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Exercise:: EIGRP and OSPF - EIGRP and OSPF: A - B. C. D
Exercise:: EIGRP and OSPF - EIGRP and OSPF: A - B. C. D
1. With which network type will OSPF establish router adjacencies but not perform the DR/BDR
election process?
A
Point-to-point
.
B.Backbone area 0
C.Broadcast multi-access
D
Non-broadcast multi-access
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
2. Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router?
1. It is locally significant.
2. It is globally significant.
3. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
4. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the
router.
A
1, 2 and 4
.
B.1 and 3
C.3 and 5
D
All of the above
.
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3. A network administrator needs to configure a router with a distance-vector protocol that
allows classless routing. Which of the following satisfies those requirements?
A
IGRP
.
B.OSPF
C.RIPv1
D
EIGRP
.
E. IS-IS
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
In this question, we're calling EIGRP just plain old distance vector. EIGRP is an "advanced"
distance-vector routing protocol, sometimes called a hybrid routing protocol because it uses
the characteristics of both distance-vector and link-state routing protocols.
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Explanation:
The administrative distance (AD) is a very important parameter in a routing protocol. The
lower the AD, the more trusted the route. If you have IGRP and OSPF running, by default
IGRP routes would be placed in the routing table because IGRP has a lower AD of 100. OSPF
has an AD of 110. RIPv1 and RIPv2 both have an AD of 120, and EIGRP is the lowest, at 90.
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5. Your company is running IGRP using an AS of 10. You want to configure EIGRP on the
network but want to migrate slowly to EIGRP and don't want to configure redistribution. What
command would allow you to migrate over time to EIGRP without configuring redistribution?
A
router eigrp 11
.
B.router eigrp 10
C.router eigrp 10 redistribute igrp
D
router igrp combine eigrp 10
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
If you enable EIGRP on a router with the same autonomous system (AS) number, EIGRP will
automatically redistribute IGRP into EIGRP. You will see the IGRP injected routes as external
(EX) routes with an EIGRP AD of 170. This is a nice feature that lets you migrate slowly to
EIGRP with no extra configuration
. Where are EIGRP successor routes stored?
A In the routing table only
.
B.In the neighbor table only
C.In the topology table only
D
In the routing table and the topology table
.
E. In the routing table and the neighbor table
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Successor routes are going to be in the routing table since they are the best path to a remote
network. However, the topology table has a link to each and every network, so the best answer
is topology table and routing table. Any secondary route to a remote network is considered a
feasible successor, and those routes are only found in the topology table and used as backup
routes in case of primary route failure.
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7. Which command will display all the EIGRP feasible successor routes known to a router?
A
show ip routes *
.
B.show ip eigrp summary
C.show ip eigrp topology
D
show ip eigrp adjacencies
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Any secondary route to a remote network is considered a feasible successor, and those routes
are only found in the topology table and used as backup routes in case of primary route failure.
You can see the topology table with the show ip eigrp topology command.
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A
1 and 3
.
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 4
D 3, 4 and 5
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Successor routes are the routes picked from the topology table as the best route to a remote
network, so these are the routes that IP uses in the routing table to forward traffic to a remote
destination. The topology table contains any route that is not as good as the successor route
and is considered a feasible successor, or backup route. Remember that all routes are in the
topology table, even successor routes.
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9. Which EIGRP information is held in RAM and maintained through the use of Hello and
update packets?
1. Neighbor table
2. STP table
3. Topology table
4. DUAL table
A
2 only
.
B.4 only
C.1 and 3
D
All of the above
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
EIGRP holds three tables in RAM: neighbor, topology, and routing. The neighbor and
topology tables are built and maintained with the use of Hello packets.
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A
1 only
.
B.1 and 2 only
C.3 and 4 only
D
3, 4 and 5
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Loopback interfaces are created on a router, and the highest IP address on a loopback
(logical) interface becomes the RID of the router but has nothing to do with areas and is
optional, so (1) is wrong. The numbers you can create an area with are from 0 to
4,294,967,295 option (2) is wrong. The backbone area is called area 0, so option (3) is
correct. All areas must connect to area 0, so option (5) is correct. If you have only one area, it
must be called area 0. This leaves option (4), which must be correct; it doesn't make much
sense, but it is the best answer.
