shareholder, owning 0.8% as of March 2019.
6. Which ministry controls FDI?

(a) Ministry of Commerce
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
(d) Ministry of MSME
7. From which year there is a significant increase in FDI?

(a) 1952
(b) 1991
(c) 2001
(d) 2015
8. In which of the following sector FDI is prohibited in India?

(a) Multi Brand and retail trading
(b) Investment in Chit funds
(c) Broadcasting and content services
(d) Medical devices
9. How many routes are defined by government for FDI?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
10. Why India recently revised its policy of FDI?

(a) FDI destabilizes Indian economy
(b) Preventing opportunistic takeovers of firms hit by lockdown
(c) To accomplish the aim of Make In India
Passage (Q.11-Q.15):President Ram Nath Kovind has given his assent to the Triple Talaq Bill that
makes giving instant oral triple Talaq or [1] a criminal offense with provisions of jail term upto three years.
The triple Talaq law or the [2], Act 2019, has come into effect retrospectively from September 19, 2018.
The ministry of Law and Justice notified the Bill as Law in the Official Gazette after receiving assent from
president Ram Nath Kovind who is on a tour of south Africa.
Triple Talaq also known as [2], 2019 was passed by the Indian Parliament as a Law on July 30, 2019, to
Make instant triple Talaq a criminal offence.
The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill with 99 votes in its favour and 84 against it. The triple Talaq law makes
the instant triple Talaq a criminal offense and provide for a jail term of three years for a Muslim man who
commits the crimes. The law also makes the Triple Talaq a Cognisable and non-bailable offense.
According to clause 7 (c) in chapter 3, “ No person accused of an offense punishable under triple Talaq
shall be released on Bail after the Magistrate, on an application files by the accused and after hearing the
married muslim women upon whom Talaq was pronounced, that there are reasonable grounds for
granting Bail to the accused”.
Clause 6 in chapter 3 of the Bill states that “a married muslim women shall be entitled to custody of her
minor children in the event of pronouncement of Talaq by her husband, in such manner as may be
determined by the Magistrate.
Talaq is an Islamic word for Divorce, Denoting dissolution of marriage when a muslim man can severe all
marital ties with his wife. Under the muslim Law, Triple Talaq means Liberty from the relationship of
marriage, eventually or immediately, where the man, by simple uttering the word “Talaq” three times,
ends his Marriage. This instant divorce is called Triple Talaq, also known an ‘[1]’.
11. What is the name of the practice whereby muslim men could grant instant divorce through triple talaq to
their wives whose name has been replaced with [1] in the passage above?
(a) Talaq-e-ahsan
(b) Talaq-al-Sunnah
(c) Talaq-e-Tafweez
(d) Talaq-e-biddat
12. The petitioner in the 2017 case asked for two other practices to be declared unconstitutional, in addition
to the the practice of triple talaq. Which of the following is/are practices?
(a) Polygamy
(b) Nikah-halala
(c) Talaq-ul-Raje
(d) Both, (a) and (b)
13. What is the name of the Law under which the triple talaq is declared illegal, and whose name has been
replaced with [2] in the passage above?
(a) The Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act
(b) The Muslim Women (Protection of right On Marriage) Act
(c) The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act
(d) The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights On Divorce) Act
14. What is the name of the case where supreme court barred the practice of Triple Talaq by 3-2 Majority?
(a) Mohamad Ahmed Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begum
(b) Dr. NoorJehan Safia Niaz and Other Vs. State of Maharashtra and Others.
(c) Yasmeen Zuber Ahmed Peerzade and another Vs. Union Of India
(d) Shayara Bano Vs. Union of India and Others.
15. Respondents in the 2017 supreme court case claimed that the practice of triple talaq is protected under
which of the following articles of the constitution of India?
(a) Article 25
(b) Article 12
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 256
Passage (Q.16-Q.20):There’s no shortage of border tension currently in the Himalayas. As many

Diplomat readers will be aware, India and China have been locked in their most serious border standoff
since 1967 since the start of May, featuring several standoffs along multiple points in the western and
Sikkim sectors of their disputed border.
The standoff reached heights unseen in decades after a June 15 melee in which 20 Indian soldiers died
along with an unknown number of Chinese casualties. Meanwhile, earlier in the year, a dispute between
Nepal and India over the Lipulekh border area boiled over. Now, China is apparently expanding the
scope of its border dispute with the small Himalayan kingdom of [1].
The Sino-[1] relationship normally flies under the radar. [1] has the distinction of being the only other
country apart from India with which China has an unsettled land border. It is also the only state to border
China that does not have official diplomatic ties with Beijing. But despite this lack of official relations, the
two sides have worked for years to arrive at a resolution to their border disputes, which until now primarily
focused on areas in the central and western sectors.
The western sector dispute — over the Doklam plateau — has received the most attention after the 2017
India-China standoff there. The central sector disputes — over areas known as Jakarlung and
Pasamlung — have received less attention comparatively. Even without formal diplomatic ties, [1] and
China have held 24 rounds of border talks between their envoys; talks that have been frozen since their
last round in 2016, partly due to the heightened tensions that erupted during the Doklam standoff. A 25th
round is yet to take place.
On Saturday, the Chinese Ministry of Foreign Affairs (MFA) issued a statement to two Indian media
outlets — the Hindustan Times and The Hindu — highlighting three separate areas of disputed territory
with [1]. “The boundary between China and [1] has never been delimited. There have been disputes over
the eastern, central and western sectors for a long time,” the Chinese MFA said, according to The Hindu.
16. Which of the following can be replaced with [1] in the above passage?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Tibet
(c) Bhutan
(d) Vietnam
17. Which of the following wildlife sanctuary is being claimed by China?

(a) Sakteng
(b) Bomdeling
(c) Jigme Dorji
(d) Trashigang Dzong
18. Which of the following Indian state borders the boundary sanctuary being claimed by China?
(a) Assam
(b) Nagaland
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Sikkim
19. On which forum China raised the boundary dispute?

(a) Global Environment Facility’s meeting
(b) Through National Television
(c) Through sending letter to embassy
(d) At ASEAN ministerial level meeting
20. Which of the following sector located in country [1] has been the bone of contention?
(a) South-West
(b) South- East
(c) East
(d) South
Passage (Q.21-Q.25): India was admitted to the Indian Ocean Commission (IOC: Commission de
l'Océan Indien, COI) as an observer after it applied in February to be considered for observer status.
The decision was taken at the meeting of the IOC Conference of ministers in Seychelles on Friday
making India the [1] observer.
The [1]-member grouping is important given India’s plans to expand in The Western Indian Ocean (WIO)
which is strategically connects the Indian Ocean to the Southeastern coast of Africa and beyond.
To a question on whether if this was a counter move to China’s presence in the bloc, a source denied
such motives and said, This is to enhance India’s outreach in the western flank of the Indo-Pacific. Not a
counter to any particular nation.
India has made some high-level visits to some of the member states like India’s Vice President visited
Comoros and President Kovind visited Madagascar in 2018 following which the defence agreement was
signed.
21. Where is Seychelles present?

(a) Indian Ocean
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Arctic ocean
(d) Atlantic ocean

(a) 3rd
(b) 4th
(c) 5th
(d) 6th
23. How many observers are there in Indian Ocean Commission?

(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
24. In history, member states were:

(a) British colonies and Dutch colonies
(b) Dutch colonies and Portuguese colonies
(c) French colonies and British colonies
(d) French colonies and Dutch colonies
25. What is the full form of SAGAR?

(a) Security and Growth for All in the Region
(b) Safety and Goal Achieving Regions
(c) Safety and Growth Agreement in Regions
(d) Security and Goal Aim in the Region
Passage (Q.26 – Q.30):Plans to map the entire ocean floor by [1] are going ahead despite the
challenges of the coronavirus crisis, officials leading the project said, with almost a fifth covered so far.
Scientists say the topography of the ocean floor is less well known than the surfaces of Mars, Mercury or
Venus and that charting the depth and shape of the seabed will help understand the impact oceans have
on the earth’s climate.
As the world’s ocean economy grows in coming years, data will also be vital to boost knowledge of
marine ecosystems and marine life as well as future food supply patterns.
The project which is working to bring together all available bathymetric data to produce a comprehensive
map said on Sunday that the area mapped had risen from 15% to 19% in the last year, from only 6%
when the initiative began.
“Over the next year, we anticipate similar levels of data contributions through donations of archive
material and, as COVID restrictions abate, new data from surveys, ships transits and crowdsourcing,”
project director Jamie McMichael-Phillips told Reuters in comments to coincide with World Hydrography
Day.
Data used includes contributions from governments, academia and commercial sources such as ships.
These are pulled together by experts at various regional centres around the world in an initiative
estimated to cost between $3 billion and $5 billion.
“We have already been gifted hundreds of thousands of square kilometres of data which would cost tens
of millions of dollars to acquire ourselves,” McMichael-Phillips said.
But there was still around 293 million square kilometres of ocean floor to map, he added
(a) 2025
(b) 2030
(c) 2027
(d) 2040
27. In which year the project to map the entire ocean floor was launched?
(a) 2017
(b) 2018
(c) 2019
(d) 2020
28. Which of the following foundation is involved in the project’s initiative?

(a) Nippon Foundation
(b) World Maritime University
(c) World Bank
(d) IMF
29. Recently, it has been announced in July that _______ of the ocean floor of the world has been mapped.
(a) One third
(b) One fifth
(c) Half
(d) One fourth
30. Which of the following is considered as Sea bed?

(a) Surface above the bottom of the sea
(b) Bottom of the sea
(c) Surface below sea level up to 2000m
(d) Surface below sea level up to 5000m
Passage (Q.31 – Q.36):Of the possible triggers cited for the people’s Liberation Army’s (PLA) targeting
of Indian territory along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) in eastern [1], The construction of 255km long
DSDBO [2] all weather road is possibly the most consequential.
Running almost parallel to the LAC, the DSDBO road, meandering through elevations ranging from
13,000 ft and 16,000 ft, took India’s Border Roads Organisation (BRO) almost two decades to construct.
Its strategic importance is that it connects Leh to DBO, virtually at the base of [3] pass that separates
China’s Xinjiang Autonomous region from [1]. DBO is the northernmost corner of Indian territory in [1], in
the area better known in Army parlance as sub-sector north.
DBO has the world’s highest airstrip, originally built during the 1962 war but abandoned until 2008, when
the Indian Air Force (IAF) revived it as one of its many Advanced Landing Grounds (ALGs) along the
LAC, with landing of an Antonov AN-32.
The DSDBO highway provides the Indian Military access to the section of the Tibet-Xinjaing Highway that
passes through Aksai Chin. The road runs almost parallel to the LAC at Aksai Chin, the eastern ear of
erstwhile Jammu and Kashmir state that China occupied in the 1950s, leading to the 1962 war in which
India came off worse.
To the west of DBO is the region where china abuts Pakistan in Gilgit-Baltistan area, once a part of the
erstwhile Kashmir Principality.
This is also a critical region where China is currently constructing the China-Pakistan Corridor (CPEC) in
Pakistan occupied Kashmir (PoK) to which India has objected. As well this is the region where Pakistan
ceded over 5,180 sq km of PoK to China in 1963 under a [4] contested by India.
31. DSDBO road has been in the news, it is an all -weather road in [1], Which of the following has been
redacted with [1] in the passage above?
(a) Arunachal pradesh
(b) Ladakh
(c) Sikkim
(d) Himachal Pradesh
32. what is the full form of DSDBO redacted with [2] in the passage above?
(a) Darbuk-Shimla-Daulat Beg Oldie
(b) Darbuk-Shyokh-David Beg Oldie
(c) Darbukh-Shyokh-Daulat Beg Oldie
(d) Darbuk-Shyokh-Daulat Border Oldie
33. DSDBO strategic importance is that it connects Leh to DBO, virtually at the base of [3] pass that
separates China’s Xinjiang Autonomous region from [1]. Which of the following has been redacted with
[3] in the passage above?
(a) arakorma Pass
(b) Hindu Kush Pass
(c) Natu La Pass
(d) Zoji pass
34. he Galwan river flows from the Disputed Aksai Chin region to Ladakh of India. The river is named after?
(a) Galwan Abdual Rahim
(b) Ghulam Rasool Galwan
(c) Gulab Singh Jamwal
(d) Mohammed Amin Galwan
35. Which of the following has been redacted with [4] in passage above?
(a) Sino-Pakistan Boundary Agreement
(b) India-China Boundary Agreement
(c) Sino-Kashmir Boundary agreement
(d) Sino- Gilgit-Baltistan Boundary Agreement
36. Recently which Lake of Ladakh came in news as a disputed Territory with China?
(a) Dal Lake
(b) Tso Moriri Lake
(c) Pangong Lake
(d) Wular lake
Passage (Q.37 – Q.39): Iran has issued an arrest warrant and asked Interpol for help in detaining
President Donald Trump and dozens of others it believes carried out the drone strike that killed a top
Iranian general in Baghdad, a local prosecutor reportedly said. While Trump faces no danger of arrest,
the charges underscore the heightened tensions between Iran and the United States since Trump
unilaterally withdrew America from Tehran's nuclear deal with world powers.
Tehran prosecutor Ali Alqasimehr said Trump and more than 30 others whom Iran accuses of
involvement in the Jan. 3 strike that killed [1] in Baghdad face "murder and terrorism charges," IRNA
reported.
37. IRNA mentioned in a paragraph, is a:

