1. You performed Leopold’s maneuver and found the C.

(+) pregnancy test

following: breech presentation, fetal back at the right side D. (+) ultrasound
of the mother. Based on these findings, you can hear the 10. What event occurring in the second trimester helps the
fetal heart beat (PMI) BEST in which location? expectant mother to accept the pregnancy?
A. Left lower quadrant A. Lightening
B. Right lower quadrant B. Ballottement
C. Left upper quadrant C. Pseudocyesis
D. Right upper quadrant D. Quickening
2. In Leopold’s maneuver step #1, you palpated a soft, 11. Shoes with low, broad heels, plus a good posture will
broad mass that moves with the rest of the mass. The prevent which prenatal discomfort?
correct interpretation of this finding is: A. Backache
A. The mass palpated at the fundal part is the head part. B. Vertigo
B. The presentation is breech. C. Leg cramps
C. The mass palpated is the back D. Nausea
D. The mass palpated is the buttocks. 12. When a pregnant woman experiences leg cramps, the
3. In Leopold’s maneuver step # 3 you palpated a hard correct nursing intervention to relieve the muscle cramps
round movable mass at the supra pubic area. The correct is:
interpretation is that the mass palpated is: A. Allow the woman to exercise
A. The buttocks because the presentation is breech. B. Let the woman walk for a while
B. The mass palpated is the head. C. Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the foot towards the
C. The mass is the fetal back. knees
D. The mass palpated is the small fetal part D. Ask the woman to raise her legs
4. The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test 13. From the 33rd week of gestation till full term, a healthy
is: mother should have a prenatal check up every:
A. Estrogen A. week
B. Progesterone B. 2 weeks
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin C. 3 weeks
D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone D. 4 weeks
5. The hormone responsible for the maturation of the 14. The expected weight gain in a normal pregnancy
Graafian follicle is: during the 3rd trimester is
A. Follicle stimulating hormone A. 1 pound a week
B. Progesterone B. 2 pounds a week
C. Estrogen C. 10 lbs. a month
D. Luteinizing hormone D. 10 lbs. total weight gain in the 3rd trimester
6. The most common normal position of the fetus in utero 15. In Bartholomew’s rule of 4, when the level of the
is: fundus is midway between the umbilicus and xiphoid
A. Transverse position process the estimated age of gestation (AOG) is:
B. Vertical position A. 5th month
C. Oblique position B. 6th month
D. None of the above C. 7th month
7. In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the mother may D. 8th month
experience shortness of breath. This complaint maybe 16. The following are ways of determining expected date of
explained as: delivery (EDD) when the LMP is unknown EXCEPT:
A. A normal occurrence in pregnancy because the fetus is A. Naegele’s rule
using more oxygen B. Quickening
B. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing C. McDonald’s rule
the diaphragm upwards D. Bartholomew’s rule of 4
C. The woman is having allergic reaction to the pregnancy and 17. If the LMP is Jan. 30, the expected date of delivery
its hormones (EDD) is
D. The woman maybe experiencing complication of A. Oct. 7
pregnancy B. Oct. 24
8. Which of the following findings in a woman would be C. Nov. 7
consistent with a pregnancy of two months duration? D. Nov. 8
A. Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. And the presence of striae 18. Kegel’s exercise is done in pregnancy in order to:
gravidarum A. Strengthen perineal muscles
B. Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency B. Relieve backache
C. Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening C. Strengthen abdominal muscles
D. Increased respiratory rate and ballottement D. Prevent leg varicosities and edema
9. Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy? 19. Pelvic rocking is an appropriate exercise in pregnancy
A. Fetal movement felt by mother to relieve which discomfort?
B. Enlargement of the uterus A. Leg cramps
B. Urinary frequency
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Backache
20. The main reason for an expected increased need for
iron in pregnancy is:
A. The mother may have physiologic anemia due to the
increased need for red blood cell mass as well as the fetal
requires about 350-400 mg of iron to grow
B. The mother may suffer anemia because of poor appetite
C. The fetus has an increased need for RBC which the mother
must supply
D. The mother may have a problem of digestion because
of pica
21. The diet that is appropriate in normal pregnancy
should be high in
A. Protein, minerals, and vitamins
B. Carbohydrates and vitamins
C. Proteins, carbohydrates, and fats
D. Fats and minerals
22. Which of the following signs will require a mother to
seek immediate medical attention?