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A
1, 2 and 3
.
B.3 only
C.3 and 4
D
2, 3 nd 4
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
OSPF is created in a hierarchical design, not a flat design like RIP. This decreases routing
overhead, speeds up convergence, and confines network instability to a single area of the
network.
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12. Which two of the following commands will place network 10.2.3.0/24 into area 0?
1. router eigrp 10
2. router ospf 10
3. network 10.0.0.0
4. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area0
5. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
A
1 and 4
.
B.2, 4, and 5
C.2 and 5
D
3 and 4
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
To enable OSPF, you must first start OSPF using a Process ID. The number is irrelevant; just
choose a number from 1 to 65,535 and you're good to go. After you start the OSPF process,
you must configure any network that you want advertised via OSPF using wildcards and the
area command. Statement (4) is wrong because there must be a space after the parameter area
and before you list the area number.
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13. If routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a
router use for the OSPF Router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
A
The lowest IP address of any physical interface
.
B.The highest IP address of any physical interface
C.The lowest IP address of any logical interface
D
The highest IP address of any logical interface
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
At the moment of OSPF process startup, the highest IP address on any active interface will
be the Router ID (RID) of the router. If you have a loopback interface configured (logical
interface), then that will override the interface IP address and become the RID of the router
automatically.
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14. Which of the following protocols support VLSM, summarization, and discontiguous
networking?
1. RIPv1
2. IGRP
3. EIGRP
4. OSPF
5. BGP
6. RIPv2
A
1 and 4
.
B.2 and 5
C.3, 4 and 6
D
All of the above
.
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15. You get a call from a network administrator who tells you that he typed the following into his
router:
Router(config)#router ospf 1
Router(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
He tells you he still can't see any routes in the routing table. What configuration error did the
administrator make?
A
The wildcard mask is incorrect.
.
B.The OSPF area is wrong.
C.The OSPF Process ID is incorrect.
D
The AS configuration is wrong.
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The administrator typed in the wrong wildcard mask configuration. The wildcard should
have been 0.0.0.255.
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16. Which of the following network types have a designated router and a backup designated
router assigned?
1. Broadcast
2. Point-to-point
3. NBMA
4. NBMA point-to-point
A
1, 2 and 3
.
B.1 and 3
C.3 and 4
D
All of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
1. Broadcast multi-access
2. Non-broadcast multi-access
3. Point-to-point
4. Broadcast multipoint
A
1 and 2
.
B.3 and 4
C.3 only
D
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
DR and BDR are elected on broadcast and non-broadcast multi-access networks. Frame
Relay is a non-broadcast multi-access (NBMA) network by default. No DR is assigned on
any type of point-to-point link. No DR/BDR is assigned on the NBMA point-to-multipoint
due to the hub/spoke topology.
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18. You need the IP address of the devices with which the router has established an adjacency.
Also, the retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers need to be
checked. What command will display the required information?
A
show ip eigrp adjacency
.
B.show ip eigrp topology
C.show ip eigrp interfaces
D
show ip eigrp neighbors
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The show ip eigrp neighbors command allows you to check the IP addresses as well as the
retransmit interval and queue counts for the neighbors that have established an adjacency
Explanation:
The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) was designed to stop layer 2 loops. All Cisco switches
have the STP on by default.
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Explanation:
Convergence occurs when all ports on bridges and switches have transitioned to either the
forwarding or blocking states. No data is forwarded until convergence is complete. Before
data can be forwarded again, all devices must be updated.
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3. What does a switch do when a frame is received on an interface and the destination hardware
address is unknown or not in the filter table?
A
Forwards the switch to the first available link
.
B.Drops the frame
C.Floods the network with the frame looking for the device
D
Sends back a message to the originating station asking for a name resolution
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Switches flood all frames that have an unknown destination address. If a device answers the
frame, the switch will update the MAC address table to reflect the location of the device.
