INDIAN POLITY

A Brief Overview of Indian Polity

Before 1947, India was divided into two main entities – The British India which consisted
of 11 provinces and the Princely states ruled by Indian princes under subsidiary alliance
policy. The two entities merged to form the Indian Union, but many of the legacy
systems in British India is followed even now. The historical underpinnings and
evolution of the India Constitution can be traced to many regulations and acts passed
before Indian Independence.
Indian democracy is a Parliamentary form of democracy where the executive is
responsible to the Parliament. The Parliament has two houses – Loksabha and
Rajyasabha. Also, the type of governance is Federal, ie there is separate executive and
legislature at Center and States. We also have self-governance at local government
levels. All these systems owe their legacy to the British administration. Let us see the
historical background of Indian Constitution and its development through years.

CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
• Constitution is a set of fundamental principles.
• The idea of constitution was given by MN ROY.
• The political culture is based on the values enshrined in the constitution.
• It is guided by the institutions established under the constitution.
• The modern political instructions are developed in India during the British rule.
• The origin and the growth of the Indian constitution has its roots in British period
of Indian
History.
THE COMPANY RULE (1773-1857)
Our Constitution and polity are greatly influenced by events that happened during British
rule.
The Regulating Act, 1773
 • To regulate and control the affairs of East India Company by British Government.
• To govern the British ruled territories in India, Governor General was appointed.
• The governor of Bengal was nominated as Governor General of India.
• The first Governor-General was Lord Warren Hastings.
• A Supreme Court was established in Calcutta.
• It prohibited the servants of the company to engage in any private trade.
• It accepted presents or bride from natives.
• Sir Elijah Impey was the first chief Minister.
Pitt's India Act, 1784
• Formed the board of control.
• 2 from British cabinet and 4 from Privy Council were the members of the board.
• A Company in India set-up to guide and supervise.
Charter Act, 1793
• Board members and staff are paid from revenue generated from India.
Charter Act, 1813
• Ended monopoly of trade and paid ₹ 1 lakh
• Tea trade was retained in China.
Charter Act, 1833
• The centralization of British power in India.
• By appointing Governor General of India.
• Lord William Bentinck, the governor of Bengal became governor general of
India.
• The Governor-General was made the Viceroy of India.
• The first viceroy of India was Lord Canning.
• A Dual system of government was ended.
• Then Unitary, rigid and centralised administration was created.
Charter Act, 1853
• A separate Governor of Bengal.
• Legislation was formed first time.
• Employees must be selected through exams.
 • 6 were nominated for crown.
• The court directors were reduced from 24 to 18.
• It was extended that the company's rule retained the possession of Indian
territories.
• It was introduced first time in Indian Legislative Council.
THE CROWN RULE (1857-1947)
Government of India Act, 1858
• The company transferred to the British crown.
• Court of Directors and Board of control were abolished.
• Secretary post was established.
• 15 members were established.
• Secretary of the state was of the British Cabinet.
• The Governor-General was made the viceroy of India.
• Dual system ended.
Indian Councils Act, 1861
• Viceroy's Executive Council.
• Was added by the fifth member.
• The Viceroy nominated some Indians as non-official members.
• Three Indians were nominated in 1862.
• The Executive Council was called Central Legislative Council.
• In 1859, Portfolio System was recognised.
• The work could be distributed among the members.
Indian Council Act, 1909 (Morley Minto Reforms)
• Lord Morley was the Secretary of State for India.
• Lord Minto was Viceroy of India.
• Provinces were expanded.
• It retained an official majority in the Legislative Council.
• Provincial Legislative Council is non-official.
• Communal representation was introduced, because Muslims were given a
separate
 electorate.
• They had reserved seats based on religious ground.
• Satyendra Prasad Sinha, was the first Indian to join in the viceroy's Executive
Council.
The Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms)
• Samuel Montagu was the secretary for Indian States.
• Lord Chelmsford was the viceroy of India.
• They prepared the report to introduce self-governing institutions.
• It relaxed over the provinces by separating the central and the provincial
subjects.
• The powers of the Secretary were drastically reduced.
• In Indian council the number of members must be reduced.
• Executive council members are from India.
• At the first time direct election was introduced.
• And also Bicameral Legislature was introduced by Central Legislature.
• Dyarchy System was introduced.
• The provincial subjects of administration were divided into two categories.
• They are reserved and transferred.
• Transferred subjects were administrated by the Governor with the help of
ministers responsible to the Legislative Council.
• Reserved subjects were administrated by the Governor with his Executive
Council without the help of ministers responsible to the Legislative Council.
Government of Indian Act, 1935
• Dyarchy was established by the provinces and introduced at the federal level.
• The division was made into three lists: Federal, Provincial and Concurrent.
• All India Federation consisting of provinces and Princely states.
• Federation did not come into effect.
• Because, Indian Princely States had not joined the federation.
• Bicameralism had 6 nuts of 11 provinces.
• The Federal Legislature had two chambers.
 • They are the council of the state and Federal Assembly.
• The council of the state was a permanent body with one-third of its members
that retiring every 2 years.
• The governor was given powers to use their discretion.
• Extends the principle of communal representation by separate electors for
depressed classes, women and labour.
• It provided the establishment of the Federal Public Service Commission and Joint
Public Service Commission for two or more provinces.
Cripps Mission Plan, 1942
• Dominion status was proposed.
• Constitution of India made an assembly of their members to be elected by
provincial assemblies and nominated by princely states.
• Provincial states that were not prepared to accept the constitution could
negotiate separately with Britain.
Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
• British India and Indian state forms Union of India.
• Control was given for foreign affairs, defence and communication.
• Above powers were prohibited for province except legislation.
• The Indian provinces were divided into 3 groups.
• A constituent assembly was formed from members of provincial states.
• The members were elected on communal basis by provincial assemblies.
The Indian Independence act, 1947
• Brought an end to British rule in India.
• India became independent on 15th August 1947.
• India became independent from the British Monarchy on August 15, 1947.
• Powers given to the governor general and provincial governors.

MAKING OF THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA

• The constituent assembly was formed in 1946.
• Out of 389 seats, 296 elected represent British India and 93 for princely states.
 • In 296 seats, 292 were elected by Provincial legislatures.
• And 4 by Chief Commissioners of 4 provinces.
• The chief commissioner's provinces are Delhi, Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg and British
Baluchistan.
• 1 princely states of the 93 seats didn't elect a member.
• First meeting held on 9th December 1946 in Dominion of India.
• And reassembled on 14th august 1947.
• Constitution was finalized after 2years, 11 months and 18 days.
• The first resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru (13th December, 1946).
• The same resolution was accepted after debate on 22nd January, 1947.
• Dr. Sachidananda Sinha was the first President elected by a Constituent
assembly.
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad and H.C Mukherjee become President and later Vice
President .
• Sir BN Rau was appointed as Advisor (Constitutional).
• Each province was given one seat.
• And Each Indian state proportional to their population each seat allotted.
• Based on religion and population seats are distributed in each province.
• Each community had its members elected for a constituent assembly.
• And elected by voting with Single transferable vote.
• The constitution was declared passed on 6th Nov, 1949.
• Effective with provisions of Citizenship, Elections and provisional parliament.
• The other provisions become effective on 26th January, 1950.
Drafting Committee
• A Drafting committee was appointed on 29th August, 1947.
• Dr.BR Ambedkar was the chairman of the Drafting Committee.
• He submitted the first draft of a constitution on 21st Feb, 1948.
• And Second draft in October 1948.
Enactment of the constitution
• The constitution was adopted on 26th Nov, 1949.
 • With a Preamble and 395 articles, 8 parts and 8 schedules.
• In 66 years of its enactments, a constitution had undergone 100 amendments.
• At present Constitution have, a preamble, 25 parts, 465 articles and 1 schedule.
Enforcement of the constitution
• The date 26th January, 1950 was chosen for a reason.
• The same day in 1930, the Poorna Swaraj was celebrated.
• The above resolution was passed in the Lahore session (1929) of INC.
Salient Features of the Constitution
• The salient features of the constitution are as follows:
Lengthiest Written Constitution
• It had 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.
Blend of Rigidity and Flexibility
• The Indian Constitution is partly flexible and partly rigid.
• Some provisions can be amended easily and some only amended in both Union
parliament and half state legislatures.
Parliamentary Government
• Parliamentary system has both centre and state governments.
• Union of India is President.
• Head of states is Governor.
Independent Judiciary
• In India there is single integrated and independent judiciary.
• The highest court is the Supreme Court.
• Supreme Court and High Court have been given the extensive power.
Federal System with Unitary Features
• In this, the government like division of powers.
• The large number of unitary features like a strong centre, single citizenship and
flexibility
of constitution are integrated.
Secular State
• The Indian constitution stands for Secular State.
 • All religions in our country have the same rights.
Universal Adult Franchise
• Every Indian citizen above 18 years has a right to vote.
• Emergency provision
• Indian constitution has emergency provisions.
• It becomes powerful amendments of the constitution.

PARTS OF THE CONSTITUTION

Schedules
The constitution of India had only 8 schedules. Later it added 4 more.
• First Schedule - State and UTs.
• Second Schedule - Salaries and Emoluments
• Third Schedule - Oath and Affirmations.
• Fourth Schedule - Allocation of seats in the
Rajya Sabha.
• Fifth Schedule - Administration and control
• Sixth Schedule - Administration of Tribal Areas
• Seventh Schedule - Distribution of Power.
• Eighth Schedule - Languages
• Ninth Schedule - Validation
• Tenth Schedule - Anti Defection Law
• Eleventh Schedule - Panchayat

EVOLUTION OF STATES AND UNION TERRITORIES

Dhar Commission
• The Constituent Assembly was appointed the SK Dhar Commission.
• It was started in June 1948.
• The reorganisation of the state was based on linguistic.
• It has threatened like national Integration.
 • So the Dhar Commission was rejected.
JVP Committee
• In 1948, the congress party in Jaipur appointed three members.
• Its members were Jawaharlal Nehru, Valla Bhai Patel and Pattabhi Sitaramayya.
• These committees rejected language.
Fazl Ali Commission
• Fazl Ali Commission was constituted in 1953.
• It is also known as States Reorganization commission.
• This commission accepts the language and reject the theory of 'one-language-
one state'.
• The States Reorganization Act started in 1956.
• The distinction between states was abolished.
• Some merged with adjacent state and others were designed with Union
Territories.
• At last, in 1st November, 1956 14 states and 6 Union Territories were created.
Reorganisation of States
• In 1956, there were 14 states and 6 union territories.
• Andhra Pradesh in 1953.
• Kerala in 1956.
• Karnataka was created in 1956.
• Bombay was bifurcated into Gujarat and Maharashtra in 1960.
• Nagaland was created as separate states in 1963.
• Haryana was carved out of Punjab and Chandigarh
• And it became a Union Territory in 1966.
• Union Territory of Himachal Pradesh was elevated in 1970.
• Manipur, Tripura and Meghalaya were granted statehood in 1971.
• Sikkim became an associate state in 1974.
• Sikkim became the 36th Constitutional Amendments in 1975.
• Mizoram and Andhra Pradesh came in 1986.
• Goa came in 1987.
 • In 2000 three more new states were introduced.
• The new States are Chhattisgarh, Uttarkhand and Jharkhand.
• Telangana was introduced on 2nd June, 2014.
Union Territories
• Delhi Puducherry is headed by a Lieutenant Governor.
• Daman and Diu, Dadra and Haveli have common admission in Lakshadweep.
• Islands are governed by the Commissioner.
• 69th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1991.
• Delhi was given as the National Capital Territory.

THE PREAMBLE
• The preamble means Introduction or preface of the Constitution or essence of
the constitution.
• Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.
• Justice-Social, Economic and Political.
• Liberty- thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
• Equality-status and opportunity.
• Fraternity-Unity and integrity.
Signification of the Preamble
• It is based on political, moral and religious.
• Constituent Assembly has noble vision.
• It provides a key for Interpretation.
Amendability of the Preamble
• Preamble can be amended under Article 368 or not.
• Keshavananda Bharathi (1973) case was the first to raise a question.
• The subject to the condition has no amendment.
• It has been amended only once so far in 1976.
• The 42nd Amendment is done.
• It added three new words such as Socialist, Secular and Integrity.
• This is valid.

UNION AND ITS TERRITORY

• Article 1 describes India.
• The territory was classified into three categories.
• 1. Territories of the States.
• 2. Union Territories.
• 3. Territories acquired by Indian Government at any time.
• The names of the State and UTs are mentioned in first Schedule.
• It has 29 States and 7 Union Territories.
• The territory of India is a wider expression than the Union of India.
• Article 2 empowers the Parliament.
• The Union of India establishes new States.
• Article 3 authorises the Parliament too
• (a) It forms new State separation.
• It unites two or more States in part of any state.
• (b) Increase the area of any state.
• (c) Diminish the area of any state.
• (d) Alter the area of any state.
• (e) Alter the name of any state.
• A Bill seeking to create new state or alter boundaries.
• The existing states can introduce House of the Parliamentary.
• The president refers the state Reorganization Bill.
• The state Reorganization Bill requires both Houses of Parliament.
• Article 4 provides the Bills under Article 2 and 3.

CITIZENSHIP
• The Indian Constitution deals with citizenship.
• Acquisition of Citizenship
 • A citizen is a person who enjoys full membership of the Country in which he lives.
• In 1955 provides 5 ways of acquiring citizenship.
By Birth
• Every person born in India on or after 26th Jan, 1950 shall be a citizen of India by
birth.
• And not the children of foreign diplomats posted in India and enemy aliens.
• Persons born outside India on or after 26th Jan, 1950, but before 10th Dec, 1992
are
citizens of India if their father was an Indian citizen.
By Registration
• Following categories of people are eligible for registering as Indian Citizen.
• A person of Indian origin, residing in India for 7 years.
• An ordinary resident of Indian origin in Undivided India.
• A person who is married to citizens of India and resident of India for 7 years.
• Minor children of persons, who are a citizen of India.
• A person of full age and capacity, whose parents register as a citizen of India by
naturalisation.
• A foreign national residing in India for 12 years can acquire citizenship.
• By Incorporation Of Territory (Foreign Territory)
• If any new territory becomes part of India then its people are citizens of India.
• Loss of Citizenship.
• The citizenship Act, 1955 also provides modes of losing citizenship.
By Renunciation
• If a person gives up Indian citizenship and acquires citizenship of another
country.
By Termination
• If an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires another country’s citizenship, the Indian
citizenship automatically terminates.
By Deprivation
 • Deprivation of citizenship by the Indian government, if a person is proven Fraud
and Disloyal to the constitution of India.
Overseas Citizens of India (OCI)
• This Act was Started in 2003
• People in India are eligible to register in OCI.
• They can Live and work in India.
• Effective from 9th Jan, 2015.

FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
• Fundamental Rights is a character of rights.
• Fundamental Rights provides protection only against the state action.
• It protects all people without any discrimination.
• It is described in Article 12-35 in part III of Indian Constitution.
Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
Article 14 Equality before law and equal protection of laws.
• It says that the State shall not deny to any person.
• It provides rights to all persons, whether citizen or foreigners.
• Equality before the law is 'Rule of law'.
• The President or the Governor is not answerable for any court.
• No criminal Proceedings shall be instituted.
• No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President or the Governor.
• No civil Proceedings against the President or the Governor.
Article 15 Prohibition of discrimination.
• It says that states shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds of
religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
• There are three exceptions. They are
• Special provision for women and children.
• Advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes.
• Special provision for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Article 16 Equality of Opportunity
 • It does not bind the state for necessary qualification.
• It provides reservation seats for Scheduled Castes.
Article 17 Abolition of untouchability
• Protection of the Civil rights Act in 1955.
Article 18 Abolition of titles
• It prohibits the State from conferring any title.
• It prohibits a citizen of India.
• A foreigner holding any office of profit.
• It trusts under the State.
• No foreigner got the title without the consent of the President.
• No citizen or foreigner holding any office of profit.
Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)
Articles 19 It guarantees six rights for all citizens
• Freedom of speech
• Assemble peacefully without arms.
• Form associations or unions or co-operatives.
• Move freely
• Reside and settle
• Prevention to carry any occupation.
Article 19 Contain rights
• It has 44th Amendment Act of 1979.
• Article 20 Protection and conviction.
• It has three provisions.
No Ex-Post-Facto Law
• (i) Convicted except for violation of a law
• (ii) Law is forced at the time.
No Double Jeopardy
• No person should be punished for the same offence.
No Self-Incrimination
• No accused person may be compelled to witness against himself.
Article 21 protection of life
• It declares that no person should be deprived of his life.
• The Supreme Court has expanded the scope of life.
• (a) Right to live.
• (b) Right to a decent environment.
• (c) Right to livelihood.
• (d) Right to privacy.
• (e) Right to shelter.
• (f) Right to health.
• (g) Right to free education.
• (h) Right to free legal aid.
• (i) Right against solitary confinement.
• (j) Right to speedy trial.
• (k) Right against handcuffing.
• (l) Right against inhuman treatment.
• (m) Right against delayed execution.
• (n) Right to travel abroad.
• (o) Right against bonded labour.
• (p) Right against custodial harassment.
• (q) Right to emergency medical aid.
• (r) Right to timely medical treatment.
• (s) Right not to be driven out of state.
• (t) Right to a fair trial.
• (u) Right to prisoner.
• (v) Right to women.
• (w) Right against public hanging.
• (x) Right to hearing.
• (y) Right to information.
• (z) Right to reputation.
• Right to Education
Article 21
• It requires free and compulsory education.
• The education given to the children’s of age 6 to 14.
• Article 22 Protection against arrest
• No person, who is arrested shall be detained.
• Every person, who is arrested and detained in custody is to produce before the
nearest Magistrate.
• They must be produced within 24 hours.
• Safeguards have some exception.
• It is not available to an enemy alien and a person arrested.
• The detention of a person cannot exceed three months.
• Right Against Exploitation (Articles 23-24)
Article 23 Prohibition of trafficking human beings and forced labour
• It prohibits human trafficking and other forced labour.
Article 24 It prohibits the employment of children below 14 years.
• It does not prohibit their employment in any harmless or innocent work.
• The Child Labours Act started in 1986.
Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)
Article 25 Freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and
propagate religion.
• It says all persons are equally entitled to freedom of rights.
• They can propagate religion.
• The state is empowered by law.
• And can regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political or other secular
activity.
Article 26 Freedom to manage Religious Affairs
• (a) Right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and Charitable.
• (b) Right to manage its own affair
• (c) Right to acquire movable and immovable property.
• (d) Right to administration.
Article 27 Freedom from taxation
• It compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion.
• It maintains religion or religious denomination.
Article 28 Freedom from attending religious instruction
• No religious instructions should be provided in educational institutions.
• It established under any endowment or trust.
• The institution needs instruction.

FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS OF CITIZENS AND FOREIGNERS

Fundamental Rights only for Citizens Fundamental Rights available for
both citizens and foreigners
1. Discrimination on grounds of religion, Equality before law
race , sex or place of birth
2. Opportunity for public employment Protection from offence
Protection has six rights Protection of life
(i) Speech and expression
(ii) Assembly
(iii) Association
(iv) Movement
(v) Residence
(vi) Profession
Protection of language Rights for elementary education
Right of minorities Protection against arrest.
Protection of employee.
Prohibition of employment in factories.
Freedom of conscience.
Freedom of religion.
Freedom of payment taxes.
Freedom of worship.
 • Cultural and Educational Rights(Articles 29-30)
• Articles 29 Protection of interests
• Citizens residing in any part of India.
• No citizen denied admission into any education.
• State receives aid and the language.
Article 30 Right of Minorities
• It grants following rights
• (a) All minorities have the rights to establish and administer educational
institution.
• (b) The state can discriminate against any educational institute.
• A Compulsory educational institution is not restricted.
• This provision was added 44th Amendment Act in 1978.
• This act deleted the right to property as a fundamental right.
Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32-35)
• Dr B.R. Ambedkhar said, Article 32 is the heart and soul of the Constitution.
• The Supreme Court rule is a basic feature of the Constitution.
• It cannot be abridged.
• High court can issue writs of various forms.
• Habeas Corpus.
• In Latin it means 'to have the body of '.
• It is an order issued by the court to a person.
• The court examines the case legally.
Mandamus
• It means 'We need a command'.
• The court has given to the public to perform its official duties.
Quo- Warranto
• It means 'to forbid'.
• It is issued by a higher court to lower court.
• It cannot issue in cases of ministerial office or private office.
• The writ of prohibition can be issued only against Administrative.
Certiorari
• It means 'to be certified' or 'to be informed'
• It is issued by a higher to a lower court.
• It transfers the case pending.
• It is issued on the grounds of excess of jurisdiction.
• It is both preventive as well as curative.
• Limitations on the Enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• Parliament has the power to modify fundamental rights.
• The members of the Armed forces, Police Forces are discharged of their duties.

DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF THE STATE POLICY

• It emerges in part IV of Constitution.
• Dr B.R. Ambedkar described the principles as novel feature.
• The Fundamental rights contain the philosophy.
• Features:
• These are Constitutional instructions to the state in legislative, executive and
administrative matters.
• It resembles the 'Instrument of Instructions'.
• It enumerates in the government of India Act of 1935.
• They promote social and economic democracy.
• They embody the concept of a welfare state.
• They are non-justiciable
• They apply both Union and State government.
• Classification
• The constitution does not contain any classification.
• They are classified into three categories
• Viz socialistic, Gandhian and liberal-intellectual.
Socialistic Principles
• These principles reflect the idea of socialism.
• Article 38
 • It promotes the people by securing socialism permeated by justice.
Article 39
• To secure (a) livelihood of citizens.
• (b) Distribution of material resource.
• (c) Prevention of wealth.
• (d) Equal pay for equal health.
• (e) Prevention of health.
• (f) Development of children.
Gandhian Principles
• These represent the programme of reconstruction enunciated by Gandhi.
• Article 40 - organises village Panchayat.
• Article 43 - promotes Cottage industries
• Article 46 - promotes educational and economic interest of SCs.
• Article 47 - prohibits drinking alcohol, and drugs.
• Article 48 - prohibits the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch.

FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
• The FDs in a Constitution serve as a reminder to the citizen to enjoy their rights.
• Constitution did not contain FDs.
• 42th Constitution Act started in 1976.
List of Fundamental Duties
• It respects the Constitutional ideas.
• It inspires the national struggle for freedom.
• To protect sovereign.
• To promote harmony and spirit.
• The composite culture is rich in heritage.
• It protects to improve rivers and wildlife.
• It provides education for children.
 PARLIAMENT TERMS
UNION EXECUTIVE
PRESIDENT
• The President is the head of the Indian State.
• He is the person who acts as the symbol of unity, integrity and solidarity of our
nation.
Qualification of the President
• He should be the citizen of India.
• He should have completed 35 years.
• He should be qualified for election as a member of Lok Sabha.
• He should not hold any office of profit under the Union or State Government or
local or public authority.
Election of the President
• The President is not elected directly by the people.
• He is elected by the members of the Parliament.
• The President's election is held in accordance with the system of proportional
representation.
• Voting is through secret ballot.
• The candidate who gets 50% vote is considered elected.
• In first phase first preference votes are counted.
• The candidate got quota is declared as elected.
• All disputes are adjudicated by the Supreme Court
• Nomination of President must be supported by at least 50 electors.
• Security deposit for the nomination as President is ₹ 15000 in RBI.
Conditions of President's Office
• He should not be the Member of Parliament or State Legislature.
• He should not hold any other office of profit.
• He is entitled without payment of rent.
• He is entitled to emoluments, allowances and privileges.
 • His emoluments allowances cannot be diminished.
Terms of President
• The President holds office for 5 years.
• He can resign from his office by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice -
President.
• Impeachment of the President
• A President can be impeached for "violation of the Constitution".
• It is initiated by the House of Parliament.
• It is signed by one-fourth members of the House.
• At 14 days’ notice is given to the President.
Vacancy in the President's Office
• On the expiry of his tenure of 5 years by his registration.
• Removal by the process of impeachment.
• By his death.
• An election to fill vacancy.
Powers and Functions of the President
Executive powers
• All action must be taken by the President.
• His or her name should be authenticated.
• He can seek any information.
Legislative powers
• Summon or prorogue the Parliament to dissolve the Lok Sabha.
• Summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of parliament.
• Address in the first section after each general election.
• He can appoint any member Of Lok Sabha.
• Deputy Chairman falls vacant.
• Nomination of 12 members in Rajya Sabha and 22 members of Anglo-Indian
Community in the Lok Sabha.
• The bill sent passed again by the Parliament with or without amendments.
• The President has to give assent to the bill.
 • He can promulgate an ordinance, when the parliament is not in session.
• It is approved in the Parliament within 6 weeks.
• He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time.
Financial powers
• Money bill can be introduced.
• No demand for a grant can be made except on his recommendation.
• The representative presents the annual financial statement.
• He constitutes a finance Commission after every year.
Diplomatic powers
• The international treaties and agreements are negotiated.
• Sends and receives diplomats like Ambassadors, High Commissioners.
Military powers
• Supreme Commander of the defence forces of India Appoints the chiefs of the
Army the Navy and Air Force.
Emergency powers
• It can be Recommended in three forms
• (a) National Emergency
• (b) Constitutional Emergency
• (c) Financial Emergency
POSITION OF INDIAN PRESIDENT
• The Constitution of India has provided for a parliamentary form of Government.

VICE PRESIDENT
• He occupies second highest office in the Country.
• The election is same as for the President.
• All deputes regarding election of VP is adjudicated by the Supreme Court.
Qualifications
• The VP should be a citizen of India.
• He should completed 35 years of age
• He should be qualified for election as a member of Rajya Sabha.
 • He should not hold any office or profit.
Oath
• VP is administrated by the President.
• Conditions Of Office
• He should not be the member of both the Houses.
• He should not hold any office of profit.
• Term of Office
• He can resign at any time by his office by the letter to the President.
• He has held the office for 5 years.
• He can be removed by a resolution of Rajya Sabha agree by the Lok Sabha.
• He can be elected for any number of terms.
Vacancy in Office
• On the expiry of tenure, by his death.
• An election to fill the vacancy must be held before the expiration of the term.
• The newly elected VP remains in office for a full term of 5 years.
• Emoluments He draws his Salary in his capacity as the Ex-officio Chairman of
Rajya Sabha.
• His salary is 125000 per month.
Powers and Functions
• He acts the Ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• His power is equal to the Speaker.
• If the offices of both the President and Vice-President fall vacant by the reason
of death, resignation, removal etc.
• The chief Justice or Judge of the Supreme Court acts as the President.

PRIME MINISTER
• The Prime Minister is the real executive.
• PM is the head of the Government.
Oath, Term, Salary
• President administers to him the oaths of office and secrecy.
 • The term PM is 5 years.
• The salary and allowances are given by the Parliament.
Power and Functions
• In Relation to Council of Ministers (CoMs)
• He guides, directs, controls and coordinates the activities of all the ministers.
• In relation to the President
• To communicate to the president for all decisions.

UNION COUNCIL OF MINISTERS

Appointment of Minister
• Ministers are appointed by the President with the recommendation of the PM.
• The PM and the appointed Minister must be members of either Houses of
parliament.
Oaths and Salary of Ministers
• Salaries are announced by the Parliament.
Deputy Prime Minister
• The post of Deputy Prime Minister is not maintained in the Constitution.
• He occupies a position next to the PM.
Union Legislature
• The Parliamentary form of government ,both in the centre and in the states
• It consists of the President of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
• President is not a member, either House.
Rajya Sabha
• It is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution.
• Its maximum strength is 250.
Lok Sabha
• It is not a permanent body and subject to dissolution.
• Its maximum strength is 552.
• Includes 2 nominated members of Anglo-Indian community.
• 550 members from states and 20 from Union Territories.
 • Present strength of Lok Sabha is 545.
• Its normal term is 5 years.

SUPREME COURT
• Supreme Court stands at the apex of 'Judicial of India'.
• The states establish and Constitution of Supreme Court.
Oath or Affirmation
Tenure of Judges
• It holds office until he attains the age of 65 years.
• Removed from his office by the President.
• Removal of Judges or Impeachment.
• A Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the
President.
• Salaries and Allowances.
• Salary of Chief Justice of India is ₹ 1 lakh.

STATES EXECUTIVE
GOVERNOR
• The Governor is the Constitutional Head of the State.
• The same Governor can act as Governor of more than one state.
• The Governor is appointed by the President.
Qualification
• Must be a citizen of India
• Completed 35 years of age.
• Shall not be a member of both the Houses
• Shall not hold the office of Profit.
TERMS OF OFFICE
• The same person is appointed as the Governor of two or more states.
• Salary of the Governor is ₹ 1.1 lakh per month.
 • Powers and Functions in Relation to Council of Minister (CoMs)
• (a) In Relation of the Governor
• (b) State Council of Minister
• (c) Oath and Salary

STATES LEGISLATURE
• There is no uniformity in the creation of State Legislatures.
• Most of the states have unicameral system.
• Only 7 states have the Bicameral.
Legislative Assembly
• The Legislative Assembly consists of not more than 500 members and not 60
members.
• (a) Legislative Council.
• (b) Composition of Legislative Council
• (c) Membership of the State Legislature.
• Vacation of Seats.
• Double membership.
• Disqualification.
• Resignation.
• Absence.
• Other cases.
• If his election is declared void by a court.
• If he is elected to the office of the President
• If he is appointed to the office Governor of a state.
Speaker of Legislative Assembly
• If he ceases to a member of the assembly.
• If he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker.
• If he is removed by resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the
assembly.
Powers and Duties of Speaker
 • He maintains order and decorum.
• Secret is sitting.
• A bill is a Money Bill or not.
• A member of the assembly.
Chairman of Legislative Council
• If he ceases to be a member of the Council.
• If he resigns by writing to the Deputy Chairman
• If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all council.
• Legislative Procedure.
• A money bill can be introduced.
• Bond to accept any recommendation by the council.
• It can be billed for 14 days from the date of receipt.
• Powers of State Legislatures.
• It participates in the election of President.
• It can remove the council minister.
• It ratifies certain Constitutional Amendments.

HIGH COURT
• Every High Court consists of Chief Justice.
• It does not specify the strength of a High Court
• The president determines the strength of a High Court from the time to time
• The Constitution of India provides a High Court for each state.
• The Amendment Act started in 1956.
• The territorial Jurisdiction of a High Court is co-terminus with the territory of a
state.
• There are 24 High courts in the country.
• (a) Appointment of Judges
• (b) Qualification of Judges
• (c) Oath
• (d) Independence of High Court
 • (e) Jurisdiction and Powers of High Court.

PANCHAYAT RAJ
PANCHAYATS
• Panchayats constitute functional institutions of grassroots governance in villages.
• The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee starts on Jan 1957.
• The PRIs could not develop as it was expected to do so.
• In 1977 the government appointed Ashok Mehta committee.
• LM Singhvi committee (1986) recommended Constitutional Status for local
bodies.
73rd AMENDMENT ACT
• This act was inserted in 1992.
• Salient features
• The terms of the Panchayats are five years unless dissolved earlier.
• Seats shall be compulsorily reserved for scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes.
• There is a Provision of State Finance Commission to review financial position.
• One-third of the seats is reserved for women.
• Three Tier system.
(a) Village Panchayat
• It consists of elected representatives of the people.
• Its membership varies from 5-31.
• The reservation for SC, ST and Women.
• Chairman is Sarpanch is elected in a manner.
• It has to answer Gram Sabha for all its actions.
(b) Block and Panchayat Samiti
• The block consists of 20-60 villages.
• It is governed by the elected members of the Village.
• It is called as Panchayat Samiti.
(c) Zila Parishad
 • Members of the Zila Praishad are elected from the district by direct election.

MUNICIPALITIES
• The constitution of India provides the provision of local self-government.
• The constitution provides for three types.
• Nagar Panchayat-for areas in transition from rural to urban.
• Municipal Council- is for smaller urban area.
• Municipal corporation- is for larger urban area.

MISCELLANEOUS
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
• The constitution of India provides for an independent office of CAG.
• He is the guardian of the public purse and audit.
• His duty is to uphold the constitution of India and laws parliament in the field of
financial administration.
Attorney General of India
• The constitution provides for the office of the Attorney General of India.
• He is the highest officer in the country.
• He is qualified for Supreme Court Judge.
• He is appointed by the President.
• The term of office of the Attorney General is not fixed.
• He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
• Attorney General's duty is to give advice to the Governor of India.
Election Commission
• An independent Election Commission has been established under the
Constitution.
• It was established on 25th Jan 1950.
• Delimitation Commission of India
• Delimitation Commission or Boundary Commission of India.
• The main task of the Commission is to redraw the boundaries.
 • The representation from each state is not changed.
• The commission is powerful body.
• The court law cannot be changed.
NOTA
• The none of the above is an option on the electronic Machines.
• NOTA does not require the involvement of presiding officer.
• It is first used in election Commission.

CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS
• Constitution, parliament has the power of amending.
• Method of Simple Majority - It can be amended by simple majority in matters
relations to citizenship.
• By special Majority Constitutional Amendments must be passed by each
House.
• In the Third Method apart from passing through a special majority in parliament.
• Important Constitutional Amendments
• The First Amendments 1951-related to Fundamental Rights.
• Likewise, there may be hundreds of Amendments.

SOME PARLIAMENTARY TERMS

QUORUM
• A Quorum is the minimum number of members.
• The assembly is to contact the business if that group.
• Quorum for either House is 1/10 of the total number of members of each House
including the presiding officer.
• Penalty- If a person sits or votes as a member of either House of the Parliament.
• He has complied with the requirements of Oath.
• He is not qualified or disqualified.
• The penalty is ₹ 500.
• Parliamentary Privileges-It is the special rights.
• The immunities and exemptions are enjoyed by the two Houses.
• The committees and their members are Privileges are provided by the
Constitution.
• It has two broad categories
• (a) Collective Privileges.
• (b) Individual Privileges.
• Collective Privileges-It can exclude strangers from the proceedings and hold
secret sittings.
• It can make rules to regulate the procedure.
• The Courts are prohibited by committees.
• Individual Privileges-They cannot be arrested.
• It is available only in civil cases.
• They have freedom of speech in Parliament.
• Question Hour-The questions are asked by the members and answered by
ministers.
• These questions are three types.
• A Starred Question-It requires an oral answer.
• Supplementary can be asked.
• An Unstarred Question-It requires a written exam.
• Supplementary can be asked.
• A Short Notice Question-The questions must be asked shorted than ten days.
• Ordinal Question must be asked.
• It is answered orally.
• Zero Hour-The time gap between the question hour and agenda is known as
zero hour.
• The time allotted everyday.
• Questions must be officially asked.
• It has been in existence since 1962.
• Motion-It is a proposal brought before the House for its opinion.
• Adjournment Motion-It leads to setting aside the normal business.
• Call- Attention Motion-A member calls the attention of the minister.
• There is no Call- Attention Motion in the Rajya Sabha.
• There exists a motion called 'motion for papers'.
• Censure Motion-It is moved only in Lok Sabha.
• It can be brought against any minister for the failure of an act.
• The motion must specify the charges against the government.
• No Confidence Motion-It can be moved only in Lok Sabha.
• It needs the support of 50 members.
• A No Confidence Motion, need not to specify the reasons for which it has been
moved.
• It passed the Government has to resign.
• Privilege Motion- A resolution introduced by the opposition.
• Cut Motions- They are moving in the Lok Sabha only.
• They are related to budgetary process which seeks to reduce the amount.
• Lame Duck Session- This refers to the last session.
• He has been elected after the general election.
• Whip-A directive issued by any political party.
• A person may lose the membership of the party.
• If him against the whip or abstains from voting.
• Gerry Mandering -It is a reorganization of electoral districts attempted by the
ruling party.
• Guillotine-Due to lack of time demand for grants to vote.
• House on the last day of the allotted time it is called Guillotine.
• It concludes the discussion on the demands for grants.

INDIAN POLITY: STATIC GK

 PARTS OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION:
Indian constitution contains 395 articles in Parts I to XXII and 12 schedules.

Part Subject Articles

Part I The Union and its territory Art. 1 to 4

Part II Citizenship Art. 5 to 11

Part III Fundamental Rights Art. 12 to 35

Part IV Directive Principles Art. 36 to 51

Part IVA Fundamental Duties Art. 51A

Part V The Union Art. 52 to 151

Part VI The States Art. 152 to 237

Part VII Repealed by Const. (7th Amendment) Act, 1956

Part VIII The Union Territories Art. 239 to 242

Art. 243 to
Part IX The Panchayats
243O

Art. 243P to
Part IXA The Muncipalities
243ZG

Art. 243ZH to
Part IXB The Co-operative Societies
243ZT

Art. 244 to
Part X The Scheduled and Tribal Areas
244A

Part XI Relations between the Union and the States Art. 245 to 263

Art. 264 to
Part XII Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits
300A

Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the

Part XIII Art. 301 to 307
Territory of India

Part XIV Services under the Union and the States Art. 308 to 323
 Part Subject Articles

Art. 323A to
Part XIVA Tribunals
323B

Art. 324 to
Part XV Elections
329A

Part XVI Special provisions relating to certain classes Art. 330 to 342

Part XVII Official Language Art. 343 to 351

Part XVIII Emergency Provisions Art. 352 to 360

Part XIX Miscellaneous Art. 361 to 367

Part XX Amendment of the Constitution Art. 368

Part XXI Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions Art. 369 to 392

Short title, commencement, authoritative text in

Part XXII Art. 393 to 395
Hindi and repeals

PARLIAMENTARY TERMS
Definition Term

The draft of a legislative proposal Bill

Bill passed by both the Houses of Parliament and assented to by

Act
the President

A member of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) Member

A member other than a Minister Private Member

Termination of a sitting of a House without any definite date being Adjournment sine
fixed for the next sitting die

The termination of a session of the House by an order made by the

Prorogation
President under article 85(2) (a) of the Constitution.

The first hour of a sitting of the House normally allotted for asking Question Hour
 Definition Term

and answering of questions

The minimum number of members required to be present at a

sitting of the House or the Committee for valid transaction of its
business. The quorum to constitute a sitting of the House is one-
Quorum
tenth of the total number of members of the House and in respect of
a Committee it is one-third of the total number of members of the
Committee

A self-contained independent proposal submitted for the approval of

the House and drafted in such a way as to be capable of expressing Resolution
a decision of the House.

The vote cast by the Speaker or the Chairman in the case of an

Casting vote
equality of votes on a matter

Deletion of words, phrases of expression for the proceedings or

records of the House (for being defamatory or indecent or Expunction
unparliamentary or undignified)

ARTICLES RELATED TO MPS, MLAS AND MLCS

Article 80
1. The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha to be 250
2. Out of 250, 12 members are nominated by the President and 238 are
representatives of the States and of the two Union Territories.
3. The members nominated by the President are persons having special knowledge
or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art and
social service.

Article 81
1. Limits the maximum strength of the House of the People or the Lok Sabha
to 552.
 2. Out of 552, 530 members are elected to represent the States.
3. Upto 20 members are elected to represent the Union Territories and

Article 331
1. Not more than 2 members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by
the Hon'ble President to the House of People, if, in his/her opinion, that
community is not adequately represented in the House.

Article 170
1. The number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of each State to consist of not
more than 500 and.
2. Not less than 60, members chosen by direct election from territorial
constituencies in the State.

Article 171
1. The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State shall not
exceed one-third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of
that State.
2. The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State shall in no
case be less than 40.

Article 333
Empowers the Governor to nominate one member of the Anglo-Indian community to the
Legislative Assembly of the State if in his opinion the community is not adequately
represented therein.

Fourth Schedule
The distribution of seats of the Rajya Sabha among the States and Union Territories is
detailed in the Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India.

