1. The mass of one atom of an element is 2.

66 x 10-23 g, then its 80g is equal to

1) 2.5 gram-atom 2) 5 gram-atom 3) 1 mole 4) 2.26 moles

2. Each of the following reaction takes place to the extent of 75%

MnO2 + 2KClO3  K2MnO4 + Cl2 + 2O2
Cl2 + K2MnO4  2KCl + MnO2 + O2
The number of moles of KClO3 used to liberate 16.8 L of O2 at STP is
1) 0.25 2) 0.33 3) 0.5 4) 0.67

3. The radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is ao, then the de-Brogile wavelength of the electron in
the third orbit is
2
1) πao 2)6 πao 3) 8 πao 4)18 πao
3

4. A 35L cylinder contains 225g of O2 at 27oC. The mass of O2 released to reduce the pressure to 2.463
atm is
1) 111 g 2) 112 g 3) 113 g 4) 114g

5. The slope of the isochore for the state represented by the point ‘A’ in the isotherm is

R R R a
1) 2) 3) 4)
V −b V b RV

6. The pH of a 0.01 M monobasic acid is found to be 3. The osmotic pressure of the solution at
temperature T K is
1)1.1 RT 2) 0.11RT 3)0.011 RT 4) 0.01 RT

2.303 V α−V 0
7. For the acid hydrolysis of ester, rate constant k = log where V0, Vt and Vα are the volumes
t V α −V t
of standard NaOH required to neutralise acid present at a given time.When the ester is 75% hydrolysed
the relation between Vα and Vt is
1
1) Vα = (Vt – V0) 2) Vα = 4Vt – 2V0
3
1 3
3) Vα = (3Vt – V0) 4) Vα = (2Vt – V0)
4 4

8. For the elementary reaction 2A(g) + B(g)  2C(g) + D(g), initial pressure of A and B are 0.6 atm and 0.4
atm respectively. At a time when the pressure of C is 0.4atm, rate of the reaction relative to the initial
value is
 1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 6 9 18

9. If X1, X2 and X3 are the formation constant of AB1 , AB2 and AB3 and K is the overall formation
constant of AB3, then
1) log K = log X1 + log X2 + log X3 2) pK = log X1 + log X2 + log X3
1 1 1 1
3) K = X1 + X2 + X3 4) = + +
K X1 X2 X3

10. The variation of EMF of a cell E, with temperature T is given by

−ΔS ΔS −ΔS ΔG
1) 2) 3) 4)
nF nF nF ΔH

11. A salt MY crystallises in FCC lattice with edge length 4.6Ǻ. Assuming that M+ and Y- are in contact
along the cell edge, the radius of M+ is (given radius of Y- is 0.9 Ǻ)
1) 1.4 Ǻ 2) 2.3 Ǻ 3) 2.8 Ǻ 4) 3.7 Ǻ

12. The type of bonding that allows grease and tails of soap to mix is
1) covalent bonding 2) ionic bonding
3) Van der Waal’s bonding 4) Hydrogen bonding

13. A polyamino compound having molar mass 180 gmol-1 contains only primary and secondary amino
groups. On acetylation with excess acetyl chloride, it gives a product having molar mass 390gmol-1.
The number of amino groups present in one molecule of the polyamino compound is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6

14. The correct order of stability of the following carbonion is

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

1) iv > iii > ii > i 2) iii > iv > ii > i
3) iv > ii > iii > I 4) ii > iv > iii > i

15. Combustion of a hydrocarbon with excess of oxygen gave 3.08 g of CO2 and 0.75 g of water. The
empirical formula of the hydrocarbon is
1) C7H8 2) C2H5 3) C3H7 4) C6H5

16. An aromatic compound (A) gives a white precipitate when heated with alcoholic silver nitrate
solution. Oxidation of the compound (A) with alkaline KMnO4 followed by acidification gives a
dicarboxylic acid which readily forms anhydride on heating. The compound (A) is

1) 2) 3) 4)
17. The most stable conformation of ethylene glycol is

1) 2)

3) 4)

18.