(a) Space agency
(b) News agency
(c) Intelligence agency
(d) Military wing
38. Public figure marked as [1] in the paragraph was a:

(a) Leader of biggest political party
(b) Military commander
(c) Famous Prophet of Iran
(d) Ex-President of Iran
39. How many countries were involved in Tehran’s nuclear deal?

(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
MOCK CLAT #41
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): The Expert Appraisal Committee of the Environment Ministry has recommended the
grant of Environmental Clearance for the development of an economic corridor — the Satellite Town Ring
Road (STRR) — between Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.
The greenfield highway is part of [1] and will be implemented by the [2]. The project will start in Dabaspet
in Karnataka and end near Devarapalli village on the Tamil Nadu-Karnataka border, and encompasses
two States — 134.94 km in Karnataka and 45.02 km in Tamil Nadu.
The NHAI submitted before the committee that the new road would provide better, fast, safe and smooth
connectivity for commuters between the two States as well as in the region. “Accident rates are also
expected to be under control due to enhanced road safety measures. Development of the proposed
project road will boost local agriculture and enable farmers to realise better value for their products as
well as attract more investment to that region,” it said. The project is expected to cost ₹756.68 crore.
The NHAI said that 12,111 trees would be felled for the project and 206 persons would be affected with
regard to property and other structures.
1. Fill [1] and [2] with a suitable option.

(a) SAGAR, BFO
(b) Bharatmala Pariyojna, NHAI
(c) Make in India, NHAI
(d) PMGSY, BFO
2. Project [1] asked above is managed by:

1. Cess collected on petrol and diesel
2. Tax collected on toll booths
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Which of the following city/UT is not covered under Golden Quadrilateral project?
(a) Delhi
(b) Kolkata
(c) Mumbai
(d) Bengaluru
4. India’s first coastal corridor is between _______________.

(a) Nellore to Madurai
(b) Cuttack to Coimbatore
(c) Vizag – Chennai
(d) Digha – Tuticorin
5. ______ is the largest National highway of India.

(a) NH 11
(b) NH 22
(c) NH 33
(d) NH 44
Passage (Q.6-Q.8): In a debate with far-reaching repercussions on who can create value from and
monetise the data of Indian citizens, a committee formed under the IT Ministry has called for data
regulation that would require sharing of data that is anonymised, or “non-personal”, to help Indian
companies and governments. The committee, formed last September, is chaired by [1] co-founder Kris
Gopalakrishnan and includes industry, government and academic experts.
“Allowing the possibility of data monopolies, in a large consumer market such as India, could lead to the
creation of imbalances in bargaining power vis-à-vis few companies with access to large data sets
accumulated in a largely unregulated environment, on one side, and Indian citizens, Indian businesses
including startups, MSMEs and even the Government, on the other. Therefore, the Government’s role is
to catalyse the data businesses in a manner that maximises overall welfare,” said the ‘Report by the
Committee of Experts on Non-Personal Data Governance Framework’ released Sunday night.

(a) Wipro
(b) Accenture
(c) Infosys
(d) Bata

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
8. If a person is not identifiable by looking into a data, the type of data categorized is:
(a) Personal data
(b) Mischievous data
(c) Non-personal data
(d) Hidden data
Passage (Q.9-Q.13): NATGRID has signed a memorandum of understanding with (1) to access the
centralised online database on FIRs and stolen vehicles.
First conceptualised in (2), NATGRID seeks to become the one-stop destination for security and
intelligence agencies to access database related to immigration entry and exit, banking and telephone
details of a suspect on a “secured platform”.
The project aims to go live by December 31.
Who can access the data?
It will be a medium for at least 10 Central agencies such as the Intelligence Bureau (IB) and the
Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW) to access data on a secured platform. The data will be procured by
NATGRID from 21 providing organisations such as the telecom, tax records, bank, immigration etc.
9. What is the full form of NATGRID?

(a) National Test for Registered Identification.
(b) National Intelligence Grid.
(c) National Report Grid.
(d) National Agency for Remote Identification.
10. Which of the following will replace (1) in the above passage?
(a) National Crime Record Bureau
(b) Interpol
(c) National Intelligence Agency
(d) Home Ministry of Indian Government.
11. NATGRID functions under which of the following ministry?

(a) Prime Minister’s Office
(b) Home Ministry
(c) Defence Ministry
(d) It will function under the Chief of Defence Staff
12. Which of the following will replace (2)?
(a) 2009
(b) 2010
(c) 2012
(d) 2015
13. Who is the current Director of National Crimes Record Bureau?

(a) Rampal Pawar
(b) Raghu Raman
(c) Ashok Pathnaik
(d) Samant Goel
Passage (Q.14-Q.18): Iran and China have quietly drafted a sweeping economic and security
partnership that would clear the way for billions of dollars of Chinese investments in energy and other
sectors, undercutting (1) efforts to isolate the Iranian government because of its nuclear and military
ambitions.
The partnership, detailed in an 18-page proposed agreement obtained by The New York Times, would
vastly expand Chinese presence in banking, telecommunications, ports, railways and dozens of other
projects. In exchange, China would receive a regular — and, according to an Iranian official and an oil
trader, heavily discounted — supply of Iranian oil over the next 25 years.
14. How many ports are there in the Chabahar port?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
15. Who is the current supreme leader of Iran?

(a) Ayatollah Ali Khamenei
(b) Ruhollah Khomeini
(c) Hassan Rouhani
(d) Mohammad Javad Zarif
(a) India
(b) US
(c) UK
(d) Iraq
17. China has developed a port in Sri Lanka. Name it.

(a) Trincomalee Harbour
(b) Gwadar Bay
(c) Port of Colombo
(d) Port of Hambantota
18. Which of the following are India’s biggest exports to Iran?

(a) Sugar and milk products
(b) Basmati rice and tea
(c) Petrochemical products and Basmati rice
(d) Bulletproof vests and Textiles
Passage (Q.19-Q.23): Ramayana, a Hindu epic whose earliest portions date back to 1st millennium
BCE, states that the location of Rama's birthplace is on the banks of the [1] river in Ayodhya. A section of
Hindus claims that the exact site of Rama's birthplace is where the Babri Masjid once stood in the
present-day Ayodhya, Uttar Pradesh.
According to this theory, the Mughals demolished a Hindu shrine that marked the spot, and constructed a
mosque in its place. The mosque was constructed during [2] by [3], a commander of the Mughal emperor.
People opposed to this theory state that such claims arose only in the 18th century, and that there is no
evidence for the spot being the birthplace of Rama.
The political, historical and socio-religious debate over the history and location of the Babri Mosque, and
whether a previous temple was demolished or modified to create it, is known as the Ayodhya dispute.
In 1992, the demolition of Babri Masjid by Hindu nationalists triggered widespread Hindu-Muslim
violence. Since then, the archaeological excavations have indicated the presence of a temple beneath
the mosque rubble, but whether the structure was a Rama shrine (or a temple at all) remains disputed.
On February 8, 2018, the Supreme Court said that the politically sensitive case was purely a “land
dispute” and will be dealt with in normal course.
19. The location of Rama's birthplace is on the banks of the [1] river in Ayodhya. Which river has been
redacted with [1] in the passage above?
(a) Yamuna
(b) Ganga
(c) Sarayu
(d) Brahamputra
20. The mosque (Babri) was constructed during [2]. In the following passage which year has been redacted
with [2]?
(a) 528-1529
(b) 1538-1539
(c) 1628-1629
(d) 1638-1639
21. The Babri masjid was constructed under which commander of the Mughal emperor, whose name has
been redacted with [4] in the following passage. The name of the commander has been redacted with [3]
in the following passage?
(a) Mir Jafar
(b) Jahandar Shah
(c) Bairam Khan
(d) Mir Baqi
22. How many judges were there in the SC bench which decided the Ayodhya Verdict on 9 November 2019?
(a) 3 Judges
(b) 5 Judges
(c) 7 Judges
(d) 9 Judges
23. Forming a nine-judge bench is pretty rare. In which of the following cases was a nine-judge bench
formed?
(a) Triple Talaq case
(b) Kashmir habeas corpus case, 2019
(c) Sabarimala case
(d) Rafale review case
Passage (Q.24-Q.29): India has been overwhelmingly elected as a non-permanent member of the
powerful UN Security Council for a two-year term, in an unprecedented election where envoys from its
member states voted wearing masks and in adherence to the strict social distancing norms due to the
COVID-19 pandemic.
India, the endorsed candidate from the [1] States, won 184 votes out of the total ballots cast in the
elections for the five non-permanent seats of the Security Council, the world organisation’s most powerful
organ. India’s two-year term as the non-permanent member of the UNSC would begin from January 1,
2021.
Along with India, [2], Mexico and Norway also won the Security Council elections held on Wednesday.
[3] and Kenya vied for one seat allocated to the African and Asia-Pacific States grouping and will head
into the second round of voting on Thursday as each failed to secure the required two-thirds majority.
Kenya won the seat finally.
24. Which of the following regions has been redacted by [1]

(a) South Asian
(b) East Asian
(c) Asia-Pacific
(d) Indian Ocean regional
25. Along with India, [2], Mexico and Norway also won the Security Council elections held on Wednesday.
Which Country’s name has been redacted with [2]?
(a) Spain
(b) Portugal
(c) Ireland
(d) Belgium
26. [3] and Kenya vied for one seat allocated to the African and Asia-Pacific States grouping and will head
into the second round of voting. Which African and Asia-Pacific states name has been redacted with [3]?
(a) Djibouti
(b) Nigeria
(c) Ethiopia
(d) Uganda
27. How many members are there in United Nations?

(a) 193
(b) 194
(c) 195
(d) 196
28. Apart from the Security Council elections, the General Assembly voted to elect Volkan Bozkir as the
President of the next session of the UN General Assembly. He is a diplomat of -
(a) Sweden
(b) Algeria
(c) France
(d) Turkey
29. How many times (including this time) has India been elected as a non-permanent member of UNSC till
date?
(a) 5 times
(b) 6 times
(c) 7 times
(d) 8 times
Passage (Q.30-Q.34): Hagia Sophia, or the Church of Holy Wisdom, was built by the Byzantine
Emperor (1) on the site of an destroyed basilica of the same name. Completed in 537, it was among the
world’s largest domed structures and would serve as the foremost Orthodox Christian church for some
900 years. Imperial ceremonies, including the crowning of emperors, were held there. The multicolored
mosaics depicting the Virgin Mary, the baby Jesus, angels and other Christian symbols along with
emperors and their families that centuries of rulers installed added to its reputation as an architectural
gem.
30. Hagia Sophia, the monument that was seen in news recently, is located in which country?
(a) Italy
(b) Turkey
(c) Australia
(d) France
31. Which one of the following will replace (1)?