FINANCE RELATED PARLIAMENTARY TERMS

Definition Term

Annual Financial statement of the estimated receipts and Budget

 Definition Term

expenditure of the Government of India for a financial year

The estimate of expenditure in respect of a Ministry/Department not

Demand for
charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, placed for approval
Grant
before the House on the recommendations of the President

A Bill ordinarily introduced each year to give effect to the financial

Finance Bill
proposals of the Government for the following financial year

A bill containing only provisions dealing with all or any of the

matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (g) of Clause (1) of Articel
110 of the Constitution. (Such a bill cannot be introduced without Money Bill
the recommendation of the President and it also cannot be
introduced in the Rajya Sabha

A Bill passed annually (or at various times of the year) providing for
the withdrawal or appropriation from and out of the Consolidated
Fund of India of moneys by Lok Sabha and moneys charged on the Appropriation Bill
Consolidated Fund for the services of a financial year or a part
thereof.

A motion for reduction of a demand for grant by or to a specified

Cut motion
amount

Cut motion can be of three types - Disapproval of policy cut, Economy cut and
Token cut

A grant made by Lok Sabha in advance in respect of the estimated

expenditure of the Government of India for a part of a financial year
pending the voting of Demands for Grants for the financial year. A Vote on Account
Motion for Vote on Account is dealt with in the same way as if it
were a demand for grant.
 IMPORTANT AMENDMENTS TO INDIAN CONSTITUTION
Amendment Year Importance

Reorganization of states on linguistic basis and

7 1956 abolition of Class A, B, C and D states and
introduction of Union Territories.

Adjustments to Indian territory as a result of

9 1960
agreement with Paksitan.

Dadra, Nagar and Haveli included in Indian Union

10 1961
as a Union Territory on acquisition from Portugal.

Goa, Daman and Diu included in Indian Union as a

12 1961
Union Territory on acquisition from Portugal.

The state of Nagaland formed with special

13 1963
protection under Article 371A.

Pondicherry incorporated into Indian Union after

14 1962
transfer by France.

21 1967 Sindhi added as language in the 8th schedule.

Privy purse paid to former rulers of princely states

26 1971
abolished.

36 1975 Sikim included as an Indian state.

Fundamental Duties prescribed, India became

42 1976
Socialist Secular Republic.

Right to Property deleted from the list of

44 1978
fundamental rights.

Defection to another party after election made

52 1985
illegal.

61 1989 Voting age reduced from 21 to 18.

71 1992 Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali added as languages

 Amendment Year Importance

in the Eighth Schedule.

Introduction of Panchayati Raj, addition of Part IX

73 1993
to the Constitution.

74 1993 Introduction of Nagarpalikas and Municipalities.

Free and compulsory education to children

86 2002
between 6 and 14 years.

Bodo, Dogri, Santhali and Maithli added to the list

92 2003
of recognised languages. Service Tax introduced.

1960, 1970, Extension of reservation of seats for SC/ST and

8,23,45,62, 79
1980, 1989, nomination of Anglo-Indian members in Parliament
and 95
2000 and 2010 and State Assemblies.

Substituted Odia for Oriya in the Eighth Schedule

96 2011
to the Constitution

Introduction of Part IXB in the Constitution

97 2012
pertaining to Co-operative Societies

101 2016 Introduction of Goods and Services Tax (GST)

The 42nd amendment was the most comprehensive amendment which had 59 clauses
and carried out so many changes that it has been described as a "Mini Constitution".

The 52nd amendment was the only amendment to be unanimously adopted by the
Parliament.

ADMINISTRATION OF OATH OF OFFICE

S.No. Appointments Administered Oath of Office by

Chief Justice of India or in his absence the

1. President
senior most Judge of Supreme Court.
 S.No. Appointments Administered Oath of Office by

President or some person appointed in that

2. Vice President
behalf by the President.

President or some person appointed in that

3. Judge of Supreme Court
behalf by the President.

Chief Justice of High Court or in his absence

4. Governor
senior most Judge of that court.

Minister in Union Council

5. President
of Ministers

Comptroller & Auditor President or some person appointed in that

6.
General behalf by the President.

President or some person appointed in that

7. Member of Parliament
behalf by the President.

Member of Legislature of Governor or some person appointed in that

8.
State behalf by the Governor.

Minister in State Council

9. Governor
of Ministers

Governor or some person appointed by in that

10. Judge of High Court
behalf by him.

SOME IMPORTANT POLITICAL TERMS

1. Lameduck Government: Is defined as that government which has lost the motion of
no-confidence in the Loksabha and does not have the constitutional authority to run the
government. Still on being asked by the President, such a government has to continue
until alternative arrangements are made. Such a government is referred to as a
lameduck government.
2. Left Parties: Are those parties that adopt a radical political ideology. For instance,
the CPI, CPI(M) and RSP etc.

3. Right Parties: Are defined as those parties which adopt a politically conservative
ideology e.g. the BJP, Shiv Sena etc.

4. Centrist Parties: Are those which adopt a political position which is a via media
between the leftist and the rightist political ideologies.

5. Cut Motion: A motion moved to affect a cut in the Annual Budget. If an insignificant
cut is proposed, such a motion is known as a token cut-motion. It has great political
significance because if it is carried through in the Parliament, the government is under
moral obligation to resign as a consequence.

6. Zero Hour: That time during parliamentary proceedings in the day when any matter
of urgent national importance without any prior notice.

7. Starred Question: Those the answers to which are given orally by the Minister
concerned in the Parliament.

8. Unstarred Questions: The answers to which are given in writing in Parliament by

the Minister concerned.

9. Vote-On–Account: Is passed without discussions pending final approval by the

Parliament if money is required urgently.

10. Guillotine: A motion is said to be guillotined if it is passed without any discussion on

it in parliament in view of urgency of the issue under question.
11. Filibuster: Is a person who, in order to block the passage of a bill in Parliament,
makes a long speech just before voting is going to take place. This term has British
origins. Such a person and such a speech, both are referred to as filibuster.
12. Whip: A whip is a person who regulates the presence and conduct of the members
of a particular political party in Parliament. He is supposed to ensure their presence and
voting on particular days and in a particular manner. Before voting on any matter in
Parliament, an order is issued by the whip to all party MPs. Such an order is also known
as a whip. Under the provisions of the Anti-Defection Law, violating a party whip can
attract disqualification from Parliament. However, as per current provisions, which are
likely to undergo drastic change in future, party splits (i.e. if one-thirds or more
legislators from a particular party leave it and join another one) are not termed as
defections and do not attract penal provisions.

IMPORTANT FACTS
• Constitution of India Contain 395 articles in 22 parts are inserted later
through various amendments.
• There are 12 schedules in Indian Constitution. The title is mentioned for all
articles from 1-395, Separated under various parts and chapters.
• We the people of India, having solemnly resolved to the Constitution of India
into SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST, SECULAR, DEMOCRATIC, REPUBLIC and
to secure to all its citizens.
• The preamble of the Indian Constitution is a part of our new ambitious article
series if Indian Constitution and Polity.
• Nature of India: Sovereign -India is internally and externally sovereign.
• It has a free government, which is directly elected by the people and makes
laws that govern the people.
• No external power can be dictating the government of India.
• Socialist-Socialism as an economic philosophy where the means of
production and distribution are owned by the State.
 • Secular- Features of secularism as envisaged in the preamble is to mean
that the State will have no religion of its own of all persons will be equally
entitled to the freedom of conscience.
• Democratic - Indicates that the Constitution has established a form of
Government which gets its authority from the will of India.
• Republic-The president of India is elected by the electoral for a term of Five
years.
• Indian Institution has much wider significance, but it is not explicitly
mentioned in Indian Institution.
• Constitution, parliament has the power of amending.
• The First Amendments 1951-related to Fundamental Rights.
• Quorum for either House is 1/10 of the total number of members of each
House including the presiding officer.
• The committees and their members are Privileges are provided by the
Constitution.
• It needs the support of 50 members.
• A No Confidence Motion need not to specify the reasons for which it has
been moved.
• It passed the Government must resign.
• Guillotine-Due to lack of time demand for grants to vote.
• House on the last day of the allotted time it is called Guillotine.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER AND EXPLANATION

1. Who proposed an idea to have a constitution in 1934?
[A] Rajendra Prasad
[B] MN Roy
[C] G.K.Gokhale
[D] Shankaran Nair
Answer [B] MN Roy
Explanation: MN roy proposed an idea to have a constitution in 1934.Manabendra
Nath Roy was an Indian revolutionary, radical activist and political theorist. Roy was a
founder of the Mexican Communist Party and the Communist Party of India.

2. On July 21st …………… the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
[A] 1947
[B] 1950
[C] 1949
[D] 1956
Answer [A] 1947
Explanation : The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent
Assembly of India in 1947. The National Flag of India is a national symbol designed in
horizontal rectangular shape. It is designed using three colours such as deep saffron
(top most), white (middle) and India green (lower most). The middle white colour
contains navy blue Ashoka Chakra (means Wheel of Law)in the centre having 24
spokes in the wheel.

3. The constituent Assembly was formed in ………………….. under the sceme

formulated by Cabinet Mission Plan
[A] 1935
[B] 1950
[C] 1947
[D] 1946
Answer [D] 1946
Explanation : The Constituent Assembly which framed the Consitution for Independent
India was set up in 1946.The total strength of the assembly was 389.It’s first meeting on
9th December,1946.

4. The first session of the Constituent Assembly lead by ………………………..

[A] C. Rajagopalachari,
[B] Dr.B.R. Ambedkar
[C] Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
[D] Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer [C] Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation :The first session(Dec 13th ,1946) of the Constituent Assembly lead by
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru which was adopted after considerable deliberation and debate
in the assembly on 22nd January 1947

5. Who was the first president of the Constituent Assembly?

[A] Dr.Sachidananda Sinha
[B] Dr.Rajendra Prasad
[C] Ambedkar
[D] Coomer Mookerjee
Answer [A] Dr.Sachidananda Sinha
Explanation :Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the first elected chairman (temporary) of
Constituent Assembly. Later Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the president and Its
vice-president was Harendra Coomar Mookerjee, a Christian from Bengal and former
vice-chancellor of Calcutta University. Also chairing the assembly’s Minorities
Committee, Mookerjee was appointed governor of West Bengal after India became a
republic.

6. On ………………… the Constitution was declared as passed

[A] 26th November, 1950
[B] 26th November, 1949
[C] 26th January, 1947
[D] 26th Januray, 1950
Answer [B] 26th November, 1949
Explanation : On 26th nov, 1949 the Constitution was declared as passed.The
provisions relating to the citizenship, elections and provisional parliament etc were
implemented with immediate effect.The rest of the provisions came into force on
26th January, 1950.

7. On 29 August, 1947, the Constituent Assembly set up a Drafting Committee under

the Chairmanship of …………………to prepare a Draft Constitution for India.
[A] D P Khaitan
[B] N Gopalaswamy
[C] N Madhava Rao
[D] Dr. BR Ambedkar
Answer [D] Dr. BR Ambedkar
Explanation : On 29 August, 1947, the Constituent Assembly set up a Drafting
Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr.Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution for
India. The committee comprised of a chairman and six other members.

8. ……… under Part I of the constitution deals with the Union and its Territories
[A] Article 5
[B] Article 2-4
[C] Article 1-4
[D] Article 14
Answer [C] Article 1-4
Explanation : Part I of Indian Constitution is titled The Union and its Territory. It
includes articles from 1- 4. Part I is a compilation of laws pertaining to
the constitution of India as a country and the union of states that it is made of. This part
of the constitution contains the law in the establishment, renaming, merging or altering
the borders of the states. Articles under Part I were invoked when West Bengal was
renamed, and for formation of relatively new states such as Jharkhand, Chattisgarh or
Telengana.
9. The constitution of India at the time of adopting had only ……………… Schedules
[A] 8
[B] 10
[C] 6
[D] 12
Answer [A] 8
Explanation: The Indian constitution is the world’s longest constitution.At the time of
commencement; the constitution had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules.

10. The constitution in its current form consists of preamble ….. Parts, ……Articles and
……… Schedules
[A] 25,460 and 10
[B] 25, 465 and 12
[C] 22,448 and 8
[D] 25,448 and 8
Answer [B] 25, 465 and 12
Explanation: Constitution of India has 465 articles in 25 parts, 12 schedules, 5
appendices and 98 amendments.
Parts – The individual Articles of the Constitution are grouped together into the Parts
Schedules – Schedules are lists in the Constitution that categorize and tabulate
bureaucratic activity and policy of the Government.

11. Constitution of India guarantees which of the following to the states of India?
[A] Territorial Integrity
[B] Sovereignty
[C] Right to secede from Union
[D] None of them
Answer: D [ None of them ]
Explanation:The Constitution of India does not guarantee any of the above to the
states.

12. The annual reports of which of the following bodies is NOT caused to be laid before
the Parliament by President of India?
[A] Finance Commission
[B] National Human Rights Commission
[C] Public Accounts Committee
[D] UPSC
Answer: B [ National Human Rights Commission ]
Explanation: A question was asked in 2012 Prelims on this fact that the Parliamentary
Committees present their reports themselves. The Reports and Statements get by
President to be laid before parliament are as follows: 1. Annual Financial Statement 2.
Reports of Auditor General 3. Annual report of UPSC 4. Reports of Finance
Commission 5. Reports of Special officers of SC & ST 6. Report of the Special officers
of Linguistic Minorities and Backward Classes. The report of NHRC is submitted to
Central Government which in turn submits to parliament.

13. Knesset is the name of the parliament of which country?

[A] Israel
[B] Lebanon
[C] Tunisia
[D] Egypt
Answer: A [ Israel ]
Explanation: Knesset is the unicameral national legislature of Israel. As the legislative
branch of the Israeli government, the Knesset passes all laws, elects the President and
Prime Minister, approves the cabinet, and supervises the work of the government. In
addition, the Knesset elects the State Comptroller. It also has the power to waive the
immunity of its members, remove the President and the State Comptroller from office,
dissolve the government in a constructive vote of no confidence, and to dissolve itself
and call new elections. The Prime Minister may dissolve the Knesset. The Knesset is
located in Givat Ram, Jerusalem.

14. With reference to United Nations, the decision that major countries should have veto
power, was taken at which of the following conferences?
[A] Teheran conference
[B] Dumbarton oaks
[C] Yalta Conference
[D] Moscow Conference
Answer: B [ Dumbarton oaks ]
Explanation: The decision that major countries should have veto power was taken at
Dumbarton oaks.

15. In which year, the Government of India had set up the Sarkaria Commission on
Centre-State relations?
[A] 1980
[B] 1983
[C] 1987
[D] 1992
Answer: B [ 1983 ]
Explanation: Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central government
to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central
governments in the country and suggest changes within the framework of Constitution
of India. The Commission was so named as it was headed by Justice Rajinder Singh
Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. The other two members of the
committee were Shri B Sivaraman and Dr SR Sen.

16. Which of the following is the first country in Asia to have large scale
industrialization?
[A] Japan
[B] China
[C] India
[D] Iran
Answer: A [ Japan ]
Explanation: Japan was the first Asian country to witness large scale industrialization.

17. In which year, Congress acted as an opposition party in Indian Parliament for the
first time?
[A] 1975
[B] 1977
[C] 1981
[D] 1998
Answer: B [ 1977 ]
Explanation: Congress party remained in power for thirty continuous years between
independence in 1947 and its first taste of electoral defeat (at the national level) in
1977.

18. With reference to Attorney General and Advocate General, consider the following
statements:
1. Highest Law officer of India is Attorney General
2. Highest Law officer of a State in India is Advocate General
Which among the above statements is/ are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C [ Both 1 & 2 ]
Explanation: While Attorney General is highest law officer of India, Advocate General
is the highest law officer of any state in India. Both of these are constitutonal posts.
19. Which of the following commissions in the British era had made recommendations
for a change in the pattern of dyarchy introduced under Government of India Act,
1919?
[A] Simon Commission
[B] Sapru Commission
[C] Butler Commission
[D] Muddiman Committee
Answer: A [Simon Commission ]
Explanation: The GOI Act 1919 had provided that a commission would be appointed
after 10 years for investigation into the progress of governance scheme of the act.
The Simon Commission was appointed in 1927 {Two years earlier} for the same
purpose. This commission had made recommendations for a change in the pattern of
dyarchy introduced under Government of India Act, 1919.

20. As per plan of Sir Stafford Cripps, it envisaged that after the conclusion of World
War-II:
[A] India should be granted complete independence
[B] India should be partitioned and granted independence
[C] India should be made a republic
[D] India should be given dominion status
Answer: D [India should be given dominion status]
Explanation: The main proposal of Cripps mission was that: “India would be a
dominion associated with the United kingdom”.

21. The jurisdiction covering the Andaman and Nicobar islands falls under the
supervision of __:
[A] A circuit bench of the Bombay High Court at Port Blair
[B] A circuit bench of the Madras High Court at Port Blair
[C] A circuit bench of the Kolkata High Court at Port Blair
[D] A circuit bench of Supreme Court of India at Port Blair
Answer: C [A circuit bench of the Kolkata High Court at Port Blair]

22. Jurisdiction of which among the following high courts covers the Union Territory of
Lakshadweep?
[A] Tamil Nadu High Court
[B] Kerala High Court
[C] Calcutta High Court
[D] Bombay High Court
Answer: B [Kerala High Court]

23. The number of judges can be altered in the Supreme Court by __:
[A] Presidential Order
[B] Parliament by Law
[C] Supreme Court by Notification
[D] Central Government by notification
Answer: B [Parliament by Law]
Explanation: The parliament of India has power to make laws, organizing jurisdiction
and powers of supreme court. The number of judges can be increased or decreased by
the parliament by legislation. There was a Provision in our constitution originally that
there will be a CJ and 7 other judges. This number was raised to 10 in 1956, 13 in 1960,
17 in 1977, 25 in 1985. Later number of judges in the supreme court was raised from 26
(25+1) to 31 (30+1) . Current sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court is thus 31.

24. How long a person should have practiced in a High Court to be eligible to be
appointed as a Judge of Supreme Court of India?
[A] 10 Years
[B] 12 Years
[C] 15 Years
[D] 20 Years
Answer: A [10 Years]
25. Via which among the following amendments of the Constitution of India, Delhi was
designated as National Capital Territory (NCT)?
[A] 63rd Amendment Act
[B] 69th Amendment Act
[C] 74th Amendment Act
[D] 76th Amendment Act
Answer: B [69th Amendment Act]

26. In India, a three tier Panchayat is envisaged for states which have a population
above__:
[A] 15 Lakhs
[B] 20 Lakhs
[C] 25 Lakhs
[D] 30 Lakhs
Answer: B [20 Lakhs]

27. With reference to the executive power in a state in India, which among the following
statements is / are correct?
1. Executive power of the state is vested in Governor
2. Real executive authority in a state is Council of Ministers
3. All executive decisions in a state are taken in the name of Chief Minister
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: A [Only 1 & 2]
Explanation: Third statement is not correct because executive decisions in a state are
taken in the name of Governor.
28. Who among the following can dismiss Governor of a state from his office?
[A] State Legislative Assembly
[B] Parliament
[C] President
[D] None of them
Answer: C [President]

29. Consider the following official languages of India:

1.Sindhi and Nepali
2.Konkani and Manipuri
3.Bodo and Santhali
4.Santhali and Konkani
5.Dogri and Maithili
Which of the above languages were added to the 8th Schedule by the 92nd
Amendment Act of 2003?
[A] 1 and 2
[B] 2 and 3
[C] 3 and 5
[D] 4 and 5
Answer: C [3 and 5]

30. Consider the following Indian Religious Communities:

1.Sikhs
2.Buddhists
3.Jains
4.Parsis
Which among the above have been conferred the ‘minority’ status by the Government of
India?
[A] 1 and 4
[B] 1, 2 and 4
[C] 2, 3 and 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B [1, 2 and 4]

31. The system of judicial review originated in

[A] Gemany
[B] India
[C] Russia
[D] U.S.A.
Answer : [D] U.S.A
Explanation: Judicial review is the doctrine under which legislative & executive actions
are subject to review (and possible invalidation) by the judiciary. It is an example of the
separation of powers in a modern governmental system (where the judiciary is one of
three branches of government). Is is one of the main characteristics of government in
the Republic of the United States. In the United States, federal & state courts (at all
levels, both appellate & trial) are able to review & declare the "constitutionality", or
agreement with the Constitution (or lack there of) of legislation that is relevant to any
case properly within their jurisdiction. In American legal language, "judicial
review" refers primarily to the adjudication of constitutionality of statutes, especially by
the Supreme Court of the United States.

32. Which of the given legislation gives constitutional status to three-tier Panchayati Raj
system -
[A] 73rd constitutional amendment, 1993
[B] 72nd constitutional amendment, 1992
[C] 74th constitutional amendment, 1993
[D] 75th constitutional amendment, 1994
Answer: [A] 73rd constitutional amendment, 1993
Explanation: 73rd constitutional amendment, 1993.The philosophy of Panchayat
Raj is deeply steeped in tradition & culture of rural India & is by no means a new
concept. April 24,1993 is a red- letter day in the history of Panchayati Raj in India as on
this day the constitution (73rd Amendment) Act,1992 came into force to provide
constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions. Panchayati Raj provided a
system of self-governance at the village level, however, it did not have a constitutional
status.
33. Under which among the given circumstances, the Governor can reserve a
state bill for the consideration of the President -
1. If it is ultra vires.
2. It it is opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
3. If it endangers the position of the state High Court.
4. If it is dealing with the compulsory acquisition of property under
Article 31 - A.
[A] 1, 2, 3 & 4
[B] 1, 2 & 3
[C] 2, 3 & 4
[D] 1, 3 & 4 State Govt.
Answer: [A] 1, 2, 3 & 4

34. One of the following is not the function of the municipalities under 74th Amendment
[A] Economic and social planning
[B] Construction of buildings
[C] Water supply
[D] Fisheries
Answer: [D] Fisheries

35. How does the Constitution of India describe India as -

[A] A Union of States
[B] A federation of States & Union Areas
[C] Bharatvarsh
[D] A federated nation
Answer: [A] A Union of States
Explanation: A Union of States.With its adoption, the Union of India officially became
the modern & contemporary Republic of India & it replaced the Government of India Act
1935 as the country's fundamental governing document. The Constitution declares India
to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic, assuring its citizens of
justice, equality, & liberty, & endeavours to promote fraternity among them.

36. The 1st State in India to implement Panchayati Raj System was
[A] Rajasthan
[B] Punjab
[C] Gujarat
[D] Uttar Pradesh
Answer: [A] Rajasthan
Explanation: Rajasthan.In October 1957, the Balwant Rai Mehta committee
suggested the organization of Panchayati Raj in rural India. The National Development
council accepted the recommendations of Balwant Rai Mehta committee in 1958. It
recommended the creation of the three tier Panchayati Raj- Panchayats at the village
level, Panchayat Samities at the block level & Zila Parishads at the district level.
On October 2, 1959, Rajasthan became the 1st State to establish Panchayati Raj
system. Thereafter, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab, West Bengal, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh,
Orissa, Bihar, Kerala, J & K, Himachal Pradesh & in fact all states introduced
Panchayati Raj in their respective areas by passing necessary laws.

37. While appointing a Lokayuka, the Governor in most of the states consults:
1. President of India
2. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
3. Leader of the opposition in the Legislative Assembly
4. Chief justice of the State High Court.
5. Leader of the Opposition in the Legislative Council.
[A] 1, 2 & 4
[B] 1, 4 & 5
[C] 3, 4 & 5
[D] 3 & 4
Answer: [D] 3 & 4

38. Which of the following article empowers the President to call for joint sitting of both
houses?
[A] Art 102
[B] Art 101
[C] Art 108
[D] Art 110
Answer: [C] Art 108

39. Which among the given exercised the most profound influence in framing the Indian
Constitution -
[A] US Constitution
[B] British Constitution
[C] Irish Constitution
[D] The Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: [D] The Government of India Act, 1935
Explanation: The most profound influence was exercised by the Government of India
Act of 1935. Such features as the federal scheme, office of governor, power of federal
judiciary, emergency powers etc were drawn from this Act. The British practice
influenced the lawmaking procedures, rule of law, system of single citizenship, besides,
of course, the model of a parliamentary government. The US Constitution inspired
details on the independence of judiciary, judicial review, fundamental rights, & the
removal of Supreme Court & High Court judges. The Irish Constitution was the source
of the Directive Principles, method of Presidential elections, & the nomination of
members of Rajya Sabha by the President.

40. Which among the given is not an administrative function of a Village

Panchayat -
[A] Providing burial & cremation grounds
[B] Providing sanitation & drainage
[C] Providing college education
[D] Maintenance of roa
Answer: [C] Providing college education
Explanation: Providing college education.Some of the functions of a Gram Panchayat
are: collection of taxes like house etc; promotion of educational, health, agriculture
& communication facilities; providing health & drinking water facilities whenever the
village people need; produce authentic documents regarding birth, death or property
details of village people; look after general welfare & immediate development

41. Which of the following Statements is correct regarding the Election Commission of
India?
[A] It is an independent and statutory body.
[B] It consists of members having a tenure of six years.
[C] It acts as a court for arbitration of disputes related to granting of recognition to
political parties.
[D] Being an all-India body, it is also concerned with the elections with the elections to
Gram Panchayats and State Muncipalities.
Answer: B [It consists of members having a tenure of six years.]

42. Consider the following Articles of the Constitution of India:

1. Article 72 – Pardoning power of the president
2. Article 143 – Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court
3. Article 360 – Provisions relating to Financial Emergency
4. Articles (148-151) – Powers and functions of the Attorney General of India
Which among the above Articles are paired correctly with their respective provisions?
[A] 1 and 3
[B] 1, 2 and 3
[C] 1, 2 and 4
[D] All of them
Answer: B [1, 2 and 3]
Explanation: Article (148-151) are relating to the powers and functions of the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

43. Which of the following is not one of the grounds for disqualification for being elected
as a Member of Parliament?
1. If the person holds an office of profit under the State Government.
2. If the person has voluntarily acquired citizenship of a foreign State.
3. If a person is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.
4. If the person has/had been detained under the Preventive Detention Law.
Choose the correct option:
[A] Only 2
[B] Only 4
[C] 1 and 4
[D] 1,2 and 4
Answer: B [Only 4]
Explanation: Article 102: Disqualifications for being elected as an MP:
(1) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either
House of Parliament-
(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government
of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its
holder;
(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;
(c) if he is an undischarged insolvent;
(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a
foreign State, or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a
foreign State;
(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament, explanation For
the purposes of this clause a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit
under the Government of India or the Government of any State by reason only that
he is a Minister either for the Union or for such State.
(2) A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of Parliament if he
is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.

44. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and
control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in the four states of :
[A] Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland
[B] Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
[C] Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
[D] Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland
Answer: B [Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram]
Explanation: The 5th Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and
control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state, except in the 4 states of
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram which has been dealt separately in 6th
Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

45. Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has to be amended to
provide for the formation of a new State ?
[A] First Schedule
[B] Second Schedule
[C] Third Schedule
[D] Ninth Schedule
Answer: A [First Schedule]

46. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court of India to adjudicate
disputes between the Centre and the States through:
[A] Appellate Jurisdiction
[B] Original Jurisdiction
[C] Advisory Jurisdiction
[D] Writ Jurisdiction
Answer: B [Original Jurisdiction]
47. Which of the following is a part of the electoral college for the Election of the
President but does not participate in the proceedings for his/her impeachment?
[A] Lok Sabha
[B] Rajya Sabha
[C] State Legislative Assemblies
[D] State Legislative Councils
Answer: C [State Legislative Assemblies]

48. The Swaran Singh Committee recommended :

[A] The Constitution of State-Level Election Commissions.
[B] Panchayati-Raj reforms.
[C] Inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.
[D] Interlinking of himalayan and peninsular rivers.
Answer: C [Inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.]
Explanation: In 1976, the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee
to make recommendations about fundamental duties, the need and necessity of which
was felt during the operation of the internal emergency (1975-1977). The committee
recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on fundamental duties in the
Constitution. It stressed that the citizens should become conscious that in addition to
the enjoyment of rights, they also have certain duties to perform as well. The Congress
Government at Centre accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976. This amendment added a new part, namely,
Part IVA to the Constitution.

49. Which Indian State has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled
Tribes in the Lok Sabha?
[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Rajasthan
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Gujarat
Answer: A [Madhya Pradesh]

50. Arrange the following functionaries/officials in their respective order of precedence-

1.Governors of states (within their respective states)
2.Former Presidents, Deputy Prime Minister
3.Cabinet Ministers of the Union, Leaders of Chief Opposition in the Rajya Sabha and
Lok Sabha
[A] 1-2-3
[B] 2-1-3
[C] 3-2-1
[D] 2-3-1
Answer: A [1-2-3]

51. Which one of the following items/Subjects belongs to the Concurrent list of the VIIth
Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
[A] Public Health and Sanitation
[B] Forests
[C] Stock Exchanges
[D] Agriculture
Answer: B [Forests]

52. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in :
[A] Lok Sabha only
[B] Rajya Sabha only
[C] Either of the two houses of the Parliament
[D] Joint Sitting of the two houses of the Parliament
Answer: B [Rajya Sabha only]

53. The Department of Border Management is a department under which of the

following Union Ministries?
[A] Ministry of Defence
[B] Ministry of Home Affairs
[C] Ministry of External Affairs
[D] Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
Answer: B [Ministry of Home Affairs]

54. Which of the following is the largest Lok Sabha constituency (Areawise)?
[A] Arunachal West
[B] Ladakh
[C] Barmer
[D] Kutch
Answer: B [Ladakh]
Explanation: The top five area-wise constituencies are- Ladakh (173,266 sq km),
Barmer (71,601 sq km), Kutch (41,644 sq km), Arunachal West (40,572 sq km) and
Arunachal East (39,749 sq km

55. Which of the following Indian States have a Bicameral Legislature?

1.Uttar Pradesh
2.Bihar
3.Chattisgarh
4.Jammu and Kashmir
[A] 1 and 2
[B] 2 and 4
[C] 1, 2 and 3
[D] 1, 2 and 4
Answer: D [1, 2 and 4]

56. Andaman and Nicobar( Protection of Aboriginal tribes )Amendment Regulation 2012
has been promulgated under Article 240 of the Constitution, which empowers the
President to take such measures for the protection of Aboriginal tribes in case of Union
Territories. This regulation will protect which of the following tribes?
[A] Onges
[B] Shompens
[C] Sentilese
[D] Jarawas
Answer: D [Jarawas]

57. Who among the following operates the National Disaster Response Fund which was
constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] Union Minister for Home Affairs
[C] Union Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
[D] Union Minister for Environment and Forests
Answer: B [Union Minister for Home Affairs]

58. Which of the following are among the taxes levied exclusively by the Central
Government and are mentioned in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
1. Corporation Tax
2.Taxes on advertisement in the newspapers
3.Taxes on Agricultural income
4.Taxes on consumption/sale of electricity
[A] Only 2
[B] Only 4
[C] 1 and 2
[D] 3 and 4
Answer: C [1 and 2]
Explanation: Taxes on Agricultural income and Taxes on consumption/sale of
electricity are levied by the State Governments.

59. The Non-Votable charges or ‘Charged Expenditure’ included in the Union Budget
include :
1.Salary and Allowances of the Presiding Officers of the houses of Parliament.
2.Salary and Allowances of the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
3.Salary and Allowances of the CAG.
4.Pension of the retired Judges of the Supreme Court.
5.Pension of the retired Judges of High Courts.
Select the option(s) which is/are correct?
[A] 1 and 2
[B] 1, 2 and 3
[C] 1, 2, 3 and 4
[D] All of them
Answer: D [All of them]

60. Unaided minority institutions have been excluded from the ambit of RTE Act due to
which of the following fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution:
[A] Article 16
[B] Article 19(1)(c)
[C] Article 29
[D] Article 30(1)
Answer: D [Article 30(1)]

61. Article 20 of the Indian Constitution is an important fundamental right as it provides

protection in respect of conviction for offences. The safeguard which is not provided to
the persons accused of crime under Article 20 is :
[A] Ex-Post facto law
[B] Double jeopardy
[C] Prohibition against self-incrimination
[D] Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours
Answer: D [Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours]
Explanation: Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours is a safeguard
against arbitrary arrest and detention provided under Article 22.
62. The Election Commission of India is not concerned with the elections of /to the :
[A] President
[B] Vice President
[C] Panchayats and Municipalities in the State
[D] All of the above
Answer: C [Panchayats and Municipalities in the State]
Explanation: The Election Commission has the power of superintendence, direction
and control of elections to the Parliament, State legislatures, President and Vice
President.

63. Article 123 of the Indian Constitution provides for:

[A] The Ordinance Making power of the President
[B] Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
[C] Special Status of Jammu and Kashmir
[D] An Election Commission to hold free and fair elections in the country.
Answer: A [The Ordinance Making power of the President]

64. President can proclaim National Emergency under Article 352 in the entire country
or in any part of it, on the grounds of :
[A] External Aggression
[B] Armed Rebellion
[C] Internal Disturbance
[D] Both [1] and [2]
Answer: D [Both [1] and [2]]
Explanation: The term ‘armed rebellion’ did not exist in the original constitution but was
inserted by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978) replacing the original term
‘internal disturbance.

65. Which of the following writs literally means ‘We Command’ ?

[A] Habeas Corpus
[B] Mandamus
[C] Quo Warranto
[D] Certiorari
Answer: B [Mandamus]

66. Which of the following High Courts has the largest jurisdiction in the country?
[A] Bombay High Court
[B] Guwahati High Court
[C] Allahabad High Court
[D] Calcutta High Court
Answer: B [Guwahati High Court]

67. For which of the following bills, there is no constitutional provision for a joint sitting of
both the houses of the Parliament to resolve a deadlock ?
[A] Ordinary bill
[B] Money bill
[C] Constitution Amendment Bill
[D] Both 2 & 3
Answer: D [Both 2 & 3]

68. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Prime Minister’s Office
(PMO)?
[A] It is a statutory body.
[B] It is a staff agency to the Prime Minister.
[C] It has been given the status of a department.
[D] It has no attached and subordinate office under it.
Answer: A [It is a statutory body.]
Explanation: PMO is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body.

69. Many key features of the constitution such as the federal structure of government,
provincial autonomy, a bicameral central legislature and the principle of separation of
powers, are directly taken from:
[A] Nehru Report of 1928
[B] Government of India Act, 1919
[C] Government of India Act, 1935
[D] Indian Independence Act, 1947
Answer: C [Government of India Act, 1935]

70. Which of the following is not one of the official languages mentioned in the VIIIth
Schedule?
[A] Persian
[B] Sanskrit
[C] Kashmiri
[D] Nepali
Answer: A [Persian]

71. The 8th schedule of Constitution of India , originally had how many languages?
[A] 12
[B] 14
[C] 16
[D] 22
Answer: B [14]
Explanation: The Constitution listed fourteen languages — Assamese, Bengali,
Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil,
Telugu, and Urdu — in Eighth Schedule, in 1950. Since then, the list has been
expanded thrice, once to include Sindhi, second time to include Konkani, Manipuri and
Nepali and yet again to add four more languages — Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and Dogri
— bringing total to 22 scheduled languages. The claims of many more languages for
inclusion is under consideration.

72. What is the difference between Union Legislature and Parliament of India ?
[A] Union Legislature consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, Parliament consists of
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President
[B] Union Legislature consists of Lok Sabha only, Parliament Consists of Lok Sabha
and Rajya Sabha
[C] Union Legislature consists of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President, Parliament
consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
[D] There is no difference between the two
Answer: D [There is no difference between the two]

73. The implied right to privacy is a part of the right to “life” and “personal liberty”
enshrined under which among the following articles of Constitution of India?
[A] Article 18
[B] Article 19
[C] Article 20
[D] Article 21
Answer: D [Article 21]

74. Consider the following:

1. The Territorial Waters
2. Continental Shelf
3. Exclusive Economic Zone
Which among the above are included in the “definition” of “India” for the purpose of
Budget and Finance?
[A] Only 1
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: D [1, 2 & 3]
Explanation: Prior to Finance Act 2007, India was defined to include the Union
territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Goa, Daman and Diu, and Pondicherry. Now,
India has been defined to mean India as defined in Article 1 of the Constitution of India,
its territorial waters, seabed and subsoil underlying such waters, continental shelf,
exclusive economic zone or any other maritime zone as referred to in The Territorial
Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and Other Maritime Zones Act,
1976, and the airspace above the territory and territorial waters of India.

75. Circuit bench of the Supreme Court of India is located at?

[A] Mumbai
[B] Calcutta
[C] Chennai
[D] None of them
Answer: D [None of them]

76. As per which among the following articles, President of India has power to grant
pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or
commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence?
[A] Article 70
[B] Article 72
[C] Article 74
[D] Article 76
Answer: B [Article 72]

77. ” Maulana Azad National Fellowship scheme” is available in India for the students of
which among the following?
[A] Muslims
[B] BPL Families of Muslims
[C] BPL Families of 5 Notified Minorities
[D] 5 Notified Minorities
Answer: D [5 Notified Minorities]

78. The Integrated Action Plan (IAP) is aimed at bridging the development deficit in the
extremely backward areas that are affected by ______.
Choose the most correct option:
[A] Drought
[B] Terrorism
[C] Left Wing Extremism
[D] Widespread Poverty
Answer: C [Left Wing Extremism]
79. “Prime Minister’s 15 Point Programme” in India is related to which among the
following segments of society?
[A] BPL families
[B] Minorities
[C] Unemployed Poors
[D] Rural Old Age people
Answer: B [Minorities]

80. 14th September, 1949 Constitution-makers of the country decided to accord the
status of _________ to Hindi.
Choose the most correct option:
[A] National Language of India
[B] Official Language of India
[C] Official Language of Union
[D] National Language of Union
Answer: C [Official Language of Union]

81. Who among the following heads the National Integration Council in India?
[A] President
[B] Vice president
[C] Prime Minister
[D] A retired Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Answer: C [Prime Minister]

82. Consider the following:

 1. Constitution of India
2. An act by the parliament
The problem of “Bonded Labour” has been addressed by which among the above?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C [Both 1 & 2]
Explanation: The Constitution of India under Article 23(1) prohibits ‘begar’ and other
similar forms of forced labour. The bonded labour system was abolished by law
throughout the country w.e.f. from 25th October, 1975 under the Bonded Labour
System (Abolition) Ordinance which was replaced by Bonded Labour System (Abolition)
Act, 1976. It extends to the whole of India. As per the Act, no person is allowed to make
an advance under or in pursuance of the bonded labour system and no one can compel
any person to render any bonded labour or other form of forced labour.

83. Consider the following:

1. Preamble
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Fundamental Duties
4. Directive Principles of State Policy
The principle of gender equality is enshrined in which among the above parts of Indian
Constitution?
[A] Only 1
[B] 1& 2
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: D [1, 2, 3 & 4]
Explanation: All of above parts talk about Gender equality. Constitution not only
guarantees equality to women, but also empowers the State to adopt measures of
positive discrimination in favor of women. Please note that Fundamental duties speak to
renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women, which leads to an implicit idea
rather than explicit declaration.

