July 2012

Guide to NEBOSH
International
Diploma in
Occupational Health
and Safety - Unit IB
Examiners’ Report

NEBOSH INTERNATIONAL DIPLOMA

IN OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND SAFETY

Unit IB – International control of

hazardous agents in the workplace

JULY 2012

CONTENTS

Introduction 2

General comments 3

Comments on individual questions 4

 2012 NEBOSH, Dominus Way, Meridian Business Park, Leicester LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700 fax: 0116 282 4000 email: info@nebosh.org.uk website: www.nebosh.org.uk

The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health is a registered charity, number 1010444

EXTERNAL
Introduction

NEBOSH (The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health) was formed in 1979 as
an independent examining board and awarding body with charitable status. We offer a comprehensive
range of globally-recognised, vocationally-related qualifications designed to meet the health, safety,
environmental and risk management needs of all places of work in both the private and public sectors.
Courses leading to NEBOSH qualifications attract around 35,000 candidates annually and are offered
by over 500 course providers, with examinations taken in over 100 countries around the world. Our
qualifications are recognised by the relevant professional membership bodies including the Institution
of Occupational Safety and Health (IOSH) and the International Institute of Risk and Safety
Management (IIRSM).

NEBOSH is an awarding body to be recognised and regulated by the Scottish Qualifications Authority
(SQA).

Where appropriate, NEBOSH follows the latest version of the “GCSE, GCE, Principal Learning and
Project Code of Practice” published by the regulatory authorities in relation to examination setting and
marking. While not obliged to adhere to this code, NEBOSH regards it as best practice to do so.

Candidates’ scripts are marked by a team of Examiners appointed by NEBOSH on the basis of their
qualifications and experience. The standard of the qualification is determined by NEBOSH, which is
overseen by the NEBOSH Council comprising nominees from, amongst others, the Health and Safety
Executive (HSE), the Confederation of British Industry (CBI), the Trades Union Congress (TUC) and
the Institution of Occupational Safety and Health (IOSH). Representatives of course providers, from
both the public and private sectors, are elected to the NEBOSH Council.

This report on the examination provides information on the performance of candidates which it is
hoped will be useful to candidates and tutors in preparation for future examinations. It is intended to
be constructive and informative and to promote better understanding of the syllabus content and the
application of assessment criteria.

© NEBOSH 2012

Any enquiries about this report publication should be addressed to:

NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Meridian Business Park
Leicester
LE19 1QW

tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
email: info@nebosh.org.uk

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EXTERNAL
General Comments

Many candidates are well prepared for this unit assessment and provide comprehensive and relevant
answers in response to the demands of the question paper. This includes the ability to demonstrate
understanding of knowledge by applying it to workplace situations. There are always some
candidates, however, who appear to be unprepared for the unit assessment and who show both a lack
of knowledge of the syllabus content and a lack of understanding of how key concepts should be
applied to workplace situations.
In order to meet the pass standard for this assessment, acquisition of knowledge and understanding
across the syllabus are prerequisites. However, candidates need to demonstrate their knowledge and
understanding in answering the questions set. Referral of candidates in this unit is invariably because
they are unable to write a full, well-informed answer to the question asked.
Some candidates find it difficult to relate their learning to the questions and as a result offer responses
reliant on recalled knowledge and conjecture and fail to demonstrate any degree of understanding.
Candidates should prepare themselves for this vocational examination by ensuring their
understanding, not rote-learning pre-prepared answers.
Candidates should note that Examiners’ Reports are not written to provide ‘sample answers’ but to
give examples of what Examiners were expecting and more specifically to highlight areas of under
performance.
Common pitfalls
It is recognised that many candidates are well prepared for their assessments. However, recurrent
issues, as outlined below, continue to prevent some candidates reaching their full potential in the
assessment.
 Many candidates fail to apply the basic principles of examination technique and for some
candidates this means the difference between a pass and a referral.
 In some instances, candidates do not attempt all the required questions or are failing to provide
complete answers. Candidates are advised to always attempt an answer to a compulsory
question, even when the mind goes blank. Applying basic health and safety management
principles can generate credit worthy points.
 Some candidates fail to answer the question set and instead provide information that may be
relevant to the topic but is irrelevant to the question and cannot therefore be awarded marks.
 Many candidates fail to apply the command words (also known as action verbs, eg describe,
outline, etc). Command words are the instructions that guide the candidate on the depth of answer
required. If, for instance, a question asks the candidate to ‘describe’ something, then few marks
will be awarded to an answer that is an outline. Similarly the command word ‘identify’ requires
more information than a ‘list’.
 Some candidates fail to separate their answers into the different sub-sections of the questions.
These candidates could gain marks for the different sections if they clearly indicated which part of
the question they were answering (by using the numbering from the question in their answer, for
example). Structuring their answers to address the different parts of the question can also help in
logically drawing out the points to be made in response.
 Candidates need to plan their time effectively. Some candidates fail to make good use of their
time and give excessive detail in some answers leaving insufficient time to address all of the
questions.
 Candidates should also be aware that Examiners cannot award marks if handwriting is illegible.
 The International Diploma in Health and Safety is taught and examined in English. Candidates
are therefore expected to have a good command of both written and spoken English including
technical and scientific vocabulary. The recommended standard expected of candidates is
equivalent to the International English Language Testing System (IELTS) level 7 (very good user).
It is evident from a number of scripts that there are candidates attempting the examination without
the necessary English language skills. More information on the IELTS standards can be found at
www.ielts.org