(a) Justinian I
(b) Justinian II
(c) Justinian III
(d) Justinian IV
32. Who is the President of Turkey?

(a) Recep Tayyip Erdogan
(b) Hassan Rouhani
(c) Mohammad Javad Zarif
(d) Raza Najib
33. Who Defeated the Roman Capital of Constantinople?

(a) Sultan Mehmed I
(b) Sultan Mehmed II
(c) Sultan Mehmed III
(d) Sultan Mehmed IV
34. Who was the founder of the Republic of Turkey?

(a) Hikmat Bayur
(b) Adnan Menderes
(c) Mehmet Ali
(d) Mustafa Kemal Ataturk
Passage (Q.35-Q.39): The (1) has issued the draft of Aids to Navigation Bill, 2020 for suggestions from
the stakeholders and the general public. The draft is in line with Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s vision for
boosting people’s participation and transparency in governance.
The draft bill is proposed to replace the almost nine-decade old (2) to incorporate the global best
practices, technological developments and India's International obligations in the field of Aids to Marine
Navigation. With emerging new technologies, the aids to maritime navigation has improved. Hence, the
role of authorities regulating and operating maritime navigation has to be changed. The new law will bring
in this major shift towards modern aids of navigation from lighthouses. This Bill provides for empowering
Directorate General of Lighthouses and Lightships (DGLL) with additional power and functions such as
vessel traffic service, wreck flagging, training and certification, implementation of other obligations under
International Conventions, where India is a signatory.
35. Which one of the following will replace (1)?

(a) Union Ministry of Shipping
(b) Union Ministry of Environment
(c) Home Ministry
(d) Ministry of Commerce
36. Who is the minister of Shipping?

(a) Kiren Rijiju
(b) Hardeep Singh Puri
(c) Mansukh Mandaviya
(d) Dr. Jitendra Singh
(a) Lighthouse Act, 1927
(b) Maritime Act, 1930
(c) Ship Routes Act, 1927
(d) Management of Port Act, 1958
38. Who is the Directorate General of Lighthouses and Lightships?

(a) Ellappan Murthy
(b) Krishnapad Dasa
(c) Hardip Bedi
(d) Mansukh Mandaviya
39. Where is the headquarters of the Directorate General of Lighthouses and Lightships?
(a) Chennai
(b) Vishakhapatnam
(c) Noida
(d) Hyderabad
MOCK CLAT #42
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): Two winners were named - one for 2019 and one for 2018 - because the prize was
not awarded last year.
The Swedish Academy, which oversees the prestigious award, suspended it in 2018 after a sexual
assault scandal.
[1], who also won the Man Booker International Prize last year, was awarded the 2018 Nobel Prize, with
this year's Nobel going to Handke.
The 76-year-old Austrian playwright, novelist and poet was recognised for "an influential work that with
linguistic ingenuity has explored the periphery and the specificity of human experience", the academy
said in a statement.
However, he has been a highly controversial figure for his support for the Serbs during the 1990s
Yugoslav war, and for speaking at the 2006 funeral of former Serb leader Slobodan Milosevic, who was
accused of genocide and other war crimes.
PEN America said it was "dumbfounded by the selection of a writer who has used his public voice to
undercut historical truth", in a statement from its president, Jennifer Egan.
In 2014, Handke even called for the Nobel Prize for Literature to be abolished, saying it brings its winner
"false canonisation" along with "one moment of attention [and] six pages in the newspaper".
Both laureates have agreed to receive their awards this year, however, organisers said. Each will receive
nine million Swedish kronor (£740,000), as well as a medal and a diploma.
The 2018 Nobel Prize was delayed by a year after a crisis in the academy sparked by allegations against
Jean-Claude Arnault, the husband of Academy member Katarina Frostenson. He was sentenced to two
years in prison in October after being convicted of rape.
(a) James Peebles
(b) Michel Mayor
(c) Didier Queloz
(d) Olga Tokarczuk
2. Which of the following selects Nobel laureate for Physiology?

(a) Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences
(b) Karolinska Institute
(c) Swedish Academy for the Nobel Prize
(d) Committee of five persons to be elected by the Norwegian Parliament
3. Who is the only woman to be awarded Nobel twice?

(a) Marie Curie
(b) Betty Williams
(c) Mother Teresa
(d) Jane Addams
4. Who is the first person of Indian origin to win Nobel Prize in Economics?
(a) Abhijit Banerjee
(b) Raghuram Rajan
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Hargovind Khurana
5. Which of the following is the winner of Nobel Prize 2019 for Economics?
(a) John B Goodenough
(b) Akira Yoshino
(c) Michel Mayor
(d) Michael Kremer
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): Nearly 27,000 delegates arrived in the [2] in early December aiming to finalise the
“rulebook” of the Paris Agreement – the operating manual needed when it takes effect in 2020 – by
settling on rules for carbon markets and other forms of international cooperation under “Article 6” of the
deal. They also hoped to send a message of intent, signalling to the wider world that the UN climate
process remains relevant – and that it recognises the yawning gap between current progress and global
goals to limit warming. This disconnect was highlighted by a huge protest march through the heart of the
[2] and by the presence of climate activist Greta Thunberg, who arrived from her transatlantic journey by
sail just in time to make several high-profile appearances in the COP25 conference halls. Ultimately,
however, the talks were unable to reach consensus in many areas, pushing decisions into next year
under “Rule 16” of the UN climate process. Matters including Article 6, reporting requirements for
transparency and “common timeframes” for climate pledges were all punted into 2020, when countries
are also due to raise the ambition of their efforts. UN secretary general António Guterres said he was
“disappointed” with the results of COP25 and that “the international community lost an important
opportunity to show increased ambition on mitigation, adaptation & finance to tackle the climate crisis.”
The meeting was finally gavelled to a close at 1:55pm on Sunday. Here, Carbon Brief provides in-depth
analysis of all the key outcomes in [2] – both inside and outside the COP
This year’s COP got off to a difficult start, when [4] president Sebastian Piñera announced at the end of
October that his country could no longer host the event. Piñera blamed “difficult circumstances”, referring
to violent anti-government protests in the capital. With barely a month to go, [2] stepped in and agreed to
take on the event in [2], a considerable task that the German government had said “would not have been
logistically possible” in Bonn, where the COP was held in 2017. Despite this last-minute venue change,
the event proceeded in much the same manner as previous COPs, characterised by drawn-out debates
and all-night sessions in which negotiators and then ministers discussed jargon-filled texts.
6. In which of the following year United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change was adopted?
(a) 1990
(b) 1992
(c) 1994
(d) 1995
7. Which of the following city can be replaced with [2] in the above passage?
(a) London
(b) Madrid
(c) Brussels
(d) Luxemburg
8. Which of the following will be replaced by the Paris Agreement?

(a) Rio Accords
(b) Marrakesh Accords
(c) Kyoto Protocol
(d) London Agreement
9. Which of the following statement is not true regarding COP?

(a) COP25 was the longest climate COP meeting ever in 25 nearly annual editions.
(b) There was not any concrete outcome of COP25.
(c) Paris Agreement was reached during COP21.
(d) COP25 was earlier scheduled to be held in Sweden.
10. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), which was released prior to (COP-25), estimated an
increase in average earth’s temperature of _________ degree Celsius by 2100.
(a) 2.5
(b) 2.8
(c) 3.2
(d) 3.4
Passage (Q.11-Q.15): Prime Minister’s week-long visit to the United States has come to an end. He was
scheduled to attend a series of bilateral meets culminating with his address at the session of the United
Nations General Assembly (UNGA) in New York from September 21 to 27. PM Modi's seven-day visit
was jam-packed with intensive discussions on diplomatic relations, trade wars, economic disparities,
terrorism and global issues. However, the event ended on a dramatic note for India with Pakistan Prime
Minister Imran Khan's anti-India speech stirring a whirlpool for Indo-Pak relations. Nevertheless, PM Modi
tour kicked-off on a positive note. He was welcomed with a grand event--"Howdy, Modi!" at NRG Stadium
in [2] where he and US President Donald Trump jointly addressed a 50,000-strong crowd of Indian
nationals in America. The chemistry between the two leaders was clearly visible when they walked
towards the stage hand-in-hand. PM Modi then flew all the way to New York where the UN session was
about to commence.
In his last day speech at the UN, PM Modi spoke about protecting the climate, fighting terrorism,
maintaining global peace and his government's efforts at helping the marginalised. PM Narendra Modi
repeated his message of 'Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas, Sabka Vishwas' from the podium as he spoke
about India's culture. The prime minister went on to quote a 3,000-year-old Tamil poem to say inclusivity
is India's strength and tradition. He called on the world to unite in the battle against terrorism and said
that terrorism hurts the principles on which the United Nations was formed. For the sake of humanity, the
entire world needs to unite to fight terrorism, he said. However, the subsequent speech by PM Imran
Khan focused mostly on Kashmir and India's decision to revoke Article 370. In an hour-long rant at the
UNGA session, Imran Khan repeated his war rhetoric, saying that Pakistan will fight if a conventional war
starts with India. On the Kashmir issue, Imran Khan alleged that India violated the Constitution when the
Indian government scrapped the provisions under Article 370 that granted a special status to Jammu and
Kashmir (J&K). He also threatened nuclear war in the Indian subcontinent over the issue of Kashmir.
Shortly after Imran Khan's speech, it emerged that India would exercise the right to reply option at the
United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) following Pakistan PM's anti-India rant.
11. Which session of UNGA was addressed by Mr. Modi?

(a) 72nd
(b) 74th
(c) 76th
(d) 78th
(a) New York
(b) Washington DC
(c) Texas
(d) California
13. Which of the following summit related to climate change was also addressed by Mr. Modi during his visit
to the USA?
(a) UN Climate Action Summit
(b) COP25
(c) UN Climate Change Conference
(d) United Nations Conference on the Human Environment
14. Who is the current secretary general of the UN?