84. Which among the following acts has not been enacted by parliament of India?
[A] AFSPA
[B] POTA
[C] MCOCA
[D] FEMA
Answer: C [MCOCA]

85. 7, Race Course Road, the official residence of Indian Prime Minister is commonly
known as ___?
[A] Anugraha
[B] Chitrakoot
[C] Panchavati
[D] PM Niwas
Answer: C [Panchavati]

86. Which among the following terms does not get a place in Constitution of India?
[A] Attorney General
[B] Comptroller and Auditor General
[C] Budget
[D] Cabinet
Answer: C [Budget]

87. Which among the following is the basic territorial unit of Administration in India?
[A] Revenue Division
[B] Tehsil
[C] District
[D] Village
Answer: C [District]
88. Who among the following has written the book titled ‘The Perils of Democracy’?
[A] P. S. Ramamohan Rao
[B] P. C. Alexander
[C] Gurudas Kamat
[D] Shankar Dayal Sharma
Answer: B [P. C. Alexander]

89. Which among the following committee is known for recommending a 3-tier
Panchayati Raj System which includes Zila Parishad at the District Level, Panchayat
Samiti at the Block/ Tehsil/ Taluka Level and Gram Panchayat at the Village Level?
[A] Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
[B] Ashok Mehta Committee
[C] GVK Rao Committee
[D] Sarkaria Commission
Answer: A [Balwant Rai Mehta Committee]

90. Which among the following was the smallest state among the Part A, B, C & D
states after India’s independence?
[A] Travancore Cochin
[B] Delhi
[C] Bilaspur
[D] Coorg
Answer: C [Bilaspur]

91. Consider the following:

1. Right to Life & Liberty
2. Right to Freedom of Religion
3. Equality before law
4. Freedom of speech and expression
Which among the above can NOT be claimed by foreigners in India?
[A] 2 & 4
[B] Only 2
[C] Only 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: C [Only 4]
Explanation: The Fundamental rights in the article 15, 16 and 19 are available to Indian
Citizens only. Accordingly, the Freedom of speech and expression is guaranteed only to
Citizens of India. Further, Freedom of speech and expression is not absolute. As of
now, there are 8 restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression. These are in
respect of the sovereignty and integrity of the country. These 8 restrictions were –
1.Security of the state, 2.Friendly relations with foreign states, 3.Public Order,
4.Decency or morality , 5.Contempt of Court , 6.Defamation, 7.Incitement to offence,
8.Sovereignty and integrity of India, These 8 restrictions were embodied in their current
form in the constitution First Amendment Bill 1951, which was necessitated by Romesh
Thapar v. State of Madras (1950)
92. Legislative Powers of the State of Jammu & Kashmir don’t extend to the matters
with respect to which the Parliament has power to make laws for the states under
Constitution of India. The above provision finds its place in which among the following?
[A] Constitution of India part VI
[B] Constitution of India, article 370
[C] Constitution of India, article 238
[D] Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir
Answer: D [Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir]

93. Consider the following duties of the state:

1. To make legislations for workers participation in management of undertakings
2. Protection of Minorities
3. Protection of the Environment
4. Uniform Civil Code
Which among the above have been enshrined in Directive Principles of State Policy?
[A] 1, 2 & 3
[B] 2, 3 & 4
[C] 1, 2, 3 & 4
[D] 1 & 2
Answer: C [1, 2, 3 & 4]
Explanation: Article 43A. To make legislation for workers participation in management
of undertakings
Article 46. Protection of Minorities
Article 48A. Protection of the Environment
Article 44. Uniform Civil Code
Article 43A and 48A were inserted by Constitution [Forty-second Amendment] Act, 1976

94. The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by the Legislatures of
various provinces and nominated by the rulers of the princely states. Why the members
of the Constituent Assembly were NOT directly elected?
[A] Congress as well as Muslim League had demanded the election of the members of
Constituent assembly members via this method only
[B] There was an array of disagreements with the Cabinet Mission amongst the different
sections in India and formation was Constituent Assembly by directly elected members
was not possible.
[C] The People of India had already given a mandate to create a Constituent Assembly
from the elected members of Legislatures of various provinces
[D] The Princely states had objected for direct elections for the members of the
Constituent assembly
Answer: B [There was an array of disagreements with the Cabinet Mission
amongst the different sections in India and formation was Constituent Assembly
by directly elected members was not possible.]
Explanation: When the Labor Government under Clement Atlee came under power in
1940s, there was a change in the Indian policy of Britain. The government of Clement
Atlee had appointed the Cabinet Mission to look into the matter of Constituent assembly
for India. There was an array of disagreements with the Cabinet Mission amongst
different sections of India and this was the primary reason that the formation of
Constituent assembly by directly elected members was not possible. Since, Jinnah and
the Muslim league wanted two Constituent assemblies one for India and one for Future
Pakistan, it was decided that the a Constituent assembly is to be formed by the newly
elected legislators of the Provincial assemblies. Thus, based upon this premise, the
provinces were grouped into three regions viz. Predominantly Hindu, Predominantly
Muslim and those where both were almost equal in number.

95. Who among the following determines the qualifications which shall be requisite for
appointment as members of the Finance Commission in India?
[A] President of India
[B] Council of Ministers
[C] Parliament by an act
[D] Union Cabinet
Answer: C [Parliament by an act]
Explanation: Article 280 (2) (2) Parliament may by law determine the qualifications
which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the
manner in which they shall be selected. In context with the above article, the parliament
enacted the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1951

96. Which among the following is a correct definition of the Political Party in India?
[A] Political party means an association or a body of individual citizens of India
registered with the Election Commission as a political party under provisions of Article
324 of Constitution of India
[B] Political party means an association or a body of individual citizens of India notified
as a Political party by the Election Commission of India
[C] Political party means an association or a body of individual citizens of India which
has been able to secure certain number of votes as prescribed by the Election
Commission
[D] Political party means an association or a body of individual citizens of India
registered with the Election Commission as a political party under provisions of Section
29A of Representation of People Act, 1951
Correct Answer: D [Political party means an association or a body of individual
citizens of India registered with the Election Commission as a political party
under provisions of Section 29A of Representation of People Act, 1951]
Explanation: Section 29A of Representation of People Act, 1951 says- Registration
with the Election Commission of associations and bodies as political parties. — 1. Any
association or body of individual citizens of India calling itself a political party and
intending to avail itself of the provisions of this Part shall make an application to the
Election Commission for its registration as a political party for the purposes of this Act.

97. Consider the following:

1. Constitution (106th Amendment) Bill, 2006
2. Constitution (111th) Amendment Bill, 2009
The above two amendment bills are related to which among the following respectively?
[A] Panchayats, Cooperatives
[B] Cooperatives, Panchayats
[C] Panchayats, Panchayats
[D] Cooperatives, Cooperatives
Answer: D [Cooperatives, Cooperatives]
Explanation: Constitution (106th Amendment) Bill, 2006 was introduced in the Lok
Sabha on 22nd May, 2006 for the purpose of empowering cooperatives through
voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional
management. Bill could not be discussed in the Lok Sabha for passing. The Bill lapsed
on dissolution of 14th Lok Sabha on 18.05.2009. It was decided to reintroduce the Bill
for amendment to the Constitution. Accordingly, the Constitution (Hundred and
Eleventh) Amendment Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 30.09.2009.

98. Who among the following is called the “guardian of the public purse” of India?
[A] Comptroller & Auditor General
[B] Finance Minister
[C] Chairman of Public Accounts Committee
[D] Prime Minister
Answer: A [Comptroller & Auditor General]

99. Who among the following is considered to be the custodian of the nation’s
Finances?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] Finance Minister
[C] Comptroller & Governor General of India
[D] Reserve Bank of India
Answer: B [Finance Minister]

100. Who among the following is the first citizen of a city in India?
[A] Mayor
[B] Chairman
[C] Sheriff
[D] Member of Legislative Assembly
Answer: A [Mayor]

101. “India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management” is located at:
[A] New Delhi
[B] Mumbai
[C] Chennai
[D] Chanigarh
Answer: A [New Delhi]

102. As per the provisions of the Article 94 of the Constitution of India, whenever the
Lok Sabha is dissolved, the office of the Speaker becomes vacant at which among the
following time?
[A] Immediately after Lok Sabha is dissolved
[B] Immediately after the New Government is elected
[C] Immediately after election for new Lok Sabha is completed
[D] Immediately before the first session of the next Lok Sabha
Answer: D [Immediately before the first session of the next Lok Sabha]

103. As per the Nehru Report, the composition of India’s parliament was as follows:
[A] President, Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha
[B] Crown, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
[C] Crown, House of People, House of States
[D] Crown, Senate, House of Representatives
Answer: D [Crown, Senate, House of Representatives]

104. As per the Government of India act 1919, the life of the Council of State and
Legislative Assembly were as follows
[A] 5 Years , 3 years
[B] 3 Years , 5 years
[C] 5 Years , 5 years
[D] 3 Years , 3 years
Answer: A [5 Years , 3 years]

105. As per the Constitution of India, a new All India service can be instituted with only
on the initiative of which among the following?
[A] Lok Sabha
[B] Rajya Sabha
[C] 2/3rd of the States of India
[D] Interstate Council
Answer: B [Rajya Sabha]
Explanation: his question is based upon article 312 of the constitution which says
Notwithstanding anything in “Chapter VI of Part VI or Part XI“, if the Council of States
has declared by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members
present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest so to do,
Parliament may by law provide for the creation of one or more all India services
“including an all-India judicial service“common to the Union and the States, and, subject
to the other provisions of this Chapter, regulate the recruitment, and the conditions of
service of persons appointed, to any such service.

106. All Minority Educational Institutions are entitled to exercise rights enshrined in
which among the following articles of Constitution of India?
[A] 27
[B] 28
[C] 29
[D] 30
Answer: D [30]

107. “We must not for a moment forget, it is a birth right of every individual to receive at
least the basic education without which he cannot fully discharge his duties as a
citizen.”
Who among the following personalities of India is known to have made this famous
statement regarding “Right to Education”?
[A] Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
[B] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[C] Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
[D] Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam
Answer: C [Maulana Abul Kalam Azad]

108. “All powers of Government and all authority-legislative, executive and judicial are
derived from the people and the same shall be exercised in the commonwealth of India
through the organizations, established by or under and in accord with, this constitution”.
The above para has been taken from which among the following (which has been
characterized by some scholars as “Constitution of Commonwealth of India”) ?
[A] Government of India Act 1935
[B] Nehru Report
[C] Objective Resolution
[D] Resolution by Swaraj Party in 1924
Answer: B [Nehru Report]

109. Which among the following articles of Constitution of India gives the power to the
Highcourts to issue writs?
[A] 222
[B] 224
[C] 226
[D] 228
Answer: C [226]

110. Who among the following is the ex-officio chairman of Indian Council of World
Affairs ?
[A] Foreign Minister
[B] President
[C] Vice President
[D] Prime Minister
Answer: C [Vice President]

111. During the tenure of which of the following prime ministers The Lok Sabha never
meet?
[A] Morar Ji Desai
[B] Chaudhary Charan Singh
[C] Inder Kumar Gujral
[D] H. D. Deve Gowda
Answer: B [Chaudhary Charan Singh]

112. Consider the following statements in context with India’s National Calendar:
 1. India’s National Calendar is based upon the Saka era, whose dates have a
permanent correspondence with dates of the Gregorian calendar
2. Chaitra Shukla 1 on which new year begins, falls always on 21 or 22 March every
year
3. In a leap year, all the initial 6 months of the National Calender of India are of 31
days
Which among the above statements is/ are correct?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 1 & 2 are correct
[C] Only 2 & 3 are correct
[D] All are correct
Correct Answer: D [All are correct]
113. Which among the following bodies is in charge of enforcement of the standards of
the Indian Tricolor as per the provisions of the “Flag Code of India”?
[A] Ministry of Home Affairs
[B] Ministry of Culture
[C] Bureau of Indian Standards
[D] Supreme Court of India
Answer: C [Bureau of Indian Standards]

114. Till which of the following years, the Supreme Court of India commenced its sittings
from the Parliament building prior to moving to the present premises?
[A] 1950
[B] 1956
[C] 1958
[D] 1960
Answer: C [1958]
Explanation: The Federal Court of India which came up via the Government of India
act 1935 commenced its sitting in the Chamber of Princes in the parliament building
from 1937 till 1950. The SC came into being on 28 January 1950 and from that time till
1958, it commenced its hearing from there only. It moved to the current premises in
1958.

115. The Dispute Resolution Panel has been established under which among the
following acts in India?
[A] Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
[B] Income Tax Act, 1961
[C] The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
[D] The Trade Unions Act, 1926
Answer: B [Income Tax Act, 1961]

116. Who among the following appoints/ nominates the chairperson of the National
Commission for Women?
[A] President
[B] Central Government
[C] Vice President
[D] President on recommendation of a Parliament committee
Answer: B [Central Government]

117. which among the following established the Planning commission in 1950 as an
extra constitutional body through a resoltion?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] Parliament
[C] Lok Sabha
[D] Cabinet
Answer: D [Cabinet]

118. Article 43 B in Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with:

[A] Rural Business Hubs
[B] Cooperative Societies
[C] Village Panchayats
[D] Forest Development
Answer: B [Cooperative Societies]

119. A bill which affects the meaning and scope of which among the following can be
introduced in the parliament only on recommendation of President of India?
[A] Foreign Loans
[B] Corporation Tax
[C] Tax on Agriculture Income
[D] Export Duties
Answer: C [Tax on Agriculture Income]

120. “Cervus elaphus hanglu” is the state animal of which among the following states?
[A] Jammu & Kashmir
[B] Himachal Pradesh
[C] Uttarakhand
[D] Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: A [Jammu & Kashmir]

121. A person can be appointed as Attorney General of India, provided he / she is

qualified to be appointed as which among the following?
[A] Chief Justice of Supreme Court
[B] Chief Justice of High Court
[C] Judge of Supreme Court
[D] Judge of High Court
Answer: C [Judge of Supreme Court]

122. A major failure of the judicial system in the country has been its ineffectiveness in
ensuring speedy disposal of cases under trial. This is out of line of which among the
following articles of Constitution of India which provides a right to speedy justice?
[A] Article 18
[B] Article 19
[C] Article 20
[D] Article 21
Answer: D [Article 21]

123. A Constitution Amendment Bill , after being introduced, would also require to be
ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States, if that Constitution
Amendment Bill is related to the following:
1. Transfer of Education from State List to Concurrent List
2. Change in the system of Election of President of India
3. Change in the system of election of Vice President of India
Choose the correct option/s:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] 1 & 2
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: C [1 & 2]

124. Consider the following statements in context with the Haj Committee of India:
1. Three Muslim Members of Parliament are nominated as members of Haj
Committee of India
2. A minister can not be the chairman of Haj Committee of India
3. The Central Government has right to appoint a Chairman of the Haj Committee
of India
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 2 & 3 are correct
[B] Only 1 is correct
[C] All 1, 2 & 3 are correct
[D] Only 1 & 2 are correct
Correct Answer: C [All 1, 2 & 3 are correct]
125. Consider the following:
1. High Courts
2. Supreme Court
The power of Judicial Review is enjoyed by which among the above?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C [Both 1 & 2]

126. In India, the responsibility for recognition and vesting of forest rights and
distribution of land rights rests with which among the following ?
[A] Ministry of Environment & Forests
[B] Ministry of Tribal affairs
[C] State and UT Governments
[D] Local Governments
Answer: C [State and UT Governments]

127. An ordinary bill is generally circulated / put on website for purpose of eliciting the
public opinion on it during which of the following stages?
[A] Before First reading
[B] After First Reading but Before Second Reading
[C] After Second Reading but before Third reading
[D] After Third reading
Answer: B [After First Reading but Before Second Reading]

128. The National Disaster Response Fund, which has replaced the National Calamity
Contingency Fund on 28 September 2010, has been classified in which among the
following?
[A] Consolidated Fund of India
[B] Contingency Fund of India
[C] Public Account of India
[D] All the above
Answer: C [Public Account of India]

129. Consider the following statements in context with the Disaster Management Act
2005:
1. The act makes provisions for a National Disaster Management Authority at the
Centre level and State Disaster Management Authority at the state level
2. The President is the chairman of National Disaster Management Authority, while
the Governor is the Chairman of State Disaster Management Authority
3. The National Calamity Contingency Fund has ceased to exist after the National
Disaster Response Fund has been created under this act.
Which among the above statement is are correct?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 1 & 2 are correct
[C] Only 1 & 3 are correct
[D] All are correct
Answer: C [Only 1 & 3 are correct]

130. “Jungapithia” is the state fish of which among the following states of India?
[A] Assam
[B] Arunachal Pradesh
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] West Bengal
Answer: B [Arunachal Pradesh]
131. The number of the Judges in the Supreme Court of India can be increased by
which among the following?
[A] If there is a representation from the supreme court regarding the number of pending
cases and need to increase number of judges
[B] By Amendment of Constitution of India
[C] By an act of parliament
[D] By a Presidential Notification
Answer: C [By an act of parliament]

132. The minimum number of members required to be present at a sitting of the House
or the Committee for valid transaction of its business is called Quorum. In this context,
consider the following:
1. The quorum to constitute a sitting of the House is 1/5th of the total number of
members of the House.
2. The quorum to constitute a sitting in respect of a Committee it is 1/ 2nd of the
total number of members of the Committee.
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 2 is correct
[C] Both 1 & 2 are correct
[D] Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer: D [Neither 1 nor 2 is correct]

133. In issuing one of the writs, the Supreme Court orders:

” the respondent was not entitled to an office he was holding or a privilege he was
exercising”.
The above declaration can be identified as which among the following writs?
[A] Prohibition
[B] Quo-warranto
[C] Certiorari
[D] Habeas Corpus
Answer: B [Quo-warranto]

134. The Bicameralism legislature is an essential features in which among the following
types of Governments?
[A] Parliamentary System
[B] Presidential system
[C] Federal System
[D] Unitary System
Answer: C [Federal System]

135. Consider the following statements:

1. National Population Register has been given a statutory status in India
2. The Census Act 1948 has been amended for the purpose of National Population
Register
3. The NPR database is to be used by Unique Identification Authority of India
(UIDAI) for biometric de-duplication and assigning of a unique identification number
Which among the above statements is /are correct?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 1 & 2 are correct
[C] Only 1 & 3 are correct
[D] All are correct
Answer: C [Only 1 & 3 are correct]
Explanation: Only 1 & 3 are correct statements. The first statement is correct that the
NPR has a statutory status. But NPR finds its statutory status in the Citizenship Act
1955 which was amended and now the section 14A says that The Central Government
may compulsorily register every citizen of India and issue national identity card to him
and The Central Government may maintain a National Register of Indian Citizens and
for that purpose establish a National Registration Authority.

136. In which of the following conditions the Government in the Centre would fall during
the budget procedure?
[A] If the Finance Bill is returned by the President
[B] If the Finance Bill is rejected by Rajya Sabha
[C] If the Finance Bill is rejected by the Lok Sabha
[D] If the Cut Motion fails in the Lok Sabha
Answer: C [If the Finance Bill is rejected by the Lok Sabha]

137. Consider the following statements:

1. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer and P. N. Bhagwati were the first judges to accept
Public Interest Litigation
2. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar was the first Public Interest Litigation Case
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C [Both 1 & 2]
Explanation: Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer and P. N. Bhagwati were the first judges to
accept PIL. In S. P. Gupta v. Union of India, 1981 case, Justice P. N. Bhagwati
articulated the concept of PIL. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar was the first such
PIL case. This case was filed by an advocate and focused on the inhuman conditions of
the prisons. The case led to release of more than 40, 000 under trial prisoners

138. In which of the following states, Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were used for
the first time in India?
[A] Karnataka
[B] Kerala
[C] Tamil Nadu
[D] West Bengal
Answer: B [Kerala]
Explanation: The Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were used for the first time in
part of Parur Assembly Constituency in Kerala in 1982, on experimental basis. Later,
the extensive use of EVMs started in 1998.

139. Consider the following statements:

1. Fisheries are a state subject, hence state governments are responsible for the
development and sustainability of the fisheries sector
2. The Marine Products Export Development Authority works under the control of the
state Governments which have a coast
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 2 is correct
[C] Both 1 & 2 are correct
[D] Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer: A [Only 1 is correct]

140. Which among the following is NOT a salient feature of the 73rd Constitutional
Amendment Act ?
[A] Gram Sabha
[B] Three Tier System
[C] State Election Commission
[D] State Planning Commission
Answer: D [State Planning Commission]

141. Which among the following commissions was established by an amendment of the
Constitution of India?
[A] National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
[B] National Commission for Minorities
[C] National Commission for Women
[D] National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
Answer: D [National Commission for Scheduled Tribes]

142. Which among the following articles of Constitution of India entrusts the President of
India to grant pardons?
[A] Article 71
[B] Article 72
[C] Article 73
[D] Article 74
Answer: B [Article 72]

143. In context with the Armed Forces Tribunal, Consider the following statements:
1. Armed Forces Tribunal has been constituted via a Legislation by Parliament of India
2. Armed Forces Tribunal has Appellate Jurisdiction in matters related to services
3. Armed Forces Tribunal has original Jurisdiction in matters related to Court martial
Which among the above statements is / are correct ?
[A] Only Statement 1 is correct
[B] Only Statement 1 & 2 are correct
[C] Only Statement 1 & 3 are correct
[D] All are correct statements
Answer: A [Only Statement 1 is correct]
Explanation: The AFC has appellate jurisdiction in matters of Court martial and original
jurisdiction in service matters

144. Consider the following statements:

1. PIO Card Holders are not eligible to vote
2. Their stay beyond 6 months requires registration in India.
3. They don’t need a Visa to travel to India as long as they have a valid PIO Card
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 2 & 3
[D] 1 , 2 & 3
Answer: D [1 , 2 & 3]

145. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, both the Exit Polls as well as Opinion Polls have been banned till the last
phase of any elections is over.
2. The ban has been implemented after an amendment to Representation of People’s
Act, that came into effect in 2010
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 2 is correct
[C] Both 1 & 2 are correct
[D] neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer: B [Only 2 is correct]
Explanation: Statement 1 is partially correct because this ban via this act does not
include the Opinion Polls.

146. In which year the Traditional Forest Dwellers Act was enacted in India ?
[A] 2002
[B] 2005
[C] 2006
[D] 2008
Answer: C [2006]
147. From which of the following dates, the Model Code of Conduct becomes
operational in an election for a state assembly in India?
[A] 6 Months prior to the date on which election commences
[B] 3 months prior to the date on which election commences
[C] 2 months before the state assembly is due to finish its term
[D] The date on which election commission announces the election schedule
Answer: D [The date on which election commission announces the election
schedule]

148. The National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) has been constituted to give
focused attention to the problems of rainfed areas of the country. The NRAA is a / an
________?
[A] Advisory Body
[B] Constitutional Body
[C] Statutory Body
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Advisory Body]

149. Who among the following can pardon the Capital Punishment?
[A] President, Governor and Administrator of Union Territory
[B] President & Governor
[C] President & Administrator of Union Territory
[D] Only President
Answer: D [Only President]

150. Who among the following decides on the matter of disqualification of a Member of
Rajya Sabha?
[A] Parliament of India by resolution
[B] Election Commission of India
[C] President by advice of Parliament
[D] President by advice of Election Commission
Correct Answer: D [President by advice of Election Commission]

151. Consider the following:

1. Members of Foreign Services posted abroad
2. Members of Armed Forces
3. Civil Servants on Election Duty
4. Indian Nationals settled abroad
Which among the above are entitled to exercise their vote through Postal Ballot?
[A] 2 and 3
[B] 1,2 and 3
[C] 1,2,3 and 4
[D] 1 and 3
Answer: B [1,2 and 3]

152. Consider the following statements:

1. The members of the Election Commission in India are appointed by the
Parliament
2. Members of the Election Commission have equal status to that of Chief Election
Commissioner, but Chief Election Commissioner has overriding powers.
3. Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office by the President of
India.
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] 1, 3 and 4
[B] 2, 3 and 4
[C] 1 only
[D] None of them are correct statements
Answer: D [None of them are correct statements]

153. Consider the following:

1. Direct Election on the basis of Adult Suffrage
2. Proportional Representation by means of single transferable Vote
3. List system of Proportional Representation
4. Cumulative System of Indirect Elections
Which among the above are adopted in various elections in India ?
[A] 1 and 2
[B] 1 and 3
[C] 2, 3 and 4
[D] 3 and 4
Answer: A [1 and 2]

154. The salary of the Judge of High Court are charged from which among the
following:
[A] Consolidated Fund of India
[B] Consolidated Fund of the State
[C] Contingency Fund of India
[D] Contingency Fund of State
Answer: B [Consolidated Fund of the State]

155. Consider the following statements:

1. Elections to the Panchayats are held by the Union Election Commission
2. The reservation for weaker sections and women are mandatory in Panchayat Seats
3. The term of Panchayats is 5 years.
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] 1,2 and 3
[B] 2 and 3
[C] 2 only
[D] 1 and 2
Answer: B [ 2 and 3]

156. The “Universal Adult Suffrage” is enshrined in which among the following articles of
Constitution of India?
[A] 323
[B] 324
[C] 325
[D] 326
Answer: D [326]

157. Who among the following was never a Chief Election Commissioner of India ?
[A] K.V.K.Sundaram
[B] T.Swaminathan
[C] R.K.Trivedi
[D] R.S.Verma
Answer: D [R.S.Verma]
158. The registration of Voters is a responsibility of which among the following?
[A] Individual Voters
[B] Government
[C] Election Commission
[D] Corporations
Answer: C [Election Commission ]

159. Which among the following was the purpose of setting up the Balwant Rai Mehta
Committee in 1956?
[A] Suggesting measures for democratic decentralization
[B] Reporting the working of the Village Panchayats
[C] Suggesting measures for better efficiency in the implementation of the Community
Development Projects
[D] Investigating the feasibility of setting up new Panchayat Machinery
Answer: C [Suggesting measures for better efficiency in the implementation of
the Community Development Projects]

160. Which among the following commision is known for recommendation of abolition of
the IAS and IPS?
[A] Dhebar Commission
[B] Kalekar Commission
[C] Kher Commission
[D] Rajamannar Commission
Answer: D [Rajamannar Commission]

161. Which among the following is the most important condition to decide for the validity
of nomination of a College student, who seeks to be elected to the Municipal Council of
his / her City?
[A] He / she obtains permission from the Principal of his College
[B] He / she is a member of a Political Party
[C] His / her name figures in the Voter’s List
[D] He / she submits a declaration owing allegiance of the Constitution of India
Answer: C [His / her name figures in the Voter’s List]

162. Which among the following is the correct implication of the “Advisory
Jurisdiction” of the Supreme Court of India:
[A] It tenders advice to the President of India on demand
[B] It tenders advice to the Prime Minister of India on legal matters
[C] It tenders advice to the Govt. of India on all Constitutional matters
[D] All of above
Answer: A [It tenders advice to the President of India on demand]

163. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body?

[A] Election Commission
[B] Union Public Service Commission
[C] NITI Aayog
[D] Finance Commission
Answer: C [NITI Aayog]

164. Diet’ is a joint session of the Parliament of which nation?

[A] China
[B] Japan
[C] Vietnam
[D] Germany
Answer: B [Japan]

165. The Third proclamation of emergency under Article 352 was made by President
of India on which among the following grounds ?
[A] External Aggression
[B] Internal Disturbance
[C] Financial Instability
[D] Political Instability
Answer: B [Internal Disturbance]

166. Which among the following writs is issued against wrongful detention?
[A] Mandamus
[B] Habeas Corpus
[C] Prohibition
[D] Quo Warranto
Answer: B [Habeas Corpus]

167. In India, at present, there is a need to protect honest officials from undue
harassment with protecting persons making a public interest disclosure.
Consider the following statements in this context:
1. There is no statutory regulation as of now regarding the complaints by
Whistleblowers.
2. The powers of Centre and State Vigilance Commissions are restricted to recommend
corrective action to the public authorities.
Which among the above statements is / are correct ?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 2 is correct
[C] Both 1 & 2 are correct
[D] Both 1 & 2 are incorrect
Answer: C [Both 1 & 2 are correct]

168. The Upper House of Egypt parliament is known as:

[A] Shura Council
[B] Majilis Al-Sha’ab
[C] Dewan Rakyat
[D] Majlis al-Nuwaab
Answer: A [Shura Council]
169. In which of the following conditions, the President of India declares a Financial
Emergency?
[A] If he / she feels that there is a threat to Financial Stability
[B] In order to meet the extraordinary expenses of conducting Government Business
[C] If the Council of Minister gets a report from the CAG and recommends so
[D] If majority of the states recommend so
Answer: A [If he / she feels that there is a threat to Financial Stability]

170. Approval of which among the following is needed to draw funds from Consolidated
Fund of India?
[A] President
[B] Parliament
[C] Council of Ministers
[D] All the above
Answer: B [Parliament]

171. The Mahatma Gandhi NREGA programme has been launched by the Government
of India keeping in view the following provision/s of Constitution of India:
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which among the above follows the given statement?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 3
[D] All of them
Answer: C [Only 3]
172. Right to Safety, Right to information, Right to Choose, Right to be heard & Right to
Seek Redressal are the essential components of which among the following?
[A] Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
[B] The Consumer Protection Act
[C] The Essential Commodities Act
[D] Prevention of Corruption Act
Answer: B [The Consumer Protection Act]

173. Who among the following former Prime Ministers of India ,never served as Chief
minister of Indian state?
[A] Morar Ji Desai
[B] Chandra Shekhar
[C] V P Singh
[D] P V Narsimharao
Answer: B [Chandra Shekhar]

174. In the Budget session, which among the following is known as ‘guillotine’?
[A] General discussion on the Budget
[B] The speaker puts all the outstanding demands to vote
[C] The opposition expresses desire to bring a cut motion
[D] The demand for grants are cut by Re. 1
Answer: B [The speaker puts all the outstanding demands to vote]

175. Who among the following appoints a Judge in the High Court of Indian state?
[A] President with advice of Chief Justice of India
[B] President with Advice of Prime Minister
[C] Law Ministry
[D] President with Advice of a collegium of Judges
Answer: D [President with Advice of a collegium of Judges]

176. Consider the following:

1. Allotting of the shares of net proceeds of taxes
2. Laying down Lays down principles governing grants in aid
3. Looking into the financial relations between the central government and the state
Governments
The above mentioned functions are carried out by which among the following?
[A] Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
[B] National Development Council
[C] Finance Commission
[D] Planning Commission
Answer: C [Finance Commission]

177. B.G. Verghese Committee 1977 is most commonly related to which among the
following?
[A] Anti defection
[B] Prasar Bharti Act
[C] Panchayati Raj
[D] Centre State Relations
Answer: B [Prasar Bharti Act]

178. Which among the following act was known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary
Crime act 1919?
[A] Indian Arms Act
[B] Pitts India Act
[C] Ilbert Bill
[D] Rowlatt Act
Answer: D [Rowlatt Act]
Explanation: . Please note that this act triggered the Rowlatt Satyagraha. Gandhi ji
called it a Black act and it took away the Habeas Corpus which forms the basis of Civil
Liberties in England.
179. Dr. BR Ambedkar was elected to The constituent assembly from which among the
following ?
[A] United provinces
[B] West Bengal
[C] The Bombay Presidency
[D] Punjab
Answer: B [West Bengal]

180. In which year, Peacock was declared National Bird of India?

[A] 1958
[B] 1960
[C] 1963
[D] 1965
Answer: C [1963]

181. Bring out the only incorrect statement:

[A] The constitutional amendment bill can only be ratified by the president but not
returned
[B] Under powers given by Article 111, President can withhold his / her assent to a bill
[C] A High Court Judge addresses his / her resignation to Chief Justice of India
[D] Abolition of Untouchability is included in the Right to Equality
Answer: C [A High Court Judge addresses his / her resignation to Chief Justice of
India]
Explanation: Please note that High Court Judge addresses the resignation to President
of India

182. which among the following articles of Constitution of India deals with “Prohibition of
Traffic in Human beings”, ?
[A] Article 21
[B] Article 22
[C] Article 23
[D] Article 24
Answer: C [Article 23]

183. Who among the following can be a chairman of the National Human Rights
Commission?
[A] Any serving judge of Supreme Court
[B] Any retired Judge of Supreme Court
[C] Serving Chief justice of India
[D] Retired Chief Justice of India
Answer: D [Retired Chief Justice of India]

184. Consider the following:

1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive principles of State Policy
The “principle of gender equality” is enshrined in the Indian Constitution in which among
the above parts?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] All the above
Answer: D [All the above]

185. In which year “The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act” was
enacted?
[A] 2003
[B] 2005
[C] 2007
[D] 2009
Answer: B [2005]
186. Which among the following constitutional amendment bills is known for
establishment of administrative tribunals?
[A] 41st amendment act
[B] 42nd amendment act
[C] 61st amendment act
[D] 69th amendment act
Answer: B [42nd amendment act]

187. Who among the following was the chairman of the Special Committee to examine
the Draft Constitution of India ?
[A] Dr. B R Ambedkar
[B] Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyer
[C] Sardar Patel
[D] Sardar Balvant Singh
Answer: B [Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyer]

188. Bring out the ONLY incorrect statement:

[A] In Kesavanand Bharti Case, Supreme Court held that Preamble is part of India’s
Constitution
[B] Article 34 covers the imposing of Martial Law
[C] Ideal of Justice in Indian Constitution comes from the Russian (erstwhile USSR)
Constitution
[D] January 26, 1950 marks the final session of the Constituent Assembly
Answer: D [January 26, 1950 marks the final session of the Constituent
Assembly]
Explanation: January 24, 1950 marks the final session of the Constituent Assembly

189. In which year, the protection of Civil Rights Act which provides for a punishment for
offences related to caste and religion was passed?
[A] 1950
[B] 1955
[C] 1960
[D] 1965
Answer: B [1955]

190. Consider the following:

1. The maximum life of an ordinance issued by President is more than the
maximum life of an ordinance issued by a Governor
2. None of the Administrators of Union Territories have ordinance making power
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 2 is correct
[C] Both 1 & 2 are correct
[D] Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer: D [Neither 1 nor 2 is correct]

191. Consider the following:

1. Rajya Sabha is dissolved every 6 years
2. Legislative Council is dissolved every 6 years
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Neither 1 nor 2
[D] Both 1 and 2
Answer: C [Neither 1 nor 2]

192. Maximum number of states / union territories in India come under the Jurisdiction
of which of the following High Courts?
[A] Kolkata High Court
[B] Guwahati High Court
[C] High Court of Madras
[D] Bombay High Court
Answer: B [Guwahati High Court]

193. The Higher court issued a writ to a lower court preventing it from exceeding its
jurisdiction. This is referred to as ________?
[A] Certiorari
[B] Prohibition
[C] Habeas Corpus
[D] None of them
Answer: B [Prohibition]
194. Economic Planning comes under which of the following lists ?
[A] Union List
[B] Concurrent list
[C] State List
[D] None of them
Answer: B [Concurrent list]

195. Which among the following decides that there should be a Legislative Council in
the state or not?
[A] President
[B] Governor
[C] Legislative Assembly
[D] Chief Minister
Answer: C [Legislative Assembly]

196. On the recommendations of Santhanam Committee, which among the following

offices was set up in India?
[A] Central Vigilance Commission
[B] Central Economic Intelligence Bureau
[C] Foreign Investment Promotion Board
[D] Khadi and Village Industries Commission
Answer: A [Central Vigilance Commission]

197. Which among the following is an essential feature of a Unitary Government ?

[A] Written Constitution
[B] Independence of Judiciary
[C] Double Citizenship
[D] None of the above
Answer: D [None of the above]

198. Which of the following Government gets the stamp duty collected on promissory
notes?
[A] State Government 100%
[B] Central Government 100 %
[C] State Government 50% and Central Government 50%
[D] State Government 25% and Central Government 75%
Answer: A [State Government 100%]

199. Consider the following statements about a former Minister/ Prime Minister /
President of India?
1. His birthday falls in November and is celebrated as a National Observance all
over India
2. He is known to have established first Indian Institute of Technology and the
University Grants Commission
3. He served as head of CBSE, once upon a time
Which among the following personalities, the above statements refer to ?
[A] Jawahar Lal Nehru
[B] Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
[C] S Radhakrishnan
[D] Zakir Hussain
Answer: B [Maulana Abul Kalam Azad]

200. Bring out the only incorrect statement:

[A] National Judicial Academy is located at Bhopal
[B] Justice MM Punchi Commission is related to Centre state relations
[C] India became a party to the UN in 1945
[D] Indian Parliament is based upon the principle of Dyarchy
Answer: D [Indian Parliament is based upon the principle of Dyarchy]
Explanation: India Parliament is based upon bicameralism.

201. Which of the following parts/ provisions of the Indian Constitution cannot be
amended :
[A] Preamble to the Constitution
[B] Directive Principles of State Policy
[C] Fundamental Rights
[D] Judicial Review
Answer: D [Judicial Review]
Explanation: Judicial Review forms the part of the basic structure of the Constitution
which cannot be altered by the amendment procedure.

202. There is a prescribed procedure for the amendment of the provisions of the Indian
Constitution. This feature has been borrowed from the Constitution of :
[A] Weimer Republic of Germany
[B] South Africa
[C] Ireland
[D] Canada
Answer: B [South Africa]
203. Which of the following is incorrect about the Rajya Sabha ?
[A] The Rajya Sabha consists of 12 members nominated by the Prime Minister.
[B] One-third of its members retire every second year.
[C] The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution.
[D] The Vice President is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Answer: A [The Rajya Sabha consists of 12 members nominated by the Prime
Minister.]

204. Legislature of the Union which is called ‘Parliament’ consists of :

[A] Lok Sabha
[B] Rajya Sabha
[C] Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
[D] President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
Answer: D [President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha]
205. Right to Education Act, 2009 mandates 25 pc free seats to the poor in which
among the following schools of India?
[A] Government Schools only
[B] Government Schools and Government Aided Private Schools only
[C] Government Schools, Government aided Private Schools and Private unaided
schools
[D] Private Schools only
Answer: C [Government Schools, Government aided Private Schools and Private
unaided schools]

206. Consider the following:

1. Chief Justice of India
2. Other Judges of Supreme Court
President may consult the Judges of the Supreme Courts for appointment of which
among the above?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C [Both 1 & 2]
Explanation: President if thinks necessary, can consult the Judges of the High Courts
of States to appoint a supreme court Judge, as per article 124(2).It says Every Judge of
the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and
seal after consultation with such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High
Courts in the States as the President may deem necessary for the purpose and shall
hold office until he attains the age of sixty-five years.

207. The Constitution of India provides that Trade, Commerce and Intercourse
throughout the territory of Union of India is free. However, despite this provision, a state
in India can make law for imposing taxes on imports of goods from other states in India,
provided the goods produced in other states are also taxes in that state in the same
manner. Who decides whether the states can make such law or not?
[A] The State which is imposing law itself
[B] The States which have interests in the taxes to be imposed
[C] Parliament of India
[D] President of India
Answer: D [President of India]
Explanation: Constitution of India says that Trade, Commerce and Intercourse
throughout the territory of Union of India is free, but this is subject to some other
provisions of the same part. Article 301 says that parliament may impose restriction in
some parts of the territory in the interest of general public. For example a famine struck
state may lead the parliament to enact some discriminatory law also, if that
discrimination is in favor of the public interests. The states, as per article 303 of the
constitution are allowed to impose taxes on goods imported from the other states
provided they goods produced in other states are also taxes in that state in the same
manner. But who will decide, whether the states can enact such law or not? This is to
be decided by the President. Thus, if we consider that Rajasthan wants to impose a tax
on a good that is imported from Gujarat, the bill of such kind has necessarily get a
sanction from President. President may hold his/ her sanction after looking in details
that the said bill is in the public interest.

208. The Directive Principles of State policy, though attractive, are not enforceable by
law. But there is one among the given options, which has been so far made enforceable
by a Supreme Court fiat. Identify that DPSP from the given options:
[A] Uniform Civil Code
[B] Free Education till the children complete age of 6 years (provision after 86th
amendment act)
[C] Equal pay for equal work
[D] Prohibition of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health
Answer: C [Equal pay for equal work]
Explanation: It is true that the DPSP are not enforceable by law, yet the Supreme
Court has constantly endeavored to make the executive at least make some laws in that
regard. The first option is incorrect, most of us can figure it out. The second stands
provisional as the original constitution had 14 years of age, out of which 6-14 years has
now become and RTE and 0-6 years is the DPSP. There is no law in India which follows
option D. The only DPSP which has been enforced by a law is “Equal pay for equal
work”. The principle of equal pay for equal work for men and women embodied in Article
39(d) of the Constitution was first considered in Kishori Mohanlal Bakshi vs Union of
India in 1962. The Supreme Court then said that it was not capable of being enforced in
a court of law. However, the situation changed in 1982, when in Randhir Singh vs Union
of India it was unequivocally ruled that the principle was not an abstract doctrine and
could be enforced by reading into it the equality precepts enshrined in Articles 14 and
16. The court went so far as to say that even a daily wage employee who is performing
duties similar to regular employees is entitled to the same pay. However, the Supreme
Court took another turn by 1988 and veered round to the view that the principle cannot
be enforced and it should remain only as a guiding star for the law makers and judiciary.
For the same purpose there is an act “Equal Remuneration Act of 1976”, but the act has
been proved toothless so far.
209. The various Amendments of Citizenship Act in 1986 have resulted in the following:
 1. Dual Citizenship
2. Voting right at the age of 18 yrs
3. Difficulty in acquiring citizenship by refugees of Sri Lanka, Bangladesh etc.
Which among the above is / are correct?”
[A] 1 & 3
[B] 2 & 3
[C] Only 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: C [Only 3]
Explanation: The first thing we have to note that constitution of India has provided for a
single citizenship for the whole country. Despite of having concepts such as OCI and
PIO , which have been merged now, there is NO Dual Citizenship in India. The persons
who are in these categories cannot exercise voting rights. This means that we can
eliminate option 1. The voting rights option can be eliminated because voting is our
constitutional right and the age 18 years replaced the 21 years in article 326 by
Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988. The 3rd option is correct and shows the
purpose of the act.

210. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha in India is elected by the members of ___
1. Rajya Sabha
2. Lok Sabha
3. Members of legislative Assembly
Choose the correct option:
[A] Only 1
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] None of them
Answer: B [1 & 2]
Explanation: This question is asking about the Chairman of Rajya Sabha. The article
89. (1) says that Vice-President of India shall be ex officio Chairman of the Council of
States. This means that we are being asked about the election of Vice President. Article
66. (1) say that The Vice-President shall be elected by the members of an electoral
college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the
system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the
voting at such election shall be by secret ballot. This means that both the houses of
parliament play role in election of Vice President. Please note that Deputy chairman of
Rajya Sabha is elected by the members of Rajya Sabha only.

211. Who among the following will head the National Council for Senior Citizens?
[A] Prime Minister of India
[B] Chairman of National Development Council
[C] Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog
[D] Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment
Answer: D [Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment]
212. Poll Monitoring System was implemented in which among the following states of
India for the first time?
[A] Goa
[B] Manipur
[C] Assam
[D] Tripura
Answer: A [Goa]
Explanation: Under the system, fingerprints of the voters would be recorded by finger
print reading machines along with their photographs by the web cameras fitted to
computers.

213. The ultras under the Karbi Peoples’ Liberation Tiger, KPLT are predominantly
active in which among the following states?
[A] Assam
[B] Manipur
[C] Nagaland
[D] Mizoram
Answer: A [Assam]
214. The National Land Acquisition, Resettlement and Rehabilitation Bill aims to
substitute which among the following acts?
[A] The Land Acquisition Act, 1896
[B] The Land Acquisition Act, 1884
[C] The Land Acquisition Act, 1894
[D] None Of These
Answer: C [The Land Acquisition Act, 1894]

215. During Elections what will happen, if the number of contesting candidates in a
constituency goes beyond 64?
[A] Candidates beyond 64 are Not allowed in a constituency.
[B] Separate EVM (Electronic Voting Machine) will be used.
[C] EVMs cannot be used in such a constituency. Voting by means of ballot box will be
used.
[D] None of these
Answer: C [EVMs cannot be used in such a constituency. Voting by means of
ballot box will be used.]
Explanation: n case the number of contesting candidates goes beyond 64 in any
constituency, EVMs cannot be used in such a constituency. The conventional method of
voting by means of ballot box and ballot paper will have to be adopted in such a
constituency. EVMs can cater to a maximum of 64 candidates. There is provision for 16
candidates in a Balloting Unit. If the total number of candidates exceeds 16, a second
Balloting Unit can be linked parallel to the first Balloting Unit. Similarly, if the total
number of candidates exceeds 32, a third Balloting Unit can be attached and if the total
number of candidates exceeds 48, a fourth Balloting Unit can be attached to cater to a
maximum of 64 candidates.

216. What is the maximum number of candidates which EVMs (Electronic Voting
Machine) can cater to?
[A] 32
[B] 64
[C] 78
[D] 100
Answer: B [64]
Explanation: EVMs can cater to a maximum of 64 candidates. There is provision for 16
candidates in a Balloting Unit. If the total number of candidates exceeds 16, a second
Balloting Unit can be linked parallel to the first Balloting Unit. Similarly, if the total
number of candidates exceeds 32, a third Balloting Unit can be attached and if the total
number of candidates exceeds 48, a fourth Balloting Unit can be attached to cater to a
maximum of 64 candidates.

217. Normally, under the Election Commission’s norms, how far can a polling station be
from your house?
[A] 1 km
[B] 2 km
[C] 3 km
[D] 4 km
Answer: B [2 km]
Explanation: According to Para 3 of Chapter II of Handbook for Returning Officers,
polling stations should be set up in such a manner that ordinarily no voter is required to
travel more than two kms to reach his polling station.

218. What is the maximum number of votes which can be cast in Electronic Voting
Machine?
[A] 2840
[B] 3840
[C] 5000
[D] 6500
Answer: B [3840]
Explanation: EVMs can record a maximum of 3840 votes. As normally the total number
of electors in a polling station will not exceed 1500, the capacity of EVMs is more than
sufficient

219. In India, the EVMs ( Electronic Voting Machines) have been devised and designed
by Election Commission in collaboration with which among the following?
[A] Bharat Electronics Ltd and Electronic Corporation of India
[B] DRDO and Central Electronics Limited
[C] DRDO and Rajasthan Electronics and Instruments Ltd.
[D] Central Electronics Limited and Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
Answer: A [Bharat Electronics Ltd and Electronic Corporation of India]

220. When was the EVM (Electronic Voting Machine) first introduced in elections (on
experimental basis) ?
[A] 1989-90
[B] 1992-93
[C] 1998-99
[D] 2002-03
Answer: A [1989-90]

221. What has been the maximum number of candidates in any constituency in India at
any election so far?
[A] 133
[B] 333
[C] 533
[D] 1033
Answer: D [1033]
Explanation: In Modakurichi Assembly Constituency of Tamil Nadu there were 1033
contesting candidates during the general election to Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly in
1996. The ballot papers were in the form of a booklet.
222. As per the Code of Conduct by Election Commission of India for Party in Power,
Ministers and other authorities shall not sanction grants/payments out of discretionary
funds from what time ?
[A] 24 hours before the commencement of the election
[B] The time elections are announced by the Commission
[C] 36 hours before the commencement of the election
[D] 48 hours before the commencement of the election
Answer: B [The time elections are announced by the Commission]
Explanation: Ministers and other authorities shall not sanction grants/payments out of
discretionary funds from the time elections are announced by the Commission

223. As per the Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of Political Parties and
Candidates by Election Commission of India they can’t hold public meetings during the
period of _____ hours ending with the hour fixed for the close of the poll.
[A] 12
[B] 24
[C] 36
[D] 48
Answer: D [48]

224. TRAI (Telecom and Regulatory Authority of India) was established in year
________ by ________
[A] 1997; an Executive Order of Government of India
[B] 2001; an Executive Order of Government of India
[C] 1997; an Act of Parliament
[D] 2001; an Act of Parliament
Answer: C [1997; an Act of Parliament]

225. The premises of India’s Finance Ministry are also known as ___?
[A] East Block
[B] West Block
[C] North Block
[D] South Block
Answer: C [North Block]

226. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Bill grant citizens a fundamental
right to form cooperative societies?
[A] 110th
[B] 111th
[C] 112th
[D] 113th
Answer: B [111th]

227. A system known as “Dyarchy” was introduced in India for the first time by the
Government of India Act 1919, which implied that the spheres of the various subjects
were divided into___?
[A] Central Subjects and Provincial Subjects
[B] Reserved Subjects and Transferred Subjects
[C] Vested Subjects and Residual Subjects
[D] General Subjects and Concurrent Subjects
Answer: B [Reserved Subjects and Transferred Subjects]

228. “Right to service” is an important part of which among the following bills / act?
[A] Lokpal & Lokayukta Bill
[B] Citizen’s Charter and Grievance Redressal Bill
[C] Right to Information Act
[D] None of them
Answer: C [Right to Information Act]

229. The provision for having a Finance Commission to sort out the revenue-sharing
arrangement between states and the Centre is part of the Constitution under which
among the following articles?
[A] Article 275
[B] Article 280
[C] Article 282
[D] Article 285
Answer: B [Article 280]

230. In which among the following states, Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA)
was imposed for the first time?
[A] Manipur
[B] Punjab
[C] Jammu & Kashmir
[D] 7 North East States
Answer: D [7 North East States]
Explanation:- AFSPA became a law on September 11, 1958. Initially, it was applicable
to the seven Northeastern states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya,
Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura. This was so because in all these states there were
movements of ethnic groups demanding separation from India. The government felt that
such insurgencies could be checked through deployment of the armed forces, and they
would need special powers to carry out their responsibilities. AFSPA was extended to
J&K in 1990, on similar considerations.

231. The true statements about ordinance making power of the Governor are:
1. It is laid down in Article 213.
2. It can be issued by him after the advice of the president of state council of ministers.
3. It is co-extensive with the legislative power of the state legislature.
4. It can be issued only during the recess of State Legislative Assembly & not the
Legislative Council.
5. It can not be withdrawn by him anytime.
[A] 1, 3 & 5
[B] 2, 3 & 4
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] 2, 4 & 5
Answer: [C] 1, 2 & 3

232. One of the following is not an urban local body:

[A] Town area committee
[B] Municipalities
[C] Samitis
[D] Notified area committee
Answer: [C] samitis

233. A federal structure for India was 1st put forward by the:
[A] Act of 1919
[B] Act of 1909
[C] Act of 1935
[D] Act of 1947
Answer: [C] Act of 1935
Explanation:The Government of India Act 1935, the voluminous & final constitutional
effort at governing British India, articulated three major goals: establishing a loose
federal structure, attaining provincial autonomy, & safeguarding minority interests
through separate electorates. In February 1937, however, provincial autonomy
became a reality when elections were held. The federal provisions, intended to unite
princely states & British India at the centre, were not implemented as of ambiguities in
safeguarding the existing privileges of princes.

234. The Committee appointed in 1977 to review working of the Panchayati Raj was
chaired by:
[A] Ashok Mehta
[B] Balwant Rai Mehta
[C] K. N. Katju
[D] Jagjivan Ram
Answer: [A] Ashok Mehta
Explanation: In December 1977, the Janata Government appointed a committee on
Panchayati Raj institutions under the chairmanship of Ashok Mehta. As a result of this
report, the Indian states of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, & West Bengal passed new
legislation. The committee submitted its report in August 1978 & made 132
recommendations to revive & strengthen the declining Panchayati Raj system in the
country.

235. Which among the given are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a
State -
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President's rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the
President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Govt.
Select the true answer using the code given below.
[A] 1 & 3 only
[B] 1 & 2 only
[C] 2, 3 & 4 only
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: [A] 1 & 3 only

236. Under which article are the Council of Ministers collectively responsible to
Parliament?
[A] Art 74 (c)
[B] Art 75 (c)
[C] Art 73 (b)
[D] Art 72 (b)
Answer: Art 75 (c)

237. Charles Correa is a renowned Indian

[A] Painter
[B] Freedom fighter
[C] Architect, urban planner
[D] Award winning doctor
Answer: [C] Architect, urban planner
Explanation: Charles Correa was an Indian architect, urban planner & activist.
He was chiefly responsible for the planning of township of Navi Mumbai in the 1970s.
Credited for the creation of modern architecture in post-Independence India, he was
described as "India's greatest architect". 1.
238. All doubts & disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired into
& decided by .
[A] the Supreme Court
[B] the Election Commission
[C] the Parliament
[D] Prime Minister
Answer: [A] the Supreme Court

Explanation: According to Article 71 of the Constitution, all doubts & disputes arising
out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be
inquired into
& decided by the Supreme Court. I If the election is declared void by the Supreme
Court, acts done by him in the exercise & performance of the powers & duties of the
office, on or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be
invalidated by reason of that declaration.

239. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for
a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which among the
given can be deducted from this -
1. No Governor can be removed from office till the completion of his term.
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.
Which among the given statements is/are correct -
[A] 2 only
[B] 1 only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither
Answer: [D] Neither

240. Consider the following statements:

1. National Policy on Education envisages a common educational structure which is
10+2+1+3
2.It promotes values such as emphasis on common cultural heritage, secularism
and the like
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A] 2 only
[B] 1 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: [A] 2 only

241. Consider the following steps in Budget Procedure in India:

1. The demands for grants of various ministries and departments including railways
are considered by the concerned standing committees
2. Broad contours of the budget and the principles and policies underlying it are
discussed.
3. A cut motion is moved in the Lok Sabha
4. Budget is presented in the House.
Which among the following is the correct sequence of the above steps?
[A] 1 2 3 4
[B] 1 2 4 3
[C] 4 2 1 3
[D] 3 1 4 2
Answer: C [4 2 1 3]
242. Under the provisions of which of the following, 5 Zonal Councils were established
in India?
[A] Constitution of India , Article 263
[B] Zonal Councils Act
[C] States Reorganization act 1956
[D] None of them
Answer: C [States Reorganization act 1956]

243. The setting up of which of the following is NOT mentioned in constitution?

[A] Finance Commission
[B] Lok Sabha Secretariat
[C] Election Commission
[D] National Human Rights Commission
Answer: D [National Human Rights Commission]

244. Which among the following was first Municipal Corporation of India (Established in
1687)?
[A] Bombay
[B] Allahabad
[C] Kolkata
[D] Madras
Answer: D [Madras]

245. Sylheti language is a dialect of which of the following languages ?

[A] Sindhi
[B] Bengali
[C] Oriya
[D] Punjabi
Answer: B [Bengali]
246. Consider the following pairs:
1. Part XV : Elections
2. Part XVI Special Provisions Relating Tribal Areas
3. Part XVIII : Emergency Provisions
4. Part XIV : Tribunals
Which among the above is / are incorrect ?
[A] 1 & 2
[B] 2 & 3
[C] 2 & 4
[D] 1 & 4
Answer: C [2 & 4]
Explanation: Part XVI Special Provisions Relating to certain classed, Part XIV-A
Tribunals

247. Which among the following parts of Indian Constitution deal with the local
administration?
[A] Part IX
[B] Part IX and part IXA
[C] Part IX, Part IXA and Part XIVA
[D] Part IXA only
Answer: B [Part IX and part IXA]

248. Bring out the only incorrect statement:

[A] The constitutional amendment bill can only be ratified by the president but not
returned
[B] Under powers given by Article 111, President can withhold his / her assent to a bill
[C] A High Court Judge addresses his / her resignation to Chief Justice of India
[D] Abolition of Untouchability is included in the Right to Equality
Correct Answer: C [A High Court Judge addresses his / her resignation to Chief
Justice of India]
Explanation: Please note that High Court Judge addresses the resignation to President
of India

249. Which of the following committees had recommended the Panchayat Raj Finance
Corporation?
[A] Balwantrai Mehta Committee (1957)
[B] K. Santhanam Committee (1963)
[C] Ashok Mehta Committee (1978)
[D] G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985)
Answer: B [K. Santhanam Committee (1963)]

250. No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of
birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of,
any employment or office under the State” Which among the following article says this ?
[A] Article 15
[B] Article 16
[C] Article 17
[D] Article 18
Answer: B [Article 16]

251. Which among the following is not correctly matched?

[A] Third Schedule: Forms of oath
[B] Sixth Schedule : Scheduled Areas of India
[C] Seventh Schedule : Concurrent List
[D] Ninth Schedule : Land & tenure Reforms

252. By which amendment act 10th schedule was added in the Indian Constitution,
giving special status to Sikkim?
[A] 35th Amendment Act
[B] 36th Amendment Act
[C] 37th Amendment Act
[D] 38th Amendment Act
Answer: A [35th Amendment Act]

253. Consider the following:

1. Bombay High Court
2. Allahabad High court
3. Patna High court
Arrange the above high courts of various Indian states of India in terms of decreasing
number of their benches:
[A] 1, 2, 3,
[B] 2, 3, 1,
[C] 3, 2, 1,
[D] 3, 2, 1,
Answer: A [1, 2, 3,]

254. Which of the following sections of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory
Education Act. prohibits the conducting of admission test in schools?
[A] Section 11
[B] Section 13
[C] Section 15
[D] Section 17
Answer: B [Section 13]

255. Who among the following was the chairman of Second Administrative Reforms
Commission?
[A] V. Ramachandran
[B] A.P. Mukherjee
[C] Veerappa Moily
[D] Vijay kelkar
Answer: C [Veerappa Moily]
256. In which year, the Prarambhik Shiksha Kosh was established as a dedicated non-
lapsable fund to receive the proceeds of the Education Cess?
[A] 2000
[B] 2002
[C] 2005
[D] 2008
Answer: C [2005]

257. Who among the following is the only Finance Minister of India who is known to
have tabled the Union budget twice on his birthday?
[A] T. T. Krishnamachari
[B] Morarji Desai
[C] Yashwantrao Chavan
[D] Pranab Mukherjee
Answer: B [Morarji Desai]

258. Under which of the following articles, 12 members (out of 250) are nominated by
the President of India from amongst persons who have special knowledge or practical
experience in the fields such as literature, science, art or social service?
[A] Article 80
[B] Article 82
[C] Article 85
[D] Article 87
Answer: A [Article 80]

259. An state in India can borrow from the market in following conditions:
[A] At its own discretion
[B] through centre
[C] with the consent of centre
[D] under no circumstances
Answer: C [with the consent of centre]

260. What is the minimum stay essential before a person can apply for Indian
Citizenship?
[A] 2 years
[B] 5 years
[C] 7 years
[D] 10 years
Answer: B [5 years]

261. Evaluate the following statements and bring out the incorrect statement:
[A] Election commission was constituted under article 324 of the Indian Constitution
[B] The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution describes India as a secular state
[C] The 9th schedule was introduced by Pundit Jawahar Lal Nehru
[D] Lala lajpat Ray has been often described as a radical in politics but conservative in
social issues
Answer: D [Lala lajpat Ray has been often described as a radical in politics but
conservative in social issues]
Explanation: BG Tilak is correct personality who was often described as a radical in
politics bur conservative in social issues

262. Who among the following functions as a Constitutional Ruler and an agent of the
centre?
[A] President
[B] Vice President
[C] Governor
[D] Comptroller and Auditor General
Answer: C [Governor]

263. Bring out the only incorrect statement:

[A] The number of members of the constituent assembly was increased after the
Mountbatten Plan of 3 June, 1947
[B] On 13 December, 1946, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution
that outlined the basics of the constitution
[C] B N Rao was appointed the Constitutional Advisor of the Assembly
[D] First meeting of the Constituent Assembly took place of Dec 9, 1946 with Dr.
Sachidanand Sinha as its interim President
Answer: A [The number of members of the constituent assembly was increased
after the Mountbatten Plan of 3 June, 1947]

264. Bring out the only incorrect statement:

[A] While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the legislation by the state
government is suspended
[B] Dr. Rajendra Prasad acted as the permanent chairman of the Constituent assembly
[C] Dr. R Venkatramanan did not serve as Vice President of India
[D] Dr. R Venkarramanan is credited for initiating India’s missile programme
Answer: A [While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the legislation by the
state government is suspended]
Explanation: Please note that while a proclamation of emergency is in operation the
state government can legislate on the subjects in the state list.

265. Bring out the only correct statements:

[A] The number of the Judges in the High court is fixed by the state legislature of
respective state
[B] The number of the Judges in the High court may be altered by the Governor of the
state on recommendation of the President
[C] The number of the Judges in the High court is decided by the president
[D] The number of the Judges in the High court is fixed for each state by the parliament
Answer: C [The number of the Judges in the High court is decided by the
president]
266. Which among the following appointments made by the president of India, have
been the most controversial issue ever since our constitution came into force?
[A] Appointment of Prime Ministers
[B] Appointment of the Governors of States
[C] Appointment of the Judges of the High Courts
[D] Appointment of the Attorney General of India
Answer: C [Appointment of the Judges of the High Courts]

267. Who among the following Chief Election Commissioners of India also served as
first Chief Election Commissioner in Nepal and Sudan?
[A] Sukumar Sen
[B] K V K Sundaram
[C] S P Sen verma
[D] Dr. Nagendra Singh
Answer: A [Sukumar Sen]

268. Consider the following statements in context with the 42nd amendment of
Constitution of India?
1. 42nd amendment gave the directive principles precedence over fundamental rights
wherever there was a conflict, however the subsequent amendment revoked this
provision
2. The 42nd amendment act laid down certain fundamental duties, which had to be
observed by all nationals and noncompliance with them was made punishable
under the law
3. The 42nd amendment also prevented declaration of emergency on account of
internal strife and empowered for declaration of emergency only if there is an
armed rebellion
Which among the above statements are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 1 & 2 only
[C] 2 & 3 only
[D] 2 only
Answer: D [2 only]

269. Which of the following articles was inserted by an amendment of the Constitution
of India to give full statehood to Mizoram?
[A] Article 371 C
[B] Article 371 E
[C] Article 371 F
[D] Article 371 G
Answer: D [Article 371 G]

270. In context with the Preamble of India, consider the following statements?
1. The preamble which is a part of our constitution was borrowed from constitution
of USA
2. “Unity of the Nation” was replaced by “Unity and Integrity of the nation” by 42nd
amendment act
3. 42nd amendment inserted the words “Liberty and Equality”
Which among the above statement is / are correct ?
[A] 1 & 2 only
[B] 2 & 3 only
[C] 3 only
[D] 2 only
Answer: D [2 only]

271. Which of the following constitutions interalia influenced the “emergency provisions’
in the Indian Constitution?
[A] Constitution of Canada
[B] Constitution of Germany
[C] Constitution of Ireland
[D] Constitution of USA
Answer: B [Constitution of Germany]

272. Khasi and Garo languages are mostly spoken in which of the following states of
India?
[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Nagaland
[C] Meghalaya
[D] Tripura
Answer: C [Meghalaya]

273. Which of the following committee’s report said that condition of a lot of people in
Muslim community is even worse that of SC/STs, communities considered
underprivileged for years?
[A] Sachar Committee
[B] Yashpal Committee
[C] Mashelkar committee
[D] CNR Rao Committee
Answer: A [Sachar Committee]

274. In Geography, which among the following is correct regarding Hamada?

[A] A glacially carved tributary valley whose floor lies at a higher elevation than the floor
of the trunk valley
[B] The boundary in the ocean between surface-water and deep-water salinities
[C] Barren rocky / stony highlands in a desert
[D] Falling ice balls from the sky, formed when ice crystallizes in turbulent storm clouds.
Answer: C [Barren rocky / stony highlands in a desert]

275. Bring out the extra constitutional body?

[A] Finance commission
[B] Planning Commission
[C] UPSC
[D] Election Commission
Answer: B [Planning Commission]

276. Which among the following is not a Panchayati Raj Institution?

[A] Gram Sabha
[B] Gram panchayat
[C] Gram cooperative Society
[D] Nyaya Panchayat
Answer: C [Gram cooperative Society]
277. The constitution of India does not provide for impeachment of which of the
following?
[A] Chief Justice of India
[B] President of India
[C] Vice President of India
[D] Governor of an Indian State
Answer: D [Governor of an Indian State]

278. Seat of Madhya Pradesh High Court is located at?

[A] Jabalpur
[B] Indore
[C] Gwalior
[D] Bhopal
Answer: A [Jabalpur]

279. The salaries and allowances of the Governor of Indian state are charged from
the____?
[A] Consolidated Fund of the State
[B] Consolidated Fund of India
[C] Public Account of India
[D] Contingency Fund of India
Answer: A [Consolidated Fund of the State]

280. Who among the following became the first High court / Supreme Court Judge in
India to voluntarily make his assets public in 2009?
[A] Justice R K Lodha
[B] Justice K Kannan
[C] Justice C.Nagappan
[D] Justice Elipe Dharma Rao
Answer: B [Justice K Kannan]

281. Which among the following political parties have supported (In principle) the
demand of Harit Pradesh?
[A] Indian National Congress
[B] Bhartiya Janta Party
[C] Bahujan Samaj Party
[D] Samajwadi Party
Answer: C [Bahujan Samaj Party]

282. Who among the following headed second Administrative Reforms Commission?
[A] Veerappa Moily
[B] V. Ramachandran
[C] Dr. A.P. Mukherjee
[D] Justice S. Ratnavel Pandian
Answer: A [Veerappa Moily]

283. Althing is the national parliament of:

[A] Ireland
[B] Iceland
[C] Portugal
[D] Spain
Answer: B [Iceland]
Explanation: Please note that Althing is the oldest functioning parliamentary institution
in the world established in 930 AD

284. The United Nations General Assembly appoints the Secretary-General of the
United Nations on recommendation of which of the following organ?
[A] Security Council
[B] Secretariat
[C] International Court of Justice
[D] ICJ and Security Council
Answer: A [Security Council]

285. Apart from UN General Assembly, which among the following is not among five
principal active organs of United Nations?
[A] UN Security Council
[B] UN Economic and Social Council
[C] UN Secretariat
[D] UN Trusteeship Council
Answer: D [UN Trusteeship Council]
Explanation: Formerly UN had six principal active organs. UN Trusteeship Council
suspended its operations in 1994

286. Which among the following is the correct statement in context with eligibility of
chairman of National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
[A] The Chairman of the NHRC must have been a Judge of Supreme Court of India
[B] The Chairman of the NHRC must have been a Judge of a High Court of Indian state
or Supreme Court of India
[C] The Chairman of the NHRC must have experience of 15 years of practice as a
human rights lawyer in Supreme Court of India
[D] The Chairman of the NHRC must have been a Chief Justice of Supreme Court of
India
Answer: D [The Chairman of the NHRC must have been a Chief Justice of
Supreme Court of India]
Explanation: Composition of NHRC:
Chairperson must have been a Chief Justice of the Supreme Court;
one Member who is or has been, a Judge of the Supreme Court;
one Member who is, or has been, the Chief Justice of a High Court;
two Members to be appointed from amongst persons having knowledge of, or practical
experience in, matters relating to human rights,
Chairperson of the National Commission for Minorities, and the National Commission
for Women shall be deemed to be Members of the Commission (The Protection of
Human Rights Act, 1993)

287. Who among the following is not a member of the committee which recommends
the president of India regarding appointments of Chairperson and members of the
National Human Rights Commission?
[A] Speaker of Lok Sabha
[B] Union Home Minister
[C] Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
[D] Union Law Minister
Answer: D [Union Law Minister]
Explanation: The appointment committee consists of Prime Minister as Chairperson,
Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Home Minister, leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, leader of
opposition in Rajya Sabha & Deputy chairman of Rajya Sabha.

288. Who among the following is not a member of the committee which recommends
the president of India regarding appointments of Chairperson and members of the
National Human Rights Commission?
[A] Speaker of Lok Sabha
[B] Union Home Minister
[C] Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
[D] Union Law Minister
Answer: D [Union Law Minister]
Explanation: The appointment committee consists of Prime Minister as Chairperson,
Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Home Minister, leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, leader of
opposition in Rajya Sabha & Deputy chairman of Rajya Sabha.

289. which of the following Constitutional amendments has authorized the president to
publish a authoritative Hindi Translation of the Constitution of India?
[A] The Constitution (55th Amendment) Act
[B] The Constitution (56th Amendment) Act
[C] The Constitution (57th Amendment) Act
[D] The Constitution (58th Amendment) Act
Answer: D [The Constitution (58th Amendment) Act]
Explanation:
55th : statehood to Arunachal Pradesh,
56th: setting up new state of Goa and separation of Daman & Diu ,
57th : special arrangements with regard to reservation for scheduled tribes in NE states
Arunachal, Nagaland, Mizoram, Meghalaya. Article 332 amended for this reason,
58th: authorizes president to publish an authoritative translation of constitution, 59th:
empowered the government to impose emergency in Punjab

290. Article (1) says that India will be a Union of states Which among the following is
NOT a correct statement in this context?
[A] India is a federation and a result of an agreement by the States to join in the
federation
[B] No state has a right to secede from it
[C] Neither central government nor state government can override or contravene the
provisions of the Constitution
[D] The most important subjects have been included in the Union list which has 97
subjects
Answer: A [India is a federation and a result of an agreement by the States to join
in the federation]
Explanation: the use of the word Union is deliberate. The Drafting Committee wanted
to make it clear that though India was to be a federation, the federation was not a result
of an agreement by the States to join in the federation and that the federation not being
the result of an agreement no state has a right to secede from it. Though the country
and the people may be divided into different states for convenience of administration the
whole country is one integral whole, its people a single people living under a single
imperium derived from a single source – Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar

291. Which of the following parts of Indian constitution has only one article?
[A] Part XVII
[B] Part XVIII
[C] Part XIX
[D] Part XX
Answer: D [Part XX]
Explanation: Part XX article 368, amendment of the constitution

292. Which among the following term correctly represents the Zonal Councils?
[A] Advisory Bodies
[B] Actually Working Bodies
[C] Law Making authorities
[D] Administrative Bodies
Answer: A [Advisory Bodies]

293. Till the 42nd Amendment in 1976, the word secular was nowhere in the
constitution except in Article _________?
[A] 25
[B] 26
[C] 27
[D] 28
Answer: A [25]
Explanation: Article 25 (2)(a) regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political
or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;

294. Directive Principles are just like ‘a cheque on bank payable at the convenience of
the bank’. Who among the following said this?
[A] Jawahar Lal Nehru
[B] Bhim Rao Ambedkar
[C] Mr. R. K. Sidhwa
[D] Prof. K T Shah
Answer: D [Prof. K T Shah]

295. Which among the following is not correctly matched ? (subject matter of articles)
[A] 360 : Financial Emergency
[B] 368: Amendment of the Constitution
[C] 323 A : Administrative tribunals
[D] 280: Finance Bill
Answer: D [280: Finance Bill]
Explanation: article 280 defines Finance Commission. Finance Bill Article 112

296. Which of the following presidents of India headed the Indian Society of Labour
Economics (ISLE) founded in 1957 ?
[A] Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
[B] V. V. Giri
[C] Zakir Hussain
[D] BD Jatti
Answer: B [V. V. Giri]

297. Who among the following judges of Supreme Court of India was many times called
as “Champion of State Rights”?
[A] Justice Subba Rao
[B] Justice A K Sarkar
[C] Justice Kailas Nath Wanchoo
[D] Justice Jayantilal Chhotalal Shah
Answer: A [Justice Subba Rao]

298. Which of the following part of Indian Constitution resembles the standard-setting
Charter of the United Nations and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights of 1948?
[A] Part II
[B] Part III
[C] Part IV
[D] Part V
Answer: B [Part III]

299. In which of the following 3 states the Article 164(1) provided a Minister in charge of
tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes
and backward classes?
[A] Bihar, West Bengal & Orissa
[B] Bihar, Madhya Pradesh & Orissa
[C] Bihar, Rajasthan & Gujarat
[D] Bihar, Rajasthan & Madhya Pradesh
Answer: B [Bihar, Madhya Pradesh & Orissa]

300. Since which year the government of India started recognizing the ‘Primitive Tribal
Groups’ (PTGs) as more backward communities among the tribal population groups ?
[A] 1965
[B] 1970
[C] 1975
[D] 1978
Answer: C [1975]
301. Exercising the powers conferred by clause (1) of Article 217 of the Constitution of
India, the President of India appoints _______?
[A] Attorney General of India
[B] A Judge of Supreme Court of India
[C] Chief Justice of A High Court
[D] Comptroller & Auditor General of India
Answer: C [Chief Justice of A High Court]

302. Which of the following article was omitted from the Indian constitution by 80th
amendment Bill?
[A] 268
[B] 270
[C] 272
[D] 274
Answer: C [272]

303. Bring out the incorrect statement:

[A] In India Parliament is not supreme but the Supreme court is Supreme
[B] The independence of Judiciary is a part of basic structure of the constitution
[C] The makers of the Indian constitution kept a balance between the rigidity & flexibility
in context with amendments
[D] All are correct
Correct Answer: D [All are correct]

304. Who among the following is the ex officio Chairman of the Council of States?
[A] Governor
[B] Chief Minister
[C] President
[D] Vice President
Answer: D [Vice President]
305. Which of the following articles hints “Doctrine of Pleasure” in context with Services
under union or states?
[A] 308
[B] 310
[C] 312
[D] 314
Answer: B [310]
306. Which among the following post is NOT dependent on the pleasure of the
president or governor?
[A] A Judge of Supreme Court
[B] A Judge of High Court
[C] Comptroller and Auditor General of India
[D] Attorney-General for India
Answer: D [Attorney-General for India]

307. Which among the following is the second tier (Block level) in the 3 tier system of
local self governance in India?
[A] Gram Sabha
[B] Panchayat
[C] Panchayat Samiti
[D] Zila parishad
Answer: C [Panchayat Samiti]

308. By which amendment bill , article 323A (Administrative tribunals) & Article 323B
(Tribunals for other matters) in a new part XIV A was inserted in the Indian Constitution?
[A] Constitution 40th Amendment Bill
[B] Constitution 41st Amendment Bill
[C] Constitution 42nd Amendment Bill
[D] Constitution 43rd Amendment Bill
Answer: C [Constitution 42nd Amendment Bill]
309. Which of the following articles says that executive power of the state is vested in
the Governor?
[A] Article 152
[B] Article 153
[C] Article 154
[D] Article 155
Answer: C [Article 154]

310. In which year National Policy For The Empowerment Of Women was passed in
India?
[A] 1997
[B] 1999
[C] 2001
[D] 2003
Correct Answer: C [2001]

311. Which among the following article allows special provisions to be made by the
State in favor of women and children ?
[A] Article 15(1)
[B] Article 15(2)
[C] Article 15(3)
[D] Article 16
Answer: C [Article 15(3)]

312. Which among the following in India have been referred to as “Glorified
Municipalities” by critics?
[A] Nagar Nighams
[B] States
[C] Union Territories
[D] Panchayats
Answer: B [States]
313. Which among the following is not correctly matched?
[A] Price Control – Concurrent List
[B] Taxes on Lands & Buildings- State List
[C] Taxes on Income and agricultural Income – Concurrent List
[D] Audit of the accounts of Union and states – Union List
Answer: C [Taxes on Income and agricultural Income – Concurrent List]
Explanation: Taxes on Income other than agriculture is in Union List . Taxes on
agricultural income is in state list

314. A bill seeking to amend which among the following provisions will not
require special majority and ratification by states?
[A] Formation of New States
[B] Election of the President
[C] Distribution of the legislative powers
[D] Representation of states in Parliament
Answer: A [Formation of New States]
Explanation: Formation of New States, admission of the new states, changing
boundaries, areas and names all come under article 2,3,4 and amendment requires
simple majority.

315. Which of the following articles makes the Supreme Court a Court of Record?
[A] 125
[B] 127
[C] 129
[D] 131
Answer: C [129]
Explanation: Article 129: Supreme Court to be a court of record.- The Supreme Court
shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the
power to punish for contempt of itself.
316. Judicial Review is the most distinctive contribution of which of the following
Supreme Courts?
[A] Supreme Court of the United States
[B] Supreme Court of Canada
[C] Supreme Court of India
[D] Supreme Court of the United Kingdom
Answer: A [Supreme Court of the United States]

317. When a chief Minister of outgoing minority government advises the Governor to
dissolve the legislative assembly the Governor has to _________?
[A] dismiss the assembly
[B] suspend the assembly
[C] ask the president to impose president’s rule
[D] work on own discretion
Answer: D [work on own discretion]

318. The functions of which of the following body in India are limited to advisory
nature only?
[A] Legislative Council
[B] Rajya Sabha
[C] Lok Sabha
[D] Legislative Assembly
Answer: A [Legislative Council]
Explanation: Please note that leaving case of money bills , Rajya Sabha has equal
powers in legislative matters in relation to Lok Sabha. This is not the case with
Legislative council

319. Which among the following Union Territory has a Judicial Commissioner?
[A] Pondicherry
[B] Andaman & Nicobar Islands
[C] Daman & Diu
[D] Lakshadweep
Answer: C [Daman & Diu]

320. Who among the following is a leader of Janata Dal-Secular?

[A] Lalu Prasad Yadav
[B] Sharad yadav
[C] H.D. Deve Gowda
[D] Ajit Singh
Answer: C [H.D. Deve Gowda]

321. Which among the following is not expressly mentioned in article 19?
[A] Freedom of speech and expression
[B] Freedom of assembly
[C] Freedom to form associations
[D] Freedom of Press
Answer: D [Freedom of Press]

322. Which among the following is an incorrect statement:

[A] Fundamental Freedoms given by article 19 are not absolute
[B] Article 19 as well as 22 deal with personal liberties
[C] Article 19 guarantees freedom of assembly
[D] All are correct
Answer: D [All are correct]

323. Subject of Universities present in which of the following list ?

[A] State List
[B] Union List
[C] Concurrent List
[D] Residuary list
Answer: A [State List]

324. Sexual Harassment comes under which section of Indian Penal Code?
[A] 355
[B] 368
[C] 376
[D] 509
Answer: D [509]

325. The Advocate-General of an state shall hold office during the pleasure of _____?
[A] President
[B] Governor
[C] Chief Minister
[D] Council of Ministers
Answer: B [Governor]
Explanation: Please refer article 165 (3)

326. Under which of the following articles comes the appointment of Administrator of the
Union territory by the President of India?
[A] Article 239
[B] Article 240
[C] Article 241
[D] Article 242
Answer: A [Article 239]

327. The Indian federalism is founded on a theory of `unequal federalism’ under which
all States are not equal and many enjoy a special status. Under which of the following
articles Nagaland Enjoys a special status?
[A] Article 371 A
[B] Article 371 B
[C] Article 371 C
[D] Article 371 D
Answer: A [Article 371 A]

328. The Indian federalism is founded on a theory of `unequal federalism’ under which
all States are not equal and many enjoy a special status. Under which of the following
articles Nagaland Enjoys a special status?
[A] Article 371 A
[B] Article 371 B
[C] Article 371 C
[D] Article 371 D
Answer: A [Article 371 A]

329. Which of the following languages was added to the first of the regional languages
by the 21st amendment?
[A] Oriya
[B] Kashmiri
[C] Sindhi
[D] Assamese
Answer: C [Sindhi]

330. What is the most appropriate size of Table Flags as per Flag Code of India 2002?
[A] 450X300 mm
[B] 225X150 mm
[C] 150X100 mm
[D] 900 X 600 mm
Answer: C [150X100 mm]
Explanation: The flags of 450X300 mm size are intended for aircrafts on VVIP flights,
225X150 mm size for motor-cars and 150X100 mm size for table flags
331. Who among the following was appointed as chairman of a committee established
by the Supreme Court to make the Prevention of Damage to PublicProperty Act, 1984
more effective and also to suggest suitable changes or alterations which can make the
statue more meaningful?
[A] Justice K.T.Thomas
[B] Justice Hansraj
[C] Mr.G.E.Vahanvati
[D] Prof. N.R. Madhava Menon
Answer: A [Justice K.T.Thomas]

332. Which among the following was a Commission of Inquiry on the alleged
disappearance of Netaji Subhash Chandra bose?
[A] Nanavati Commission
[B] Mukherjee Commission
[C] Liberahan Commission
[D] Justice Sivasubramaniam Commission
Answer: B [Mukherjee Commission]

333. Department of Border Management functions under which of the following

ministries of Government of India?
[A] Ministry of External Affairs
[B] Ministry of Defense
[C] Union Home Ministry
[D] Ministry of Commerce
Answer: C [Union Home Ministry]

334. Who among the following functions as Chairman of Zonal Council?

[A] Prime Minister
[B] Union Home Minister
[C] State Chief Minister elected by all chief ministers of respective states
[D] President
Answer: B [Union Home Minister]

335. In which year Sikkim was included in the North Eastern Council ?
[A] 1992
[B] 1999
[C] 2002
[D] 2005
Answer: C [2002]

336. Which among the following was / were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-
organisation Act, 1956.?
[A] Interstate Council
[B] Zonal Council
[C] Language Commission
[D] Delimitation Commission
Answer: B [Zonal Council]

337. The President of India appoints the Chairman and Members of the National Human
Rights Commission on whose recommendations?
[A] Prime Minister of India
[B] Speaker of Lok Sabha
[C] Home Minister
[D] All of the Above
Answer: D [All of the Above]
Explanation:-The Chairperson and Members of the Commission are appointed by the
President on the basis of recommendations of a Committee comprising the Prime
Minister as the Chairperson, the Speaker of Lok Sabha, the Home Minister, the leaders
of the opposition in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and the Deputy Chairman of the
Rajya Sabha as Members
338. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution deals with constitution of which of the
following commissions?
[A] Law commission
[B] Election commission
[C] Finance Commission
[D] Delimitation Commission
Correct Answer: C [Finance Commission]

339. Hindi comes under in which of the following categories?

[A] National Language of India
[B] Mother Tongue of India
[C] Official Language of India
[D] Oldest Language of India
Answer: C [Official Language of India]

340. Which among the following language comes under 8th schedule of Indian
Constitution?
[A] Bhojpuri
[B] Mizo
[C] Rajasthani
[D] Dogari
Answer: D [Dogari]

341. Bring out the incorrectly matched pair:

[A] National legislative assembly of Spain – Cortes
[B] Parliament of Norway – Storting
[C] National parliament of Denmark – Folketing
[D] All Matched Correctly
Answer: D [All Matched Correctly]
342. Who among the following is known to set up municipal institutions at work in India
in 1882?
[A] Lord Lytton
[B] Lord Ripon
[C] Lord Lansdowne
[D] Lord Mayo
Answer: B [Lord Ripon]

343. Who among the following called as the first citizen of Mumbai?
[A] Governor of Maharastra
[B] Chief Minister of Maharastra
[C] Sheriff
[D] Mayor
Answer: D [Mayor]
344. Who among the following was the main rival candidate against India’s first
President Dr. Rajendra Prasad?
[A] NN Das
[B] K T Shah
[C] CH Ram
[D] S Radhakrishnan
Answer: B [K T Shah]

345. Which of the following president of India was only person to be elected
unopposed?
[A] 4th President
[B] 5th President
[C] 6th President
[D] 7th President
Answer: C [6th President]
Explanation: Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the only person to be elected unopposed. He
was sixth president of India.
346. Devendra Pandey Committee is related to:
[A] Banking Reforms in India
[B] Women’s Reservation
[C] Forest Rights Act
[D] Delimitation of Constituencies
Answer: C [Forest Rights Act]

347. As notified by the Government under section 2(c) of the National Commission for
Minorities Act 1992, how many communities in India come under minorities?
[A] 2
[B] 3
[C] 4
[D] 5
Answer: D [5]
Explanation: Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists and Parsis

348. Which among the following Constitutional Amendment Acts led to insertion of
Article 21-A in Part III of the Constitution that made free and compulsory education for
all children between 6 and 14 years of age, a fundamental right?
[A] 76th Constitutional Amendment Act
[B] 80th Constitutional Amendment Act
[C] 84th Constitutional Amendment Act
[D] 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
Answer: D [86th Constitutional Amendment Act]

349. Law Commission of India is a _____?

[A] Constitutional Body
[B] Advisory Body
[C] Departmental committee
[D] Non statutory Body
Answer: D [Non statutory Body]

350. Which of the following rights deal with freedom of religion?

[A] Articles 12-19
[B] Articles 19-21
[C] Articles -22,23
[D] Articles 25-28
Answer: D [Articles 25-28]

351. Who among the following nominates the chairman of Public Accounts committee of
India?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] President
[C] Speaker of Lok Sabha
[D] Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Answer: C [Speaker of Lok Sabha]

352. Executive is responsible to which among the following in parliamentary system?

[A] Directly to the people
[B] To the legislature
[C] To the Judiciary
[D] To cabinet
Answer: B [To the legislature]

353. Which among the following makes recommendations to the central government for
grants in aid to the states out of the consolidated fund of India?
[A] NITI Aayog
[B] Finance Commission
[C] Public Accounts Committee
[D] Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
Answer: B [Finance Commission]

354. Which article of the constitution of India lays down the procedure for impeachment
of the President?
[A] Article 60
[B] Article 61
[C] Article 65
[D] Article 69
Answer: B [Article 61]

355. With which of the following PRIA soft is related to ?

[A] Public Relations Management
[B] Public Enterprises Accounting
[C] Panchayati Raj Institutions
[D] Public Private Partnerships
Answer: C [Panchayati Raj Institutions]
Explanation: PRIA Soft (Panchayati Raj Institutions Accounting Software) Developed
by NIC facilitates maintenance of accounts of Panchayats. It captures the voucher level
receipt and expenditure detail. The software is being customizes to meet state-specific
requirements. In a few states the software is being used, although with a different
names.