The product (B) is

1) 2)

3) 4)

19. Choose the incorrect statement about nucleophilic substitution reaction

i) Reaction of CH3Cl with aqueous NaOH follows SN2 mechanism
ii) Polar medium generally favours SN1 mechanism
iii) is more nucleophilic than
iv) SN1 mechanism causes inversion of configuration whereas SN2 causes inversion and retention
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (ii) and (iii)
3) (i) and (iii) 4) (iii) and (iv)
20. During the denaturation of protein
1) only 1o structure is destroyed
2) 2o and 3o structures are destroyed but1o structure remains intact
3) only 1o and 2o structures are destroyed
4) 1o, 2o and 3o structures are destroyed
21. The compound that does not exhibit optical isomerism among the following is
1) Alanine 2) 2-Butanol 3) 3-Chloropentane 4) Sucrose

22. The sodium alkynide produced by treating a monoacidic alkyne with sodamide contains 30.3%
sodium. The alkyne is [atomic weight of sodium is 23]
1) CH≡CH 2) CH3 – C≡CH
3) CH3 - C≡C – CH3 4) CH3 – CH2 – C≡CH

23. Which of the following is not a linear polymer?

1) LDP 2) PVC 3) HDP 4) Nylon 66

24. The most reactive compound towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions is:

1) 2) 3) 4)

25. The anode mud formed during the electrolytic refining of copper does not contain
1) selenium 2) gold 3) platinum 4)iron

26. Arrange the following in the increasing order of unpaired electrons present in the given complexes
[Fe(NH3)6]2+, [Mn(CN)6]3-, [Cr(H2O)6]3-, [Co(NH3)6]2+
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
1) iii < ii < iv < i 2) iii < i < iv < ii
3) ii < iii < i < iv 4) iv < ii < iii < i

27. Arrange the elements N, F, S, O, Si, He, Ne in the order of highest negative electron gain enthalpy to
the highest positive electron gain enthalpy
1) F, S, O, Si, N, He, Ne 2) F, O, S, Si, N, He, Ne
3) F, S, O, N, Si, Ne, He 4) F, O, S, Si, He, N, Ne

28. Beryllium is placed over magnesium in the second group. When beryllium powder is added to MgCl2
solution
1) Mg metal get precipitated 2) Beryllium metal get dissolved in the solution
3) Complex formation takes place 4) No reaction take place

29. Which of the following lanthanoid ion is not paramagnetic?

1) Ce3+ 2) Gd3+ 3) Lu3+ 4) Eu2+

30. Which among the following compounds of noble gas does not exist?
1) Na+[XeF7]- 2)[XeF]+[PF6]- 3) [KrF]+[SbF6]- 4) [KrF3]-[SbF4]+

31. The mole fraction of ethyl alcohol in 2.5 molal aqueous solution of CH3 CH2OH is
1) 0.043 2) 0.050 3) 0.100 4) 0.190
32. Reaction of 2, 2 – dimethylpropanal with 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide gives

1) 2)

3) 4)

33. One molecule of a gas absorbs a photon of wavelength 340nm and emits two photons at two different
wavelengths. If the wavelength of one photon emitted is 510 nm, the wavelength of the other photon is
1) 743 nm 2) 850 nm 3) 1020 nm 4) 425 nm

34. Which among the following exhibits maximum covalent character?

1) SnCl2 2) PbCl2 3) SiCl4 4) FeCl3

35. For the given oxides, the correct increasing order of basic nature is
1) K2O < Na2O < MgO < BaO 2) BeO < MgO < Na2O < K2O
3) MgO < BeO < Na2O < K2O 4) MgO < BeO < K2O < Na2O

36. In which among the following cases the reduction potential of hydrogen half cell will be negative at 298K?
1) PH2 = 1 atm and [H+] = 1.0M
2) PH2 = 1 atm and [H+] = 2.0M
3) PH2 = 2 atm and [H+] = 1.0M
4) PH2 = 2 atm and [H+] = 2.0M

37. The reagents that may be used to distinguish between aniline and benzylamine is
1) CHCl3 & alc.KOH 2) C6H5SO2Cl & NaOH(aq)
3) NaNO2/HCl at 273K & β – naphthol 4) (CH3CO)2O & pyridine

38. Which among the following statements about sulphur is incorrect?

1) At about 1000 K, S2 is the dominant species and is paramagnetic
2) Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur have S8 molecules
3) The vapour at 200o C consists mostly of S8 rings
4) The oxidation state of sulphur is never less than +4 in its compounds

39. Which of the following compounds exhibit tautomerism?

1) 1, 2 – Dichloroethane 2) 2 – Hydroxypropanoic acid
3) Butanone 4) Phenol
40. Ozonolysis of a compound gives only propanedial. The compound is

1) 2)

3) 4)