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UNIT
 IB – International control of hazardous agents in the
 workplace


Section A – all questions compulsory

Question 1 (a) Outline the meaning of the term „work-related violence‟. (2)

(b) Outline a range of practical measures to help reduce violence

towards a nurse who is required to visit patients in their own
home. (8)

Most candidates were able to answer part (a). Part (b) required practical measures
such as familiarising with patient notes prior to the visit to identify previous incidents or
indicators that violence might be more likely. Violence avoidance measures would
include courteous behaviour, diffusing aggression and not carrying valuables.
Violence may escalate, so making provision for a quick exit (vehicle parking, exit
routes) as well as carrying means to call help were also relevant. Some candidates
gave high level, strategic measures, such as policy and procedure development,
rather than practical measures.

Question 2 According to current veterinary and medical opinion, the bacterium E. coli
O157 should be assumed to be carried by all ruminants (cattle, sheep,
goats and deer). In addition, this bacterium can exist for long periods of
time outside the animal (in soil and faeces).

(a) Identify ways in which school children visiting a farm might be

exposed to E. coli O157 bacterium. (4)

(b) Explain a range of practical control measures that should be put

in place to reduce this risk of exposure. (6)

In answering part (a), candidates first had to recognise that the bacterium was
transmissible through hand to mouth contact. Marks were then available for the
various specific examples of how this could happen, such as touching animals and
contaminated surfaces, which could then be transferred to the mouth when eating.

For part (b), there was a range of control measures that could be put in place. One of
the most important is handwashing (ensuring facilities are provided in specific
locations and that children wash their hands properly, especially before eating).
Providing advice on precautions to schools prior to the visit would be a good idea to
make sure children are briefed before arrival. Supervision and signs around the farm
would reinforce this message. Other measures would include cleaning and
disinfection and segregation of eating areas.

This question was often well answered, although a few candidates did not take a
practical view and wrote about eliminating animals, keeping the children away from
animals or extensive use of PPE.

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EXTERNAL
Question 3 A company has decided to close its offices and allow its 30 workers to
work from home. The company will provide each worker with their own
portable (laptop) computer for use at home and on their daily visits to
customers.

Outline factors to consider when selecting and using these laptops to

minimise ergonomic risks. (10)

When selecting a laptop for use on the move, major considerations are size, weight
and ease of transporting. When it is used at home, there are more opportunities to
improve comfort by providing a separate keyboard, mouse, screen and other items.

Since this would be a significant change, relevant risk assessments would need to be
reviewed. Any training provided should focus on assessment of the ergonomic risks
likely to be encountered (on the move and at home) and the associated control
measures to be adopted.

Some candidates answered this as if it were a question about desktop computers

rather than laptops. However, for most, it was a familiar enough subject, given the
widespread use of laptops.

Question 4 The figure below shows an audiogram for an adult worker.

Adult worker audiogram

-10

0
Threshold shift (dB)

10

20

30

40

50

60

70

125 250 500 1K 2K 3K 4K 8K

Frequency (Hz)

(a) Explain what is meant by „threshold shift‟. (2)

(b) Outline the significance of the shape of the audiogram. (2)

(c) Outline the benefits AND limitations of audiometry as part of a

hearing conservation programme. (6)

Part (a) was a knowledge-based question from the element on ‘Noise’. Many
candidates, however, did not recognise the term.

For part (b), there was a tendency to describe the shape of the graph rather than
identify its significance. 4 KHz notch is typical of noise-induced hearing loss.

For part (c), major benefits include that it can identify those with existing problems
(screening) or at least early signs of hearing loss. From an employer’s point of view, it
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EXTERNAL
 may also help defend against civil claims. On the other hand, audiometry requires
some expertise and does not itself prevent hearing damage. The findings might well
encourage employees to pursue civil claims if their hearing is shown to be damaged.
Unscrupulous employees may well abuse this fact by pursuing false claims. There
are numerous other benefits and limitations that could have been (and often were)
outlined.

Many candidates performed well on this last part by being able to outline more
benefits than limitations.

Question 5 Hand-Arm Vibration Syndrome (HAVS) can be caused by frequent and

prolonged use of hand-held power tools.