356. Which among the following does not come under the jurisdiction of central
Government?
[A] Land Revenue
[B] Personal Income Tax
[C] Corporate Income Tax
[D] Custom duty
Answer: A [Land Revenue]
357. Which of the following countries Lower House is called Gyelyong Tshogdu?
[A] Bhutan
[B] Myanmar
[C] Thailand
[D] Cambodia
Answer: A [Bhutan]

358. What is the name of the Upper House of the European Union?
[A] European Parliament
[B] Council of the European Union
[C] European Assembly
[D] General Council of Europe
Answer: B [Council of the European Union]

359. Which among the following regional political parties in India has the Party logo of
two leaves?
[A] DMK (Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam)
[B] AIADMK (All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam )
[C] MDMK (Marumalarchi Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam )
[D] PMK (Pattali Makkal Katchi)
Answer: B [AIADMK (All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam )]

360. which state launched India’s first litigation controlled Tribal Panchayat?
[A] Kerala
[B] Tamilnadu
[C] West Bengal
[D] Gujarath
Answer: A [Kerala]

361. Which of the following Prime Minister is known for his “Iron Curtain Speech”?
[A] Clement Attlee
[B] Neville Chamberlain
[C] Winston Churchill
[D] Herbert Morrison
Answer: C [Winston Churchill]
362. “Test of reasonableness ” is a very important consequence under the following
articles?
[A] Article 13
[B] Article 14
[C] Article15
[D] Article 16
Answer: B [Article 14]
Explanation:An important consequence of Article 14, that is Right to Equality is Test of
easonableness. This means that classification that is unreasonable is open to challenge
and to this extent the policy of legislation is open to judicial decisions.

363. Directive principles particularly article 39 (b) and (c ) of the constitution of India are
many times referred as charters of the following?
[A] Liberty of religion
[B] Social and economic justice
[C] Liberty to move anywhere in India territories
[D] Imparting education to school children
Answer: B [Social and economic justice]

364. In which of the following cases , Supreme Court of India held the Bundhs illegal as
they cause violation of Article 19(1) and 21 of the constitution in addition to causing a
national loss?
[A] People’s Union for Civil Liberties v/s Union of India
[B] Communist party of India (M) v/s Bharat Kumar and Others
[C] Tata Press Ltd. v/s MTNL
[D] Union of India v/s Association for Democratic Reforms
Correct Answer: B [Communist party of India (M) v/s Bharat Kumar and Others]

365. Which among the following is not a privilege of the president under article 361 of
the constitution?
[A] The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and it shall be
exercised by him (or her) in accordance with the constitution
[B] the president shall not be answerable to the any court for exercise and
performances of the powers and duties of his/ her office or for any act done or
purporting to be done by him in the exercise of those powers and duties
[C] No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted and continued against the
president in any court during the term in the office
[D] No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the president shall be issued from any
court
Correct Answer: A [The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the
President and it shall be exercised by him (or her) in accordance with the
constitution]
Explanation: it is not a privilege of the president under article 361 , but a power as per
Article 53

366. Why the Indian constitution called as Fundamental law of the land?
[A] Because Preamble indicates the source from which constitution comes that is
people of India
[B] Because Constitution envisages the fundamental rights
[C] Because Constitution of India declares great rights and freedoms to all citizens of
India
[D] Because the government organs owe their origin to the constitution of India and
derive their authority from & discharge their responsibilities within the framework of the
constitution
Answer: D [Because the government organs owe their origin to the constitution of India
and derive their authority from & discharge their responsibilities within the framework of
the constitution]
367. By which of the following amendment acts of the constitution, article 31-C was
inserted in the constitution?
[A] 22nd
[B] 24th
[C] 25th
[D] 27th
Answer: C [25th]

368. The bill to amend the constitution has to be introduced & passed in which of the
following houses before presenting it to President for assent?
[A] Introduced and passed in Both Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
[B] Introduced & Passed in Lok Sabha
[C] Introduced & Passed in Rajya Sabha
[D] Introduced in both houses but can be Passed in Lok Sabha only
Answer: A [Introduced and passed in Both Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha]

369. Article 213 which embodies the ordinance making power of the governor of the
state is very similar to that of President embodies in which of the following articles?
[A] Article 111
[B] Article 115
[C] Article 121
[D] Article 123
Answer: D [Article 123]

370. With which of the following Residuary Powers vests in __?

[A] President
[B] Prime Minister
[C] Council of Ministers
[D] Parliament
Answer: D [Parliament]
371. Which among the following end the life of the popular house?
[A] Session
[B] prorogation
[C] adjournment
[D] dissolution
Answer: D [dissolution]
372. The Supreme court of India has held that “Where Article ___________comes in
article 14 goes out.
[A] Article 30
[B] Article 31 A
[C] Article 31 B
[D] Article 32
Answer: B [Article 31 A]

373. As per the article 358, when the proclamation of emergency is made by the
President under article 352, the freedoms guaranteed in which of the following articles
are automatically suspended?
[A] Article 14
[B] Article 16
[C] Article 18
[D] Article 19
Answer: D [Article 19]

374. Which among the following is a correct statement regarding powers of President of
India:
[A] the military powers of the president is subordinate to executive powers
[B] the executive powers of the president is subordinate to military powers
[C] the military powers and executive powers are insubordinate with regard to each
other
[D] the executive powers are subordinate to diplomatic powers
Answer: A [the military powers of the president is subordinate to executive
powers]

375. Which among the following article is specifically excluded from the purview of
the procedure of amendment as prescribed in Article 368?
[A] Article 54
[B] Article 154
[C] Article 169
[D] Article 214
Answer: C [Article 169]

376. For which of the following the date August 29, 1947 is known with regard to our
constitution?
[A] Constituent assembly came into being
[B] Drafting committee was set up
[C] Draft constitution got ready
[D] constitution was adopted by the constituent assembly
Answer: B [Drafting committee was set up]

377. Under which of the following articles rule of law embodied under Article 14 of
Indian constitution can be amended?
[A] Article 354
[B] Article 358
[C] Article 360
[D] Article 368
Answer: D [Article 368]

378. Article 13 of Indian constitution uses the words “to the extent of such inconsistency
be void” Which of the following doctrines is coherent to this ?
[A] Doctrine of Eclipse
[B] Doctrine of Waiver
[C] Doctrine of Severability
[D] Doctrine of Lapse
Answer: C [Doctrine of Severability]

379. Which of the present ministry of Government of India was formerly Ministry of
Welfare ?
[A] Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
[B] Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
[C] Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
[D] Ministry of Labor and Employment
Answer: B [Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment]

380. Which of the following article deals with annual Financial Statement (Budget)?
[A] Article 108
[B] Article 110
[C] Article 112
[D] Article 115
Answer: C [Article 112]

381. Under whose prime minister ship , the Antidefection bill was passed?
[A] V P Singh
[B] Rajiv Gandhi
[C] Narsimha Rao
[D] A B Vajpayee
Answer: B [Rajiv Gandhi]

382. The constitution 108th ( Amendment) Bill is related to which of the following?
[A] Inclusion of Gujjar Community of Rajasthan in the list of Scheduled Tribes
[B] Protection of the rights of the persons under arrest
[C] Providing One third reservation for women in Parliament and state legislative
assemblies
[D] Providing protection to the consumers
Answer: C [Providing One third reservation for women in Parliament and state
legislative assemblies]

383. India borrowed the idea of the concurrent list from the constitution of which of the
following countries?
[A] Australia
[B] UK
[C] USA
[D] France
Answer: A [Australia]

384. The following years a national emergency has been proclaimed so far ?
[A] 1961,1972,1975
[B] 1962,1975,1977
[C] 1962,1972,1975
[D] 1962,1971,1975
Answer: D [1962,1971,1975]

385. How many subjects are there in Eleventh schedule which was added by the 73rd
amendment Bill (1992) enshrining powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats?
[A] 21
[B] 25
[C] 27
[D] 29
Answer: D [29]

386. Who among the following held the office of Vice President of India for two
consecutive terms?
[A] Dr. R Venkatramanan
[B] Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
[C] Dr. VV Giri
[D] Dr. S Radhakrishnan
Answer: D [Dr. S Radhakrishnan]

387. Which among the following is a correct function of Public Accounts Committee?
[A] It works under President of India and creates accounts for various ministries
[B] It works under Comptroller and Auditor General of India and prepares accounts
[C] It is a parliamentary committee which gives report on nonplan expenditures of the
government
[D] It is a parliamentary committee which scrutinizes the report of the Comptroller &
Auditor General of India
Answer: D [It is a parliamentary committee which scrutinizes the report of the
Comptroller & Auditor General of India]

388. Which of the following presidents of India had shortest tenure?

[A] S Radhakrishanan
[B] Zakir Hussain
[C] V. V Giri
[D] BD Jatti
Correct Answer: B [Zakir Hussain]
389. The following people are referred as Fifth Column?
[A] Politicians
[B] Teachers
[C] Traders
[D] Anti nation people
Answer: D [Anti nation people]

390. Which among the following is also called as lengthiest amendment to Indian
Constitution?
[A] 24th
[B] 30th
[C] 40th
[D] 42nd
Answer: D [42nd]

391. The constitution of Jammu & Kashmir was framed by _____?

[A] The same constituent assembly which framed the constitution of India
[B] A special constituent assembly set up by parliament
[C] A special constituent assembly set up by state
[D] None of them
Answer: C [A special constituent assembly set up by state]

392. Which among the following is a written supplementary, explanatory or appended

document of Indian constitution?
[A] Part VI
[B] Preamble
[C] Schedules
[D] DPSP
Answer: C [Schedules]

393. Which of the following acts later led to creation of Zonal councils?
[A] Government of India Act 1935
[B] Indian Independence Act 1947
[C] People’s Representation Act 1950
[D] States Reorganization Act 1956
Answer: D [States Reorganization Act 1956]

394. Which of the following article deals with the appointment, duty and tenure of the
Advocate General of State?
[A] 155
[B] 160
[C] 162
[D] 165
Answer: D [165]

395. For which of the following bodies, no constitutional guidelines exist?

[A] The Election Commission
[B] The Planning Commission
[C] The Finance Commission
[D] UPSC
Answer: B [The Planning Commission]

396. Who among the following recommends the president of India regarding the
principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of
Consolidated Fund of India?
[A] Finance Minister
[B] Comptroller & Auditor General of India
[C] Finance Commission
[D] Controller General of Accounts
Answer: C [Finance Commission]

397. The Constitution 61st Amendment act 1988 substituted the words “Eighteen years”
for “Twenty One years” so that a person who attains the age of 18 years is eligible to
vote. In which article this amendment was made?
[A] Article 321
[B] Article 325
[C] Article 326
[D] Article 330
Answer: C [Article 326]
398. In which year 2 election commissioners were first appointed after the president of
India fixed the number of election commissioners to 2?
[A] 1980
[B] 1985
[C] 1989
[D] 1991
Answer: C [1989]

399. In which year , the Comptroller & Auditor General of India was relieved from his
responsibilities of maintenance of accounts?
[A] 1980
[B] 1982
[C] 1985
[D] 1971
Answer: D [1971]

400. The office of the Comptroller & Auditor General of India has been created in / on
the basis of __?
[A] Indian Constitution
[B] A cabinet resolution
[C] A presidential Ordinance
[D] Enactment by Parliament
Answer: A [Indian Constitution]

401. Which of the following article was added to Indian Constitution by 25th amendment
act , which gives the directive principles in article 39 (b) and ( c) primacy over
fundamental rights guaranteed under article 14 & 19 of the Indian Constitution?
[A] Article 31-C
[B] Article 51-A
[C] Article 42-C
[D] Article 32-C
Answer: A [Article 31-C]

402. What period was covered in the recommendations of first Finance Commission ?
[A] 1951-56
[B] 1952-57
[C] 1953-58
[D] 1954-59
Answer: B [1952-57]

403. In which year Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA) was repealed?
[A] 1973
[B] 1975
[C] 1978
[D] 1980
Answer: C [1978]

404. Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen are related to which of the
following countries?
[A] Britain
[B] USA
[C] France
[D] Italy
Answer: C [France]

405. Which of the following article deals with citizenship at the time of commencement
of the constitution?
[A] Article 5
[B] Article 6
[C] Article 7
[D] Article 8
Answer: A [Article 5]
406. Article 74, 75, 78 deal broadly with which of the following?
[A] Relationship between Prime Minister and president
[B] Relationship between Governor and Chief Ministers
[C] Size and nature of the council
[D] Composition of the cabinet
Answer: A [Relationship between Prime Minister and president]

407. Which of the following is known for first implementation of women suffrage?
[A] USA
[B] New Zealand
[C] Australia
[D] Corsica
Answer: D [Corsica]

408. Seat of Uttrakhand High court is located at:

[A] Dehradun
[B] Nainital
[C] Haridwar
[D] Tehri Garhwal
Answer: B [Nainital]

409. In which of the following decade India saw, maximum number of Prime Ministers?
[A] 1961-70
[B] 1971-80
[C] 1981-90
[D] 1991-2000
Answer: D [1991-2000]

410. Which among the following is in concurrent list ?

[A] Bankruptcy and insolvency
[B] estate duty in respect of property other than agricultural land
[C] Production, supply and distribution of goods,
[D] Foreign Loans
Answer: A [Bankruptcy and insolvency]

411. The Proposed Article 47 (A) by Constitution Review Commission of Justice M N

Venkatchaliah in the directive Principles of state policy is related to which of the
following?
[A] To amend the part IV and read it as Directive principles of State Policy and action
[B] To Control population
[C] Action against terrorism and terror activities
[D] set up National education commission
Answer: B [To Control population]

412. Which of the following Lok Sabha had the shortest duration?
[A] 9th
[B] 10th
[C] 11th
[D] 12th
Answer: D [12th]

413. How many matters are listed in Schedule XII added by 74th Amendment , which
are responsibility of the municipalities?
[A] 11
[B] 16
[C] 18
[D] 20
Answer: C [18]

414. Who among the following was the first chairman of the National Commission for
Women?
[A] Mohini Giri
[B] Dr. Poornima Advani
[C] Dr. Girija Vyas
[D] Jayanti Patnaik
Answer: D [Jayanti Patnaik]

415. In which year a non statutory minority commission was established in India ?
[A] 1972
[B] 1975
[C] 1977
[D] 1978
Answer: D [1978]

416. When vice president acts as the president , which among the following is/ are true?
[A] He/ She remains the chairman of the Rajya Sabha and performs the duties of the
chairman of Rajya Sabha
[B] He/ She ceases to be the chairman of Rajya Sabha
[C] Lok Sabha Speaker performs the duty of the chairman of the Rajya Sabha
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [He/ She ceases to be the chairman of Rajya Sabha]

417. Which among the following justifies the reason that Directive Principles were made
explicitly unjustifiable?
[A] The state may not have political will to implement the Directive Principles
[B] The state may not need to implement the Directive principles as Fundamental rights
were made justifiable
[C] The implementation of directive principles needs resources which the states may not
have
[D] The Constitution does not provide any clear guidelines to implement the directive
principles
Answer: C [The implementation of directive principles needs resources which the
states may not have]

418. Which among the following was the first programme launched by Government of
India to implement the article 47 of the directive principles of state policy ?
[A] Integrated rural development programme
[B] Community development programme
[C] National Rural employment programme
[D] Drought prone areas programme
Answer: B [Community development programme]

419. Which among the following article says that “directive principles are not
enforceable by any court but at the same time declared that they are nevertheless
fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be duty of the state to apply
these principles in making laws?
[A] Article 36
[B] Article 37
[C] Article 38
[D] Article 39
Answer: B [Article 37]

420. Constitution Part IV (Article 36-51) contain the directive principles of state policy. In
the following options bring out those which include the scope of Gandhian principles?
[A] Article 40, 43, 44
[B] Article 40, 47, 48
[C] Article 47 only
[D] Article 50 only
Answer: B [Article 40, 47, 48]
421. ”All those laws that were in force immediately before the enactment of the
constitution shall be void to the extent of inconsistency with the fundamental rights”.
Essence of Article 13(1) which quotes this can be placed under which of the following?
[A] Judicial Activism
[B] Judicial Review
[C] Discretionary review
[D] Judicial interpretation
Answer: B [Judicial Review]

422. Which of the following Union Territory has one Rajya Sabha seat ?
[A] Dadra & nagar Haveli
[B] Daman & Diu
[C] Puducherry
[D] Lakshadweep
Answer: C [Puducherry]

423. Which amendment of Indian constitution separated Daman & Diu from Goa?
[A] 50th
[B] 55th
[C] 57th
[D] 60th
Answer: C [57th]

424. Dr. Khubichand Baghel was the first person to raise a voice in favour of which of
the following states?
[A] Haryana
[B] Gujarat
[C] Chhattisgarh
[D] Uttarakhand
Answer: C [Chhattisgarh]
425. What kind of emergency in India has been imposed for maximum times?
[A] National Emergency
[B] Financial Emergency
[C] Constitutional Emergency
[D] Political Emergency
Answer: C [Constitutional Emergency]

426. What kind of emergency in India has been imposed for maximum times?
[A] National Emergency
[B] Financial Emergency
[C] Constitutional Emergency
[D] Political Emergency
Answer: C [Constitutional Emergency]

427. Which of the following was set up on the basis of recommendation of Shri K.
Santhanam committee?
[A] Central Vigilance Commission
[B] National Commission for Minorities
[C] States Reorganization Commission
[D] National Knowledge Commission
Answer: A [Central Vigilance Commission]

428. Which amendment bill made the number of Fundamental duties from 10 to 11 ?
[A] 42nd
[B] 44th
[C] 82nd
[D] 86th
Answer: D [86th]

429. During the tenure of which of the following prime ministers The Lok Sabha could
never meet?
[A] Morar Ji Desai
[B] Chaudhary Charan Singh
[C] Inder Kumar Gujral
[D] H. D. Deve Gowda
Answer: B [Chaudhary Charan Singh]

430. which of the following amendment acts of the constitution two articles were added
in the constitution to incorporate Administrative Tribunals?
[A] 42nd amendment act
[B] 44th amendment act
[C] 46th amendment act
[D] 49th amendment act
Answer: A [42nd amendment act]
Explanation: The added articles were 323A & 323B

431. Under which of the following the Pondicherry judiciary comes ?

[A] Madras High court
[B] Andhra Pradesh High court
[C] Kerala High court
[D] Karnataka High court
Answer: A [Madras High court]

432. Article 25-28 of the Indian Constitution deal with __?

[A] Right to Freedom
[B] Right to Equality
[C] Freedom of religion
[D] Constitutional Remedies
Answer: C [Freedom of religion]

433. Which among the following statement is correct ?

[A] There are provisions that a retired judge of supreme court only can sit and act as
judge of Supreme court
[B] There are no such provisions exist
[C] There are provisions that a retired judge of supreme court & high courts can sit and
act as judge of Supreme court
[D] There are provisions that a retired judge of high courts only can sit and act as judge
of Supreme court
Answer: C [There are provisions that a retired judge of supreme court & high
courts can sit and act as judge of Supreme court]

434. After how many days of India becoming a Sovereign Democratic Republic, the
Supreme Court came into being?
[A] 2 days
[B] 7 days
[C] 1 month
[D] 1 year
Answer: A [2 days]
Explanation: in January 28, 1950

435. The Official Language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script and English
could be also used for official purposes” which of the following article says this?
[A] 343(1)
[B] 348(1)
[C] 346
[D] 345
Answer: A [343(1)]

436. For elections in Lok Sabha & Assemblies in India, the following system is used?
[A] Proportional representation
[B] Functional representation
[C] Territorial representation
[D] Communal representation
Answer: C [Territorial representation]

437. Which among the following is legacy / legacies of British Rule in India?
[A] Creation of Indian Civil Services
[B] Secretarial System
[C] Local Self Government
[D] All are correct
Answer: D [All are correct]

438. Which among the following is correct in context with the powers of the parliament
in enacting the budget ?
[A] Parliament can increase tax but can not reduce or abolish it
[B] Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax but can not increase
[C] Parliament can neither increase nor reduce or abolish a tax
[D] Parliament can increase as well as reduce or abolish a tax
Answer: B [Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax but can not increase]

439. In which of the following conditions the speaker & deputy speaker of the Lok
Sabha have to vacate the office?
[A] When Presidents wishes
[B] When the ruling party loses confidence
[C] When they are not MPs
[D] Immediately after dissolution of Lok Sabha
Answer: C [When they are not MPs]
440. Which among the following regarding NRI’s Voting rights is correct ?
[A] NRIs can not vote in parliamentary and assembly elections
[B] NRIs can not vote in parliamentary elections but can vote in assembly elections
[C] NRIs can vote in parliamentary elections but can not vote in assembly elections
[D] NRIs can vote in parliamentary as well as assembly elections
Answer: D [NRIs can vote in parliamentary as well as assembly elections]

441. Which among the following was the first state in India to constitute an institution of
Lokayukta?
[A] Karnataka
[B] Kerala
[C] Orissa
[D] Rajasthan
Answer: C [Orissa]

442. The establishment of LokPal in India was recommended by the Administrative

Reforms Commission (1966) on the lines of Ombudsman in the following countries?
[A] Finland & Norway
[B] Finland, Denmark & Norway
[C] Finland, Norway, Denmark & Switzerland
[D] Finland, England & Norway
Answer: B [Finland, Denmark & Norway]

443. Bring out the incorrect statement regarding the zero hour?
[A] There is no mention about Zero hour in rules of procedure
[B] The Zero hour usually starts at 12.00 noon
[C] The zero hour questions can be asked without permission
[D] All are correct
Answer: D [All are correct]

444. Which of the following were envisaged in the 74th Constitutional Amendment Bill?
[A] Constitution and Composition of a municipality
[B] Personnel system in a Municipality
[C] Relations between elected members (executive) of a municipality and bureaucracy
[D] All are correct
Answer: A [Constitution and Composition of a municipality]
445. In which year the practice of presenting the railway budget separate from the
general budget (or vice versa in true sense) started in India?
[A] 1920
[B] 1924
[C] 1925
[D] 1930
Answer: B [1924]

446. Which among the following was the first state in India where emergency was
imposed due to failure of Constitutional Machinery of the state?
[A] Kerala
[B] Bombay
[C] Punjab
[D] Uttar Pradesh
Answer: C [Punjab]

447. Which among the following committees recommended to set up an “Equal

Opportunity Commission”?
[A] Sarkaria Commission
[B] Sachar Committee
[C] Bhagawati Committee
[D] Chawla Committee
Answer: B [Sachar Committee]
Explanation: To set up an Equal Opportunity Commission for looking into the
grievances of deprived groups; to develop an appropriate diversity index in education,
work places and living spaces, to set up a National Data Bank and an autonomous
Assessment & Monitoring

448. Which among the following set up Family Courts in India?

[A] Union Government
[B] State / UT Government
[C] Supreme Court
[D] Governor of states
Answer: B [State / UT Government]

449. Which among the following statement is correct ?

[A] The state legislative assemblies have no role to play in Constitution Amendments
[B] All provisions of the constitution can be amended only after ratification by the state
legislatures of majority of states
[C] Some provisions of the constitution can be amended only after ratification by the
state legislatures of majority of states
[D] Some provisions of the constitution can be amended only after ratification by the
state legislatures of all the states
Answer: C [Some provisions of the constitution can be amended only after
ratification by the state legislatures of majority of states]

450. The power to create of abolish legislative council in states is vested with which
among the following?
[A] Council of State Ministers
[B] Governor of the state
[C] Legislative assembly of the state
[D] President of India
Answer: C [Legislative assembly of the state]
Explanation: Legislative assembly of the state make recommendations and parliament
makes necessary laws for this

451. An eminent jurist and constitutional expert NA palkivala called the preamble as the
………………… of the constitution
[A] Revolution
[B] Objective
[C] dentity card
[D] Origin
Answer & Explanation
Answer [C] dentity card
Explanation : An eminent jurist and constitutional expert NA palkivala called the
preamble as the identity caed of the constitution

452. The idea of Justice, Social, Economic and political have been taken from the
………………………….
[A] Russian Revolution
[B] French Revolution
[C] British Revolution
[D] Asian Revolution
Answer [A] Russian Revolution
Explanation : The idea of Justice, Social, Economic and political have been taken from
the Russian Revolution(1917)

453. The idea of Liberty Equality and Fraternity has been taken from the
…………………
[A] Russian Revolution
[B] French Revolution
[C] British Revolution
D] Asian Revolution
Answer [B] French Revolution
Explanation : The idea of Liberty Equality and Fraternity has been taken from the
French Revolution(1789-1799)

454. Every Indian Citizen above ……………….. has a right to vote in the elections
[A] 16 years
[B] 20 years
[C] 22 years
[D] 18 years
Answer [D] 18 years
Explanation : Every Indian Citizen above 18 years has a right to vote in the elections
without any discriminations of caste, sex, religion etc.
455. By the ……………………………………………. Delhi was given the status of
National capital territory of India
[A] 60th Constitutional Amendment Act
[B] 56th Constitutional Amendment Act
[C] 35th Constitutional Amendment Act
[D] 69th Constitutional Amendment Act
Answer [D] 69th Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation : By the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act Delhi was given the status of
National capital territory of India

456. In 1960 ………………. was bifurcated into Gujarat and Maharashtra

[A] Bombay
[B] Delhi
[C] Haryana
[D] Punjab
Answer [A] Bombay
Explanation : On 4 December 1959, the Congress Working Committee (CWC) passed
a resolution recommending the bifurcation of the Bombay State. In 1960 Bombay was
bifurcated into Gujarat and Maharashtra.

457. At present there are …………………….. states and …………… Union Territories
[A] 30, 7
[B] 29, 7
[C] 28, 6
[D] 27, 6
Answer [B] 29, 7
Explanation : India is a union of 29 states and 7 union territories. The states and union
territories are further subdivided into districts and further into smaller administrative
divisions.

458. How many number of seats in Lower House of Parliament ?

[A] 560
[B] 420
[C] 545
[D] 470
Answer [C] 545
Explanation : The Lok Sabha (Lower House of Indian Parliament) has 543
elective seats and two seats are filled by nomination

459……………. number of seats in Upper House of Parliament

[A] 360
[B] 205
[C] 270
[D] 250
Answer [D] 250
Explanation : India’s Parliament is bicameral.Rajya Sabha(250) is the upper house and
Lok Sabha is the lower house. Membership of Rajya Sabha is limited by the
Constitution to a maximum of 250 members, and current laws have provision for 245
members.

460. Minimum age required to contest for Loksabha election is ………………

[A] 18 years
[B] 25 years
[C] 22 years
[D] 30 years
Answer [B] 25 years
Explanation : Article 84 (b) of Constitution of India provides that the minimum age for
becoming a candidate for Lok Sabha election shall be 25 years.

461. How many members are nominated by the president of India to the Rajya Sabha ?
[A] Five
[B] Twelve
[C] Eleven
[D] Nine
Answer [B] Twelve
Explanation : Under article 80 of the Constitution, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
is composed of not more than 250 members, of whom 12 are nominated by the
President of India.

462. Members of the Lok sabha are elected for a period of ……………………
[A] 5 years
[B] 3 years
[C] 4 years
[D] 10years
Answer [A] 5 years
Explanation : Members of the Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people of
India. The general term of the Lok Sabha is 5 years

463. ………………………………. is presided by a non-member

[A] Vidhan Sabha
[B] Lok Sabha
[C] Rajya Sabha
[D] Vidhya Parishad
Answer [C] Rajya Sabha
Explanation : Rajya Sabha is presided by a non-member

464. The members of Lok Sabha are elected and represented on the basis of………….
[A] Literacy rate
[B] Community
[C] Area
[D] Population
Answer – [D] Population
Explanation : The Lok Sabha, as per the Constitution, consists of not more than five
hundred and thirty members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in
the States, not more than twenty members to represent the Union Territories [Article 81]
and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community.

465. Twelve members are nominated by thePresident of Indiato Rajya Sabha.having

special knowledge in various areas like ……………………
[A] Literature, Science, Art, Social service
[B] Art, Sports, Law and Economics
[C] Literature, Law, Art, Philosophy and Social Work
[D] Literature, Science,Law and Science & Technology
Answer – [A] Literature, Science, Art, Social service
Explanation : Under article 80 of the Constitution, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
is composed of not more than 250 members, of whom 12 are nominated by the
President of India from amongst persons who have special knowledge or practical
experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art and social service.

466. Members of Lok Sabha are elected by the way of ………………..

[A] By the PM
[B] By the state legislature
[C] Nominations
[D] People’s representation
Answer [D] People’s representation
Explanation : Members of Lok Sabha are elected by the way of People’s
representation
467. What is the minimum period permissible between two sessions of Parliaments ?
[A] 60 days
[B] 90days
[C] 100days
[D] 12days
Answer – [B] 90days
Explanation : The Constitution empowers the president to summon each House at
such intervals that there should not be more than a six-month gap between the two
sessions. Hence the Parliament must meet at least twice a year.The minimum period
permissible between two sessions of Parliaments is 3 months and maximum 6 months.

468. The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as
……………
[A] Zero Hour
[B] Question Hour
[C] Peak Hour
[D] Listen Hour
Answer – [A] Zero Hour
Explanation :The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known
as “Zero Hour”. It starts at around 12 noon (hence the name) and members can, with
prior notice to the Speaker, raise issues of importance during this time. Typically,
discussions on important Bills, the Budget, and other issues of national importance take
place from 2pm onwards.

469. Budget session take place in a year of ……………………………….

[A] November to mid December
[B] July to September
[C] February to May
[D] May to June
Answer – [C] February to May
Explanation :
Budget session: February to May.
Monsoon session: July to September.
Winter session: November to mid December.

470. …………………… session take place in a year of July to September

[A] Winter
[B] Monsoon
[C] Summer
[D] Budget
Answer [B] Monsoon
Explanation :
Budget session: February to May.
Monsoon session: July to September.
Winter session: November to mid December.

471. Which among the following is a correct statement?

[A] Only President can grant pardon to a person awarded death sentence and a person
punished under Martial Law
[B] Both President & Governor can grant pardon to a person awarded death sentence
and a person punished under Martial Law
[C] President can grant pardon to a person awarded death sentence and Governor can
grant pardon to a person punished under Martial Law
[D] Only President can grant pardon to a person awarded death sentence and a person
punished under Martial Law, However Governor can grant pardon a person punished
under martial law
Answer: A [Only President can grant pardon to a person awarded death sentence
and a person punished under Martial Law]

472. Constitution has given powers to the President and Governors regarding
nomination of members of Anglo Indian Community (in case the community does not
get adequate representation) in the Lok Sabha and State legislative Assembly
respectively. Which among the following statement is correct in this regard?
[A] President & Governor can appoint 2 members each
[B] President can appoint 2 members and Governor can appoint 1 member
[C] President & Governor can appoint 1 member each
[D] President can appoint 5 members and Governor can appoint 2 member
Answer: B [President can appoint 2 members and Governor can appoint 1
member]

473. Which among the following statement is correct ?

[A] Both Governor and President occupy constitutional position
[B] Only Governor occupies constitutional position
[C] Only President occupied constitutional Position
[D] Neither President nor Governor occupy constitutional position
Answer: A [Both Governor and President occupy constitutional position]

474. The Governor of a state can __________?

[A] Nominate one third members of legislative assembly
[B] Nominate one sixth members of the legislative assembly
[C] Nominate on third members of the legislative council
[D] Nominate 12 members in legislative assembly
Answer: B [Nominate one sixth members of the legislative assembly]

475. Who among the following can recommend the removal of the Chairman of UPSC
to the President?
[A] Vice President
[B] Supreme Court
[C] Minister of Human Resources
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [Supreme Court]
476. Under which of the following jurisdiction , supreme court of India is duty bound to
give its opinion on matters referred to it by President of India?
[A] Original Jurisdiction
[B] Appellate Jurisdiction
[C] Advisory Jurisdiction
[D] 1 & 2
Answer: C [Advisory Jurisdiction]

477. Which among the following committees of Lok Sabha is assisted by Comptroller &
Auditor General of India?
[A] Estimates committee
[B] Public Accounts Committee
[C] Joint Committee of salary and allowances
[D] Joint committee of Offices of Profit
Answer: B [Public Accounts Committee]

478. Which among the following Bill will not be lapsed , in the event of dissolution of
House?
[A] Any bill pending in Lok Sabha
[B] Any Bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha
[C] Any Bill passed by the Rajya Sabha and pending in Lok Sabha Sabha
[D] Any Bill pending in Rajya Sabha & Not passed by Lok Sabha
Answer: D [Any Bill pending in Rajya Sabha & Not passed by Lok Sabha]

479. Power to dissolve Lok Sabha is vested with ?

[A] Prime Minister
(B)Council Council of Ministers
[C] President
[D] Lok Sabha Speaker
Answer: C [President]

480. In the Rajya Sabha the states have been provided representation on which of the
following basis?
[A] Area
[B] Population
[C] Number of Lok Sabha Constituencies
[D] Number of Legislative Assemblies
Answer: B [Population]

481. Which among the following presidents of India represented India in UNESCO once
in his lifetime?
[A] Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
[B] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[C] Dr. S Radhakrishnan
[D] Giani Jail Singh
Answer: C [Dr. S Radhakrishnan]

482. Who among the following presidents of India was the first Chief Minister of Modern
states in India?
[A] Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
[B] Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
[C] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[D] Dr. BD Jatti
Answer: B [Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy]
Explanation: Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy was the first Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh
when the state was formed in 1956

483. Who among the following past presidents of India never served as a Chief
Minister of a state in India?
[A] Giani Jail Singh
[B] Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
[C] Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
[D] Dr, Zakir Hussain
Answer: D [Dr, Zakir Hussain]

484. Which among the following regularly meets as a body to discharge government
functions?
[A] State Ministers
[B] Council of Ministers
[C] Cabinet
[D] Parliament
Answer: C [Cabinet]

485. Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Bill, 2008 which was passed
by the parliament seeks to reserve what fraction of seats in the private schools for
weaker sections of the society?
[A] 10%
[B] 25%
[C] 30%
[D] 40%
Answer: B [25%]

486. The Constitution 73rd Amendment had initiated the process of political
empowerment of the Panchayats in the country. Since then, Panchayat elections have
been regularly held in all the States and Union Territories in India where Part IX of the
Constitution is applicable. Which among the
following states has been an exception to this ?
[A] Haryana
[B] Bihar
[C] Kerala
[D] Jharkhand
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [Jharkhand]

487. In which year Prime Minister’s New 15 Point Programme for the Welfare of
Minorities was launched ?
[A] 2003
[B] 2004
[C] 2005
[D] 2006
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [2006]

488. In which year legislative council of Tamilnadu was abolished?

[A] 1983
[B] 1985
[C] 1986
[D] 1987
Answer: C [1986]

489. Which among the following is not correctly matched?

[A] India’s National Animal : Panthera tigris
[B] India’s National Bird : Pavo cristasus
[C] India’s National Fruit : Mangifera indica
[D] All are correct
Answer: D [All are correct]

490. Which among the following fundamental rights has been to subject to maximum
litigation after inauguration of the Constitution of India?
[A] Right to Freedom
[B] Right to Constitutional remedies
[C] Right to Property
[D] Right against exploitation
Answer: C [Right to Property]

491. Which among the following was the outcome of The States Reorganization Act
1956?
[A] 22 states , 9 Uts
[B] 14 states, 6 Uts
[C] 17 states, 7UTs
[D] 18 states 7 Uts
Answer: B [14 states, 6 Uts]

492. Which among the following was not a Union Territory before it was accorded the
status of Full Fledged state ?
[A] Himachal Pradesh
[B] Manipur
[C] Tripura
[D] Sikkim
Answer: D [Sikkim]

493. JVP committee which was constituted in 1948-49 was related to which of the
following ?
[A] Industrialization of India
[B] Formation of new states on linguistic basis
[C] National language of India
[D] Reservation for SC & STS
Answer: B [Formation of new states on linguistic basis]

494. In which year Uttranchal was renamed as Uttarakhand?

[A] 2004
[B] 2005
[C] 2006
[D] 2007
Answer: D [2007]

495. Among Meghalaya , Sikkim, Nagaland, & Assam , how many states were initially
given status of autonomous states and subsequently made full fledged states?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
Answer: B [2]
Explanation: Meghalaya and Sikkim

496. In which year Government of India banned conducting exit polls and publishing
these results from the time the polls start until all phases of the election are completed?
[A] 2004
[B] 2006
[C] 2008
[D] 2010
Answer: C [2008]

497. Which among the following statements is not correct ?

[A] All money bills originate in Lok Sabha Only
[B] Resolution of removal of Vice President can originate in Rajya Sabha Only
[C] Resolution to create new all India services can be initiated in Lok Sabha Only
[D] No confidence motion against council of Ministers is exclusive power of Lok Sabha
Answer: C [Resolution to create new all India services can be initiated in Lok
Sabha Only]
Explanation: Resolution to create new all India services can be initiated in Rajya
Sabha only and Parliament can enact this only after Rajya Sabha passes this by two
third majority.