(a) Antonio Guterres
(b) Ban Ki Moon
(c) Kofi Annan
(d) Angela Merkel
15. Which of the following coalition was announced by Mr. Modi to deal with natural disasters?
(a) Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure
(b) Disaster Management Fund
(c) Combat Against Natural Disasters
(d) Association To Fight Natural Disasters
Passage (Q.16-Q.20): Since the morning of May 27, natural gas has been continuously flowing out of a
gas well in Assam following a blowout — or a sudden, uncontrolled release of gas/oil. With authorities
unable to control it, experts from a Singapore firm reached Assam today. Meanwhile, people from
surrounding villages have been evacuated, while a variety of fish and an endangered species have died.
Where is the oil rig?
The [1] well is a purely gas-producing well in Tinsukia district. It produces around 80,000 standard cubic
metres per day (SCMD) of gas from a depth of 3,870 metres. As per officials, the current discharge is at
90,000 SCMD at a pressure of 4,200 PSI, far higher than the normal producing pressure of around 2,700
PSI. “It’s a very good reservoir, one of the most prolific gas reservoirs,” said Tridiv Hazarika..
Sometimes, the pressure balance in a well may be disturbed leading to ‘kicks’ or changes in pressure. If
these are not controlled in time, the ‘kicks’ can turn into a sudden blowout. “The force with which a
pressure cooker releases steam is understandable. Imagine a situation where one million pressure
cookers do the same in an uncontrolled manner,” said geologist Siddhartha Kumar Lahiri of Dibrugarh
University. He cited many possible reasons behind blowouts, “from simple lack of attention, poor
workmanship, bad maintenance, old age, sabotage to morpho-tectonic factors”
According to a Guwahati-based expert, “the control of a blowout depends on two things: the size of the
reservoir and the pressure at which the gas/oil is flowing out. This reservoir was particularly difficult to
control since it was a gas well and ran the risk of catching fire at any point”.
While many blowouts automatically collapse on their own, it can take up to months. To control a blowout,
the first step is to pump in water, so that the gas does not catch fire. “Sheer magnitude of the event
invites specialists to douse the fire,” Professor Lahiri said.
(a) Baghjan
(b) Dibru
(c) Digboi
(d) Maguri
17. Which of the following Public Sector Unit operated the oil well in question?
(a) Indian Oil Corporation
(b) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
(c) Oil India Limited
(d) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
18. Which of the following National Park was adversely affected because of fire?
(a) Laokhowa
(b) Majuli
(c) Dibru Saikhowa
(d) Kaziranga
19. According to the reports, the gas leak has also caused deaths of the India’s National Aquatic Animal.
Which of the following is known as India’s National Aquatic Animal?
(a) Irrawaddy dolphin
(b) Indus river dolphin
(c) La Plata dolphin
(d) Gangetic River Dolphin
20. Which of the following Important Bird Area wetland is within the vicinity of oil field?
(a) DeeporBeel
(b) Maguri Motapung Beel
(c) Dehing Patkai
(d) Sonai Rupai
.
Passage (Q.21-Q.25): India won’t join the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)
because concerns about getting swamped by imports under the agreement — putting its domestic
industry and agriculture at risk — haven’t been assuaged. Commerce and industry minister Piyush Goyal
said the decision not to join RCEP will boost ‘Make in India’ as he lauded Prime Minister Narendra Modi
for his “bold and courageous decision to not join RCEP, since it was against our economic interests and
national priorities”.
India runs a large trade deficit with RCEP countries and was looking for specific protection for its industry
and farmers from a surge in imports, especially from China. The decision comes amid rising opposition at
home with leading political parties stepping up attacks on the RCEP.
A joint statement by the RCEP countries said that the 15 remaining nations will begin formal work
towards inking the pact in 2020 while still making efforts to resolve India’s objections. “India’s final
decision will depend on satisfactory resolution of these issues,” said a statement issued in Bangkok late
on Monday.
Domestic industry and dairy farmers had strong reservations about the trade pact. India’s trade deficit
with the RCEP nations is $105 billion, of which China alone accounts for $54 billion. The main worry is
over Chinese manufactured goods and dairy products from New Zealand flooding Indian markets, hurting
domestic interests. The trade agreement was also seen as being detrimental to the government’s Make
in India initiative. India was looking for specific rules of origin to ensure the trade pact wasn’t abused by
non-partner countries and an auto-trigger mechanism to protect it from a surge in imports. Ecommerce
and trade remedies were among other key areas of concern that failed to find satisfactory redressal. New
Delhi had proposed different levels of tariff concessions for China to safeguard its domestic industry from
cheap imports. On the other hand, India didn’t get any credible assurance on market access and non-
tariff barriers, official sources said. India was also worried about keeping 2014 as the base year for tariff
reductions.
21. Which of the following countries is not the member of RCEP?

(a) Singapore
(b) Thailand
(c) Vietnam
(d) Bhutan
22. Which of the following statement is not true?

(a) The RCEP is a mega trade deal currently under negotiation.
(b) The member countries negotiating the deal account for almost half of the world’s population,
contribute over a quarter of world exports and makeup around 30% of global Gross Domestic
Product.
(c) The RCEP consists of ASEAN members only.
(d) All the above
23. Which of the following trade agreement does not include India as its member?
(a) SAFTA
(b) Asia Pacific Trade Agreement
(c) Transatlantic Trade and Investment Partnership
(d) ISFTA
24. Which of the following existing body regulates international trade?

(a) World Bank
(b) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) International Chamber of Commerce
25. Which of the following is United Nation’s body dealing with trade and investment?
(a) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(b) United Nations Trade Council
(c) International Trade Organization
(d) United Nations Trade Association
.
Passage (Q.26-Q.30): The International Co-operation Review Group (ICRG) of the (FATF) on Tuesday
recommended that Pakistan be retained on the [1], given its failure to completely implement the 27-point
action plan to check terror financing.
The final decision would be announced on Friday, at the end of the five-day FATF Plenary session in
Paris, sources aware of the proceedings said.
It is understood that most of the group members were in favour of continuing the pressure on Pakistan to
execute all the measures suggested against funding to banned terror outfits and United Nations
designated global terrorists operating from its soil.
Speaking in favour of Pakistan, Turkey and Malaysia said Islamabad could be taken off the ‘Grey List’ in
coming June. Leaders of these two countries have already gone public on their plans to back Pakistan in
the FATF.
According to the sources, Pakistan's Minister for Economic Affairs Hamad Azhar assured the group that
all the objectives would be achieved as early as June 2020. He claimed that since the last FATF plenary,
the country had taken all possible measures against terror financing.
Pakistan was presented with the 27-point action plan in the previous FATF meet in October last.
Mr. Azhar said Pakistan had acted against transnational terror funding operations on priority and that it
had convicted an unprecedented number of persons, which includes Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) chief Hafiz
Saeed. All the shortcomings identified in the mutual evaluation report would also be addressed soon, he
added.
India countered Pakistan’s claims, saying the recent action taken by Islamabad against Saeed and others
was an attempt to evade further FATF sanctions.
While the LeT chief was recently convicted of terror financing, the Pakistani authorities had claimed that a
large number of terrorists were arrested, the accounts of banned outfits frozen and the institutions run by
them were taken over by the government.
India asserted that the terror funding operations were still on and outfits such as the LeT and the Jaish-e-
Mohammed, whose chief Masood Azhar's location as per Pakistan is “unknown”, were having a free run
in Pakistan.
In November last, when Pakistan complied with only five of the 27 action plan points, the FATF asked it
to “swiftly complete its full action plan by February 2020”.
The FATF statement said: “Otherwise should significant and sustainable progress not be made across
the full range of its action plan by next plenary, the FATF will take action, including urging members to
advise their financial institutions to give special attention to business relations/transactions with Pakistan.”
26. Which of the following list can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?
(a) Black List
(b) Grey List
(c) Dark Grey List
27. Which of the following is true regarding FATF?

(a) It is based in Paris.
(b) It is an international organization developed to combat terrorism and money laundering.
(c) Only b)
(d) Both a) and b)
28. In which summit, FATF was formed?

(a) G7
(b) G8
(c) G20
(d) ASEAN summit
29. What are the implications of being black listed under FATF list?
(a) Bodies like IMF, World Bank may end ties with blacklisted countries.
(b) Black listed countries are disqualified from participating in international game events.
(c) The citizens of Black listed countries are not allowed to visit any other country.
(d) Both a) and b)
30. Which are the only two countries blacklisted by FATF?

(a) Iran and Iraq
(b) Iran and North Korea
(c) Somalia and North Korea
(d) Somalia and Iraq
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): The debate on the Citizenship Amendment Bill (CAB) passed by Parliament on
Wednesday (December 11) has repeatedly flagged the alleged violation of the Assam Accord by the new
law.
The Memorandum of Settlement began with a summary of the context of its signing.
It said all signatories have been “most anxious to find a satisfactory solution to the problem of foreigners
in Assam”, and that AASU had, through a memorandum dated February 2, 1980, conveyed to then Prime
Minister Indira Gandhi its “profound sense of apprehensions regarding the continuing influx of foreign
nationals into Assam and the fear about adverse effects upon the political, social, culture and economic
life of the State”.
Indira began a dialogue with the AASU/AAGSP, and talks were held at the levels of the PM and Home
Minister during 1980-83. Formal discussions resumed in March 1985, when Rajiv Gandhi was PM.
Earlier, several rounds of informal talks had been held in 1984.
The Accord was finally signed later, “keeping all aspects of the problem including constitutional and legal
provisions, international agreements, national commitments and humanitarian considerations”.
The Home Ministry was the nodal Ministry for the implementation of the Accord. In 1986, a new
Department was set up in the Government of Assam, called “Implementation of Assam Accord
Department”, to implement the various clauses of the Memorandum of Settlement.
On its website, the Assam government says the Implementation of Assam Accord Department monitors
“the works implementing under various clauses of the Assam Accord which is executed by different
Department(s)/Organization(s) as entrusted by the Government of India as well as the Govt. of Assam”,
and “liaises with All Assam Students’ Union and the different Department(s)/Organization(s) of the
Government of India and Government of Assam involved in the process of implementation of the clauses
of Assam Accord”.
31. Who headed the committee over the implementation of Clause 6 of Assam Accord?
(a) Justice B.K. Sharma
(b) Justice Mukhopadhyay
(c) Justice B.N. Srikrishna
(d) Justice Pasayat
32. In which year Assam accord was entered into?

(a) 1985
(b) 1986
(c) 1987
(d) 1988
33. Who was the President of Assam Students Union when the Assam accord was signed?
(a) Kesab Chandra Gogoi
(b) Jogendra Nath Hazarika
(c) Prafulla Kumar Mahanta
(d) Hiteswar Saikia
34. Which of the following deals with Clause 6 of the Assam Accord?
(a) International border security
(b) Foreigners
(c) Constitutional, legislative and administrative safeguard to Assamese people
(d) Economic development
35. What is the cutoff date given in Assam Accord that has been shifted by amended Citizenship Act?
(a) 24th March 1971
(b) 24th March 1974
(c) 24th March 1985
(d) 24th March 1966
36. How many people were not included in the final list of NRC which was issued in 2019?
(a) 15 lakhs
(b) 19 lakhs
(c) 25 lakhs
(d) 31 lakhs
MOCK CLAT #43
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): In a major success, India has bagged a deal worth USD 40 million to supply four
indigenously-built weapon locating radars to Armenia by beating Russian and Polish firms.
"The deal is for supplying four weapon locating radars developed by the [1] and manufactured by the
Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) to Armenia," government sources told ANI.
The supply of the equipment to Armenia has already started and this is being considered as a big
achievement for 'Make in India' programme in the defence sector, they said.
Sources said Armenians had conducted trials of systems offered by Russia and Poland that were also
good but they decided to go for the reliable Indian system.
Officials said the export order will help India open a new market for the sale of its indigenous systems,
which are cheaper.
1. Which can be replaced by [1] in the above passage?

(a) Reliance
(b) DRDO
(c) HAL
(d) Bharat Forge
2. Make in India Program was started in which of the following years?

(a) 2012
(b) 2013
(c) 2014
(d) 2015
3. What is the name of radar which is part of the deal?

(a) Saransh
(b) Shakti
(c) Swati
(d) Surbhi
4. What is the function of Radar?

(a) It is used to detect, locate and recognize objects at considerable distance
(b) It can simultaneously handle multiple projectiles fired from different weapons at different locations
(c) It is used to reduce the drag of weaponry system
(d) Both a and b
5. Armenia is located in which of the following continent?

(a) Asia
(b) Australia
(c) Africa
(d) South America
Passage (Q.6-Q.9): "The central government hereby notifies an area to an extent of zero to two
kilometres around the boundary of National Chambal Sanctuary in the state of Madhya Pradesh as the
National Chambal Sanctuary Eco-sensitive Zone," said a notification issued by the ministry of
environment.
The ministry has also directed the Madhya Pradesh government to prepare a Zonal Master Plan, which
shall provide for restoration of denuded areas, conservation of existing water bodies, management of
catchment areas, watershed management, groundwater management, soil and moisture conservation,
needs of local community and such other aspects of the ecology and environment that need attention.
Spread over 435 square kilometres, the National Chambal Sanctuary lies across Sheopur, Morena and
Bhind districts of Madhya Pradesh with a length of more than 400 kilometers.
6. Chambal originates from ______ hills.
(a) Satpura
(b) Vindhya
(c) Janapav
(d) Dhupgarh
7. Which of the following statement is true regarding Eco-Sensitive zones?