A. When the first fetal movement is felt
B. No fetal movement is felt on the 6th month
C. Mild uterine contraction
D. Slight dyspnea on the last month of gestation
23. You want to perform a pelvic examination on one of
your pregnant clients. You prepare your client for the
procedure by:
A. Asking her to void
B. Taking her vital signs and recording the readings
C. Giving the client a perineal care
D. Doing a vaginal prep
24. When preparing the mother who is in her 4th month of
pregnancy for an abdominal ultrasound, the nurse should
instruct her to:
A. Observe NPO from midnight to avoid vomiting
B. Do perineal flushing properly before the procedure
C. Drink at least 2 liters of fluid 2 hours before the procedure
and not void until the procedure is done
D. Void immediately before the procedure for better
visualization
25. The nursing intervention to relieve “morning sickness”
in a pregnant woman is by giving
A. Dry carbohydrate food like crackers
B. Low sodium diet
C. Intravenous infusion
D. Antacid
26. The common normal site of nidation/implantation in
the uterus is
A. Upper uterine portion
B. Mid-uterine area
C. Lower uterine segment
D. Lower cervical segment
27. Mrs. Santos is on her 5th pregnancy and has a history
of abortion in the 4th pregnancy, and the first pregnancy
was a twin. She is considered to be
A. G 4 P 3
B. G 5 P 3
C. G 5 P 4
D. G 4 P 4
28. The following are skin changes in pregnancy EXCEPT:
A. Chloasma
B. Striae gravidarum
C. Linea nigra
D. Chadwick’s sign
29. Which of the following statements is TRUE of
conception?
A. Within 2-4 hours after intercourse, conception is possible in
a fertile woman
B. Generally, fertilization is possible 4 days after ovulation
C. Conception is possible during menstruation in a
long menstrual cycle
D. To avoid conception, intercourse must be avoided 5 days
before and 3 days after menstruation
30. Which of the following are the functions of amniotic
fluid?
1. Cushions the fetus from abdominal trauma
2. Serves as the fluid for the fetus
3. Maintains the internal temperature
4. Facilitates fetal movement
A. 1 & 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 3
D. All of the above
31. You are performing an abdominal exam on a 9th-
month pregnant woman. While lying supine, she felt
breathless, had pallor, tachycardia, and cold clammy skin.
The correct assessment of the woman’s condition is that
she is:
A. Experiencing the beginning of labor
B. Having supine hypotension
C. Having sudden elevation of BP
D. Going into shock
32. Smoking is contraindicated in pregnancy because
A. Nicotine causes vasodilation of the mother’s blood vessels
B. Carbon monoxide binds with the hemoglobin of the mother
reducing available hemoglobin for the fetus
C. The smoke will make the fetus, and the mother feel dizzy
D. Nicotine will cause vasoconstriction of the fetal blood
vessels
33. Which of the following is the most likely effect on the
fetus if the woman is severely anemic during pregnancy?
A. Large for gestational age (LGA) fetus
B. Hemorrhage
C. Small for gestational age (SGA) baby
D. Erythroblastosis fetalis
34. Which of the following signs and symptoms will most
likely make the nurse suspect that the patient
has hydatidiform mole?
A. Slight bleeding
B. Passage of clear vesicular mass per vagina
C. Absence of fetal heart beat
D. Enlargement of the uterus
35. Upon assessment, the nurse found the following:
fundus at 2 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, last
menstrual period (LMP) 5 months ago, fetal heart beat
(FHB) not appreciated. Which of the following is the most
possible diagnosis of this condition?