498. Which among the following statement is correct ?

[A] Right to property is a fundamental right and right to privacy is a implied right
[B] Right to property is a legal right and right to privacy is a fundamental right
[C] Right to property is a implied right while right to privacy is a legal right
[D] Right to property is a Legal right while right to privacy is a implied right
Answer: D [Right to property is a Legal right while right to privacy is a implied
right]

499. In which year the Metropolitan Council of Delhi was replaced by a 70 member
legislative assembly?
[A] 1990
[B] 1991
[C] 1992
[D] 1993
Answer: C [1992]
500. Which among the following is a correct statement?
[A] USA – Supremacy of the constitution ;Britain – Supremacy of the Parliament
[B] Britain – Supremacy of the constitution ;USA – Supremacy of the Parliament
[C] Britain & USA -Supremacy of the constitution
[D] Britain & USA -Supremacy of the Parliament
Answer: A [USA – Supremacy of the constitution ;Britain – Supremacy of the
Parliament]
Explanation: India’s constitution combines these two contradictory principles. In India
the constitution have tried to keep a balance between the Judiciary and the parliament.
While Judiciary (Supreme Court) through its power of Judicial review can declare laws
passed by the parliament as unconstitutional the Parliament can amend the major
portions of the constitution. (without affecting the basic structure of the constitution
501. In which of the following Objectives of the constitution were incorporated ?
[A] Preamble
[B] Fundamental rights
[C] DPSP
[D] Judicary
Answer: A [Preamble]

502. Who among the following fixed August 16, 1946 as ” Direct Action Day” ?
[A] Jawahr Lal Nehru
[B] Muslim League
[C] British Authorities
[D] Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: B [Muslim League]

503. Who among the following was the vice president of the executive council in the
Interim Government 1946-47?
[A] Moti Lal Nehru
[B] Pandit Jawahar lal Nehru
[C] Sardar Patel
[D] C Rajgopalachari
Answer: B [Pandit Jawahar lal Nehru]

504. The Qualifications of a candidate for Attorney General must be equivalent to ___?
[A] A Judge of High Court
[B] A Judge of Supreme Court
[C] A Minimum Practice of 10 years in High Courts
[D] A Minimum Practice of 10 years in Supreme Court
Answer: B [A Judge of Supreme Court]
505. The establishment of a finance commission was provided by the Indian constitution
by the President within a period of ______ of commencement of the constitution?
[A] 2 years
[B] 3 years
[C] 5 years
[D] 10 years
Answer: A [2 years]

506. Which among the following article deals with the suspension of provisions of article
19 during emergencies. ?
[A] 353
[B] 355
[C] 356
[D] 358
Answer: D [358]

507. Which among the following is a NOT valid reason for slow implementation of the
directive principles of state policy ?
[A] Lack of Political will
[B] Lack of Social will
[C] Lack of resources
[D] Vast area of country
Answer: B [Lack of Social will]

508. In whose name all the contracts of Government of India are concluded?
[A] Prime miniter of India
[B] President of India
[C] Finance Minister of India
[D] Finance Secretary of India
Answer: B [President of India]
509. Which among the following is a correct combination of members in Joint
Committee on Office of Profit ?
[A] 15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha =Total 25 members
[B] 15 from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha = Total 30 members
[C] 20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha = Total 30 members
[D] 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha = Total 22 members
Answer: A [15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha =Total 25 members]

510. Who among the following coined the term zero hour?
[A] Constitution assembly
[B] Dr. B R Ambedkar
[C] Indira Gandhi
[D] Press
Answer: D [Press]
Explanation: Please note that this term was coined by the press in 1960s and there is
no mention in parliamentary procedure rules

511. Till which year the judges of the Supreme Court were appointed by the President
on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India?
[A] 1990
[B] 1991
[C] 1992
[D] 1993
Answer: D [1993]

512. Who among the following has right to declare any area as a Scheduled Area?
[A] Governor of the respective state
[B] President of India
[C] Parliament of India
[D] State legislature
Answer: B [President of India]
513. Creation of a very strong centre is a ____?
[A] Federal feature
[B] Non-federal feature
[C] Quasifedral feature
[D] National feature
Answer: A [Federal feature]

514. Who among the following was appointed head of the new commission established
in 2007 to reexamine centre-state relations?
[A] Justice Markandey Katju
[B] Justice R.M.Lodha
[C] Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi
[D] Justice K Jagannatha Shetty
Answer: C [Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi]

515. Which of the following amendment bill exempted the state of Bihar from the
obligation of having a tribal Welfare Minister?
[A] 92nd
[B] 93rd
[C] 94th
[D] 95th
Answer: C [94th]

516. The Constitution 100th Amendment Bill is related to which of the following?
[A] Representation of SC & ST in Assam Legislative assembly
[B] New Languages in 8th Schedule
[C] Constitution of National Judicial Commission
[D] Antidefection Law
Answer: B [New Languages in 8th Schedule]
517. Which among the following is correct regarding Arunachal Pradesh ?
[A] Lok Sabha Seat 1 Rajya Sabha Seats 2
[B] Lok Sabha Seats 2 Rajya Sabha Seats 2
[C] Lok Sabha Seats 3 Rajya Sabha Seats 2
[D] Lok Sabha Seats 2 Rajya Sabha Seat 1
Answer: D [Lok Sabha Seats 2 Rajya Sabha Seat 1]

518. Which among the following is incorrect about Cabinet system?

[A] The proceedings of the cabinet are kept secret
[B] The Prime Minister presides the cabinet meeting
[C] Members of the cabinet are chosen by the prime minister
[D] Inner cabinet has been stipulated by our constitution
Answer: D [Inner cabinet has been stipulated by our constitution]

519. The Andhra Pradesh Legislative Council was abolished in 1985. In which year it
was revived back ?
[A] 2004
[B] 2005
[C] 2006
[D] 2007
Answer: D [2007]

520. Who among the following works as chairman of Kendriya Hindi Samiti ?
[A] Minister of Culture, Government of India
[B] Prime Minister of India
[C] Vice President of India
[D] Minister of State for Official Languages
Correct Answer: B [Prime Minister of India]

521. Which among the following case is related to the theory of basic structure of
constitution as propounded by Supreme court?
[A] Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
[B] Golak nath v. state of Punjab
[C] Gopalan v. State of madras
[D] SR Bommai v Union of India
Answer: A [Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala]

522. Which among the following languages was included in the eighth schedule by
Constitution (21st) amendment Bill on 10 April 1967?
[A] Assamese
[B] Sindhi
[C] Gujarathi
[D] Konkani
Answer: B [Sindhi]

523. January 26, 1957 is known for which of the following?

[A] Second parliamentary term began
[B] Second general elections
[C] Second Five year plan terms started
[D] Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir came into force
Answer: D [Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir came into force]

524. In India whose among the following the salary is excepted from Income Tax?
[A] President
[B] Prime minister
[C] All Ministers
[D] Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: A [President]

525. “A rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be
stopped” is known in parliamentary terminology as__?
[A] session
[B] closure
[C] resolution
[D] de jure
Answer: B [closure]

526. What is the rank of Union Cabinet Secretary in the table of Precedence in India?
[A] 5th
[B] 9th
[C] 11th
[D] 15th
Answer: C [11th]

527. ’Sarbajit Roy versus DERC’ was a famous case in the later half of 2006. This case
is particularly related to which of the following?
[A] Fundamental rights
[B] Fundamental duities
[C] Right to Information
[D] Income Tax
Answer: C [Right to Information]

528. When I respect the ideals and institutions of our constitution and respect national
flag and national anthem perform which of the following?
[A] Exercise my right to freedom
[B] Exercise my cultural and educational rights
[C] Exercise my right to constitutional remedies
[D] perform my fundamental duties
Answer: D [perform my fundamental duties]

529. Bring Out the wrong statements:

[A] The fundamental rights were finalized by a committee of the constituent assembly
headed by Jawahar Lal Nehru
[B] Article 32 empowers an individual to approach directly to supreme court for
enforcement of his fundamental rights
[C] Article 17 & 24 are called absolute rights
[D] All are correct
Answer: A [The fundamental rights were finalized by a committee of the
constituent assembly headed by Jawahar Lal Nehru]
Explanation: The fundamental rights were finalized by a committee of the constituent
assembly headed by Sardar Patel.

530. Bring out the wrong statements:

[A] The first sitting of the Union parliament was held in 1952
[B] The idea of concurrent list has been borrowed from Australia
[C] Salaries of Judges of Supreme Court are drawn from Consolidated fund of India
[D] All are correct
Answer: D [All are correct]

531. How long did the constituent assembly take to frame the constitution?
[A] Approximately 1 year
[B] Approximately 2 years
[C] Approximately 3 years
[D] 6 months
Answer: C [Approximately 3 years]
Explanation: The constituent assembly took 2 years , 11 months and 18 days to frame
the constitution

532. In context of our constitution the date of 13 December 1946 is known for which of
the following?
[A] Cabinet Mission Plan
[B] Setting up of Constituent Assembly
[C] First meeting of Constituent Assembly
[D] Objective Resolution was moved
Answer: D [Objective Resolution was moved]
Explanation: The historic Objectives Resolution was moved by Jawahar Lal Nehru on
13 December 1946 and was adopted on 22 January 1947.

533. Through which of the following a Federal Court was established?

[A] Indian Councils Act 1909
[B] Indian Councils Act 1892
[C] Government of India act 1919
[D] Government of India act 1935
Answer: D [Government of India act 1935]

534. Indian Legislature became “bicameral” through which of the following?

[A] The Morley- Minto Reforms
[B] Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
[C] Government of India Act 1935
[D] Government of India Act 1909
Answer: B [Montague-Chelmsford Reforms]

535. Bring out the wrongly matched pairs:

[A] Charter Act 1793- Power to Governor General to override his council
[B] Charter Act 1813 – Procedures for the use of Indian revenue
[C] The Indian Council Act 1861- Fifth member added to Viceroy’s executive council
[D] All are correct
Answer: D [All are correct]

536. In which year the age for voting rights was reduced from 21 to 18?
[A] 1980
[B] 1982
[C] 1986
[D] 1989
Answer: D [1989]
Explanation: 28 March 1989, By Constitution Sixty First Amendment 1989

537. Which of the following states in India is exempted from reservation for Scheduled
Castes in Panchayati Raj institutions?
[A] Rajasthan
[B] Assam
[C] Arunanchal Pradesh
[D] Sikkim
Answer: C [Arunanchal Pradesh]
Explanation: Arunanchal Pradesh by Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000

538. The power of Judicial review in India lies with the __?
[A] Supreme Court only
[B] High court and Supreme Court
[C] High Court only
[D] Lower courts only
Answer: A [Supreme Court only]

539. Which among the following is not correctly matched? (Women Chief Ministers)
[A] Sucheta kriplani – Uttar Pradesh
[B] Nandini Satpaty – Orissa
[C] Sashikala Kadokar – Goa
[D] All are correct
Answer: D [All are correct]

540. Which among the following statements is correct ?

[A] A joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament is summoned and presided by
President
[B] A joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament is summoned and presided by
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
[C] A joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament is summoned by President and
presided by Speaker of Lok Sabha
[D] A joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament is summoned by Speaker of Lok
Sabha and presided by President
Answer: C [A joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament is summoned by
President and presided by Speaker of Lok Sabha]

541. The first non confidence motion was moved in the Lok Sabha in which of the
following years?
[A] 1960
[B] 1963
[C] 1965
[D] 1969
Answer: B [1963]

542. How many Former Presidents have been awarded “Bharat Ratna ” till now?
[A] 2
[B] 3
[C] 4
[D] 5
Answer: D [5]
Explanation: Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, Rajendra Prasad, Zakir Hussain, A. P. J.
Abdul Kalam, Dr. V V Giri,

543. In the wake of the sarkaria commission report, which state suggested the abolition
of the office of the governor?
[A] Karnataka
[B] Andhra Pradesh
[C] Tamilnadu
[D] Kerala
Answer: B [Andhra Pradesh]

544. Which article deals with the procedure for amendment of the Indian Constitution?
[A] Article 356
[B] Article 360
[C] Article 365
[D] Article 368
Answer: D [Article 368]

545. Consider the following statements and bring out the only wrong statement?
[A] Official language of Jammu & Kashmir is Urdu
[B] Prime Minister is the functional head of the government
[C] Advocate General is the legal advisor to the state government provided by
constitution
[D] All are correct
Answer: D [All are correct]

546. Which among the following amendments provided for the deletion of article 314
inclusion of a new article 312 A which confers powers on Parliament to vary or revoke
by law the conditions of Civil Services ?
[A] Twenty-eighth Amendment Act, 1972
[B] Twenty-fourth Amendment Act, 1971
[C] Twenty-ninth Amendment Act, 1972
[D] Twenty-sixth Amendment Act, 1971
Answer: A [Twenty-eighth Amendment Act, 1972]

547. Before 26 November 1949, which among the following was the governing law of
India?
[A] The Cabinet Mission Plan
[B] Government of India Act 1935
[C] Government of India Act 1919
[D] Government of India Act 1909
Answer: B [Government of India Act 1935]

548. Supreme Court shall be a court of Record and shall have all the powers of such
courts including the power to punish for contempt of itself. Which article says this?
[A] Article 126
[B] Article 128
[C] Article 129
[D] Article 131
Answer: C [Article 129]

549. Which among the following date was passed by a resolution by Indian National
Congress to observe every year as ” Purna Swarajya”?
[A] January 26
[B] August 15
[C] August 30
[D] October 2
Answer: A [January 26]
Explanation: In the Lahore Session 1929, INC passed a resolution under the president
ship of Jawaharlal Nehru to observe 26 January every year as Purna Swarajya day

550. Under which of the following amendments the power of judicial review of the
Supreme Court and High courts was restored , which was curtailed by Constitution
(Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976?
[A] Forty-third Amendment Act, 1977
[B] Forty-fifth Amendment Act, 1980
[C] Forty-sixth Amendment Act, 1982
[D] Forty-eighth Amendment Act, 1984
Answer: A [Forty-third Amendment Act, 1977]

551. Which among the following Fundamental rights has been most controversial ?
[A] Right to Freedom
[B] Right to property
[C] Right to Freedom of religion
[D] Right to cultural & education Rights
Answer: B [Right to property]

552. Who among the following can establish a common high court for two or more
states / or Union Territories in India?
[A] President
[B] Supreme court
[C] Governors of the two states
[D] Parliament by The Law
Answer: D [Parliament by The Law]

553. Which article of the Indian constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the
Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
[A] Article 22
[B] Article 32
[C] Article 35
[D] Article 37
Answer: B [Article 32]

554. The interpretation of the Constitution falls within the domain of the Constitutional
Bench of the Supreme Court. At least how many members are required for this bench?
[A] 2
[B] 3
[C] 5
[D] 7
Answer: C [5]

555. As amended in January 2009, what is paid salary of the Chief Justice of India ?
[A] Rs. 70,000
[B] Rs. 100, 000
[C] Rs. 80,000
[D] Rs. 120,000
Answer: B [Rs. 100, 000]

556. If the post of both the President and the Vice-President falls vacant, the Chief
Justice of India discharges the functions of the President. For how many times this has
happened in India?
[A] One time only
[B] Two Times
[C] Three times
[D] zero times
Answer: A [One time only]
Explanation: only one time M. Hidaytulla is the only Chief Justice who acted as
President in 1969

557. Who among the following has been given rights to legislate on residuary subjects?
[A] State government
[B] Central government
[C] both central and state governments
[D] President
Answer: B [Central government ]
Explanation: Matters which are not included in any of the three lists (Union, State,
Concurrent) are known as residuary subjects
558. Based on the recommendations of which of the following committee/ commissions,
Inter-State Council has been set up on 28th May 1990 under article 263 of the
Constitution for co-ordination of Inter-State matters?
[A] Sarkaria commission
[B] Khosla Commission
[C] Mukherjee Commission
[D] Kapur Commission
Answer: A [Sarkaria commission]

559. In which of the following situations a President can establish a Inter -State
Council?
[A] During an emergency
[B] When council of Ministers recommends him / her to do so
[C] When parliament passes a law
[D] When it appears to him / her that it would be serving the public interest
Answer: D [When it appears to him / her that it would be serving the public
interest]
Explanation: Article 263 of the Constitution of India provides If at any time it appears to
the President that the public interest would be served by the establishment of a Inter
State Council

560. Who among the following can establish an Inter-State Council?

[A] President
[B] Supreme court
[C] Prime minister
[D] Parliament
Answer: A [President]
Explanation: Inter State council is a constitutional body set up on the basis of
provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India by a Presidential Orde
561. On which of the following dates Indian Constitution was completed ? (Passed by
the Constituent Assembly)
[A] January 26, 1950
[B] November 26, 1949
[C] January 26, 1949
[D] January 11, 1949
Answer: B [November 26, 1949]

562. Zero hour in the Indian parliament starts at which of the following time?
[A] 10.00 AM
[B] 12.00 PM
[C] 12.00 AM
[D] 2.00 PM
Answer: B [12.00 PM]

563. Which among the following term refers to Press ?

[A] First estate
[B] Second estate
[C] Third estate
[D] Fourth estate
Answer: D [Fourth estate]

564. Which among the following is the first state in India to set up a directorate of social
audit ?
[A] Haryana
[B] Rajasthan
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Kerala
Answer: C [Andhra Pradesh]

565. Which among the following taxes is levied by state government only?
[A] Wealth Tax
[B] Estate Duty
[C] Corporation tax
[D] Entertainment Tax
Answer: D [Entertainment Tax]

566. Which of the following commodities are directly affected by the fluctuations in
international rates of the crude oil ?
[A] Edible Oils
[B] Cereals
[C] Gold & Silver
[D] Consumer nondurable
Answer: C [Gold & Silver]

567. Doing away with which of the following articles was suggested by the Veerappa
Moily Commission in its report on Administrative reforms among the other aspects?
[A] Article 305 & 306
[B] Article 310 & 311
[C] Article 308 & 309
[D] Article 307 & 308
Answer: B [Article 310 & 311]

568. Foreign Jurisdiction comes under which of the following ?

[A] Union List
[B] State list
[C] Concurrent list
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Union List]

569. Economic and social planning comes under which of the following?
[A] Union List
[B] State List
[C] Concurrent List
[D] None of the above
Answer: C [Concurrent List]

570. Which among the following has been provided to the Scheduled Tribes and other
Traditional Forest Dwellers through The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act 2006?
[A] Legal rights on forest land
[B] Allocation of lands in places out side the forests
[C] Employment in Forest related industries
[D] 1 & 2
Answer: A [Legal rights on forest land]
571. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment is related to Right to Education
Bill ?
[A] 86th
[B] 90th
[C] 91st
[D] 97th
Answer: A [86th]

572. The part IX of the constitution which deals with Panchayats is not applicable to
which of the following states?
[A] Nagaland , Meghalaya & Mizoram
[B] Nagaland , Meghalaya, Mizoram & Tribal Areas of Assam
[C] Nagaland , Meghalaya , Mizoram , Tribal Areas of Assam and Tripura
[D] Nagaland , Meghalaya , Mizoram , Tribal Areas of Assam , Tripura & Hill areas of
Manipur
Answer: D [Nagaland , Meghalaya , Mizoram , Tribal Areas of Assam , Tripura &
Hill areas of Manipur]
573. Which among the following act gave rise to Haryana?
[A] The Acquired Territories Merger act 1960
[B] Himachal Pradesh & Bilaspur (new State) act 1954
[C] States Reorganization Act of 1956
[D] Punjab Reorganization Act 1966
Answer: D [Punjab Reorganization Act 1966]

574. Which among the following is 28th state of India ?

[A] Goa
[B] Jharkhand
[C] Uttarakhand
[D] Orissa
Answer: B [Jharkhand]

575. The Assam Reorganization act 1969 created which of the following State / states?
[A] Meghalya only
[B] Meghalaya & Mizoram
[C] Mizoram only
[D] Arunanchal Pradesh only
Answer: A [Meghalya only]

576. Choose the incorrect sentence among the following?

[A] The objective resolution passed by Pt Nehru was what became the Preamble of our
constitution
[B] Preamble is enforceable in court of law
[C] Preamble of Indian constitution has been amended only once in 1976
[D] Preamble proves the sovereignty lies ultimately with the Indian people
Answer: B [Preamble is enforceable in court of law]
Explanation: Preamble is not enforceable in court of law . This means that It is not
justifiable in nature
577. Which among the following is not true regarding the 42nd Amendment act 1976
which is also called a Mini Constitution of India?
[A] The amendments were mainly to give effect to the recommendation of Swaran Singh
Committee
[B] The words Liberty , Equality & Fraternity were added in the constitution
[C] Fundamental duties of the citizens added
[D] Directive principles of state policy were extended
Answer: B [The words Liberty , Equality & Fraternity were added in the
constitution]
Explanation: Secular, Socialist & Integrity were the terms added to the constitution

578. Which among the following sentences is / are NOT correct ?

[A] The first amendment to the constitution was effected in 1951
[B] Originally Indian constitution had 22 parts, 395 articles and 8 schedules
[C] The first meeting of the constituent assembly was held on 9th December 1946
[D] All are correct
Answer: D [All are correct]

579. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was not a member of which of the following committees of the
constituent assembly ?
[A] Committee on the rules of procedure
[B] Ad Hoc committee on National Flag
[C] Steering Committee
[D] Order of Business Committee
Answer: D [Order of Business Committee]

580. If there is a dispute in the presidential election it will be referred whom among the
following?
[A] Chief Election Commissioner
[B] Supreme Court
[C] Parliament
[D] Vice President
Answer: B [Supreme Court]

581. The following are the members of the electoral college electing the president __
[A] Elected members of Rajya Sabha
[B] Elected members of Rajya Sabha & Lok Sabha
[C] Elected members of the Rajya Sabha , Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
[D] Elected members of Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha , state assemblies and assemblies of
Union Territories
Answer: C [Elected members of the Rajya Sabha , Lok Sabha and State
Assemblies]

582. Which among the following is not a correct requisite qualification for a Presidential
candidate ?
[A] Not less than 35 years of Age
[B] Must not hold the office of profit
[C] Must have eligibility to become a member of Lok Sabha
[D] Must be a member of either house of the parliament
Answer: D [Must be a member of either house of the parliament]

583. The executive power of the Indian Union lies with which of the following ?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] Council of Ministers
[C] President
[D] Speaker
Answer: C [President]

584. “We command” is a literal meaning of which of the following ?

[A] Habeas corpus
[B] quo warranto
[C] mandamus
[D] certiorari
Answer: C [mandamus]

585. The writ of prohibition issued by Supreme Court or High court is issued against ?
[A] Administrative and judicial authorities
[B] Only Administrative authorities
[C] Judicial or quasi judicial authorities
[D] Govt and administrative authorities
Answer: C [Judicial or quasi judicial authorities]

586. The writ of mandamus is available for the purpose of which of the following ?
[A] Enforcement of Fundamental Rights
[B] Compelling a court or Judicial tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction when it has refuse
to exercise it
[C] Directing a public official or the Government not to enforce a law which is
unconstitutional
[D] All are correct
Answer: D [All are correct]

587. Which among the following best supported the idea of inclusion of fundamental
rights in our constitution?
[A] Simon Commission 1927
[B] Nehru Committee Report 1928
[C] Swaraj Bill 1895
[D] Sapru Committee Report on Constitutional proposals 1945
Answer: D [Sapru Committee Report on Constitutional proposals 1945]
588. In which among the following year the PIO card (persons of Indian Origin card )
was launched?
[A] 1997
[B] 1998
[C] 1999
[D] 2000
Answer: C [1999]

589. Which among the following Article deals with the rights of citizenships of certain
persons of Indian origin residing outside of India?
[A] Article 6
[B] Article 7
[C] Article 8
[D] Article 9
Answer: C [Article 8]

590. Which among the following acts provided for a High Commissioner who resided in
London, representing India in Great Britain?
[A] Government of India Act 1858
[B] Government of India Act 1909
[C] Government of India Act 1919
[D] Government of India Act 1935
Answer: C [Government of India Act 1919]

591. Which among the following sentence is incorrect ?

[A] The members of the council of ministers are individually responsible to the President
[B] The members of councils of Ministers are collectively responsible to the parliament
[C] A vote of no confidence against any minister is taken as a vote of no-confidence
against entire council of Ministers
[D] All are correct
Answer: D [All are correct]

592. Which among the following is incorrect regarding Money Bill ?

[A] It can be introduced only in Lok Sabha
[B] It can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President
[C] The Rajya Sabha is given 1 months time period to make recommendation on a
Money Bill
[D] All are correct
Answer: C [The Rajya Sabha is given 1 months time period to make
recommendation on a Money Bill]
Explanation: A money bill must be returned to the Lok Sabha within 14 days or the bill
is deemed to have passed both houses in the form it was originally passed by the Lok
Sabha

593. Who among the following can be appointed as ad hoc judges of Supreme Court ?
[A] Only Retired Judges of Supreme Court
[B] Only those qualified for appointed as judge of Supreme Court
[C] Only Retired Judges of High Courts
[D] District judges
Answer: B [Only those qualified for appointed as judge of Supreme Court]
Explanation: If there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue
any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a
High Court as an ad hoc judge after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court
concerned and with the previous consent of the president.

594. Sir Edwin Montagu, and the Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford are related to which of the
following?
[A] Government of India Act 1858
[B] Government of India Act 1909
[C] Government of India Act 1919
[D] Government of India Act 1935
Answer: C [Government of India Act 1919]
Explanation: Government of India Act 1919 was passed by British Parliament to further
expand the participation of Indians in the Government of India. Since the act embodied
reforms as recommended by a report of Edwin Montagu {Secretary of State for India}
and Lord Chelmsford {Viceroy and Governor General}, it is also called as Montague-
Chelmsford Reforms or simply Mont-Ford Reforms. The most notable feature of the act
was “end of benevolent despotism” and introduction of responsible government in
India.

595. Introduction of provincial Autonomy is related to which of the following acts?

[A] The Government of India Act, 1858
[B] The Government of India Act, 1909
[C] The Government of India Act, 1919
[D] The Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: D [The Government of India Act, 1935]

596. The success of Bardoli Satyagraha gave rise to which one of the greatest leaders
of the independence struggle?
[A] Mahatma Gandhi
[B] Sardar Patel
[C] Subhash Chandra Bose
[D] Rajaji
Answer: B [Sardar Patel]
597. In which year Andhra Pradesh was Created?
[A] 1950
[B] 1952
[C] 1956
[D] 1960
Answer: C [1956]
Explanation: The congress in its Jaipur session appointed a three member committee
also popularly known as JVP committee after the name of its leaders – Jawaharlal
Nehru,Vallabh Bhai Patel and Pattabhai Sitaramaya.The committee rejected language
as the bass of reorganization of states.. Potti Sreeramulu, one of the activists
demanding the formation of a Telugu-majority state, died on 16 December 1952 after
undertaking a fast-unto-death. This resulted in the creation of the first state on linguistic
basis for Telugu speaking people called Andhra State on October 1, 1953. It was later
reorganized as Andhra Pradesh in 1956

598. Arrange Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Kerala, Maharastra in correct chronological

order of creation?
[A] Maharastra, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur
[B] Kerala, Maharastra, Manipur, Himachal Pradesh
[C] Kerala, Maharastra, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur
[D] Maharastra, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, kerala
Answer: C [Kerala, Maharastra, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur]
Explanation: Kerala (1956), Maharastra (1960), Himachal Pradesh (1970), Manipur
(1971)

599. With which of the following countries National People’s Congress is related to ?
[A] USA
[B] UK
[C] China
[D] Germany
Answer: C [China]

600. Dr. T. M. Nair is related to which of the following ?

[A] Justice party
[B] Labour party of India
[C] Forward Bloc
[D] Trade union
Answer: A [Justice party]

601. Reservation of seats for scheduled tribes of Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram, &
Arunanchal Pradesh in Lok Sabha was a broad subject of which of the following
Amendment Acts?
[A] 52nd
[B] 57th
[C] 61st
[D] 65th
Answer: B [57th]

602. Which among the following committee related to backward Classes?

[A] Rajamannar Committee
[B] Sarkaria Commission
[C] Kaka Kalelkar Commission
[D] Rangarajan committee
Answer: C [Kaka Kalelkar Commission]
Explanation: In 1953, the central government established a Backwards Classes
Commission under Kalelkar’s chairmanship with the charter to recommend reforms for
removing inequities for underprivileged people. The Commission issued its report in
1955, recommending, among other things, that the government grant special privileges
to untouchables and other underprivileged people

603. Civil cases, Criminal Cases and constitutional cases come under which of the
following jurisdiction?
[A] Appellate Jurisdiction
[B] Advisory Jurisdiction
[C] Miscellaneous Powers
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Appellate Jurisdiction]
Explanation: Supreme Court is the Highest Court of appeal and the writs and decrees
of Supreme Court run throughout the country. The cases come to the Supreme Court in
the form of appeals against the judgments of the lower courts and this is called
appellate jurisdiction. Appellate jurisdiction involves the Constitution, Civil and criminal
matters.
604. The ” Bill of rights and Judicial Review” are borrowed from which of the following
countries constitution ?
[A] USA
[B] UK
[C] Germany
[D] Australia
Answer: A [USA]

605. Which among the following is not an international agreement centered around
Finance and Economic Cooperation?
[A] Abuja Treaty
[B] Cooperation Council for the Arab States of the Gulf
[C] Kyoto protocol
[D] None of the above
Answer: C [Kyoto protocol]

606. Which among the following is a correct definition of Dollarization?

[A] when the inhabitants of a country use US dollars in parallel to or instead of the
domestic currency
[B] when the inhabitants of a country use only US Dollars instead of a domestic
currency
[C] when the inhabitants of a country use foreign currency in parallel to or instead of the
domestic currency
[D] None of the above
Answer: C [when the inhabitants of a country use foreign currency in parallel to
or instead of the domestic currency]
Explanation: when the inhabitants of a country use foreign currency in parallel to or
instead of the domestic currency, The term is not only applied to usage of the United
States dollar, but generally to the use of any foreign currency as the national currency.

607. In which type of the question a written answer is desired?

[A] Starred question
[B] Unstarred question
[C] Short notice
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [Unstarred question]
Explanation:
• A starred question is distinguished by an asterisk and needs an oral answer.
Since the answer is oral, supplementary questions might follow a starred question.
• An un-starred question requires written answer. Since the answer is given in
written, there cannot be supplementary questions that follow an un-stared question
A question relating to a matter of public importance of an urgent character asked with
notice shorter than ten days is called a “Short Notice Question” Short Notice
questions are generally answered orally

608. What is the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha ?

[A] 232
[B] 250
[C] 245
[D] 240
Answer: B [250]
Explanation: Rajya Sabha is the upper house of parliament which represents the
states and union territories. Its membership is fixed to maximum 250 members of which
238 are elected by the representatives of states and union territories while 12 members
are nominated by President on account of their excellence in literature, science, art or
social service. The present strength of the Rajya Sabha is 245, of whom 233 are
representatives of the States/Union Territories and 12 are nominated by the President.

609. Who among the following is required to cause to be laid before both houses of
parliament in respect of each year financial year a statement of estimated receipts &
expenditures of the government?
[A] Finance minister
[B] Prime minister
[C] President
[D] Vice president
Answer: C [President]

610. Which among the following is NOT a fundamental duty of a citizen?

[A] Respect for the constitution
[B] Respect for the National Flag
[C] Respect for the National Anthem
[D] Respect for the government
Answer: D [Respect for the government]

611. The uniform civil code which has been recommended in the directive principles is
to ensure which of the following?
[A] National Integration
[B] Economic Equality
[C] Fundamental Rights
[D] Fundamental duities
Answer: A [National Integration]

612. The fundamental duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution in which year
?
[A] 1970
[B] 1972
[C] 1975
[D] 1976
Answer: D [1976]

613. Which among the following sentence is correct ?

[A] Part IX related to Panchayats & Part IX A relates to Municipalities
[B] Part IX A related to Panchayats & Part IX A relates to Municipalities
[C] None of them are correct
[D] Both of them are correct
Answer: A [Part IX related to Panchayats & Part IX A relates to Municipalities]

614. Apart from giving constitutional recognition to the Municipalities which amendment
lays down that in every state two district Planning Committees shall be constituted ?
[A] 71st Amendment
[B] 72nd Amendment
[C] 73rd Amendment
[D] 74th Amendment
Answer: D [74th Amendment]

615. Which of the following committee made a recommendation that election

commission should be a three member body ?
[A] Takunde Committee
[B] Ashok Mehta Committee
[C] Jeevan Reddy Committee
[D] JP Committee
Answer: A [Takunde Committee]
616. Supreme court ruled that ” the fundamental rights and Directive Principles ” are in
fact supplementary to each other and together constitute an integrated scheme”. This is
known as which of the following ?
[A] Doctrine of Pith & Substance
[B] Doctrine of Colorable Legislation
[C] Doctrine of Colorable Executive
[D] Doctrine of Harmonization
Answer: D [Doctrine of Harmonization]

617. Which among the following is correct regarding Directive Principles?

[A] Positive Injunctions
[B] Negative Injunctions
[C] Justifiable Injunctions
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Positive Injunctions]

618. Who among the following said this? ” Directive principles of State Policy are like a
cheque on a Bank payable at the convenience of the bank”?
[A] Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
[B] Prof. K T Shah
[C] Dr. B R Ambedkar
[D] KM Munshi
Answer: B [Prof. K T Shah]

619. Which among the following does not come under Fundamental Duties of a citizen
in India?
[A] To protect and Improve Natural Environment
[B] To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform
[C] To strive towards abolition of untouchability
[D] All are comes under fundamental duities
Answer: C [To strive towards abolition of untouchability]

620. Which among the following does not come under Fundamental Duties of a citizen
in India?
[A] To protect and Improve Natural Environment
[B] To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform
[C] To strive towards abolition of untouchability
[D] All are comes under fundamental duities
Answer: C [To strive towards abolition of untouchability]

621. Protection of wild life comes under which of the following in India?
[A] Fundamental Right
[B] Fundamental Duty
[C] DPSP
[D] Both 2 & 3
Answer: D [Both 2 & 3]
622. The Habeas Corpus Act of 1679 was drawn up during the reign of which of the
following ?
[A] King Charles I
[B] King Charles II
[C] King William II
[D] King William III
Answer: B [King Charles II]

623. The Magna Carta was a charter of Rights granted to the Englishmen during 1215
AD by which of the following ?
[A] King John II
[B] Henry I
[C] Henry II
[D] Hary I
Answer: A [King John II]
Explanation: Magna Carta is a Latin word which in English means Great Charter. It is
most important document of England signed on 15 June 1215 at Runnymede alongside
the River Thames in the English county of Surrey. It had originated as a peace and
truce treaty between King John and a group of rebellious barons within his kingdom.
The document had written promises between King John and his subjects mentioning
that the king will govern England and deal with its people according to the customs of
feudal law

624. Which among the following is an apex body under Panchayati Raj?
[A] Zila parishad
[B] Panchayat Samiti
[C] Mandal Parishad
[D] Gramsabha
Answer: A [Zila parishad]

625. Which among the following committee was appointed by Government of India in
1977 to recommend for improving efficiency of Panchayati Raj institution?
[A] Ashok Mehta Committee
[B] Sarkaria Commission
[C] Tarkunde Committee
[D] Balwant rai committee
Answer: A [Ashok Mehta Committee]
Explanation: In December 1977, the Janta Government appointed a 13 member
committee which was headed by Mr. Ashok Mehta. The committee was appointed for
following:
• What are the causes responsible for poor performance of the PRIs?
• What measures should be taken to improve performance of the PRIs?
The Ashok Mehta committee submitted its report in 1978 and made more than 130
recommendations

626. The first official language commission was appointed in 1955. Who was the
chairman of this commission?
[A] KM Munshi
[B] B. G. Kher
[C] MC Chhagla
[D] Kalekar
Answer: B [B. G. Kher]
Explanation: The first official language commission was appointed in 1955 with B.G.
Kher as chairman and it submitted its report in 1956 which was presented to parliament
in 1957 and examined by a joint parliamentary committee.
627. Which article empowers the president of India to appoint a Special Officer for
Linguistic Minorities?
[A] Article 340
[B] Article 347
[C] Article 350 B
[D] Article 353
Answer: C [Article 350 B]
Explanation: Under Article 350B, a special officer for linguistic minorities has been
enshrined in the constitution.
• This officer is to be appointed by the president.
• Its job is to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic
minorities and report to the president.
• Please note that this report is also one of those reports laid before each house of
parliament and sent to the government of the states concerned.

628. In which of the following years Delimitation Commission was set up ?

[A] 2000
[B] 2002
[C] 2004
[D] 2005
Answer: B [2002]
Explanation: Delimitation means the drawing of boundaries. The boundaries may be
domestic, national and International, but the most general use of this term is in context
with electoral boundaries. Article 82 (Readjustment after each census) makes provision
for delimitation of the electoral boundaries. It is the process of allocation of number of
Seats and their demarcation into territories.
Under Article 82, the Parliament by law enacts a Delimitation Act after every census.
After coming into force commencement of the Act, the Central Government constitutes
a Delimitation Commission. This Delimitation Commission demarcates the boundaries
of the Parliamentary Constituencies as per provisions of the Delimitation Act.
Delimitation commissions have been set up four times in the past viz. 1952, 1963, 1973
and 2002 under Delimitation Commission acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.

629. To deal with the common problems of Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland,
Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram a North Eastern Council was set up in which year?
[A] 1965
[B] 1968
[C] 1971
[D] 1975
Answer: C [1971]
Explanation: North Eastern Council is a statutory, advisory body established in 1971
via the North Eastern Council Act, 1971 for three key objectives viz. balanced
development of the North Eastern Region; effecting better inter-state coordination; and
maintaining security and public order in the region.
The council consists of eight member states of the North Eastern Region, viz.,
Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and
Tripura. In 2002, Sikkim became the eighth member state of the Council. The
Secretariat (Headquarters) of the Council is located at Shillong, Meghalaya.