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4. In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in
a switched LAN?
A
During high-traffic periods
.
B.After broken links are reestablished
C.When upper-layer protocols require high reliability
D
In an improperly implemented redundant topology
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
If the Spanning Tree Protocol is not running on your switches and you connect them together
with redundant links, you will have broadcast storms and multiple frame copies.
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5. If you want to disable STP on a port connected to a server, which command would you use?
A
disable spanning-tree
.
B.spanning-tree off
C.spanning-tree security
D
spanning-tree portfast
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
If you have a server or other devices connected into your switch that you're totally sure won't
create a switching loop if STP is disabled, you can use something called portfast on these
ports. Using it means the port won't spend the usual 50 seconds to come up while STP is
converging.
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Explanation:
7. You have two switches connected together with two crossover cables for redundancy, and STP
is disabled. Which of the following will happen between the switches?
A
The routing tables on the switches will not update.
.
B.The MAC forward/filter table will not update on the switch.
C.Broadcast storms will occur on the switched network.
D
The switches will automatically load-balance between the two links.
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
If spanning tree is disabled on a switch and you have redundant links to another switch,
broadcast storms will occur, among other possible problems.
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A
1 and 3
.
B.2 and 4
C.1, 2 and 4
D
All of the above
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Switches, unlike bridges, are hardware based. Cisco says its switches are wire speed and
provide low latency, and I guess they are low cost compared to their prices in the 1990s.
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9. Your switch has a port status LED that is alternating between green and amber. What could
this indicate?
A
The port is experiencing errors.
.
B.The port is shut down.
C.The port is in STP blocking mode.
D
Nothing; this is normal.
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
When you connect to a switch port, at first the link lights are orange/amber, and then they turn
green, indicating normal operation. If the link light is blinking, you have a problem.
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10. You want to run the new 802.1w on your switches. Which of the following would enable this
protocol?
A
Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
.
B.Switch# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
C.Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode 802.1w
D
Switch# spanning-tree mode 802.1w
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
802.1w is the also called Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol. It is not enabled by default on Cisco
switches, but it is a better STP to run since it has all the fixes that the Cisco extensions
provide with 802.1d.
11. Which of the following is a layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop-free network?
A
VTP
.
B.STP
C.RIP
D
CDP
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The Spanning Tree Protocol is used to stop switching loops in a switched network with
redundant paths.
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12. You need to allow one host to be permitted to attach dynamically to each switch interface.
Which two commands must you configure on your catalyst switch to meet this policy?
1. Switch(config-if)# ip access-group 10
2. Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
3. Switch(config)# access-list 10 permit ip host 1
4. Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security violation shutdown
5. Switch(config)# mac-address-table secure
A
1 and 3
.
B.2 and 4
C.2, 3 and 5
D
4 and 5
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The switchport port-security is an important command, and it's super easy with the CNA;
however, from the CLI, you can set the maximum number of MAC addresses allowed into
the port, and then set the penalty if this maximum has been passed.
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Explanation:
The command show mac address-table displays the forward/filter table on the switch.
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14. If a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not in the MAC address table but
the destination address is, what will the switch do with the frame?
A
Discard it and send an error message back to the originating host
.
B.Flood the network with the frame
Add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame out the
C.
destination port
D
Add the destination to the MAC address table and then forward the frame
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Since the source MAC address is not in the MAC address table, the switch will add the
source address and the port it is connected to into the MAC address table and then forward
the frame to the outgoing port.
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A
1 and 5
.
B.2, 3 and 5
C.3, 4 and 6
D
1, 3 and 6
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Bridges break up collision domains, which would increase the number of collision domains
in a network and also make smaller collision domains.
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16. What are the distinct functions of layer 2 switching that increase available bandwidth on the
network?
1. Address learning
2. Routing
3. Forwarding and filtering
4. Creating network loops
5. Loop avoidance
6. IP addressing
A
1, 3 and 5
.
B.2, 4 and 6
C.2 and 6
D
3 and 5
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Layer 2 features include address learning, forwarding and filtering of the network, and loop
avoidance.
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