A. Hydatidiform mole
B. Missed abortion
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ectopic pregnancy
36. When a pregnant woman goes into a
convulsive seizure, the MOST immediate action of the
nurse to ensure the safety of the patient is:
A. Apply restraint so that the patient will not fall out of bed
B. Put a mouth gag so that the patient will not bite her tongue
and the tongue will not fall back
C. Position the mother on her side to allow the secretions to
drain from her mouth and prevent aspiration
D. Check if the woman is also having a precipitate labor
37. A gravidocardiac mother is advised to observe bed rest
primarily to
A. Allow the fetus to achieve normal intrauterine growth
B. Minimize oxygen consumption which can aggravate the
condition of the compromised heart of the mother
C. Prevent perinatal infection
D. Reduce incidence of premature labor
38. A pregnant mother is admitted to the hospital with the
chief complaint of profuse vaginal bleeding, AOG 36 wks,
not in labor. The nurse must always consider which of the
following precautions:
A. The internal exam is done only at the delivery under strict
asepsis with a double set-up
B. The preferred manner of delivering the baby is vaginal
C. An emergency delivery set for vaginal delivery must be
made ready before examining the patient
D. Internal exam must be done following routine procedure
39. Which of the following signs will distinguish threatened
abortion from imminent abortion?
A. Severity of bleeding
B. Dilation of the cervix
C. Nature and location of pain
D. Presence of uterine contraction
40. The nursing measure to relieve fetal distress due to
maternal supine hypotension is:
A. Place the mother in semi-Fowler’s position
B. Put the mother on left side lying position
C. Place mother on a knee chest position
D. Any of the above
41. To prevent preterm labor from progressing, drugs are
usually prescribed to halt the labor. The drugs commonly
given are:
A. Magnesium sulfate and terbutaline
B. Prostaglandin and oxytocin
C. Progesterone and estrogen
D. Dexamethasone and prostaglandin
42. In placenta previa marginalis, the placenta is found at
the:
A. Internal cervical os partly covering the opening
B. External cervical os slightly covering the opening
C. Lower segment of the uterus with the edges near the
internal cervical os
D. Lower portion of the uterus completely covering the cervix
43. In which of the following conditions can the causative
agent pass through the placenta and affect the fetus in
utero?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Rubella
C. Candidiasis
D. moniliasis
44. Which of the following can lead to infertility in adult
males?
A. German measles
B. Orchitis
C. Chicken pox
D. Rubella
45. Papanicolaou smear is usually done to
determine cancer of
A. Cervix
B. Ovaries
C. Fallopian tubes
D. Breast
46. Which of the following causes of infertility in the
female is primarily psychological in origin?
A. Vaginismus
B. Dyspareunia
C. Endometriosis
D. Impotence
47. Before giving a repeat dose of magnesium sulfate to a
pre-eclamptic patient, the nurse should assess the patient’s
condition. Which of the following conditions will require
the nurse to temporarily suspend a repeat dose of
magnesium sulfate?
A. 100 cc. urine output in 4 hours
B. Knee jerk reflex is (+)2
C. Serum magnesium level is 10mEg/L.
D. Respiratory rate of 16/min
48. Which of the following is TRUE in Rh incompatibility?
A. The condition can occur if the mother is Rh(+) and the
fetus is Rh(-)
B. Every pregnancy of a Rh(-) mother will result to
erythroblastosis fetalis
C. On the first pregnancy of the Rh(-) mother, the fetus will
not be affected
D. RhoGam is given only during the first pregnancy to prevent
incompatibility
49. Which of the following are the most commonly assessed
findings in cystitis?
A. Frequency, urgency, dehydration, nausea, chills, and flank
pain
B. Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria, hematuria, fever and
suprapubic pain
C. Dehydration, hypertension, dysuria, suprapubic pain, chills,
and fever
D. High fever, chills, flank pain nausea, vomiting, dysuria, and
frequency
50. Which of the following best reflects the frequency of
reported postpartum “blues”?
A. Between 10% and 40% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues
B. Between 30% and 50% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues
C. Between 50% and 80% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues
D. Between 25% and 70% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues
Answers and Rationale
1. Answer: B. Right lower quadrant
Right lower quadrant. The landmark to look for when looking
for PMI is the location of the fetal back in relation to the right
or left side of the mother and the presentation, whether
cephalic or breech. The best site is the fetal back nearest the
head.
2. Answer: D. The mass palpated is the buttocks.
The palpated mass is the fetal buttocks since it is broad and
soft and moves with the rest of the mass.
3. Answer: B. The mass palpated is the head.
When the mass palpated is hard round and movable, it is the
fetal head.
4. Answer: C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is the hormone
secreted by the chorionic villi which is the precursor of the
placenta. In the early stage of pregnancy, while the placenta is
not yet fully developed, the major hormone that sustains the
pregnancy is HCG.