(a) These are areas within 10 kms around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
(b) These are notified by MoEFCC, Government of India under Environment Protection Act 1986.
(c) The basic aim is to regulate certain activities around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries so as to
minimise the negative impacts of such activities on the fragile ecosystem.
(d) All the above
8. Which other states Chambal sanctuary lies in?

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Chattisgarh
(c) Gujarat
(d) Orissa
9. What is the current IUCN status of Gharial?

(a) Critically endangered
(b) Endangered
(c) Vulnerable
(d) Least concern
Passage (Q.10-Q.14): India has opened a new all-weather access in a disputed part of its border with
China to enable faster movement of troops and artillery, another potential irritant in relations between the
two nuclear-armed neighbors.
The new bridge, which can take 40 tons of weight, was built in Arunachal Pradesh in India’s remote
northeast, a region that’s claimed by China and near the scene of previous clashes. Border intrusions
have risen 50% in 2019 compared to the previous year, people with knowledge of the matter said.
“That part of the border has always had a tendency to friction point between India and China. Lack of
reliable and all weather connectivity was vulnerability,” said Nitin Gokhale, a New Delhi-based strategic
affairs expert. “The new bridge and improved road overcomes that and ensures uninterrupted supply to
troops.”
10. After whom is the above mentioned bridge named?

(a) Bhupen Hazarika
(b) Hangpam Dada
(c) Mary Kom
(d) Ninchuk Nangdu
11. Above which river is this bridge constructed in Arunachal Pradesh?

(a) Subansiri river
(b) Brahmaputra river
(c) Kameng river
(d) Lohit river
12. The BRO(Border Roads Organisation) alongwith Project _______ took over the construction of the bridge
from PWD authorities. Name the Project.
(a) Aranyak
(b) Sanrakshan
(c) Suraksha
(d) Arunank
13. Who is the Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh who inaugurated this revamped bridge via video
conferencing?
(a) Prem Khandu Thungan
(b) Nabam Tuki
(c) Pema Khandu
(d) Jarbom Gamlin
14. What is the name of the longest rail-road bridge of India ?

(a) Bhupen Hazarika Setu
(b) New Saraighat Bridge
(c) Kolia Bhomora Setu
(d) Bogibeel Bridge
Passage (Q.15-Q.20): The [1] session of the World Health Assembly (WHA) took place virtually from
May 18-19. During the session, countries including India, Japan, Indonesia, New Zealand, UK and
Canada accepted a resolution asking for an “impartial, independent and comprehensive evaluation” of
the World Health Organization’s (WHO) response to the pandemic as well as the identification of the
“zoonotic” source of the coronavirus.
The origin of the virus is currently believed to be a wet market in Wuhan, China. According to a Reuters
report, 116 of the 194 member states were in favour of the resolution.
The WHA is the decision making body of the WHO and the Assembly, which is held annually in [2], is
attended by member states.
Germany’s Chancellor Angela Merkel, meanwhile, said “no country can solve this problem alone” and
backed the WHO’s efforts to combat the outbreak. Merkel added that countries should “work to improve
procedures” and the WHO should ensure its funding is sustainable.
15. Which of the following sessions has been redacted by [1]?

(a) 70th
(b) 71st
(c) 72nd
(d) 73rd
16. Which of the following is not the medium of transfer of zoonotic disease?
(a) Mosquito bite
(b) Dog’s saliva
(c) Diseased plant
(d) All of the above are the medium
17. Which of the following countries has been redacted by [2]?

(a) USA
(b) Switzerland
(c) Germany
(d) Brazil
18. The whole issue exploded further recently after a controversial interview of the WHO assistant director-
general. Who is s/he?
(a) Tedros Adhanom
(b) Yvonne Tong
(c) Bruce Aylward
(d) Maria Van Kerkhove
19. Which of the following statements regarding this year’s World Health Assembly incorrect?
(a) The EU Resolution was accepted by consensus
(b) China finally agreed to a China-centred investigation
(c) Calls for reforming the WHO specifically because it was born of the ashes of the World War II were
made
(d) Beijing is vehemently opposed to participation of Taiwan in the WHO
20. Which is the first country in the world who has declared itself free from the COVID- 19 disease?
(a) Russia
(b) New zealand
(c) Armenia
(d) Germany
Passage (Q.21-Q.24): The doors of the robust sedan started rattling. The windows of the car began
rattling too, tugging at the frames that held them. The wind speed was 110 km/hour. All around us,
mighty trees swayed violently and some already lay fallen like toothpicks. Branches flew like dangerous
missiles in the leafiest neighbourhood in south Kolkata, Southern Avenue. It was 6.20 p.m. on May 20.
The storm was brewing.
After we clicked a couple of photographs, the driver sounded a word of caution: “The back wheel is mildly
floating in the air.” We clambered out and fled the scene. Outside, the sky had changed dramatically.
Darkness had descended and the wind howled.
Over the next several hours, super cyclone Amphan went on a rampage. It surged through the city,
carelessly sweeping aside trees, lamp posts, vehicles, and even robust brick-and-mortar structures. “It
took away my house. But my brother’s house across the road was still standing,” said Moktar Ali, a fish
vendor at Minakhan market in South 24 Parganas.
21. Cyclone in Pacific ocean is known as:

(a) Hurricane
(b) Typhoon
(c) Cyclone
(d) Temperate storm
22. _______ affected India in 2019.

(a) Hudhud
(b) Fani
(c) Titli
(d) Katrina
23. Amphan name is given by:

(a) Bangladesh
(b) Pakistan
(c) India
(d) Thailand
24. What is the meaning of landfall of cyclone?

(a) It means outer part of cyclone intersects with coastline
(b) It means eye of cyclone intersects with coastline
(c) It means when heavy rainfall start
Passage (Q.25-Q.29): Context: Kerala government issues guidelines on COVID-19 data collection,
processing. This is in the wake of the [1] controversy.
What’s the issue?
The government had engaged the U.S.-based data analytics firm in collecting data. It ran into a
controversy.
1. The government had said it had contracted [1] as an emergency measure to crunch the health data of
citizens to understand how the pandemic would behave in Kerala.
2. However, the Opposition had dragged the government to the High Court, accusing it of having used
the outbreak as a cover to allow the U.S.-based firm to “harvest and monetise” the medical information of
the State’s population.
Key guidelines:
1. Consent: If any sensitive personal data is breached, explicit consent should be obtained from the
data principal.
2. Anonymity: Officials should ensure that all the data collected and collated from Kerala on COVID-19
containment activities should be anonymised so that unique identification of the data principal is not
possible.
3. Access to third party: Every citizen who has provided data will be informed that it is likely to be
accessed by third party service providers.
4. Format: Specific consent has to be obtained in the requisite format. The privacy policy illustrating the
compliance in Malayalam and English forms will be included. The privacy policy will also be explicitly
specifying the purpose for which data is collected and the data should be used only for the purpose
for which it has been collected.
5. Storage of data: The data collected will be stored in encrypted form. If data is stored in Cloud, the
Cloud service provider will be approved by the [2] and the guidelines issued for procurement of cloud
by government departments should be strictly followed.
6. If data is collected from a data principal involuntarily using an automated device like GPS and
Bluetooth, it will be done on prior explicit consent of the data principal.
7. Security audit: Any software or application to be hosted in the SDC will be subjected to security audit
before hosting it.
Recently, Kerala High Court had expressed its concern over the confidentiality of information
gathered from COVID-19 patients.
The Court asked the state government to anonymize all data collected from citizens before allowing
access to US Company [1].
The Court had also asked the state government to explore the Central Government’s submission that
it is capable of providing a service similar to [1] which later saw them informing that it will be done
through State Data Centre (SDC).
25. Which is the US Company being referred to in the passage, as represented by [1]?
(a) Google
(b) Tesco
(c) Sprinklr
(d) Facebook
26. Who shall approve the Cloud Service Provider if data is to be stored in an encrypted form, as represented
by [2] in the passage?
(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Data Protection Commission
27. The State Data Centre falls under the:

(a) Ministry of Electronics and Telecommunication
(b) Department of Electronics and Information Technology
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology
(d) Ministry of Power
28. Which of the following statements are correct regarding State Data Centres?
i. SDCs are being run under the National e-Governance Plan of India.
ii. The main purpose of these centres is to provide a physical facility for hosting various state level e-
government applications similar to what National Informatics Center (NIC) provides to the national
level applications.
Options:
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) i & ii
(d) Neither i nor ii
29. Which of the following statements are correct about the National eGovernance Plan?
i. The National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) is an initiative of the Government of India to make all
government services available to the citizens of India via electronic media.
ii. The Government approved the National e-Governance Plan, consisting of 27 "Mission Mode
Projects" (MMPs) and Ten components, on 18 May 2020.
iii. This is an enabler of Digital India initiative, and UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age
Governance) in turn is an enabler of NeGP.
Options:
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) i & iii only
(d) i, ii & iii
Passage (Q.30-Q.34): COVID-19 is the first pan India biological disaster being handled by the legal and
constitutional institutions of the country.
The current lockdown has been imposed under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 (DM Act).
Under the Act, the States and district authorities can frame their own rules on the basis of broad
guidelines issued by the Ministry.
The legal basis of the DM Act, is Entry 23, Concurrent List of the Constitution “Social security and social
insurance”.
Entry 29, Concurrent List “Prevention of the extension from one State to another of infectious or
contagious diseases or pests affecting men, animals or plants,” can also be used for specific law making.
About the Disaster Management Act, 2005:
It came into force in India in January 2006.
The Act provides for “the effective management of disasters and for matters connected therewith or
incidental thereto.”
The Act calls for the establishment of National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), with the Prime
Minister of India as chairperson.
The Act enjoins the Central Government to Constitute a National Executive Committee (NEC) to assist
the National Authority.
All State Governments are mandated to establish a State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA).
Powers given to the Centre:
1. Power bestowed by DM Act on Central Government and NDMA are extensive.
2. The Central Government, irrespective of any law in force (including over-riding powers) can issue
any directions to any authority anywhere in India to facilitate or assist in the disaster management.
3. Importantly, any such directions issued by Central Government and NDMA must necessarily be
followed the Union Ministries, State Governments and State Disaster Management Authorities.
30. Which of the following authorities issued the orders for a nationwide lockdown in the country in the wake
of the Covid 19 Pandemic?
(a) Union Home Ministry
(b) Union Health Ministry
(c) Union Ministry for Disaster Management
(d) Union Ministry for Social Justice
31. Who has the power to make laws on the subjects mentioned in the concurrent list?
i. Parliament
ii. Local bodies
iii. State Legislatures
Options:
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) i & iii only
(d) i, ii & iii
32. Who can exercise all powers of NDMA as per Section 6(3)?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Minister
(d) District Magistrate
33. Covid 19 has been classified as a ____ disaster by the Government of India.
(a) Classified
(b) Notified
(c) Exempted
(d) Categorized
34. Which of the following statements are true with respect to the Disaster Management Act, 2005?
i. The stated object and purpose of the Act is to prevent disasters.
ii. There is no legal provision in the Act to declare a national calamity.
Options:
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) Both i and ii
Passage (Q.35-Q.39): The Andhra Pradesh High Court has struck down an Ordinance promulgated by
the AP government to curtail the tenure of the State Election Commissioner (SEC).
The court also quashed an order appointing retired judge as the new State Election Commissioner and
reinstated post of SEC to previous SEC.
Earlier, the state government had promulgated an ordinance to curtail the tenure of State Election
Commissioner from five to three years.
Free and fair elections form the bedrock of a democratic state:
1. An essential pre-requisite to the conduct of free and fair elections is an independent and autonomous
election commission, which is insulated from executive interference and political pressures.
2. In recognition and furtherance of this, the Constitution of India vests the superintendence, direction
and control of conduct of elections in an independent constitutional body i.e. the Election Commission
of India [Article 324(1)].
3. A similar body has been created by the Constitution for conduct of elections to Panchayats and other
local bodies [Articles 243 K and 243 ZA].
4. Both the Election Commission of India as well as State Election Commissions enjoy certain
constitutional safeguards to secure their independent functioning.
The State Election Commission has been entrusted with the function of conducting free, fair and impartial
elections to the local bodies in the state.
A State Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his/her office except in like manner and on the
like grounds as a Judge of a High Court.
To remove incumbent SEC via ordinance threatens institutional autonomy, falls foul of the Constitution.
The current wording of Article 324(5) is “inadequate” and requires an amendment to bring the removal
procedures of Election Commissioners on par with the CEC to provide them with the “same protection
and safeguard[s]” as the Chief Election Commissioner
Presently, even at CEC and SEC the administrative expenditure of the Commission is a voted
expenditure. However, the expenditure of other independent constitutional bodies similar to the
Commission i.e. the Supreme Court, Comptroller & Auditor General, Union Public Service Commission is
charged/ non-votable expenditure.
The expenditure of the Commission should be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. The
Commission is of the opinion that a charged budget would be a symbol of the independence of the
Commission and will secure its unconstrained functioning.
35. Who has the power to promulgate and ordinance according to the Constitution of India?
i. President
ii. Union Cabinet
iii. Governor of a state
Options:
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) i & iii
(d) i, ii & iii
36. The Election Commission of India conducts elections to:

i. Parliament
ii. State Legislatures
iii. Vice President
iv. President
Options:
(a) i & ii only
(b) i, ii & iv
(c) i, ii & iii
(d) i, ii, iii & iv
37. With respect to the ordinance, which of the following statements is true?
i. An ordinance cannot be retrospective in nature.
ii. The Parliament has to approve the ordinance within 6 weeks of its reassembly.
Options:
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) Both i & ii
38. Which of the articles deal with the ordinance passed by the national government?
(a) 112
(b) 115
(c) 123
(d) 132
39. State Election Commission conducts elections for:

i. Municipalities
ii. Panchayats
iii. Zila Parishads
Options:
(a) i & ii only
(b) ii & iii only
(c) i & iii only
(d) i, ii & iii
MOCK CLAT #44
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): President Ram Nath Kovind has declared abrogation of the provisions of Article
370 of the Constitution, which gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir.
The move came after both houses of Parliament passed a resolution in this regard.
"In exercise of the powers conferred by clause (3) of Article 370 read with clause (1) of Article 370 of the
Constitution of India, the President, on the recommendation of Parliament, is pleased to declare that, as
from the 6th August, 2019, all clauses of the said article 370 shall cease to be operative...," an official
notification signed by the President late on Tuesday night said.
It also said, except the following which shall read as under, namely :— "370. All provisions of this
Constitution, as amended from time to time, without any modifications or exceptions, shall apply to the
State of Jammu and Kashmir notwithstanding anything contrary contained in article 152 or article 308 or
any other article of this Constitution or any other provision of the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir or
any law, document, judgement, ordinance, order, by-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage
having the force of law in the territory of India, or any other instrument, treaty or agreement as envisaged
under Article 363 or otherwise." The BJP-led government's bold move to revoke the special status of
Jammu and Kashmir and bifurcate the border state into two Union territories secured Parliament's
approval on Tuesday with the Lok Sabha passing the new measures with an over two-thirds majority.
The Rajya Sabha gave its approval to the resolution on Monday.
The government had announced on Monday the removal of some provisions of Article 370 to take away
Jammu and Kashmir's special status and proposed bifurcation of the state into two Union territories—
Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh— a far-reaching decision that seeks to redraw the map and future of a
region at the centre of protracted militancy.
1. Which of the following statement is not correct?

(a) The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will have a legislature, the one in Ladakh will not.
(b) Assets and liabilities of J&K and Ladakh would be apportioned on the recommendation of a Central
Committee within a year of its bifurcation.
(c) The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and the Union Territory of Ladakh will have separate
Lieutenant Governor.
(d) The notification amends the expression “Constituent Assembly”, contained in the proviso to clause (3)
of Article 370, to mean “Legislative Assembly”.
2. Who is the chairman of the committee to look after the distribution of assets and liabilities of J&K between
two successor Union territories?
(a) Arun goyal
(b) Sanjay Mitra
(c) Giriraj Prasad Gupta
(d) Naveen Chaudhary
3. Which of the following article of the constitution of the India gave power to the Jammu and Kashmir
Reorganization Act, 2019?
(a) Article 2
(b) Article 370
(c) Article 368
(d) Article 3
4. In which of the following year Article 35A was inserted in the constitution?
(a) 1948
(b) 1949
(c) 1952
(d) 1954
5. Under which article of the constitution of India the LG of Jammu and Kashmir is appointed?
(a) Article 239
(b) Article 240
(c) Article 242
(d) Article 243
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): For over a week, the country has witnessed widespread protests against the
Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), especially in combination with the proposed all-India National
Register of Citizens (NRC). Indians are debating what the combination means for various sections, and
discussing why Muslims, in particular, are worried.
In Assam, the NRC update was mandated by the Supreme Court in 2013. Assam has a history that is
shaped by migration, and the protests there are against only CAA, not against NRC. The Assam Accord,
signed by the governments of Assam and India, and the All Assam Students’ Union (AASU) and the All
Assam Gana Sangram Parishad in [2], after a six-year mass movement, essentially declared that a
resident of Assam is an Indian citizen if she could prove her presence, or an ancestor’s presence, in
Assam before March 25, 1971.
On December 9, when Home Minister Amit Shah told Parliament that a nationwide NRC is on the cards,
he distinguished it from the new citizenship law and said the NRC will have no religious filter. It is unclear
if the government will bring in a fresh law to mandate a nationwide NRC. A list of FAQs put out by the
Press Information Bureau of the government clarifies “it is important to know that, at the national level, no
announcement has been made to begin NRC”. The NRC exercise, as Shah has repeatedly said, is to
identify illegal immigrants from Indian citizens.
In its FAQs, the PIB said: “If it is implemented, it does not mean that anyone will be asked for proof of
being Indian… Just like we present our identity cards or any other document for registering our names in
the voter list or getting Aadhar Card made, similar documents shall need to be provided for NRC, as and
when it is carried out,” it said.
The PIB said there is no compulsion to submit any document by/of the parents. Noting that a decision is
yet to be taken on acceptable documents, it said: “This is likely to include voter cards, passports,
Aadhaar, licenses, insurance papers, birth certificates, school leaving certificates, documents relating to
land or home or other similar documents issued by government officials. The list is likely to include more
documents so that no Indian citizen has to suffer unnecessarily.”
The PIB said that in case of an illiterate person who does not have any documents, “authorities will allow
that person to bring a witness”. “Also, other evidence and community verification etc will be allowed.”
It added that no Indian citizen will be put to undue trouble. Since the NRC process is to identify citizens,
the references to “Indian citizens” in the FAQs remains unexplained.
6. On whose order NRC was taken in Assam?

(a) Union Home Ministry
(b) The High Court of Assam
(c) The Supreme Court of India
(d) The Foreigners Tribunal
7. Which of the following year can be replaced with [2] in the above passage?
(a) 1974
(b) 1980
(c) 1985
(d) 1987
8. The CAA states that provisions on citizenship for illegal migrants will not apply to the tribal areas, as
included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution. Which of the following states is not among the states
included in sixth schedule?
(a) Assam
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Sikkim
9. Which of the following religion/sect has been included in the CAA?

(a) Balochi
(b) Jews
(c) Ahmadiya
10. What was the cut off date fixed by the Assam Accord?
(a) March 24, 1971
(b) December 24, 1971
(c) March 31, 1971
(d) December 31, 1971
Passage (Q.11-Q.15): Prime Minister Narendra Modi is currently in the [2] to attend the ongoing Group of
Seven (G7) Summit.
Modi is among nine other leaders attending the summit from countries that are not part of the informal
grouping of seven advanced economies.
This year, current G7 President has also invited India, South Africa, Australia, Chile, Egypt, Rwanda,
Burkina Faso, Senegal and Spain to participate.
The G7 annual summits are meetings designed to be attended only by the heads of government from the
seven permanent member states and two leaders of the European Union (presidents of the Commission
and the Council).
Inviting other non-G7 leaders to attend the annual summit has been a recurring feature over the past few
years. These invitations are extended by the immediate G7 president and reflect the strategic interests of
the host country.
Emmanuel Macron has used his G7 presidency to present this year’s summit as a new and transformed
format to conduct the annual meet. He has done so by arguing that more democratic and African
countries are central to having meaningful discussions about his democracy and equality agenda.
However, this is far from a new phenomenon.
If one looks at the previous G7 summits, inviting more countries to attend the summit has been a
recurring phenomenon. Moreover, the countries which receive the invitation reflect the strategic interests
of the hosting country.
For instance, Canada hosted the 2018 summit and extended invitations to ‘Americas’ countries such as
Argentina, Jamaica and Haiti. The 2017 summit was organised by Italy and being a Mediterranean
power, it invited North African countries such as Nigeria, Ethiopia, Tunisia and Niger.
In 2016, Japan hosted the summit and extended invitations to mostly Asian countries such as
Bangladesh, Indonesia, Laos, Vietnam and Sri Lanka. The only non-Asian country to receive an invitation
was Chad.
11. Which of the following is not the part of G-7 group?

(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) UK
(d) China
(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) UK
(d) China
13. Which of the following country left the G-8 group in 2014?
(a) Russia
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) UK
14. Which of the following is considered as the reason of the formation of G-7 group?
(a) 1973 oil crisis
(b) Gulf War
(c) Disintegration of USSR
(d) Fall of Berlin wall
15. Which member of G-7 is keen to the expand the membership of the group?
(a) China
(b) Russia
(c) UK
(d) USA
Passage (Q.16-Q.20): New Education Policy 2020: On Wednesday, the Union Cabinet cleared a new
National Education Policy (NEP) proposing sweeping changes in school and higher education. A look at
the takeaways, and their implications for students and institutions of learning:
What are the key takeaways?
The NEP proposes sweeping changes including opening up of Indian higher education to foreign
universities, dismantling of the UGC and the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE),
introduction of a four-year multidisciplinary undergraduate programme with multiple exit options, and
discontinuation of the M Phil programme.
In school education, the policy focuses on overhauling the curriculum, “easier” Board exams, a reduction
in the syllabus to retain “core essentials” and thrust on “experiential learning and critical thinking”.
In a significant shift from the 1986 policy, which pushed for a 10+2 structure of school education, the new
NEP pitches for a “5+3+3+4” design corresponding to the age groups 3-8 years (foundational stage), 8-
11 (preparatory), 11-14 (middle), and 14-18 (secondary). This brings early childhood education (also
known as pre-school education for children of ages 3 to 5) under the ambit of formal schooling. The mid-
day meal programme will be extended to pre-school children. The NEP says students until Class 5
should be taught in their mother tongue or regional language.
The policy also proposes phasing out of all institutions offering single streams and that all universities
and colleges must aim to become multidisciplinary by 2040.
How will these reforms be implemented?
The NEP only provides a broad direction and is not mandatory to follow. Since education is a concurrent
subject , the reforms proposed can only be implemented collaboratively by the Centre and the states.
This will not happen immediately. The incumbent government has set a target of 2040 to implement the
entire policy.
The government plans to set up subject-wise committees with members from relevant ministries at both
the central and state levels to develop implementation plans for each aspect of the NEP. The plans will
list out actions to be taken by multiple bodies, including the HRD Ministry, state Education Departments,
school Boards, NCERT, Central Advisory Board of Education and National Testing Agency, among
others. Planning will be followed by a yearly joint review of progress against targets set.
16. In which year first education policy came?