630. Indian lokpal is synonymous to the institution of Ombudsman existing the

___________countries?
[A] Scandinavian countries
[B] Nordic countries
[C] Benelux countries
[D] G-7 countries
Answer: A [Scandinavian countries]

631. If certain case required to take a decision regarding constitution of India then which
court has power to do so?
[A] Supreme Court Only
[B] Both High Court & Supreme Court
[C] Neither High court nor Supreme Court
[D] High court only
Answer: A [Supreme Court Only]

632. The following are called “scheduled areas’ as per Indian constitution?
[A] Tribal inhabited areas located in North East India
[B] Tribal inhabited areas which are located in other parts of India other than North East
India
[C] Tribal inhabited areas located all over India including NE states
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [Tribal inhabited areas which are located in other parts of India other
than North East India]
Explanation: Tribal inhabited areas which are located in other parts of India than North
East India. Tribal areas of the Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are separately
dealt with provisions given in 5th schedule

633. At the time of commencement of Indian constitution, the all states of Union of India
were put in four parts A, B, C, D, later reorganized and reduced to 2 categories ‘states
and union territories’ in 1956. Which of the following was only one member of D?
[A] Vindhya Pradesh
[B] Bombay
[C] Madras
[D] Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Answer: D [Andaman & Nicobar Islands]

634. At the time of commencement of Indian constitution, the all states of Union of India
were put in four parts A, B, C, D, later reorganized and reduced to 2 categories ‘states
and union territories’ in 1956. Which of the following was only one member of D?
[A] Vindhya Pradesh
[B] Bombay
[C] Madras
[D] Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Answer: D [Andaman & Nicobar Islands]

635. Which among the following is not correct regarding the article 352 ?
[A] If national emergency is proclaimed because of war or external aggression It has
automatic extension to Jammu & Kashmir
[B] If national emergency is proclaimed on the ground of armed rebellion then it does
not automatically extend to Jammu & Kashmir
[C] If national emergency is proclaimed on the ground of armed rebellion then it
automatically extends to Jammu & Kashmir
[D] None of the above
Answer: C [If national emergency is proclaimed on the ground of armed rebellion
then it automatically extends to Jammu & Kashmir]

636. Which of the following states was joined to Dominion of India was signing
Instrument of Accession on October 26, 1947?
[A] Hyderabad
[B] Goa
[C] Jammu & Kashmir
[D] Assam
Answer: C [Jammu & Kashmir]
Explanation: Immediately after independence, a major column of armed men from
Pakistan had invaded Kashmir and they were nearly successful in capturing Srinagar.
Confronted with the chances of losing Kashmir to Pakistan, Maharaja Hari Singh
requested help from India. Immediately, Patel’s aid V P Menon arrived in Srinagar and
told the maharaja that India could take action only if Kashmir acceded to India. It is
widely believed that Maharaja wanted to keep is independence but reluctantly acceded
to India due to the grave situation created by the Pakistani invaders. Thus, on October
26, 1947, Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession.
637. Which among the following state does not have a bicameral legislature?
[A] Maharastra
[B] Bihar
[C] West Bengal
[D] Andhra Pradesh
Answer: C [West Bengal]
Explanation: The 7 states with bicameral legislature are Bihar, Maharastra, Uttar
Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

638. Within their respective spheres, the union and the state legislatures are made
supreme and they should not encroach on the sphere reserved for other. This concept
is known as which of the following ?
[A] Doctrine of colorable legislation
[B] Doctrine of pith and substance
[C] Doctrine of double effect
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [Doctrine of pith and substance]

639. Which of the following were Union Territories before becoming states ?
[A] Himachal Pradesh, & Tripura
[B] Himachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura
[C] Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Sikkim & Tripura
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [Himachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura]

640. Which of the following states were created in 1987?

[A] Maharastra, Goa & Arunanchal Pradesh
[B] Goa and Arunanchal Pradesh
[C] Goa Only
[D] Arunanchal Pradesh only
Answer: B [Goa and Arunanchal Pradesh]

641. The Amindivi islands consist of five islands of which of the Union Territory ?
[A] Andaman & Nicobar
[B] Lakshadweep
[C] Pondicherry
[D] Daman & Diu
Answer: B [Lakshadweep]

642. Which are the conditions for acquiring Indian Citizenship?

[A] Domicile and Descent
[B] Domicile, Descent & Registration
[C] Domicile, Decent , Registration and Holding property
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [Domicile, Descent & Registration]
Explanation: Constitution of India did not codify permanent laws for citizenship and put
this onus on parliament. Using the powers of article 10 and 11, the parliament enacted
Citizenship Act 1955 which has been amended from time to time. This act mentions four
ways in which a person may be Indian citizen viz. by birth, by descent, by registration
and by naturalization. Citizenship by birth and descent are called natural citizens.

643. Due to an excessive number of refugees incoming to India from Sri lanka &
Bangladesh, the Citizenship act 1955 was amended and Citizenship by birth was
conferred on those who have been born on or after January 26, 1950 and ______?
[A] June 30, 1987
[B] June 30, 1997
[C] January 26, 1987
[D] January 26, 1988
Answer: A [June 30, 1987]
644. A persons when decides to make an application to acquire Citizenship of India by
registration must have finished his living in India for ___?
[A] 3 years
[B] 5 years
[C] 7 years
[D] 10 years
Answer: B [5 years]

645. Which among the following fundamental rights has been deleted by 44th
amendment bill ?
[A] right to form associations
[B] right to property
[C] right against exploitation
[D] right to freedom of speech and expression
Answer: B [right to property]
Explanation: By 44th constitutional amendment act in 1978 the right to property was
taken away from the category of fundamental rights and made as a legal right. Article
19(1)(f), which guarantees the citizens the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property
and article 31 relating to compulsory acquisition of property have been omitted. It was,
however, be ensured that the removal of property from the list of fundamental rights
would not affect the right of minorities to establish and administer
educational institutions of their choice.

646. Which among the following fundamental rights is available to Indian Citizens but
not to aliens?
[A] Freedom of expression and speech
[B] Equality before Law
[C] Protection of life & liberty
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Freedom of expression and speech]
647. The reasonableness of the restrictions placed on Fundamental rights is decided by
which of the following ?
[A] Parliament
[B] Courts
[C] President
[D] Prime minister
Answer: B [Courts]

648. The right to constitutional remedies in India is available to whom of the following ?
[A] Only Citizens of India
[B] All persons incase of infringement of any fundamental righ
[C] any person for enforcing any of the fundamental rights conferred on all persons
[D] none of the above
Answer: C [any person for enforcing any of the fundamental rights conferred on
all persons]

649. Who among the following reserves the right to initiate the Constitutional
Amendment?
[A] Supreme Court of India
[B] Parliamnet of India
[C] President of India
[D] Union council of ministers
Answer: B [Parliamnet of India]
Explanation: Part XX of the Constitution of India has only one article that is Article 368
that deals with the amendment of the Constitution. As per this article, Parliament may
add, amend or repeal any provision of the constitution as per the procedure laid down
for this purpose. However, in the Kesavanand Bharati Case 1973, the Supreme Court
has ruled that the Parliament cannot amend those provisions which constitute the Basic
Structure of the Constitution.
650. Which among the following schedules is related to the responsibilities of
Municipalities?
[A] 9th
[B] 10th
[C] 11th
[D] 12th
Answer: D [12th]
Explanation: Twelfth Schedule was added by 74th amendment and enlists the subjects
under Municipalities or urban local government.

651. The Ninth schedule was added to the constitution in which year ?
[A] 1950
[B] 1951
[C] 1971
[D] 1993
Answer: B [1951]
652. The original constitution of India had how many schedules?
[A] 7
[B] 8
[C] 9
[D] 10
Answer: B [8]
Explanation: Schedules are lists in the Constitution of India that categorizes and
tabulate bureaucratic activities and policy of the Government. Indian Constitution had
originally eight schedules. The 9th schedule was added via First Amendment Act, while
10th Schedule was first added by 35th Amendment {Sikkim as Associate State}. Once
Sikkim became a state of India, the 10 Schedule was repealed but later added once
again by 52th Amendment Act, 1985 in context with the “Anti-defection” law.
Eleventh Schedule was added by 73rd amendment and has list of subjects under the
Panchayat Raj institutions or rural local government.
Twelfth Schedule was added by 74th amendment and enlists the subjects under
Municipalities or urban local government.

653. Which among the following sentences is / are correct ?

[A] Indian Constitution does not provide to encourage equal pay for equal work for both
men & women
[B] Indian Constitution does not provide a proper definition of Backward classes
[C] Both of them are correct statements
[D] Both of them are wrong statements
Answer: B [Indian Constitution does not provide a proper definition of Backward
classes]
Explanation: Article 39 says that while framing policies, state would strive to provide
adequate means of livelihood, equal pay for equal work, resource distribution, safety of
citizens and healthy development of Children.

654. Members of nagarpalika or municipality are elected for a period of ________?

[A] 2 years
[B] 3 years
[C] 4 years
[D] 5 years
Answer: D [5 years]

655. In which language a member of parliament can express himself in the house?
[A] Either Hindi or English
[B] Either Hindi , English or Mother Tongue
[C] Any language including foreign languages
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [Either Hindi , English or Mother Tongue]
656. The member of State Public Service Commission in India can be removed on the
ground of misbehavior only after an inquiry has been conducted by which of the
following ?
[A] Governor
[B] High court
[C] Committee appointed by president
[D] Supreme court
Answer: B [High court]

657. Who among the following appoints the Chairman of State Public Service
commission?
[A] President
[B] Governor
[C] Prime minister
[D] Chief minister
Answer: B [Governor]

658. Which among the following is called the greatest hallmark of personal liberty ?
[A] Certiorar
[B] Quo warranto
[C] Habeas corpus
[D] None of the above
Answer: C [Habeas corpus]

659. The Motilal Nehru committee which submitted its report in 1928, had which of the
following point?
[A] position of backward classes in free India
[B] dominion status
[C] minorities position
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [dominion status]
Explanation: The Nehru report stated that the `next immediate step for India must be
dominion status. India would be a federation, a sovereign two-chamber parliament to
which the ministry would be responsible will be having at the centre.

660. The High court consists of one chief justice and ___________?
[A] 7 judges
[B] 9 judges
[C] 15 judges
[D] such other judges as may be decided by the president
Answer: D [such other judges as may be decided by the president]

661. High Court is in which list ?

[A] Union list
[B] State list
[C] Concurrent list
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Union list]

662. From which of the following houses Impeachment of president can be started ?
[A] Lok Sabha
[B] Rajya Sabha
[C] Either house
[D] None of the above
Answer: C [Either house]

663. Which among the following features of Indian Constitution is not borrowed from
British Constitution?
[A] Parliamentary Form of Government
[B] Cabinet Form of Government
[C] Rule of law
[D] Concurrent List
Answer: D [Concurrent List]
Explanation: Concurrent List has been borrowed from Constitution of Australia.
[Source of Indian Constitution]

664. Which among the following is a true character of Indian Constitution?

[A] federal in form and unitary in spirit
[B] unitary in form and federal in spirit
[C] federal in form & spirit
[D] Unitary in form & spirit
Answer: A [federal in form and unitary in spirit]

665. On which date Indian Independence Act 1947 came into effect ?
[A] June 4, 1947
[B] June 18, 1947
[C] July 18, 1947
[D] July 18, 1946
Answer: C [July 18, 1947]
Explanation: The Indian Independence Act was based upon the Mountbatten plan of
3rdJune 1947 and was passed by the British parliament on July 5, 1947. It received
royal assent on July 18, 1947.

666. The term Dyarchy was used in Govt. of India 1919. It was a first step towards
which of the following?
[A] Local Self Government
[B] Making the governor titular head
[C] More strength of Central government
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Local Self Government]
Explanation: Under this act the local self government became provincial and
transferred subject under a responsible Indian Minister
667. Who among the following has power to remove a judge of High Court ?
[A] President on the basis of resolution by Parliament
[B] Governor on the basis of recommendation of state legislature
[C] Chief justice of India
[D] Chief minister
Answer: A [President on the basis of resolution by Parliament]

668. A judge of supreme court can be removed from his / her office by president on the
basis of a resolution passed by which of the house by 2/3 majority
[A] Lok Sabha
[B] Rajya Sabha
[C] Both Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
[D] None of the above
Answer: C [Both Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha]
Explanation: A Judge of the Supreme Court (and also High Court) can be removed
from his position by President only on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
The power for investigation and proof of such misbehaviour or incapacity is vested in
the parliament. Each house, in order to remove the judge, will have to pass a resolution
which is supported by 2/3rd of members present and voting and majority of the total
membership of the house {absolute + special majority

669. A judge of supreme court , who wishes to relinquish his job before expiry of his
term will address his resignation to _____?
[A] President
[B] Chief Justice of India
[C] Union law minister
[D] Prime minister
Answer: A [President]

670. Who among the following supervises the Lok Sabha secretariat ?
[A] Minister of Home Affairs
[B] Minister of parliamentary affairs
[C] Lok Sabha Speaker
[D] Prime minister
Answer: C [Lok Sabha Speaker]

671. Who among the following is responsible for devising the best ways to utilize
available resources of States?
[A] National Development Council
[B] State Legislature
[C] Zonal counclis
[D] Inter state council
Answer: C [Zonal counclis]

672. What is the maximum permissible time gap between two sessions of parliament ?
[A] 3 months
[B] 6 months
[C] 9 months
[D] 12 months
Answer: B [6 months]

673. High court seat of Kerala & Lakshadweep is located at?

[A] Kozhikode
[B] Thiruvanathapuram
[C] Ernakulam
[D] Kochi
Answer: C [Ernakulam]

674. Which among the following is the most appropriate definition of Political liberty of
Citizens of India ?
[A] Right to participate in the government and assume equal opportunity to assume
highest office
[B] right to cast vote and participate in the election process
[C] Equal opportunity to freely move in the Political territories of India
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Right to participate in the government and assume equal opportunity
to assume highest office]

675. Who among the following can suspend the fundamental rights?
[A] Parliament
[B] President
[C] Prime minister
[D] Supreme court
Answer: B [President]
Explanation: During national emergency, all the basic freedoms guaranteed by article
19 automatically get suspended. During emergency, President can suspend all other
fundamental rights also except Article 20 (protection in respect of conviction for
offences) and Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty). Such suspension needs
parliamentary approval.

676. To enforce the fundamental rights , which among the following body has authority
to issue writs?
[A] High Courts of India
[B] Supreme Court of India
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] District courts
Answer: C [Both 1 & 2]
Explanation: In India, both Supreme Court and High Court have been empowered with
Writ Jurisdiction. Further, Parliament by law can extend power to issue writs to any
other courts (including local courts) for local limits of jurisdiction of such courts.
677. The Citizenship act was passed by the Indian Parliament in which year ?
[A] 1950
[B] 1952
[C] 1955
[D] 1947
Answer: C [1955]

678. The single citizenship has been introduced in the Indian constitution on the pattern
of which of the following constitutions?
[A] Britan
[B] Canada
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] USA
Answer: C [Both 1 & 2]

679. In which schedule of Indian Constitution the territorial extent of Indian states and
union Territories is prescribed?
[A] 1st
[B] 2nd
[C] 3rd
[D] 4th
Answer: A [1st]
Explanation: First schedule lists the states and territories on of India; lists any changes
to their borders and the laws used to make that change.

680. What was the number of state in India after the States Reorganization Act 1956,
which reorganized the boundaries of different states on linguistic basis?
[A] 13
[B] 14
[C] 15
[D] 20
Answer: B [14]
681. Which among the following formed as 22nd state of Indian union ?
[A] Goa
[B] Arunachal Pradesh
[C] Sikkim
[D] Telangan
Answer: C [Sikkim]
Explanation: Sikkim emerged as India’s 22nd state on 26th April, 1975. The Sikkim
State day is observed on 16th May of every year because this was the day when the
first Chief Minister of Sikkim assumed office.

682. In which of the following the basic aims and objectives of the constitution are
discussed ?
[A] Part-I
[B] Schedule-I
[C] Part-II
[D] Preamble
Answer: D [Preamble]

683. The constitution of India was ordained by which of the following ?

[A] British Government
[B] Government of India
[C] The people of India through their representatives in the Constituent assembly
[D] Viceroy of India
Answer: C [The people of India through their representatives in the Constituent
assembly]

684. In a Parliamentary system, which of the following sentences is correct ?

[A] Executive is responsible to the Legislature
[B] Legislature is responsible to the Executive
[C] Executive is responsible to the people
[D] Executive is responsible to the judicary
Answer: A [Executive is responsible to the Legislature]

685. Who was the first Chief election commissioner of India ?

[A] KVK Sundaram
[B] SP Sen Verma
[C] Sukumar Sen
[D] Rajmannar
Answer: C [Sukumar Sen]

686. Which among the following amendment acts is also called as a Mini constitution?
[A] 52nd Amendment Act 1985
[B] 42nd Amendment Act 1976
[C] 1st Amendment Act 1951
[D] 44thnd Amendment Act 1978
Answer: B [42nd Amendment Act 1976]
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment of Indian Constitution is most comprehensive
amendment to the Constitution and carried out major changes. It is also known as “mini
constitution”.

687. Who was the interim president of First Constituent assembly ?

[A] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[B] Sachidanand Sinha
[C] BR Ambedkar
[D] Jawharlal Nehru
Answer: B [Sachidanand Sinha]

688. Which among the following provisions of Indian Constitution have been taken from
the Weimer Constitution of Germany ?
[A] Emergency & its effects on Fundamental Rights
[B] The concurrent list
[C] Constitutional Amendments
[D] Preamble
Answer: A [Emergency & its effects on Fundamental Rights]
Explanation:
From Russia Revolution 1917
• Ideal Of Justice In Social, Education, Economic And Political
From French Revolution 1789-1799:
• Ideal of Liberty, Equality and fraternity
• From Govt. of India Act 1935
• Federal Scheme (also from constitution of Canada)
• Office of Governor
• Judiciary
• Public Service Commission
• Emergency
• Administrative Details
From British Constitution
• Parliamentary Form of Government.
• Rule of Law
• Legislation
• Single Citizenship
• Cabinet Form of Government
• Prerogative Writs
• Bicameralism
• Parliamentary privileges
• Legislative Procedure
From the Constitution of United States:
• Fundamental Rights
• Independent Judiciary
• Judicial Review
• Impeachment of President
• Removal of Supreme Court Judges
• Vice Presidential Ship
From Constitution of Ireland
• Directive Principles of State Policy
• Nomination of Members to Rajya Sabha
• Electoral Office And Method of President Election
From Canada Constitution
• Canada is a pure federal country.
• Federation with strong center
• Residuary power with center
• Appointment of state governors by center
• Advisory/review of supreme court
From Constitution of Australia
• Concurrent List
• Freedom of Trade
• Commerce And Inter State Trade
• Joint Sitting In The Parliament
From Constitution of USSR
• Fundamental Duties
• Preamble
From Constitution of South Africa
• Procedure for Amendment of the Constitution.
• Election to the Rajya Sabha Members
From Constitution of Japan
• Procedures Established By Law
From Weimer constitution of Germany
• Suspension of fundamental rights during emergency

689. Which part of the Indian constitution deals with Trade, Commerce and Inter Course
within the territories of India?
[A] Part XII
[B] Part XIII
[C] Part XIV
[D] Part XV
Answer: B [Part XIII]
Explanation: Part XIII Trade, Commerce And Intercourse Within The Territory Of
India Art. ( 301-307 )

690. The first session of constituent assembly took place on which of the following dates
?
[A] 9-23 December 1946
[B] 9-23 December 1947
[C] 20-25 January 1947
[D] 20-25 January 1950
Answer: A [9-23 December 1946]
Explanation: The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India took place in
Constitutional Hall, New Delhi, on 9th December 1946. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was
the first president of the Constituent Assembly. In the first meeting, the assembly
adopted an ‘Objective Resolution’ which later became the preamble of the constitution.
It appointed various committees. The report of the committees formed the basis on
which the first draft of the constitution was prepared. It reassembled on 14 August 1947
as Constituent Assembly for independent India.
After partition, Dr. Rajendra Prasad became the president of Constituent Assembly of
Independent India. Professor Harendra Coomar Mookerjee was Vice President of the
Constituent Assembly. While Dr. Rajendra Prasad later became President of India, Prof.
HC Mookerjee became first Governor of West Bengal.

691. Which of the following brings Out The – Citizens Guide to Fight Corruption ?
[A] Transparency International
[B] Central Vigilance Commission
[C] Consumer Co-operative Societies
[D] Anti-corruption Bureau
Answer: B [Central Vigilance Commission]

692. What can be the maximum strength of Lok Sabha in India ?

[A] 545
[B] 550
[C] 552
[D] 555
Answer: C [552]
Explanation: The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is 552 members of which 530 are
elected from states, 20 are elected from Union Territories and 2 are nominated by
President from Anglo-Indian community if the president thinks that the community is not
adequately represented in the house.

693. For which of the following purpose, Rajamanar Committee was constituted ?
[A] Industrial Licensing
[B] Direct taxes
[C] Centre State Fiscal Relations
[D] InDirect taxes
Answer: C [Centre State Fiscal Relations]
Explanation: A Centre-State Relations Inquiry Committee was set up by the then DMK
Government of Tamil Nadu on 2nd September, 1969 under the Chairmanship of Dr.
P.V. Rajamanar to consider the entire question regarding relationship that should
subsist between the Centre and the States in a federal set up.

694. Which of the following was the first country to introduce Goods & Services Tax?
[A] India
[B] Germany
[C] France
[D] USA
Answer: C [France]

695. The writ of “Habeas Corpus” can be issued in which of the following events ?
[A] to seek relief from the unlawful detention of him or herself
[B] to seek refund of excess taxes
[C] to seek relief from the violation of freedom to speak
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [to seek relief from the unlawful detention of him or herself]
Explanation: Habeas Corpus literally means ‘to have the body of’. Via this writ, the
court can cause any person who has been detained or imprisoned to be physically
brought before the court. The court then examines the reason of his detention and if
there is no legal justification of his detention, he can be set free. Such a writ can be
issued in following example cases:
• When the person is detained and not produced before the magistrate within 24
hours
• When the person is arrested without any violation of a law.
• When a person is arrested under a law which is unconstitutional
• When detention is done to harm the person or is malafide.
Thus, Habeas corpus writ is called bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary
detention. A general rule of filing the petition is that a person whose right has been
infringed must file a petition. But Habeas corpus is an exception and anybody on behalf
of the detainee can file a petition. Habeas corpus writ is applicable to preventive
detention also. This writ can be issued against both public authorities as well as
individuals.

696. In case of a tie in the parliament , who among the following enjoys the right to cast
the deciding vote ?
[A] Speaker
[B] Deputy Speaker
[C] President
[D] Prime minister
Answer: A [Speaker]

697. What is the purpose of the appointment of judicial and administrative members of
the Armed Forces Tribunal?
[A] Speedy justice to personnel of the armed forces.
[B] To make decisions on One Rank One Pension
[C] Speedy recruitment in the armed forces
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Speedy justice to personnel of the armed forces.]

698. Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 was related to which of the following ?
[A] Local administration
[B] Decentralization of power & finances of Central Government & provinces
[C] Both of them
[D] None of the above
Answer: C [Both of them]

699. Free & Compulsory education to all children from 6-14 years age was made a
fundamental right by which of the following amendments?
[A] 82nd
[B] 83rd
[C] 84th
[D] 86th
Answer: D [86th]

700. Citizens of India lost their Right to property from Fundamental Rights through
which of the following amendments?
[A] 23rd
[B] 42nd
[C] 44th
[D] 73rd
Answer: C [44th]

701. Marx Weber, an influential German sociologist is related to which of the following
administrative concept?
[A] Democracy
[B] Bureaucracy
[C] Pluralism
[D] Autocracy
Answer: B [Bureaucracy]

702. The concept Lokpal / Lokayukta Office in India is based upon which of the
following?
[A] Parliamentary Commissioner in UK
[B] Ombudsman in Scandinavia
[C] Council of State in France
[D] Council of State in Germany
Answer: B [Ombudsman in Scandinavia]

703. A statement of estimated receipts and expenditures of the Government of India

has to be placed before parliament (known as Budget ) for every financial year (April 1
to march 31) . Which article says this?
[A] Article 110
[B] Article 111
[C] Article 112
[D] Article 113
Answer: C [Article 112]

704. The ” Contingency Fund of India” was constituted by an act called ” Contingency
Fund of India Act ___________?
[A] 1950
[B] 1959
[C] 1960
[D] 1961
Answer: A [1950]

705. No amount from the “Consolidated Fund of India” can be withdrawn without the
authorization from _________?
[A] Parliament
[B] President
[C] CAG
[D] Prime minister
Answer: A [Parliament]

706. There shall be a President of India” which article says this?

[A] Article 52
[B] Article 53
[C] Article 54
[D] Article 55
Answer: A [Article 52]

707. Article 326 of Indian Constitution originally granted electoral franchise to every
Indian Citizen who has not been declared a bankrupt, criminal, insane, or a non resident
and has attained age of ____________?
[A] 18 years
[B] 20 years
[C] 21 years
[D] 25 years
Answer: C [21 years]

708. Section 28 A of the Representation of the People Act provides for registration of
Political parties by the election commission of India. This act was enacted in which year
?
[A] 1948
[B] 1949
[C] 1950
[D] 1951
Answer: D [1951]

709. In the parliament terminology, what is the meaning of “Closure”?

[A] end of session of parliament
[B] end of proceedings of a day
[C] end of debate on a motion
[D] starting of a session
Answer: C [end of debate on a motion]

710. In 1965, the head of Jammu & Kashmir was regurgitated as Governor previously
called as ______?
[A] Premier
[B] Vajeer-i-aalam
[C] Sadr -i-riyasat
[D] wazir
Answer: C [Sadr -i-riyasat]

711. Supreme Court of India was created by _________?

[A] Constitution
[B] an Act of Parliament
[C] a Presidential Order
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Constitution]

712. Which of the following funds in charged for the salary and other allowances of the
Judges of the High Courts?
[A] Consolidated fund of India
[B] Consolidated fund of state
[C] both of them in 1:1 ratio
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [Consolidated fund of state]

713. The power to decide an election petition in India is vested in the ________ ?
[A] Parliament
[B] Supreme court
[C] High court
[D] President
Answer: B [Supreme court]

714. A political party in India acquires the status of registered party if it secures what
fraction of votes in a state?
[A] 1%
[B] 2%
[C] 3%
[D] 4%
Answer: A [1%]

715. In which year National Commission for Minorities was established?

[A] 1989
[B] 1990
[C] 1991
[D] 1992
Answer: D [1992]
Explanation: Officially, there are 6 minorities in India viz. Muslims, Christians, Sikhs,
Buddhists, Parsis and Jains. The Union Government set up the National Commission
for Minorities (NCM) under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. The
commission is made up of a Chairperson, a Vice Chairperson and five members. Unlike
other bodies like NCSC and NCST, NCM has no constitutional backing or status.

716. Among Sindhi, Sanskrit, Kashmiri & Urdu which are the languages that are in VIII
schedule of the Indian Constitution but not official language of any state in India?
[A] Sindhi, Sanskrit
[B] Sindhi, Sanskrit, Kashmiri
[C] Sanskrit only
[D] Sindhi only
Answer: B [Sindhi, Sanskrit, Kashmiri]

717. Which of the following states in India established Panchayati Raj in 1956?
[A] Rajasthan & Maharastra
[B] Rajasthan & Andhra Pradesh
[C] Rajasthan Only
[D] Maharastra only
Answer: B [Rajasthan & Andhra Pradesh]

718. Which among the following are included in nagar panchayat?

[A] Notified Area Committee only
[B] Town Area Committee only
[C] Both Notified Area Committee & Town Area Committee
[D] None of the above
Answer: C [Both Notified Area Committee & Town Area Committee]

719. Part IV A of our constitution is related to ____?

[A] Citizenship
[B] Fundamental rights
[C] Fundamental duities
[D] DPSP
Answer: C [Fundamental duities]
Explanation:
Part-II: Citizenship
Part-III: Fundamental rights
Part-IV: DPSP
Part-IV A- Fundamental duities

720. Which among the following are considered essential for the realization of the
highest good of India’s citizens?
[A] Fundamental rights
[B] Fundamental duities
[C] DPSP
[D] Preamble
Answer: A [Fundamental rights]

721. Safeguarding the public Property , developing scientific temper and promoting
communal harmony come under which of the following ?
[A] Fundamental rights
[B] DPSP
[C] Fundamental duties
[D] None of the above
Answer: C [Fundamental duties]

722. In which year Manipur and Tripura became full-fledged state of India?
[A] 1962
[B] 1968
[C] 1972
[D] 1980
Answer: C [1972]

723. Who among the following decides the Foreign Policy of India?
[A] President
[B] Prime minister
[C] Parliament
[D] Council of ministers
Answer: D [Council of ministers]

724. Which of the following statement regarding the Financial Powers of President of
India is wrong?
[A] No Money bill can be introduced without the prior consent of President
[B] President prepares the budget
[C] President appoints the finance commission every five year
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [President prepares the budget]

725. Who among the following recommends distribution of taxes between the Union and
State Govt?
[A] Finance Minister
[B] Finance Commission
[C] Reserve bank of India
[D] Prime minister
Answer: B [Finance Commission]

726. India is “Union of States” this expression was borrowed from the following
constitution?
[A] Canada
[B] France
[C] Australia
[D] USA
Answer: A [Canada]
727. A boy of 12 years is employed in a factory with a hazardous job. Which among the
following is violated in this case?
[A] Right to Equality
[B] Right to freedom
[C] Abolition of Untouchability
[D] Right Against Exploitation
Answer: D [Right Against Exploitation]

728. Any member of the public or group of people may approach the court , on behalf of
the aggrieved persons for protection of his fundamental rights. This is called ________?
[A] Doctrine of public interest litigation
[B] Doctrine of Severability
[C] Doctrine of Real effect
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Doctrine of public interest litigation]

729. In case a dispute arise regarding the election of President of India, it is referred to
the _____?
[A] Chief Election Commissioner
[B] Supreme Court
[C] Attorney General
[D] Solicitor general
Answer: B [Supreme Court]

730. In case of a conflict between directive principles and fundamental rights, which
shall prevail?
[A] Fundamental rights
[B] DPSP
[C] supreme court will decide
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Fundamental rights]

731. By which act Public service commission in India was established for the first time?
[A] Indian Councils Act 1909
[B] Govt. of India Act 1919
[C] Govt. of India Act 1858
[D] Govt. of India Act 1935
Answer: B [Govt. of India Act 1919]
732. Lucknow pact was signed between Indian National Congress and __________ in
1916?
[A] Muslim League
[B] Lord Irwin
[C] Ghadar party
[D] HRSA
Answer: A [Muslim League]

733. Gandhi may die, but Gandhism will remain forever” In which session of Indian
National Congress Gandhi ji said this?
[A] Lucknow 1916
[B] Nagpur 1921
[C] Karachi 1931
[D] Ramgarh 1940
Answer: C [Karachi 1931]

734. Which among the following is true regarding amendments of the constitution with
provisions which affect the federal character of the constitution?
[A] They can be amended by a simple majority
[B] They can be amended by a 2/3 majority of both the houses of parliament
[C] They can be amended by not only a 2/3 majority of the parliament but also
ratification by at least 1/2 of the states
[D] All are correct
Answer: C [They can be amended by not only a 2/3 majority of the parliament but
also ratification by at least 1/2 of the states]

735. What is the minimum number of the judges to decide an issue involving the
interpretation of the constitution or any presidential reference?
[A] 5
[B] 7
[C] 10
[D] 15
Answer: A [5]

736. A government has to resign if the no confidence motion is passed in __________?

[A] Only Lok Sabha
[B] Only Rajya Sabha
[C] Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
[D] Both Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
Answer: A [Only Lok Sabha]

737. If a member absents himself from parliament for ____days without permission of
the house his / her seat may be declared vacant?
[A] 60 days
[B] 90 days
[C] 100 days
[D] 180 days
Answer: A [60 days]

738. Which among the following is true about the sequence of Question hour and Zero
Hour?
[A] The day’s business normally starts with Question hour and Zero Hour follows the
Question Hour
[B] The day’s business normally starts with Zero hour and Question Hour follows the
Zero Hour
[C] The day’s business normally starts with Question hour or Zero Hour
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [The day’s business normally starts with Question hour and Zero Hour
follows the Question Hour]

739. Regarding the “starred questions” asked during Question Hour of Parliament ,
which among the following is true?
[A] Oral Answer is required to be given by the minister on floor of the house and
supplementary questions may be asked on Minister’s reply
[B] Oral Answer is required to be given by the minister on floor of the house and
supplementary questions may not be asked on Minister’s reply
[C] Written Answer is to be given by the minister after 10 days notice and no
supplementary question may be asked
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Oral Answer is required to be given by the minister on floor of the
house and supplementary questions may be asked on Minister’s reply]

740. Which party of India has more or less the same symbol as that of Republican Party
of USA?
[A] Samajwadi party
[B] Bahujan Samaj party
[C] Janta Dal (United)
[D] TDP
Answer: B [Bahujan Samaj party]

741. The maximum number of candidates an EVM machine can support is _______?
[A] 36
[B] 56
[C] 64
[D] 72
Answer: C [64]

742. In which state EVM machines were first used?

[A] Tamil nadu
[B] Kerala
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Odisha
Answer: B [Kerala]

743. The territories of Goa, Daman & Diu were incorporated in the Indian Constitution
by which amendment bill?
[A] Tenth Amendment 1961
[B] Twelfth Amendment 1962
[C] Fourteenth Amendment 1962
[D] Fifteenth Amendment 1963
Answer: B [Twelfth Amendment 1962]

744. Which amendment of the constitution is related to reorganization of states on a

linguistic basis?
[A] 1st
[B] 7th
[C] 10th
[D] 15th
Answer: B [7th]

745. A bill becomes an act when __________?

[A] It is passed by any house
[B] It is passed by the original house after making amendments suggested by the other
house
[C] It is passed by the original house after making suggested amendments by the other
house and the President given his / her assent to it
[D] None of the above
Answer: C [It is passed by the original house after making suggested
amendments by the other house and the President given his / her assent to it]

746. Which among the following is known as Upper House?

[A] Loksabha
[B] Rajyasabha
[C] Legislative assembly
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [Rajyasabha]

747. A vice president is elected by members of electoral collage consisting of the

members of __________?
[A] Rajya Sabha Only
[B] Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha Only
[C] Lok Sabha , Rajya Sabha & state legislatures
[D] Lok Sabha , Rajya Sabha & state legislatures and UTs with legislatures
Answer: B [Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha Only]
748. Which among the following is not a legislative power of President of India?
[A] Appointment of 12 members to Rajya Sabha and 2 Anglo Indian members to Lok
Sabha
[B] Assent or Withhold assent to any bill passed by the parliament
[C] Sanction given to introduction of money Bills
[D] None of the above
Answer: C [Sanction given to introduction of money Bills]
Explanation: Sanction given to introduction of money Bills comes under financial
powers
749. All union territories are under the President of India. This comes under which of the
following powers of President ?
[A] Executive and Administrative Powers
[B] Legislative Powers
[C] Emergency Powers
[D] Judicial powers
Answer: A [Executive and Administrative Powers]

750. Which among the following is true about tenure of India’s President?
[A] Elected for 5 years but eligible for immediate re election and can serve for two
terms.
[B] Elected for 5 years but eligible for immediate re election and can serve for any
number of terms
[C] Elected for 5 years and not eligible for re election
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [Elected for 5 years but eligible for immediate re election and can
serve for any number of terms]

751. Article 36-51 of our constitution are related to which of the following
[A] Fundamental Rights
[B] DPSP
[C] Fundamental duities
[D] Union Executive
Answer: B [DPSP]

752. If a High Court judgment is issued in a state’s official language ,a translation in

___________must also be made available ?
[A] Hindi
[B] English
[C] Both Hindi and English
[D] None
Answer: B [English]

753. Which among the following is true regarding the resignation of the speaker and
deputy speaker ?
[A] The Speaker may resign by writing to Deputy Speaker but Deputy Speaker may not
resign by writing to Speaker
[B] The Deputy Speaker may resign by writing to Speaker but Speaker may not resign
by writing to Deputy Speaker
[C] The Deputy Speaker and Speaker may resign by writing to each other
[D] The Deputy Speaker and Speaker may resign by writing President
Answer: C [The Deputy Speaker and Speaker may resign by writing to each other]

754. Under article 368 the Indian Constitution provide methods of Amendment of
different portions of the constitution?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
Answer: C [3]
Explanation: Part XX of the Constitution of India has only one article that is Article 368
that deals with the amendment of the Constitution. As per this article, Parliament may
add, amend or repeal any provision of the constitution as per the procedure laid down
for this purpose. However, in the Kesavanand Bharati Case 1973, the Supreme Court
has ruled that the Parliament cannot amend those provisions which constitute the Basic
Structure of the Constitution.

755. Which among the following is true about duration of an Emergency under Article
356 and 352?
[A] Maximum duration under Article 356 can be of three years while under Article 352 it
may continue indefinitely
[B] Maximum duration under Article 352 can be of three years while under Article 356 it
may continue indefinitely
[C] Maximum duration under Article 356 as well as Article 352 , is three years
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Maximum duration under Article 356 can be of three years while under
Article 352 it may continue indefinitely]
Explanation: Article 352: Prior to 44th Amendment Bill 1978, a proclamation of
emergency under article 352 could remain in force in the first instance for 2 months.
However once approved by the parliament the emergency could remain in force
indefinitely. Now, the 44th amendment has cut this power of the executive down. After
the 44th amendment, a proclamation of emergency may remain in force in the first
instance for one month. Such Proclamation, if approved by the parliament shall remain
in force for a period of 6 months (unless revoked earlier) . For further continuance
approval would be required from the parliament for every 6 months. So on approval of
the parliament and not on the discretion of the executive the emergency may continue
for a longer time.

756. Andaman and Nicobar islands judiciary falls under the supervision of the
____________?
[A] A circuit bench of the Bombay High Court at Port Blair
[B] A circuit bench of the Madras High Court at Port Blair
[C] A circuit bench of the Kolkata High Court at Port Blair
[D] A circuit bench of the Kerala High Court at Port Blair
Answer: C [A circuit bench of the Kolkata High Court at Port Blair]

757. Jurisdiction of Lakshadweep comes under __________?

[A] Tamil Nadu High Court
[B] Kerala High Court
[C] West Bengal High Court
[D] Mumbai High Court
Answer: B [Kerala High Court]
758. To be appointed as a judge of Supreme Court a person should have been an
advocate of a High Court for at least _________Yrs?
[A] 5
[B] 10
[C] 15
[D] 20
Answer: B [10]
Explanation: To be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be a
citizen of India and must have been the judge of a high court for a period of 5 years or
an advocate of the High Court for at least 10 years or in view of the President a distinct
Jurist of the country. Thus, there is nothing which can prevent the direct appointment of
the Judges of Supreme Court from the Bar, yet, so far the appointments have been
made from the Judges of High Courts only.

759. Delhi was called national Capital Territory by which amendment Act ?
[A] 63rd
[B] 69th
[C] 91st
[D] 93rd
Answer: B [69th]

760. A three tier Panchayat is envisaged for states having population above
__________?
[A] 10 lakhs
[B] 15 lakhs
[C] 20 lakhs
[D] 25 lakhs
Answer: C [20 lakhs]

761. Which among the following is not true about State Legislative Council in India?
[A] The Council is a Permanent House & one-third of the members retire in two years.
[B] Members of local bodies elect one-third of the total number of members of the
legislative council
[C] If a state legislative council is to be created or abolished , a resolution to that effect
is to be first passed by the State legislature by a two-third majority
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: A [The Council is a Permanent House & one-third of the
members retire in two years.]
Explanation: The Council is permanent House & TWO-THIRD of the members retire in
two years.

762. Who can appoint and remove the members of the State Public Service
Commission?
[A] Governor can appoint and remove
[B] Governor can appoint and President can remove
[C] Governor can appoint and parliament can remove
[D] Governor can appoint and assembly can remove
Answer: B [Governor can appoint and President can remove]

763. A Governor of a state can be dismissed from his office by __________?

[A] State Legislative Assembly
[B] Parliament
[C] President
[D] Council of ministers
Answer: C [President]
Explanation: Although the governor holds office for a term of five years from the date
on which he enters upon his Office, yet this term is subject to pleasure of president. The
“doctrine of pleasure” has always been used to drop governors any time and thus,
Governors have no security of tenure. Further, a governor can resign from the office by
addressing resignation to President
764. Part VI of our constitution is applicable to all the states except __________?
[A] Arunachal Pradesh
[B] Jammu & Kashmir
[C] Sikkim
[D] Assam
Answer: B [Jammu & Kashmir]

765. In which year, Union Territories were introduced in India?

[A] 1949
[B] 1950
[C] 1956
[D] 1960
Answer: C [1956]
Explanation: Reorganization of states on linguistic lines, abolition of Class A, B, C, D
states and introduction of Union Territories by Constitution 7th amendment act

766. Which among the following amendments of the constitution of India fully secured
the constitutional validity of zamindari abolition laws?
[A] 1st
[B] 2nd
[C] 3rd
[D] 4th
Answer: A [1st]

767. The Official Languages Act 1963 provided that _______?

[A] Hindi is only official language of India
[B] Use of English to be continued in addition to Hindi for Official Purpose
[C] Special status to English
[D] All the above
Answer: B [Use of English to be continued in addition to Hindi for Official
Purpose]
Explanation: English was the only language used for official purpose in the British
India. In the independent India, it was declared in Article 343 (1) that Hindi will be the
official Union language. It was also mentioned that over a period of fifteen years since
the commencement of the Indian Constitution, Hindi will replace English as the official
language. However, the Parliament can decide whether to use English as an official
language or not. The non-Hindi speaking communities across the country protested on
the aspect of the change in official language from English to Hindi. This protest resulted
in the enactment of the Official Language Act, 1963. According to the act, Hindi in
Devanagari script has been declared the official language of the Union. However,
English may also be used for official purposes even after 1965. English has been given
the status of the ‘subsidiary official language’ of India. It was decided that either Hindi or
English can be used for procedures of Parliament.