5. Answer: A. Follicle stimulating hormone
The hormone that stimulates the maturation if the of the
graafian follicle is the Follicle Stimulating Hormone which is
released by the anterior pituitary gland.
6. Answer: B. Vertical position
Vertical position means the fetal spine is parallel to the
maternal spine thus making it easy for the fetus to go out the
birth canal.
 Options A and C: If transverse or oblique, the
fetus can’t be delivered normally per vagina.
7. Answer: B. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the
diaphragm upwards
From the 32nd week of the pregnancy, the fundus of the
enlarged uterus is pushing the respiratory diaphragm upwards.
Thus, the lungs have reduced space for expansion
consequently reducing the oxygen supply.
8. Answer: B. Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency
The fullness of the breast is due to the increased amount of
progesterone in pregnancy. The urinary frequency is caused by
the compression of the urinary bladder by the gravid uterus
which is still within the pelvic cavity during the first trimester.
9. Answer: D. (+) ultrasound
A positive ultrasound will confirm that a woman is pregnant
since the fetus in utero is directly visualized.
10. Answer: D. Quickening
Quickening is the first fetal movement felt by the mother
makes the woman realize that she is truly pregnant. In early
pregnancy, the fetus is moving but too weak to be felt by the
mother. In the 18th-20th week of gestation, the fetal
movements become stronger thus the mother already feels the
movements.
11. Answer: A. Backache
Backache usually occurs in the lumbar area and becomes more
problematic as the uterus enlarges. The pregnant woman in her
third trimester usually assumes a lordotic posture to maintain
balance causing an exaggeration of the lumbar curvature. Low
broad heels provide the pregnant woman with a good support.
12. Answer: C. Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the
foot towards the knees
Leg cramps is caused by the contraction of the gastrocnimeus
(leg muscle). Thus, the intervention is to stretch the muscle by
dosiflexing the foot of the affected leg towards the knee.
13. Answer: A. week
In the 9th month of pregnancy the mother needs to have a
weekly visit to the prenatal clinic to monitor fetal condition
and to ensure that she is adequately prepared for the
impending labor and delivery.
14. Answer: A. 1 pound a week
During the 3rd trimester the fetus is gaining more
subcutaneous fat and is growing fast in preparation for extra
uterine life. Thus, one pound a week is expected.
15. Answer: C. 7th month
In Bartholomew’s Rule of 4, the landmarks used are the
symphysis pubis, umbilicus and xyphoid process. At the level
of the umbilicus, the AOG is approximately 5 months and at
the level of the xyphoid process 9 months. Thus, midway
between these two landmarks would be considered as 7
months AOG.
16. Answer: A. Naegele’s rule
Naegele’s Rule is determined based on the last menstrual
period of the woman.
17. Answer: C. Nov. 7
Based on the last menstrual period, the expected date of
delivery is Nov. 7. The formula for the Naegele’s Rule is
subtract 3 from the month and add 7 to the day.
18. Answer:  A. Strengthen perineal muscles
Kegel’s exercise is done by contracting and relaxing the
muscles surrounding the vagina and anus in order to
strengthen the perineal muscles
19.Answer: D. Backache
Backache is caused by the stretching of the muscles of the
lower back because of the pregnancy. Pelvic rocking is good
to relieve backache.
20. Answer: A. The mother may have physiologic anemia
due to the increased need for red blood cell mass, as well as
the fetal, requires about 350-400 mg of iron to grow
About 400 mgs of Iron is needed by the mother in order to
produce more RBC mass to be able to provide the needed
increase in blood supply for the fetus. Also, about 350-400
mgs of iron is need for the normal growth of the fetus. Thus,
about 750-800 mgs iron supplementation is needed by the
mother to meet this additional requirement.
21. Answer: A. Protein, minerals and vitamins
In normal pregnancy there is a higher demand for protein
(body building foods), vitamins (esp. vitamin A, B, C, folic
acid) and minerals (esp. iron, calcium, phosphorous, zinc,
iodine, magnesium) because of the need of the growing fetus.
22. Answer: B. No fetal movement is felt on the 6th month
Fetal movement is usually felt by the mother during 4.5 – 5
months. If the pregnancy is already in its 6th month and no
fetal movement is felt, the pregnancy is not normal either the
fetus is already dead intra-uterine or it is an H-mole.