(a) 1950
(b) 1968
(c) 1986
(d) 1992
17. Who was the chairman of the committee that submitted draft of the New Education Policy 2020?
(a) M.K. Shridhar
(b) K.J. Alphonse Kanamthanam
(c) Ram Shanker Kureel
(d) K Kasturirangan
18. Which amendment moved the education from state list to concurrent list?
(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 86th
(d) 92nd
19. Under the NEP 2020, which centre has been created to assess the students?
(a) Aasra
(b) Parakh
(c) Kaushal
(d) Vivek
20. Under the policy, which of the following has been created free exchange of ideas on the use of
technology?
(a) National Educational Technology Forum
(b) National Research Foundation
(c) Multidisciplinary Education and Research Universities
(d) National Council for Research and Innovation
Passage (Q.21-Q.25): Besides marking the 19th remembrance of the nation’s deadliest terror attacks,
Sept. 11 will also mark six months since the World Health Organization (WHO) declared the coronavirus
a global pandemic.
Two days later, on March 13, the U.S. declared a national emergency over the COVID-19 outbreak.
Since then, more than 27 million cases of the coronavirus have been confirmed across the globe,
according to Johns Hopkins University. More than 905,000 have died from COVID-19, Johns Hopkins
reported.
The United States leads all nations in coronavirus cases, with 6.3 million, and more than 191,000 deaths.
India is ranked second in the world with 4.4 million cases. While Brazil is third in the world with 4.1 million
cases, the South American nation is second with more than 128,000 deaths. India is third in deaths, with
more than 75,000.
On Thursday, Serum Institute of India announced clinical trials for AstraZeneca’s coronavirus vaccine
candidate have been halted. Serum Institute of India is the world’s largest manufacturer of vaccines by
volume and has said it will mass-produce the vaccine candidate developed by the University of Oxford.
On Tuesday, AstraZeneca said in a statement that a potentially unexplained illness in a recipient had
triggered a “standard review process” and that late-stage studies were put temporarily on hold.
The news came as India reported another record spike of 95,735 new coronavirus infections in the last
24 hours as the virus spreads beyond its major cities.
The ministry said the surge in new infections is due to ramping up of daily testing that exceeds 1 million
now. However, experts caution that India’s outbreak is entering a more dangerous phase as the virus
spreads to smaller towns and villages.
21. In which of the following province of china, COVID-19 was first emerged?
(a) Hunan
(b) Henan
(c) Hubei
(d) Hainan
22. Russia became the first country to register the vaccine for COVID-19. It named the vaccine after the
name of-
(a) Scientist
(b) City
(c) Satellite
(d) Strain of virus
23. Which of the following is the correct statement regarding pandemic?

(a) It is a disease that affects a large number of people within a community, population, or region.
(b) It is an epidemic that’s spread over multiple countries or continents or at global level.
(c) It is a disease of which rate of spread is significantly higher.
(d) It is a disease which does not have any cure and is contagious.
24. Which of the following is not the type of corona virus?

(a) MERS
(b) 229E (alpha coronavirus)
(c) NL63 (alpha coronavirus)
(d) HKOC (beta coronavirus)
25. In the wake of which disease, Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 was passed?
(a) Bubonic plague
(b) Chicken pox
(c) Cholera
(d) Flu
Passage (Q.26-Q.30): The government on Tuesday cleared the appointment of India’s first Chief of
Defence Staff (CDS) who will and head the department of military powers in the defence ministry, Union
minister Prakash Javadekar announced at a cabinet briefing. The development, perhaps the most
significant reform in top military management in India, comes four months after Prime Minister Narendra
Modi announced in his Independence Day speech the creation of the post for more effective coordination
between the three armed forces.
The appointment of the CDS — pending for almost two decades after the Kargil Review Committee
recommended it — is a major reform in India’s higher defence management, Javadekar said.
Defence minister Rajnath Singh tweeted that the decision to create CDS was a major step towards
bringing about jointmanship between the armed forces and with the decision, the government had fulfilled
the commitment given by PM Narendra Modi on August 15.
“In a historic decision for ushering in reforms in the higher defence management in the country, the
Government has decided to create a post of Chief of Defence Staff and to create a Department of Military
Affairs, within the Ministry of Defence (MoD),” he said in another tweet.
The ministry said the new department of military affairs will focus on promoting jointness in procurement,
training and staffing for the three services through joint planning and integration of their requirements.
The department will also facilitate the restructuring of military commands for optimal utilisation of
resources by bringing about jointness in operations, including through establishment of joint/theatre
commands.
The implementation committee, appointed by Prime Minister Modi and headed by national security
adviser Ajit Doval, has defined the charter for the CDS. This is in line with what was recommended by the
Kargil Review Committee (KRC). The committee’s report was tabled in Parliament in February 2000.
26. Who headed the Kargil Review Committee?

(a) Naresh Chandra
(b) K Subrahmanyam
(c) D.B. Shekatkar
(d) N Aiyyar
27. What will be the rank of Chief of Defense staff?

(a) Two star
(b) Three star
(c) Four star
(d) Five star
28. Which of the following is not the department of Ministry of Defense?

(a) Department of Defence
(b) Department of Defence Production
(c) Department of Defence Research
(d) Department of Strategic Affairs
29. Which of the following is not the function of Chief of Defense Staff?
(a) He will be the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.
(b) He will be the military adviser to the Nuclear Command Authority.
(c) He will be a member of the Defence Acquisition Council headed by the Defence Minister.
(d) He will exercise military command over the three service chiefs.
30. Who is the first chief of Defense Staff?
(a) Birender Singh Dhanoa
(b) General Dalbir Singh Suhag
(c) Bipin Rawat
(d) Arjan Singh
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): Amid the gloom and doom of the novel coronavirus disease (COVID-19)
pandemic, there is also a reason for cheer and celebration in India today. India has announced the
implementation of [2] emissions standards.
All new vehicles to be sold from April 1, 2020 onwards will comply with the new standards, except the
small window of relaxation granted by the Supreme Court under the current pandemic circumstances.
The window allows industry to sell only 10 per cent of their older BS IV stock by May 31, 2020.
This leapfrog has also been accomplished within the swiftest possible time. After meeting BS IV
standards nation-wide (some big cities had moved earlier in 2010), the September 2017 Notification from
the Union government allowed only three years to the automobile industry and refineries to achieve this.
With this masterstroke, the Indian government not only overruled all objections but also reversed its own
roadmap of delaying the timeline to 2026.
The public health imperative of this move was well-established by the Supreme Court ruling of October
24, 2018, that had additionally denied any extra time for this transition. It upheld:
“If there is a conflict between health and wealth, obviously, health will have to be given precedence... The
larger public interest has to outweigh the much smaller pecuniary interest of the industry.”
Health benefit of this fuel and emissions standard roadmap as estimated by the International Council on
Clean Transportaion shows this can avoid 280,000 cumulative premature deaths in India by 2030.
31. Which of the following is the first Indian Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) to meet the emission
norms announced by the government ?
(a) John Deere
(b) Ashok Leyland
(c) Tata Motors
(d) Eicher
32. Which of the following can be replaced with the [2] in the above passage?
(a) BS V
(b) BS VI
(c) BS V-A
(d) BS V-B
33. Which German Car manufacturer unveiled India’s first car in compliance with new emission standards
announced?
(a) Audi
(b) Volkswagen
(c) Mercedes
(d) BMW
34. What is the difference between BS-IV and newly announced emission standard?
(a) The new emission standard will bring down sulphur content by 5 times from the current BS-IV levels.
(b) The new emission standard will bring down sulphur content by 2 times from the current BS-IV levels.
(c) The new emission standard will bring down sulphur content by 8 times from the current BS-IV levels.
(d) The new emission standard will bring down sulphur content by 6 times from the current BS-IV levels.
35. Which of the following is responsible for the implementation of emission standards?
(a) Central Pollution Control Board
(b) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(c) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
(d) Ministry of Power
MOCK CLAT #45
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): The Conference of Parties is the supreme decision making body of the United
Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. All States that are Parties to the Convention are
represented at the COP, at which they review the implementation of the Convention and any other legal
instruments that the COP adopts and take decisions necessary to promote the effective implementation
of the Convention, including institutional and administrative arrangements.
More Background on the COP

A key task for the COP is to review the national communications and emission inventories submitted by
Parties. Based on this information, the COP assesses the effects of the measures taken by Parties and
the progress made in achieving the ultimate objective of the Convention.
1. Which of the following nations have withdrawn from the COP?

(a) United States of America
(b) China
(c) Brazil
(d) India
2. Where is the COP26 scheduled to be held?

(a) Tokyo
(b) Beijing
(c) Glasgow
(d) London
3. In which year was the Kyoto Protocol adopted?

(a) 1991
(b) 1993
(c) 1995
(d) 1997
4. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC or FCCC) is also known as
(a) Vienna Convention
(b) Kyoto Protocol
(c) Montreal Convention
(d) Earth Summit
5. Where was the first COP held?

(a) Rio De Janeiro
(b) Madrid
(c) Berlin
(d) Poland
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): A major leak from a polymer plant LG Polymers near Visakhapatnam impacted
villages in a five-km radius, leaving at least 9 people dead and thousands of citizens suffering from
breathlessness and other problems in an early morning mishap that raised fears of a serious industrial
disaster.
The leak occurred early morning on May 7, 2020, at a private plastic making plant owned by LG
Polymers Pvt Ltd, a part of (1) conglomerate LG Corp. The chemical plant was closed due to the
lockdown for a long time and attempts were made to restart the operation. During this course, some
chemical activity got started in the tank and a large amount of (2) was leaked in surroundings. The exact
cause of this incident is still unknown and further investigations are going on.
Fire engines, the police, and ambulances reached the area to control the situation. The trained chemical,
biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) defence team of NDRF rushed to the spot and evacuated
1,200 families to safe locations, and about 400 people were admitted to the hospital.

(a) South Korean
(b) Chinese
(c) American
(d) Britain
7. In which of the following cases was the principle of strict liability evolved?
(a) Donoghue vs Stevenson
(b) Rylands vs Fletcher
(c) Bhopal Gas Tragedy case
(d) M.C. Mehta vs Union of India

(a) Chlorofluorocarbon
(b) Styrene gas
(c) Hydrogen Sulphide
(d) Carbon Monoxide
9. In which year was the National Green Tribunal established?

(a) 2012
(b) 2009
(c) 2010
(d) 2011
10. Where is the principle bench of the National Green Tribunal established?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai
(d) Pune
Passage (Q.11-Q.15): The Yemen Crisis has its roots in the Arab Spring of 2011, when an uprising
forced the country’s long-time authoritarian president, Ali Abdullah Saleh, to hand over power to his
deputy, Abdrabbuh Mansour Hadi.
The political transition was supposed to bring stability to Yemen, one of the Middle East’s poorest
nations, but President Hadi struggled to deal with various problems including militant attacks, corruption,
food insecurity, and continuing loyalty of many military officers to Saleh.
Fighting began in 2014 when the (1) Rebel movement took advantage of the new president’s weakness
and seized control of northern Saada province and neighbouring areas.
The (1) went on to take the capital (2), forcing the president into exile abroad.

(a) Boko Haram
(b) ISIS
(c) Houthi
(d) Hamas
12. Who was the first president of Yemen?

(a) Ali Abdullah Saleh
(b) Mohammed Basindawa
(c) Abdullah Mohsen al-Akwa
(d) Abdrabbuh Mansour Hadi
13. Which Muslim community forms the part of rebel forces acting against the president of Yemen?
(a) Wahabi
(b) Sunni
(c) Zaidi Shia
(d) Ibadi
14. Which of the following revolution caused the first president of Yemen to resign in 2012?
(a) 17th February Revolution
(b) Arab Spring
(c) Yemini Revolution
(d) War for Yemen

(a) Sana’a
(b) Ibb
(c) Taizz
(d) Aden
Passage (Q.16-Q.20): It’s been three days since the halted clinical trials of the AstraZeneca vaccine
were allowed to resume in [1], but the drug regulator in United States, the Food and Drug Administration,
has not yet taken a decision on whether to let the trials go ahead.
Multiple news reports in the US media said the National Institutes of Health (NIH), the US counterpart of
Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), had launched its own investigation into the incident that had
led to the halting of the trials of the AstraZeneca vaccine two weeks ago.
A female trial participant in [1] had showed symptoms of severe illnesses because of which phase-2 and
phase-3 trials of the AstraZeneca vaccine candidate going on in several countries, including India, were
stopped.