(a) Identify the signs and symptoms of HAVS. (2)

(b) Outline a range of control measures that could be used to

minimise the risks to workers of developing HAVS when using
such power tools. (8)

Most candidates easily gained the full marks for part (a).

For part (b), candidates outlined that alternative work methods should be considered.
Equipment selection/replacement, based on vibration characteristics, was also
identified as was reducing employee exposure time and equipment maintenance.
‘Vibration reducing gloves’ was all too frequently mentioned as an effective solution.
More relevant would have been the issue of maintaining good blood circulation (warm
clothing, heated handle grips etc). Other measures, such as training and a health
surveillance programme, would also have been relevant.

Question 6 (a) Outline what is meant by the term „biological monitoring‟ AND
give examples where such monitoring may be appropriate. (6)

(b) Outline practical difficulties that an employer must overcome

when introducing a programme of biological monitoring. (4)

For part (a), outlining the meaning of the term should have been straightforward. A
significant number of candidates confused this term, thinking it related instead to the
element on biological agents (bacteria, viruses and microfungi). As a result, examples
were not relevant. In principle, biological monitoring can be appropriate when there is
significant absorption by non-respiratory routes and in circumstances when there is
significant reliance on personal protective equipment. However, there are several
other considerations that could have gained marks too.

Candidates generally faired better in part (b). Biological monitoring would normally
require informed consent and maintaining confidentiality. Depending on the
techniques used, suitable facilities would be needed (and perhaps specialist
personnel), with the associated costs. Sample contamination also needs to be
avoided. There is also little point in carrying out biological monitoring if no agreed
technique exists or the result cannot be interpreted against any recognised standard.

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EXTERNAL
 Section B – three from five questions to be attempted

Question 7 A new health club is planning to install ultra-violet (UV) tanning

equipment. The equipment uses UV sources with a higher intensity than
normal sunlight to accelerate tanning.

(a) Identify BOTH the acute AND chronic effects that could result
from exposure to UV radiation. (4)

(b) Outline control measures that should be put in place for BOTH
workers AND customers for the safe operation of this facility. (12)

(c) Outline TWO other examples of occupational exposure to UV

radiation. (4)

This question presented difficulties only for those who were confused between ionising
and non-ionising radiation.

For part (a) many could easily identify effects such as erythema and cataracts.

For part (b) control measures include taking into account the customer’s individual risk
factors (eg skin type). Workers would need to be made aware of the risks of
exposure to UV radiation and instructed in the operation of the equipment. They would
also need to advise customers on issues such as UV risks and precautions needed.
Other control measures include those associated with the equipment (screening or
enclosure, maintenance), PPE (suitable goggles) and information posters.

For part (c), candidates generally had little difficulty in giving at least one example, an
obvious one being welders undertaking arc welding.

Question 8 (a) Explain why it is difficult to determine whether cancers in the

working population are caused by exposure to substances used
at work. (6)

(b) Outline the merits and limitations of EACH of the following

methods for identifying the carcinogenic potential of a substance:

(i) human epidemiology; (5)

(ii) animal studies; (5)
(iii) in vitro mutagenicity (AMES) testing. (4)

This was quite an unpopular question and generally not well answered. Candidates
who attempted this question, however, easily identified issues of latency and non-
occupational factors in part (a). Other issues were relevant, however, such as the fact
that some people appear more susceptible than others, there are often multiple
causes/contributing factors and some cancers appear in the general population, so
are difficult to associate with specific substances used at work.

For part (b), human epidemiology provides direct evidence in humans and so is the
definitive method. Large populations are needed, however, to give reasonable
assurance and studies may either fail to (or not correctly) diagnose those who develop
cancer. Animal studies are the next best thing in terms of similarity to humans but
there are still issues of extrapolating the results to humans. The AMES test is cheap

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EXTERNAL
 and quick but can be an unreliable predictor of carcinogenicity in man. These are just
some of the main arguments that could have been mentioned.

Question 9 In a chemical process, workers use a mixture that contains two organic
liquids, MMA and PPO. Table 1 below shows the average personal
exposure levels to the organic liquids for one worker measured over an
8-hour day and Table 2 shows the exposure limits for the two
components (MMA and PPO).

Table 1

Task undertaken by worker Duration of Exposure Exposure

task to MMA to PPO
(ppm) (ppm)
Measuring out and adding mixture 15 minutes 70 200
to process vessel
Adding other components to the 1 hour 20 200
mix
Supervision of mixing 2 hours 35 200
Transfer of product to containers 2 hours 40 200

Assume that exposure is zero at all other times.

Table 2

Substance Exposure limit

Long-term exposure Short-term exposure
limit (8-hour TWA limit limit (15-minute
reference period)ort- reference period)
term exposure 15-minute
MMA 50 100
PPO 200 250

(a) Substances in a mixture may interact in different ways to cause

harm.