23. Answer: A. Asking her to void
A pelvic examination includes abdominal palpation. If the
pregnant woman has a full bladder, the manipulation may
cause discomfort and accidental urination because of the
pressure applied during the abdominal palpation. Also, a full
bladder can impede the accuracy of the examination because
the bladder (which is located in front of the uterus) can block
the uterus.
24. Answer: C. Drink at least 2 liters of fluid 2 hours
before the procedure and not void until the procedure is
done
Drinking at least 2 liters of water 2 hours before the procedure
will result to a distended bladder. A full bladder is needed
when doing an abdominal ultrasound to serve as a “window”
for the ultrasonic sound waves to pass through and allow
visualization of the uterus (located behind the urinary
bladder).
25. Answer: A. Dry carbohydrate food like crackers
Morning sickness maybe caused by hypoglycemia early in the
morning thus giving carbohydrate food will help.
26. Answer: A. Upper uterine portion
The embryo’s normal nidation site is the upper portion of the
uterus. If the implantation is in the lower segment, this is an
abnormal condition called placenta previa.
27. Answer: B. G 5 P 3
Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies including the
current one. Para refers to the number of pregnancies that have
reached viability. Thus, if the woman has had one abortion,
she would be considered Para 3. Twin pregnancy is counted
only as 1.
28. Answer: D. Chadwick’s sign
Chadwick’s sign is bluish discoloration of the vaginal mucosa
as a result of the increased vascularization in the area.
29.Answer: A. Within 2-4 hours after intercourse
conception is possible in a fertile woman
The sperms when deposited near the cervical os will be able to
reach the fallopian tubes within 4 hours. If the woman has just
ovulated (within 24hours after the rupture of the graafian
follicle), fertilization is possible.
30. Answer: D. All of the above
All the four functions enumerated are true of amniotic fluid.
31. Answer: B. Having supine hypotension
Supine hypotension is characterized by breathlessness, pallor,
tachycardia and cold, clammy skin. This is due to the
compression of the abdominal aorta by the gravid uterus when
the woman is in a supine position.
32. Answer: B. Carbon monoxide binds with the
hemoglobin of the mother reducing available hemoglobin
for the fetus
Carbon monoxide is one of the substances found in cigarette
smoke. This substance diminishes the ability of the
hemoglobin to bind with oxygen thus reducing the amount of
oxygenated blood reaching the fetus.
33. Answer: C. Small for gestational age (SGA) baby
Anemia is a condition where there is a reduced amount of
hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is needed to supply the fetus with
adequate oxygen. Oxygen is needed for normal growth and
development of the fetus.
34. Answer: B. Passage of clear vesicular mass per vagina
Hydatidiform mole (H-mole) is characterized by the
degeneration of the chorionic villi wherein the villi becomes
vesicle-like. These vesicle-like substances when expelled per
vagina and is a definite sign that the woman has H-mole.
35. Answer: A. Hydatidiform mole
Hydatidiform mole begins as a pregnancy but early in the
development of the embryo degeneration occurs. The
proliferation of the vesicle-like substances is rapid causing the
uterus to enlarge bigger than the expected size based on ages
of gestation (AOG). In the situation given, the pregnancy is
only 5 months but the size of the uterus is already above the
umbilicus which is compatible with 7 months AOG. Also, no
fetal heart beat is appreciated because the pregnancy
degenerated thus there is no appreciable fetal heart beat.
36. Answer: C. Position the mother on her side to allow the
secretions to drain from her mouth and prevent aspiration
Positioning the mother on her side will allow the secretions
that may accumulate in her mouth to drain by gravity thus
preventing aspiration pneumonia.
 Option B: Putting a mouth gag is not safe since
during the convulsive seizure the jaw will
immediately lock.
 Option C: The mother may go into labor also
during the seizure, but the immediate concern of
the nurse is the safety of the baby. After the
seizure, check the perineum for signs
of precipitate labor.
37. Answer: B. Minimize oxygen consumption which can
aggravate the condition of the compromised heart of the
mother
Activity of the mother will require more oxygen consumption.
Since the heart of a gravido-cardiac is compromised, there is a
need to put a mother on bedrest to reduce the need for oxygen.