(a) China
(b) Russia
(c) England
(d) Germany
17. Exploring if and how a new drug may work – is a ______ phase of clinical trial.
(a) Zero
(b) First
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
18. Vaccine is given for:

(a) ncreasing blood platelets
(b) strengthening body’s immune system
(c) helping brain cells to kill the virus
(d) temporary protection of disease
19. Ervebo is a vaccine of:

(a) SARS
(b) MERS
(c) Nipah
Passage (Q.20-Q.24): US President Donald Trump threatened the use of force in dealing with protests
against the death of George Floyd, referring to participants as “thugs” on Twitter. “Any difficulty and we
will assume control but, when the looting starts, the shooting starts,” the president said Friday.
Within hours, Twitter flagged the post for “glorifying violence” but let it remain visible in the public’s
interest “to remain accessible.”
Floyd, a 46-year-old African American man, died in [1] on Monday while he was being restrained by the
police. Video footage of the incident, which was broadcast by the media and went viral on social media
platforms, showed an officer kneeling on Floyd’s neck as he gasped for breath.
Four policemen have since been fired, and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) has been called in
to conduct a federal civil rights probe. The officer who pinned him to the ground, Derek Chauvin, has
been charged with third degree murder.

(a) Philadelphia
(b) Houston
(c) Minneapolis
(d) Detroit
21. In which year the hashtag #BlackLivesMatter began trending on social media?
(a) 2000
(b) 2005
(c) 2013
(d) 2018
22. In which year, slavery permanently abolished in US?

(a) 1800
(b) 1835
(c) 1865
(d) 1892
23. During the American Revolution (1775–1783) against _______, all the states banned the Atlantic slave
trade.
(a) France
(b) Great Britain
(c) Spain
(d) Germany
24. What is the approx. black population in USA according to 2016 census?
(a) 13%
(b) 25%
(c) 43%
(d) 59%
Passage (Q.25-Q.29): Republic Day has been celebrated every year in India on January 26, since 1950
to honour the date on which the Constitution of India came into effect. India was a colony of the British for
over 200 years and became independent from the rule of the British Raj following the Indian
independence movement. While India became independent on August 14, 1947, it still didn’t have a
permanent constitution, and Indian laws were based on a modified version of the British established,
Government of India Act 1935.
However, two weeks later on 29 August 1947, a Drafting Committee was appointed for the drafting of a
permanent Indian Constitution, with Dr B R Ambedkar as chairman. After a lot of hard work, the
Constitution was finally drafted, and January 26 was chosen as the day to declare India as the Sovereign
Republic. The significance of January 26 is that on that day in 1929, the Indian National Congress made
the well known Declaration of Indian Independence (Purna Swaraj) as opposed to British rule.
And though the Constitution came into force in 1950 with a democratic government system, it was
adopted by the Indian Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949. This completed the country’s
transition into becoming a sovereign republic.
The draft of the constitution was submitted to the Indian Constituent Assembly on 4 November 1947.
Over the course of 166 days, that were spread over two years, the 308 members of the Assembly met in
sessions that were open to the public and made some modifications. Finally, on January 24, 1950, the
Assembly members signed two handwritten copies of the Constitution, one in English and one in Hindi.
And two days later history was made. On that day began Dr. Rajendra Prasad’s first term of office as
President of the Indian Union. The Constituent Assembly became the Parliament of India under the
transitional provisions of the new Constitution.
January 26 is celebrated to commemorate the Indian Constitution replacing the Government of India Act
(1935) as the governing document of India. And now it is celebrated across India with a lot of fervour. In
Delhi, at Rajpath magnificent parades by regiments of the Indian Army, Navy, Air Force, police and
paramilitary forces march and there is also a display India’s defence prowess is on display with latest
missiles, aircraft, and weapon systems. Beautiful tableaus, representing the beauty of all the states of
India are also showcased during the parade. There are also skyshows by the Air Force. India will be
celebrating its 71st Republic Day this year.
25. Who was the chief guest at 71st Republic Day?

(a) Fernando Henrique Cardoso
(b) Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva
(c) Jair Bolsonaro
(d) Emmanuel Macron
26. Who became first Indian woman Parade Adjutant to lead an all-man contingent at an Army Day function
in Indian Army, Republic Day in 2020?
(a) Madhuri Kanitkar
(b) Tania Shergill
(c) Padma Bandopadhyay
(d) Punita Arora
27. Which state won the best Best Tableaux award at Republic day 2020?
(a) Assam
(b) Manipur
(c) Mizoram
(d) Sikkim
28. Who was the chairman of the Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) G.V. Mavalankar
(c) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
(d) B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
29. Who of the following was not announced to be awarded with Padma award posthumously?
(a) Arun jaitley
(b) Manohar Parikkar
(c) Sushma Swaraj
(d) George Fernandes
Passage (Q.30-Q.34): Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting Prakash Javadekar, speaking on
the occasion of World Press Freedom Day, said his government “will expose” the surveys that portray a
“bad picture about ‘Freedom of Press’ in India”.
The Minister’s comments come in the backdrop of the latest survey of the global body, Reporters Without
Borders, that shows India dropping two places on the global press freedom index ranking to [4] place.
India’s neighbours — Bhutan, Nepal and Sri Lanka — are ranked higher in the list.
“Media has the power to inform and enlighten people. Media in India enjoy absolute freedom. We will
expose, sooner than later, those surveys that tend to portray bad picture about ‘Freedom of Press’ in
India,” Mr. Javadekar tweeted.
The report on “'The World Press Freedom Index 2020”, which was released on April 22, said that with no
murders of journalists in India in 2019, as against six in 2018, the security situation for the country's
media might seem, on the face of it, to have improved.
“However, there have been constant press freedom violations, including police violence against
journalists, ambushes by political activists, and reprisals instigated by criminal groups or corrupt local
officials,” it said.
In 2010, India was ranked 122, which has been steadily declining. In 2013 and 2014 it slipped to 140
place. But in 2015, it improved four positions to be placed at 136. In 2016, it further improved to be at
133. In 2017, it was back at 136. Next two years, 2018 and 2019 it slipped two ranks, to be at 138 and
140 respectively.
South Asia in general features poorly on the index, with Pakistan dropping three places to 145, and
Bangladesh dropping one place to 151.
30. Which of the following day is celebrated as World Press Freedom Day?
(a) 2 May
(b) 3 May
(c) 4 May
(d) 5 May
31. Which of the following organization releases the World Press Freedom index?
(a) Transparency International
(b) Freedom House
(c) Reporters Without Borders
(d) World Economic Forum
32. Which of the following nation topped the index?

(a) Finland
(b) Denmark
(c) Sweden
(d) Norway
(a) 141
(b) 142
(c) 144
(d) 145
34. Which of the following is not among the parameters on the basis of which ranking is decided?
(a) Ability to criticize the government
(b) Legislative framework
(c) Transparency
(d) Media independence
Passage (Q.35-Q.39): National Science Day is celebrated every year to commemorate the discovery of
the [2]. On this occasion, theme-based science communication activities are carried out all over the
country. Theme for the National Science Day 2020 is [4].
This year, the National Science Day will be celebrated at Vigyan Bhawan on. President Ram Nath Kovind
will present several awards for science communication and popularization as well as for women
scientists.
A total of 21 awards will be given which will include National Science and Technology and
Communication Awards, Augmenting Writing Skills For Articulating Research (AWSAR) awards, SERB
Women Excellence Awards and National Award For Young Woman Showing Excellence Through
Application Of Technology For Societal Benefits.
Dr Harsh Vardhan, Minister of Science and Technology and Smriti Irani, Minister for Textiles will also
grace the occasion.
The occasion will include a lecture of eminent scientist Prof Gagandeep Kang, Director of the
Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), Faridabad who is first women FRS of
India to talk on the theme of the NSD-2020.
NSD Theme has been chosen for the purpose of increasing public appreciation of the scientific issues
involved.
National Council for Science & Technology Communication (NCSTC), Department of Science and
Technology (DST) acts as a nodal agency to support, catalyze and coordinate celebration of the National
Science Day throughout the country in scientific institutions, research laboratories and autonomous
scientific institutions associated with the Department of Science and Technology.
NCSTC has supported various programmes countrywide by supporting its State S&T Councils &
Departments for organization of lectures, quizzes, open houses, etc.
DST instituted National Awards for Science Popularization in February 1987 to stimulate, encourage and
recognize outstanding efforts in the area of science and technology for popularization, communication
and promoting scientific temper. These awards are presented every year on National Science Day.
35. On which day National Science Day is celebrated?

(a) 20th February
(b) 25th February
(c) 28th February
(d) 4th March
(a) Raman effect
(b) Decimal system
(c) Block irrigation system
(d) Bosons
37. In which year the discoverer of the [2] received the Nobel Prize?
(a) 1920
(b) 1930
(c) 1940
(d) 1950
(a) Science and Technology for Specially Abled Persons
(b) Science and Technology for a sustainable future
(c) Science for People, and People for Science
(d) Women in Science
39. Which of the following is the most coveted award named after the Founder-Director of the Council of
Scientific & Industrial Research to given to scientists in the field of Science and Technology?
(a) CV Raman Award
(b) Har Gobind Khurana Award
(c) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(d) HomiJ. Bhabha Award

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MOCK CLAT #15

SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS

1. Which of the following states will replace the blank [1]?

2. Which of the following pathogens have been replaced by [2]?

3. Which of the following diseases is not an example of zoonotic diseases?

4. In what shape do antibodies exist?

5. Which of the following options about antibodies is correct?

7. Which of the following countries will fill [2]?

12. Which of the following banks will fill [2]?

16. Which of the following will fill [1]?

17. Which of the following reasons will fill [2]?

19. What is the gestational age in terms of a pregnancy?

22. Which of the following states will replace [3]?

23. Which of the following states will replace [4]?

24. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding this report?

26. Which of the following will replace [1]?

28. Which of the following will replace [2]?

31. Which of the following will replace [1]?

36. Which of the following will replace [1]?

37. Which of the following terms will fill [2]?

1. Which of the following years will replace [1]?

2. Which of the following will replace [2]?

6. Which of the following will replace [1]?

9. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

11. Which of the following will replace [1]?

12. Which of the following helicopters will replace [2]?

13. Which of the following companies will replace [3]?

14. Which of the following statements about [2] is correct?

17. Which of the following will replace will [3]?

18. Which of the following statements about the Surrogacy Bill?

19. What is meant by the ART Bill?

21. Which of the following will replace [1]?

22. Which of the following will replace [2]?

23. Which of the following will replace [3]?

26. How many members are there in BIMSTEC?

28. What do you mean by the nominal GDP?

29. Which of the following will replace [3]?

31. Which of the following ranks will replace [1]?

32. Which of the following will replace [2]?

33. On how many categories is the Democracy Index based?

35. Which of the following countries has topped the rankings?

36. Which of the following will replace [1]?

37. Which of the following will replace [2]?

38. Which of the following will replace [3]?

1. Which of the following will replace [1]?

2. Which of the following will replace [2]?

3. Which of the following statements is correct?

8. Which of the following places will replace [2]?

9. Which of the following countries will replace [3]?

10. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

12. Who is the present President of FATF?

13. Which of the following will replace [1]?

14. Which of the following will replace [2]?

19. Which of the following will replace [2]?

20. Which of the following is an example of effect of metabolic polymorphisms?

25. Which of the following will replace [1]?

26. Which of the following will replace [2]?

27. Which of the following will replace [3]?

30. Which of the following will replace [1]?

31. Which of the following will replace [2]?

35. Which of the following will replace [1]?

36. Which of the following will replace [2]?