Outline what is meant by independent, additive and synergistic

interactions. (4)

(b) Using the information in Table 1, calculate the 8-hour Time-

Weighted Average (TWA) exposure of the worker to BOTH MMA
AND PPO. (8)

Your answer should include detailed working to show you

understand how the exposure is determined.

(c) Using relevant information from Tables 1 and 2, explain what

actions might be required by the employer to control exposure.
Assume that the components have independent toxic action. (8)

Part (a) arises in the syllabus under assessment of risk, when account is taken of the
effect of mixtures. The terminology appeared unfamiliar to most candidates who
attempted this question. Independent means the action is on different organs or
tissues (or different mechanism); additive means they act on the same organs/tissues
(or similar mechanism); and synergistic is where the combined effect is considerably
greater than the sum of the individual effects.

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EXTERNAL
 Candidates had few problems with the calculations in part (b), easily evaluating the
MMA concentration as 23.4ppm and PPO as 131.25ppm.

For part (c), candidates needed to note that neither the MMA nor the PPO time
weighted average concentrations exceeded their respective exposure limits (long-term
or short-term). It was important to explain this by reference to the data in the tables.
That established, other actions may still be needed. For example, more
detailed/extensive measurements to confirm the result was true for other areas and
employees. The assumption of independent action may also be invalid, so may
require investigation. Other components are also mentioned (in the second step) and
these might need to be measured. In any case, routine periodic monitoring should be
undertaken going forward.

Question 10 A contractor is hired to fit a noticeboard in a small meeting room in an

office block. This task involves drilling through some asbestos insulating
board.

(a) Outline the diseases caused by exposure to asbestos including

their health effects. (7)

(b) Outline the issues the contractor should consider when

assessing the risk of exposure to asbestos arising from this task. (5)

(c) Outline control measures the contractor should take when

carrying out this task. (8)

For part (a), candidates were expected to outline what the four main asbestos-related
diseases were (mesothelioma, asbestosis, diffuse pleural thickening and cancer of the
bronchus), together with their associated health effects, such as chest pain, breathing
difficulties and spitting up blood.

For part (b), the risk assessment should consider a wide range of issues including the
type of asbestos, whether it was likely to become airborne (and in what concentration)
and the steps needed to prevent or control exposure. These and others are nothing
more than standard risk factors in any hazardous substance assessment. Some
misinterpreted this part of the question and instead provided a method statement or a
list of controls rather than risk factors.

For part (c), candidates generally provided a wide range of items from the hierarchy of
control but often did not give sufficient detail for the marks available. Control
measures would include: limiting numbers of people exposed (various methods to
achieve this); limiting contamination spread; limiting fibre emission at source (work
methods) and capturing fibres that did escape; and use of specific PPE.
Decontamination and training were also relevant.

Question 11 An airborne contaminant has an Occupational Exposure Limit (OEL) of

10ppm, 8-hour Time-Weighted Average (TWA). Engineering controls
have been introduced but the airborne concentration of the contaminant
in a workshop has been measured at 180ppm, 8-hour TWA.

The occupational hygienist has selected an item of Respiratory Protective

Equipment (RPE) with an Assigned Protection Factor (APF) of 20, which
is to be worn temporarily by all workers in the contaminated area.

(a) Using the data above, outline how the occupational hygienist
could have calculated the APF AND whether the hygienist made
an appropriate selection. (4)

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EXTERNAL
(b) Outline other factors that should be taken into account when
selecting appropriate RPE. (6)

(c) When RPE is used it may not provide the level of protection
stated by the manufacturer.

Outline the possible reasons for this. (10)

For part (a), better answers first defined the equation for calculating APFs. From this,
the minimum APF required would be 180/10 = 18, verifying that the hygienist's
selection of 20 was appropriate. There were several alternative ways of presenting
calculations, each of which was given credit. Respiratory protective equipment with a
higher APF might be chosen to provide an increased factor of safety.

For the second part of the question, candidates could have referred to a wide range of
issues such as: the nature of the hazard involved (eg physical form) and of the task
(eg restricted space); whether the RPE was comfortable, durable, maintainable,
compatible with other PPE; the duration for which the RPE needed to be worn; and
factors that might influence fit (eg individual facial characteristics).

For the final part, there are a number of reasons including: inadequate initial
assessment of need (leading to incorrect selection); poor air flow (various reasons);
incorrect or saturated cartridges; inadequate training; poor maintenance/storage; and
damage/fault occurring during use.

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EXTERNAL
The National Examination
Board in Occupational
Safety and Health

Dominus Way
Meridian Business Park
Leicester LE19 1QW

telephone +44 (0)116 2634700

fax +44 (0)116 2824000
email info@nebosh.org.uk
www.nebosh.org.uk