38. Answer: A. The internal exam is done only at the
delivery under strict asepsis with a double set-up
Painless vaginal bleeding during the third trimester maybe a
sign of placenta praevia.
 Option B:  If the bleeding is due to soft tissue
injury in the birth canal, immediate vaginal
delivery may still be possible so the set up for
vaginal delivery will be used.
 Option C: A double set-up means there is a set up
for cesarean section and a set-up for vaginal
delivery to accommodate immediately the
necessary type of delivery needed. In both cases,
strict asepsis must be observed.
 Option D: If an internal examination is done in
this kind of condition, this can lead to even more
bleeding and may require immediate delivery of
the baby by cesarean section.
39. Answer: B. Dilation of the cervix
In imminent abortion, the pregnancy will definitely be
terminated because the cervix is already open unlike in
threatened abortion where the cervix is still closed.
40. Answer: B. Put the mother on left side lying position
When a pregnant woman lies on supine position, the weight of
the gravid uterus would be compressing on the vena cava
against the vertebrae obstructing blood flow from the lower
extremities. This causes a decrease in blood return to the heart
and consequently immediate decreased cardiac output and
hypotension. Hence, putting the mother on side lying will
relieve the pressure exerted by the gravid uterus on the vena
cava.
41. Answer: A. Magnesium sulfate and terbutaline
Magnesium sulfate acts as a CNS depressant as well as a
smooth muscle relaxant. Terbutaline is a drug that inhibits the
uterine smooth muscles from contracting. On the other hand,
oxytocin and prostaglandin stimulates contraction of smooth
muscles.
42. Answer: C. Lower segment of the uterus with the edges
near the internal cervical os
Placenta marginalis is a type of placenta previa wherein the
placenta is implanted at the lower segment of the uterus thus
the edges of the placenta are touching the internal cervical
opening/os. The normal site of placental implantation is the
upper portion of the uterus.
43. Answer: B. Rubella
Rubella is caused by a virus and viruses have low molecular
weight thus can pass through the placental barrier.
 Options A, C, and D: Gonorrhea, candidiasis and
moniliasis are conditions that can affect the fetus
as it passes through the vaginal canal during the
delivery process.
44. Answer: B. Orchitis
Orchitis is a complication that may accompany mumps in
adult males. This condition is characterized by unilateral
inflammation of one of the testes which can lead to atrophy of
the affected testis. About 20-30% of males who gets mumps
after puberty may develop this complication.
45. Answer: A. Cervix
Papanicolaou (Paps) smear is done to detect cervical cancer. It
can’t detect cancer in ovaries and fallopian tubes because
these organs are outside of the uterus and the abnormal cells
from these organs will not be detected from a smear done on
the cervix.
46. Answer: A. Vaginismus
Vaginismus is primarily psychological in origin.
 Option B: Dyspareunia is usually caused
by infection, endometriosis or hormonal changes
in menopause although may sometimes be
psychological in origin.
 Option C: Endometriosis is a condition that is
caused by organic abnormalities.
47. Answer: A. 100 cc. urine output in 4 hours
The minimum urine output expected for a repeat dose of
MgSO4 is 30 cc/hr. If in 4 hours the urine output is only 100
cc this is low and can lead to poor excretion of Magnesium
with a possible cumulative effect, which can be dangerous to
the mother.
48. Answer: C. On the first pregnancy of the Rh(-) mother,
the fetus will not be affected
On the first pregnancy, the mother still has no contact with
Rh(+) blood thus it has not antibodies against Rh(+). After the
first pregnancy, even if terminated into an abortion, there is
already the possibility of mixing of maternal and fetal blood so
this can trigger the maternal blood to produce antibodies
against Rh(+) blood. The fetus takes it’s blood type usually
form the father.
49. Answer: B.  Manifestations of cystitis include,
frequency, urgency, dysuria, hematuria nocturia, fever,
and suprapubic pain.
Dehydration, hypertension, and chills are not typically
associated with cystitis. High fever chills, flank pain, nausea,
vomiting, dysuria, and frequency are associated with
pyelonephritis.
50. Answer: (C) According to statistical reports, between
50% and 80% of all new mothers report some form of
postpartum blues. The ranges of 10% to 40%, 30% to 50%,
and 25% to 70% are incorrect.