768. In which among the following years, the Constitution of India was amended for the
first time?
[A] 1950
[B] 1951
[C] 1952
[D] 1953
Answer: B [1951]

769. Who among the following was the first president of Constituent Assembly of India?
[A] Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
[B] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[C] Professor Harendra Coomar Mookerjee
[D] Dr. B R Ambedkar
Answer: A [Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha]
Explanation: Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the first president (temporary chairman)
of the Constituent Assembly when it met on December 9, 1946. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
then became the President of the Constituent Assembly, and would later become the
first President of India. The Vice President of the Constituent Assembly was Professor
Harendra Coomar Mookerjee, a former Vice-Chancellor of Calcutta University and a
prominent Christian from Bengal, who also served as the Chairman of the Constituent
Assembly’s Minorities Committee; he was appointed Governor of West Bengal after
India became a republic.

770. By which among the following ways, the Constitution Assembly generally arrived at
decisions on various provisions of the Constitution?
[A] Simple Majority
[B] Two Third Majority
[C] Consensus
[D] Casting Vote
Answer: C [Consensus]

771. On which date Indian Constitution was finally signed by the members of the
constituent assembly ?
[A] November 26, 1949
[B] January 24, 1950
[C] January 26, 1950
[D] January 24, 1949
Answer: B [January 24, 1950]

772. Who among the following was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent
Assembly ?
[A] Sachidanand Sinha
[B] B N Rao
[C] H N Kunzuru
[D] V N Menon
Answer: B [B N Rao]

773. Which of the following provisions of the constitution did not come into force on
November 26, 1949?
[A] Provisions relating to citizenship
[B] Provisions relating to elections
[C] Fundamental rights
[D] None of the above
Answer: C [Fundamental rights]
Explanation: Though the constitution came into force on 26th Nov 1950. Some
provisions relating to citizenship, Elections, Provisional Parliament, temporary and
transitional provisions were given immediate effect of 26th Nov 1949. The articles which
came into force on 26th Nov 1949 include articles 5, 6, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 372, 388, 391,
392 and 393

774. Which among the following feature of Constitution of India is derived from Weimer
Constitution (of Germany)?
[A] Due Procedure of Law
[B] Procedure Established by Law
[C] Suspension of fundamental rights during emergency
[D] Right to Property as Legal right
Answer: C [Suspension of fundamental rights during emergency]
775. Consider the following matches: (Elements in Indian Constitution ↔ Source)
1. Concurrent List ↔ Australian Constitution
2. Directive Principles ↔ Irish Constitution
3. Fundamental Rights ↔ US Constitution
Which among the above matches are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] 1,2
[C] 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: D [1, 2 & 3]

776. The constitution of India derives its ultimate authority from ____?
[A] Supreme Court of India
[B] Parliament of India
[C] People of India
[D] Constituent Assembly of India
Answer: C [People of India]
Explanation: The Constitution draws its authority from the people and has been
promulgated in the name of the people. This is evident from the Preamble which states
“We the people of India …. do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this
Constitution.” This implies that the direct authority of the people cannot be claimed or
usurped by the legislature. Under the constitution, legislature is a representative body
but people constitute the ultimate sovereign.

777. The dual government introduced by Pitts India Act continued to operate in India,
until it was abolished by ___?
[A] Government of India Act 1858
[B] Charter Act 1853
[C] Indian Councils Act 1861
[D] Indian Councils Act 1909
Answer: A [Government of India Act 1858]
Explanation: The Government of India Act 1858, marked the beginning of new chapter
in the constitutional history of India. The Act known as the Act for the Good Government
of India, provided for liquidation of East India Company, and transferred the powers of
government, territories and revenues to the British Crown.
Government of India Act 1858 provided that India was to be governed directly and in the
name of the crown. This act abolished the company rule, abolished the Court of
directors and abolished the Board of control. This act abolished the Dual Government
introduced by the Pitt’s India act. The principle of Doctrine of Lapse was withdrawn,
liberty was given to Indian rulers subject to British suzerainty and it also opened some
door for Indians in Government services.
778. By which among the following acts, the East India Company lost its monopoly of
trade with China?
[A] Pitts India act 1784
[B] The Charter Act of 1813
[C] The Charter Act of 1833
[D] The Charter Act of 1853
Answer: C [The Charter Act of 1833]
Explanation: Charter Act 1833 or the Saint Helena Act 1833 was passed by the British
Parliament to renew the charter of East India Company which was last renewed in
1813. Via this act, the charter was renewed for 20 years but the East India Company
was deprived of its commercial privileges which it enjoyed so far.

779. The East India Company was deprived of monopoly of trade with India except Tea
Trade by which among the following acts?
[A] The Charter Act of 1813
[B] The Charter Act of 1833
[C] The Charter Act of 1853
[D] Government of India Act 1858
Answer: A [The Charter Act of 1813]
Explanation: Charter act of 1813 ended the monopoly of the East India Company in
India, however the company’s monopoly in trade with china and trade in tea with
India was kept intact. Thus, trade with India for all commodities except Tea was thrown
open to all British subjects. This lasted till 1833 when the next charter abolished the
trade of the company.

780. Which of the following acts created Supreme Court of Judicature at Fort William?
[A] The Regulating Act 1773
[B] Indian Councils Act 1861
[C] Dundas Bill of 1783
[D] Charter Act of 1833
Answer: A [The Regulating Act 1773]
Explanation: The regulating act of 1773 established a supreme court at Fort William,
Calcutta. This Supreme Court consisted one Chief Justice and three other regular
judges or Puisne Judges. Sir Elijah Imphey was the first Chief Justice of this Supreme
Court.

781. Which among the following was the first attempt to regulate the affairs of English
East India Company in India?
[A] Pitts India Act 1784
[B] Charter Act 1833
[C] The Regulating Act 1773
[D] Charter Act of 1813
Answer: C [The Regulating Act 1773]
Explanation: Regulating Act of 1773 was the first landmark in the constitutional
development of India. Via this act, the British Parliament for the first time interfered into
affairs of India. The Prime Minister of England at the time of Regulating Act of 1773
was Lord North.

782. Pyithu Hluttaw is the lower house of the parliament of which among the following
countries?
[A] Myanmmar
[B] Thailand
[C] Cambodia
[D] Vietnam
Answer: A [Myanmmar]

783. A session of the Loksabha is prorogued by order of ………..?

[A] Prime Minister
[B] President
[C] Lok Sabha Speaker
[D] Leader of House
Answer: B [President]
Explanation: Prorogation is end of a session. A prorogation puts an end to a
session. The time between the Prorogation and reassembly is called
Recess. Prorogation is end of session and not the dissolution of the house {in case of
Lok Sabha, as Rajya Sabha does not dissolve}.
• While adjournment terminates a sitting, prorogation terminates a session. Dissolution
terminates the Lok Sabha itself and needs fresh elections.
• While adjournment is done by presiding officers {speaker / deputy speaker in Lok
Sabha and Chairman / Deputy chairman in Rajya Sabha); prorogation is done by
President. Dissolution of Lok Sabha is also done by president.

784. What is the upper limit of election expense in a parliamentary constituency?

[A] 10 lakhs
[B] 25 lakhs
[C] 70 lakhs
[D] 1 cr
Answer: C [70 lakhs]
Explanation: As per the current norms, the maximum limit of election expenses per
candidate is as follows:
Lok Sabha Constituencies
• 70 Lakh for all States except Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Sikkim.
• 54 Lakh for Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Sikkim = 54.00 Lakhs
• 70 Lakh for NCT of Delhi
• 54 Lakh for other Union Territories.
Assembly Constituencies
• 28 Lakh for bigger states and NCT of Delhi
• 20 Lakh for smaller states and UTs.

785. The Parliament of India is consisted of _______:

[A] Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
[B] Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha & President
[C] Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, President & Prime Minister
[D] Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Council of Ministers
Answer: B [Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha & President]
Explanation: India has a bicameral parliament made of President, Rajya Sabha (Upper
House / Council of States) and Lok Sabha (Lower House / House of People). While
Rajya Sabha represents states and union territories, Lok Sabha represents people of
India.

786. Right to property was made a Legal right from a Fundamental Right by which
among the following amendments to Indian Constitution?
[A] 42nd
[B] 44th
[C] 46th
[D] 48th
Answer: B [44th]
Explanation: By 44th constitutional amendment act in 1978 the right to property was
taken away from the category of fundamental rights and made as a legal right. Article
19(1)(f), which guarantees the citizens the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property
and article 31 relating to compulsory acquisition of property have been omitted. It was,
however, be ensured that the removal of property from the list of fundamental rights
would not affect the right of minorities to establish and administer
educational institutions of their choice.

787. The preamble of Constitution of India is ________?

[A] A part of constitution
[B] Not a part of constitution
[C] is an annexure to constitution
[D] A schedule of the Constitution
Answer: A [A part of constitution]
788. The Three tier system of panchayti raj was adopted by which state for the first
time?
[A] Rajasthan
[B] Andhra Pradesh
[C] Bihar
[D] Karnataka
Answer: A [Rajasthan]
Explanation: The institution of Panchayati Raj was inaugurated by Jawahar lal Nehru
on October 2, 1959 in Nagaur District of Rajasthan. Nine days later, Andhra Pradesh
became the second state to launch Panchayati Raj at Shadnagar near Hyderabad

789. . Which article ensures the special status to Jammu & Kashmir?
[A] Article 370
[B] Article 372
[C] Article 375
[D] Article 378
Answer: A [Article 370]
Explanation: Under the Part XXI of the Constitution of India, which deals with
“Temporary, Transitional and Special provisions”, Article 370 is a temporary provision
granting special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir

790. What fraction of Rajya Sabha members retire after every two years?
[A] 2/3
[B] 1/3
[C] 1/2
[D] 1/6
Answer: B [1/3]
Explanation: Rajya Sabha has an indefinite term and not subject to dissolution (Article
83.1). The term of an Individual Rajya Sabha member is 6 years and one third of its
members retire every two years, in accordance with the rules as prescribed by the
parliament of India.

791. A minister in Union Government is individually responsible to ___?

[A] Council of Ministers
[B] Prime Minister
[C] President
[D] Parliament
Answer: C [President]

792. The Vice President is elected by an electoral college comprising votes of

__________?
[A] Only members of Parliament
[B] Members of Parliament & members of Legislative Assemblies
[C] Members of Parliament, Members of Legislative assemblies and Members of
legislative councils
[D] Members of Rajya Sabha only
Answer: A [Only members of Parliament]
Explanation: Like Presidential election, election of vice president is held via system of
proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote {indirect election}.
However, Vice President is elected by Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha MPs. The MLAs or
MLCs have no role to play here. This sounds to be an anomaly but it is justified by
giving logic that Vice President works as president of the whole country in rare
occasions when President is not available. In normal circumstances, his work is to
preside the Rajya Sabha.

793. Who among the following is the final interpreter & guardian of Indian Constitution?
[A] President
[B] Prime Minister
[C] Supreme Court
[D] Supreme Court as well as High Court
Answer: C [Supreme Court]
794. Which among the following articles gives the power to the central government to
take pre-emptive action to protect any state against external aggression & internal
disturbances?
[A] Article 355
[B] Article 356
[C] Article 358
[D] Article 360
Answer: A [Article 355]

795. What can be the maximum number of members of Rajya Sabha?

[A] 245
[B] 250
[C] 255
[D] 260
Answer: B [250]

796. Town Planning Committees are constituted as per which among the following
amendments of Indian Constitution?
[A] 73rd
[B] 74th
[C] 75th
[D] 76th
Answer: B [74th]

797. Which among the following constitution is similar to Indian Constitution because of
a strong centre?
[A] USA
[B] Canada
[C] England
[D] Japan
Answer: B [Canada]

798. Which among the following state / union territory got birth with the Punjab
Reorganization Act of 1966?
[A] Haryana
[B] Hiamchal Pradesh
[C] Chandigarh
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Haryana]

799. Which among the following is the correct designation of Hindi in India?
[A] National language
[B] Language of communication between states & centre
[C] The Official Language of the Union of India
[D] Official and National Language of India
Answer: C [The Official Language of the Union of India]
800. Which of the following posts is not mentioned in Constitution?
[A] Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
[B] Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
[C] Attorney General
[D] Solicitor General
Correct Answer: D [Solicitor General]

801. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution divides the legislative powers between
the Union and states?
[A] 6th schedule
[B] 7th schedule
[C] 8th schedule
[D] 9th schedule
Answer: B [7th schedule]
802. The system of” Proportional Representation” is used in India to elect ?
[A] Prime minister
[B] Governor
[C] President
[D] Members of Parliament
Answer: C [President]

803. In which year, first Official Language Commission was constituted?

[A] 1952
[B] 1955
[C] 1958
[D] 1959
Answer: B [1955]
Explanation: The first official language commission was appointed in 1955 with B.G.
Kher as chairman and it submitted its report in 1956 which was presented to parliament
in 1957 and examined by a joint parliamentary committee.

804. Which among the following articles of Indian Constitution gives right to the Attorney
General of India to speak in Houses of Parliament or their committee?
[A] Article 76
[B] Article 86
[C] Article 96
[D] Article 106
Answer: A [Article 76]

805. Who among the following is called the” guardian of the public purse” of India?
[A] RBI Governor
[B] CAG
[C] Supreme court
[D] Union Finance minister
Answer: B [CAG]
806. “National Integration Council” was created for making welfare measures for the ..?
[A] Muslims & Sikhs
[B] Sikhs, Buddhists & Schedules castes
[C] All Minorities
[D] All religions
Answer: C [All Minorities]
Explanation: National Integration Council set up in June 1962 by the then Prime
Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to address the problems of communalism and regionalism in
India. It is chaired by Prime Minister of India. The members of the NIC include union
ministers, leaders of the opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, chief
ministers of all states and Union Territories, leaders of national and regional political
parties, chairpersons of national commissions, eminent journalists, and other public
figures in India. The NIC had set up Standing Committees, sub-committees and sub-
groups over the years to discuss on specific problems. The NIC is an extra-
constitutional body which does not has either statutory or constitutional backing.

807. Which among the following can be called a” writ of prohibition” ?

[A] A writ issued by Supreme court or High court to inferior court
[B] A writ issued by High Court to supreme court or inferior court
[C] A writ issued by a inferior court
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [A writ issued by Supreme court or High court to inferior court]
Explanation: The writ of prohibition means that the Supreme Court and High Courts
may prohibit the lower courts such as special tribunals, magistrates, commissions, and
other judiciary officers who are doing something which exceeds to their jurisdiction or
acting contrary to the rule of natural justice. For example if a judicial officer has personal
interest in a case, it may hamper the decision and the course of natural justice.

808. In which year Dogri language was included in the eighth Schedule of Indian
Constitution?
[A] 2001
[B] 2002
[C] 2003
[D] 2004
Answer: C [2003]
Explanation: Via the 92nd Constitutional amendment 2003, 4 new languages – Bodo,
Maithili, Dogri, and Santali – were added to the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

809. “Riksdag” is the name of parliament of which of the following?

[A] Iran
[B] Norway
[C] Sweden
[D] Kazakhstan
Answer: C [Sweden]

810. Goa was declared as India’s 25th state in which among the following years?
[A] 1987
[B] 1988
[C] 1989
[D] 1990
Answer: A [1987]

811. What was the original requirement of” Magna carta” ?

[A] To bring the powers of King under law
[B] To make the power of the kings beyond Law
[C] To limit the power of Barons
[D] None of them
Answer: A [To bring the powers of King under law]

812. Who among the following headed the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights,
Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas a committee under the Constituent Assembly?
[A] Jawahar Lal Nehru
[B] Vallabh Bhai Patel
[C] H C Mukherjee
[D] Maulana Azad
Answer: B [Vallabh Bhai Patel]

813. What is the correct chronological order of creation of Assam, Nagaland, Goa &
Mizoram?
[A] Assam, Nagaland, Goa , Mizoram
[B] Assam, Mizoram, Nagaland,. Goa
[C] Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Goa
[D] Assam, Goa, Mizoram, Nagaland
Answer: C [Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Goa]
Explanation:
Nagaland was formed in 1963
Mizoram was formed in 20th Feb1987
Goa as a state was formed in 30th May 1987

814. Who determines the composition of UPSC?

[A] President
[B] Constitution
[C] Chairman of UPSC
[D] Council of ministers
Answer: A [President]

815. Who can remove a chief justice of Supreme Court ?

[A] Parliament by resolution
[B] Judges of supreme court by Majority
[C] President on a resolution by parliament
[D] President on his/ her own discretion
Answer: C [President on a resolution by parliament]
Explanation: A Judge of the Supreme Court (and also High Court) can be removed
from his position by President only on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
The power for investigation and proof of such misbehaviour or incapacity is vested in
the parliament. Each house, in order to remove the judge, will have to pass a resolution
which is supported by 2/3rd of members present and voting and majority of the total
membership of the house {absolute + special majority}

816. Who is the chief executive head of the state?

[A] Chief minister
[B] Governor
[C] Presidnet
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [Governor]
Explanation: The provisions related to state executive are in articles 153 to 167. The
state executive is made of Governor, Chief Minister, Council of Ministers and Advocate
General. The executive authority of a state is vested in the Governor; and Governor is
the constitutional head of the state in the same way as President is the Constitutional
head of the Union

817. Which among the following authorities can remove the UPSC chairman?
[A] President
[B] Supreme court
[C] Prime minister
[D] Both A & B
Answer: A [President]

818. Whom does UPSC submits it annual report?

[A] Parliament
[B] Presidnent
[C] Home minister
[D] Prime minister
Answer: B [Presidnent]

819. Who appoints Chairman of UPSC?

[A] president
[B] Vice president
[C] Parliament
[D] Cabinet Committee on Appointments
Answer: A [president]
Explanation: UPSC is constitutional body that conducts the prestigious civil services
examination to select IAS, IFS and IPS officers among others. It has been established
under Article 315 of the Constitution and consists of a Chairman and ten Members;
appointed and removed by President.
The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term if six years or until
they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

820. What is the minimum years of age for candidate for office of the vice president?
[A] 25
[B] 30
[C] 35
[D] 38
Answer: C [35]
Explanation: As per article 66, the candidate contesting for election of Vice-President
of India should fulfill the below conditions:
• He must be a citizen of India
• He must have completed age of 35 years
• He cannot hold an office for profit.
• He must be qualified to become a member of Rajya Sabha.

821. An appeal can be made in the Supreme Court of India in __________?

[A] Civil & Criminal Matters
[B] Criminal & Constitutional Matters
[C] Civil , Criminal & Constitutional Matters
[D] Constitutional and Criminal Matters
Answer: C [Civil , Criminal & Constitutional Matters]

822. The amendment of the constitution can be initiated in which of the following?
[A] Loksabha only
[B] Rajyasabha only
[C] Any House of the Parliament
[D] Assembly of a state
Answer: C [Any House of the Parliament]
Explanation: Part XX of the Constitution of India has only one article that is Article 368
that deals with the amendment of the Constitution. As per this article, Parliament may
add, amend or repeal any provision of the constitution as per the procedure laid down
for this purpose.
A constitution amendment bill can be introduced in any house of the parliament. A bill
for the purpose of amendment of constitution can NOT be introduced in any state
legislature.

823. The age for retirement of judges from supreme courts and high courts are
respectively ?
[A] 65 & 62
[B] 65 & 60
[C] 65 for both
[D] 65 & 63
Answer: A [65 & 62]

824. India is a secular state and it is explicitly proclaimed in the ..?

[A] Preamble
[B] Fundamental rights
[C] DPSP
[D] Schedules
Answer: A [Preamble]

825. Sindhi Language was included in the list of official languages in the 8th schedule of
our constitution in which year?
[A] 1957
[B] 1967
[C] 1969
[D] 1968
Answer: B [1967]
Explanation: In the Constitution of India, there is a provision made for each of the
Indian states to choose their own official language for communicating at the state level.
The selected languages, which can be used for official purpose, have been listed in
the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution. Originally, there were 14 languages in the 8th
schedule. The further languages were added as follows:
• Sindhi by 21st amendment, 1967
• Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali languages by 71st amendment, 1992
• Bodo, Dogri, Santhali and Maithali by 92nd Amendment, 2004.

826. Sikkim became a new state in the Union by the __________Amendment act
[A] 32nd, 1974
[B] 35th, 1975
[C] 36th, 1975
[D] 37th, 1978
Answer: C [36th, 1975]
Explanation: Sikkim became a state of India via the Thirty-sixth Amendment Act, 1975
on 26th April, 1975. The Sikkim State day is observed on 16th May of every year
because this was the day when the first Chief Minister of Sikkim assumed office.

827. Which schedule of Indian constitution contains languages?

[A] 6th
[B] 7th
[C] 8th
[D] 9th
Answer: C [8th]
828. Which among the following is the official language of Union Territory of
Lakshadweep ?
[A] Tamil
[B] Malayalam
[C] Great Andamanese
[D] English
Answer: B [Malayalam]

829. President can proclaim a state of Financial emergency under which among the
following articles?
[A] Article 350
[B] Article 352
[C] Article 356
[D] Article 360
Answer: D [Article 360]

830. First session of Loksabha was held in which among the following years?
[A] 1950
[B] 1951
[C] 1952
[D] 1953
Answer: C [1952]

831. “Right to vote” can be placed in which among the following categories?
[A] Fundamental Right
[B] Constitutional Right
[C] Fundamental Duty
[D] Legal Obligation
Answer: B [Constitutional Right]

832. The” liberty , equality and fraternity ” enshrined by Preamble is inspired by which
revolution?
[A] Russian
[B] French
[C] Irish
[D] American
Answer: B [French]

833. Which among the following amendments of Constitution of India had accorded
precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?
[A] 25th
[B] 42nd
[C] 59th
[D] 44th
Answer: B [42nd]
834. Which among the following judges is known for having pioneered the PIL or Public
Interest Litigation?
[A] Justice R N Mishra
[B] Justice PN Bhagwati
[C] Justice Venkatswami
[D] Justice Mirza Hameedullah Beg
Answer: B [Justice PN Bhagwati]

835. The chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is nominated by which among
the following?
[A] President
[B] Lok Sabha Speaker
[C] Lok Sabha Secretary
[D] Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
Answer: B [Lok Sabha Speaker]
Explanation: Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is one of the standing parliamentary
committees, which was first established in 1921 under the Government of India Act
1919 provisions. This committee examines the manners and results of spending the
public funds.
Public Accounts Committee has 22 members of which 15 are from Lok Sabha while 7
from Rajya Sabha. The members are “elected” by members of Parliament amongst
themselves via a system of proportional representation by means of single transferable
vote; so that all parties get due representation in it. Members are elected for a period of
one year. A minister cannot be a member of PAC.
Chairman of PAC is appointed by Speaker from its members. The chairman used to be
of ruling party till mid 1960s, however, now the chairman of PAC is from opposition by
convention.

836. In which five year plan, the Panchayati Raj System was introduced in India for the
first time?
[A] 1st
[B] 2nd
[C] 5th
[D] 6th
Answer: B [2nd]
Explanation: The institution of Panchayati Raj was inaugurated by Jawahar lal Nehru
on October 2, 1959 in Nagaur District of Rajasthan. Nine days later, Andhra Pradesh
became the second state to launch Panchayati Raj at Shadnagar near Hyderabad

837. What is the maximum life of an ordinance promulgated by President?

[A] 6 months
[B] 7.5 months
[C] 12 months
[D] 15 months
Answer: B [7.5 months]
Explanation: Article 123 of the Indian constitution empowers the President to
promulgate ordinances. This mechanism has been devised to enable the executive to
deal with a situation that may suddenly and immediately arise when the Parliament is
not in session (either one or both houses) As maximum gap between two session of a
house can be 6 months therefore maximum life of a ordinance can be 6 months and 6
weeks;

838. New All India services can be initiated in India only if the following makes a
recommendation?
[A] President
[B] Rajya sabha
[C] Lok sabha
[D] Council of ministers
Answer: B [Rajya sabha]
Explanation: As per the Constitution of India, a new All India service can be instituted
with only on the initiative of Rajya Sabha. Article 312 of the constitution
says “Notwithstanding anything in [Chapter VI of Part VI or Part XI], if the Council of
States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members
present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest so to do,
Parliament may by law provide for the creation of one or more all India services
[(including an all-India judicial service)] common to the Union and the States, and,
subject to the other provisions of this Chapter, regulate the recruitment, and the
conditions of service of persons appointed, to any such service.”

839. Which among the following is the basis of representation in Rajya Sabha for
States?
[A] Area
[B] Population
[C] Both A & B
[D] Neither A nor B
Answer: B [Population]
Explanation: Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha is listed in Fourth Schedule of the
Constitution. The seats are allocated to each state mainly on the basis of its population.

840. The ultimate sovereignty in the Indian Polity rests with which among the following?
[A] Parliament
[B] Council of Ministers
[C] Higher Judiciary
[D] People of India
Answer: D [People of India]

841. Which among the following articles helped the Madarsas in India to remain out of
purview of the Right to Education Act?
[A] Article 26
[B] Article 27
[C] Article 28
[D] Article 30
Answer: D [Article 30]
Explanation: Article 30 is called a Charter of Education Rights. Madarsas are
administrated by the Article 30. Article 30 mandates that all minorities, whether based
on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational
institutions of their choice.
Article 30 provides an absolute right to the minorities that they can establish their own
linguistic and religious institutions and at the same time can also claim for grant-in-aid
without any discrimination.

842. If the Government of a State fails to enforce the Directive principals of the state
Policy, a citizen can move to which among the following courts to file a writ petition to
get them enforced?
[A] No Court
[B] District Courts
[C] High Courts
[D] Supreme Court
Answer: A [No Court]

843. For how many times, a person can become President of India?
[A] Once
[B] Twice
[C] Thrice
[D] No limit
Answer: D [No limit]
Explanation: Article 57: Eligibility for re election. A person who holds, or who has held,
office as President shall, subject to the other provisions of this Constitution, be eligible
for reelection to that office

844. Which among the following was the strength of Lok Sabha after India’s first general
elections?
[A] 289
[B] 389
[C] 489
[D] 500
Answer: C [489]

845. What can be the maximum number of members of the Lok Sabha ?
[A] 545
[B] 550
[C] 552
[D] 560
Answer: C [552]
Explanation: Lok Sabha is the lower house of the parliament which represents people.
Article 81 deals with the Composition of the Lok Sabha. The maximum strength of Lok
Sabha is 552 members of which 530 are elected from states, 20 are elected from Union
Territories and 2 are nominated by President from Anglo-Indian community if the
president thinks that the community is not adequately represented in the house.

846. If President and Vice President, both are unavailable, who among the following
would discharge the functions?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] Lok Sabha Speaker
[C] Chief Justice of India
[D] Any person nominated by President or Vice President
Answer: C [Chief Justice of India]

847. Consider the following:

1. Central Government
2. State Governments
Which among the above can levy the taxes on agricultural revenues?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B [Only 2]
Explanation: By default, agricultural income is exempted from taxation and not
included under total income. The Central Government can’t impose or levy tax on
agricultural income. The exemption clause is mentioned under Section 10 (1) of the
Income Tax Act, 1961.
However, state governments can charge agricultural tax. As of the latest amendment,
income from agriculture, if within INR 50000 in a financial year, will not be accounted for
tax purposes. Anything above that will be taxable as per the applicable rates.

848. Till now, the Preamble of Constitution of India has been amended for how many
times?
[A] Never
[B] Once
[C] Twice
[D] Thrice
Answer: B [Once]
Explanation: Preamble can be amended by Parliament using its amendment powers
as per article 368. We note here that preamble has been amended only once so far
through the 42nd Constitution Amendment Act 1976. The words Secular, Socialist and
Integrity were added to the constitution.

849. Which among the following schedules of Constitution of India talks about the
allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha?
[A] 3rd
[B] 4th
[C] 5th
[D] 6th
Answer: B [4th]
850. In which year Rajya Sabha was established?
[A] 1950
[B] 1952
[C] 1953
[D] 1954
Answer: B [1952]

851. Each House of Parliament collectively and the Members individually, enjoy certain
special powers and privileges without which they cannot discharge their functions,
efficiently and effectively. These privileges have been provided by ___?
[A] Constitution of India
[B] Act of Parliament
[C] Rule book of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
[D] President of India
Answer: A [Constitution of India]
852. A bill initiated by which among the following is a Government Bill?
[A] Member of Parliament from Ruling Party / Coalition
[B] Minister
[C] Member of parliament from opposition party
[D] Either 1 or 2
Answer: B [Minister]
Explanation: If a bill is introduced in the house by a minister, it is called government
bill or public bill. If the bill is introduced by any other member than a minister, it is called
private member bill. A private member bill can be introduced by both ruling party and
opposition MPs.

853. How many members can be nominated by the president to the Rajya Sabha & Lok
Sabha Respectively?
[A] 12 & 2
[B] 10 & 2
[C] 12 & 4
[D] 12 & 6
Answer: A [12 & 2]
Explanation: The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is 552 members of which 530 are
elected from states, 20 are elected from Union Territories and 2 are nominated by
President from Anglo-Indian community if the president thinks that the community is not
adequately represented in the house. Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community is
provided by the Constitution as per article 331 and NOT by article 81. Article 331 says
that: Notwithstanding anything in article 81, the President may, if he is of opinion that
the Anglo-Indian community is not adequately represented in the House of the People,
nominate not more than two members of that community to the House of the People

854. Which among the following language is NOT there in the 8th Schedule of
Constitution of India?
[A] Dogri
[B] Rajasthani
[C] Sindhi
[D] Manipuri
Answer: B [Rajasthani]

855. Till now how many judges of Supreme Court of India have been removed from
Office through impeachment?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] none
Answer: D [none]

856. Transactions relate to debt other than those included in the Consolidated Fund of
India are kept in which among the following?
[A] Debt Account
[B] Public Account
[C] Contingency Fund
[D] Debt Fund
Answer: B [Public Account]

857. Approval of which among the following authorities alone would be sufficient to draw
funds from Consolidated Fund of India ?
[A] Only Parliament
[B] Only President
[C] Either Parliament or President
[D] Both Parliament and President
Answer: A [Only Parliament]

858. All revenues received by the Government of India by taxes e.g. Income Tax,
Central Excise, Customs and other receipts are kept in which among the following?
[A] Consolidated Fund of India
[B] Contingency Fund of India
[C] Public Account of India
[D] Reserve Bank of India
Answer: A [Consolidated Fund of India]

859. A writ petition to protect the fundamental rights can be lodged with which among
the following?
1. Supreme Court
2. High Courts
3. Districts Courts
4. Session Courts
Choose the correct options:
[A] 1
[B] 1,2
[C] 1,2,3
[D] 1,2,3,4
Answer: B [1,2]
Explanation: Anything that is issued under an authority is a writ. Orders, warrants,
directions etc. issued under authority are examples of writs. There are five major types
of writs viz. habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari. Each of
them has different meaning and different implications. In India, both Supreme Court and
High Court have been empowered with Writ Jurisdiction. Further, Parliament by law can
extend power to issue writs to any other courts (including local courts) for local limits of
jurisdiction of such courts

860. Which among the following don’t come under the purview of Right to Education?
[A] Government Schools
[B] Private Schools
[C] Madrasas
[D] Government schools funded by Private Funds
Answer: C [Madrasas]

861. Who among the following is the Supreme Commander of Indian armed forces ?
[A] President of India
[B] Vice President of India
[C] Prime Minister of India
[D] Defense Minister of India
Answer: A [President of India]
Explanation: India’s president is head of the Indian state, first citizen of India and
supreme commander of the Indian armed forces.

862. A Rajya Sabha member is elected for a term which extends _____?
[A] 3 years
[B] 4 years
[C] 5 years
[D] 6 years
Answer: D [6 years]
Explanation: Rajya Sabha has an indefinite term and not subject to dissolution (Article
83.1). The term of an Individual Rajya Sabha member is 6 years and one third of its
members retire every two years, in accordance with the rules as prescribed by the
parliament of India.

863. An Individual Minister can be removed by ______?

[A] Prime Minister
[B] Council of Ministers
[C] Parliament
[D] President
Answer: D [President]

864. The right to constitutional remedies allows Indian citizens to stand up for their
rights against anybody even the government of India. Which article says this?
[A] Article 31
[B] Article 32
[C] Article 33
[D] Article 34
Answer: B [Article 32]
Explanation: Article 32 provides the right to Constitutional remedies which means that
a person has right to move to Supreme Court (and high courts also) for getting his
fundamental rights protected. While Supreme Court has power to issue writs under
article 32, High Courts have been given same powers under article 226

865. Consider the following:

1. Socialist
2. Democratic
3. Sovereign
4. Secular
Which among the following is the correct order in which the above words appear in
Preamble of Constitution of India?
[A] 3,1,4,2
[B] 1,2,3,4
[C] 3,4,1,2
[D] 4,1,3,2
Answer: A [3,1,4,2]
866. By which among the following Dyarchy was introduced in India?
[A] Act of 1892
[B] Act of 1909
[C] Act of 1919
[D] Act of 1935
Answer: C [Act of 1919]

867. Consider the following:

1. Preamble
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which among the above incorporate Economic Justice?
[A] 1 & 2
[B] 1 & 3
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] only 3
Answer: B [1 & 3]
868. Initially, for how long presidential rule can be imposed in a state?
[A] 6 months
[B] 9 months
[C] 12 months
[D] 15 months
Answer: A [6 months]
Explanation: If the president is satisfied on receipt of a report from the governor or
otherwise that a situation has arisen in which the Government in a state cannot be
carried in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, he / she is empowered to
proclaim an emergency. The proclamation would have to be approved by the Houses of
the parliament in same manner as in case of a War Emergency. However, even if
Parliament has approved the proclamation, it will normally cease to operate 6 months
after the Parliamentary approval. The proclamation can be repeated if necessary so as
to allow the period of emergency to continue for maximum of one year. Every such
resolution approving the emergency has to be passed by each of the houses of
Parliament by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.

869. The makers of Constitution of India chose the scheme of federation of India, as
prevalent in which among the following countries?
[A] United states
[B] United kingdom
[C] Australia
[D] Canada
Answer: B [United kingdom]

870. Which among the following amendments added the Fundamental Duties as per
recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh Committee?
[A] 38th
[B] 40th
[C] 42nd
[D] 44th
Answer: C [42nd]
Explanation: Sardar Swaran Singh committee was constituted by Indira Gandhi soon
after emergency was imposed in the country. The objective of this committee was to
study the question of amending the constitution in the light of past experiences and
recommend the amendments. The 42nd amendment act which is also called “Mini
Constitution” which amended many articles and even the Preamble was a result of the
recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh committee. The 10 fundamental duties were
also added as per the recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh committee.

871. Which among the following is / are explicitly mentioned in constitution of India:
1. Freedom against exploitation such as begar
2. Abolition of Sati
3. Freedom of Press
Choose the correct option:
[A] 1
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 1 , 2 & 3
[D] 2 & 3
Answer: A [1]

872. How many freedoms are guaranteed by Article 19 (Right to Freedom)?

[A] 3
[B] 4
[C] 5
[D] 6
Answer: D [6]
Explanation: Article 19 is the most important and key article which embodies the “basic
freedoms”. Article 19(1) provides that all citizens shall have the right- (originally 7, now
6)
• To freedom of speech and expression;
• To assemble peaceably and without arms;
• To form associations or unions;
• To move freely throughout the territory of India;
• To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India;
• To practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business

873. Consider the following:

1. Untouchability
2. Child Marriage
3. Sati
4. Dowry
Which among the above have been prohibited / abolished by the articles in Constitution
of India?
[A] 1
[B] 1,2
[C] 1,2,3
[D] 1,2,3,4
Answer: A [1]
Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability

874. In which among the following parts of Constitution of India are enshrined the
Fundamental Duties?
[A] Part III
[B] Part IIIA
[C] Part IVA
[D] Part IV
Answer: C [Part IVA]
Explanation: The 42nd amendment Act 1976 added a new part in the constitution part
IVA. It incorporated the fundamental duties by inserting a new article 51A below article
51. The objective of incorporating the fundamental duties is to place before the country
a code of conduct, which the citizens are expected to follow.

875. Which among the following has the power to legislate on the matters which are
neither in the Union List, nor in the State list nor in the Concurrent list of the Constitution
of India?
[A] Parliament
[B] State Legislatures
[C] Both State legislatures and Parliament
[D] Neither Parliament nor State legislature
Answer: A [Parliament]
Explanation: The subjects which are not enlisted in Union/ State/ Concurrent List are
called Residuary subjects. The power to legislate on residuary subjects lies with the
parliament.

876. When was Indian Calendar adopted officially?

[A] 1954
[B] 1955
[C] 1956
[D] 1957
Answer: D [1957]
Explanation: The National Calendar is based on the Saka Era with Chaitra being its
first month. It consists of 365 days in a normal year. It was adopted from 22nd March
1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for the following official purposes: Gazette of
India; news broadcast by All India Radio; calendars issued by Government of India;
and, Government communications addressed to the members of the public. Dates of
the National Calendar correspond with those of the Greogrian Calendar. Thus, the first
day of Chaitra corresponds to 22nd March in a normal year and 21 March in leap year.

877. How many types of emergencies are there in Constitution of India?

[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
Answer: C [3]
Explanation: The part 18 of Indian constitution deals with the emergency provisions.
Three types of emergencies are defined in the constitution-National emergency, state
emergency and financial emergency

878. The law created by a legislature is called ?

[A] Money Bill
[B] Legislation or statutory law
[C] Budget
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [Legislation or statutory law]

879. How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by President of India?
[A] 2
[B] 10
[C] 12
[D] 15
Answer: C [12]
Explanation: Rajya Sabha is the upper house of parliament which represents the
states and union territories. Its membership is fixed to maximum 250 members of which
238 are elected by the representatives of states and union territories while 12 members
are nominated by President on account of their excellence in literature, science, art or
social service

880. The Supreme Court of India tenders legal advice to president of India when___?
[A] Cabinet recommends it
[B] Council of Minister recommends it
[C] President needs it
[D] Supreme Court wants to tender the advice
Answer: C [President needs it]

881. The decisions of District court is subject to the _________ of the High court.
Choose the correct phrase to fill the blank.
[A] Advisory Jurisdiction
[B] Appellate Jurisdiction
[C] Original jurisdiction
[D] Judicial Review
Answer: B [Appellate Jurisdiction]

882. On which date, National Panchayati Raj Day is observed?

[A] January 28
[B] February 26
[C] March 11
[D] April 24
Answer: D [April 24]
Explanation: In India, April 24th is celebrated as National Panchayati Raj Diwas every
year. This day marks the passing of the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, that came
into force with effect from 24 April 1993

883. According to Indian Constitution ,the vacancy in the office of the President of India
shall be filled with in
[A] 1 month
[B] 3 months
[C] 6 months
[D] 1 year
Correct Answer: C [6 months]

884. Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India acts as the chief accountant and
auditor for the?
[A] Union govt only
[B] State govt
[C] Union govt & state govt
[D] None of the above
Answer: C [Union govt & state govt]

885. For which among the following periods, an Attorney General is appointed in India?
[A] 2 years
[B] 3 years
[C] 4 years
[D] Any period which the president feels suitable
Answer: D [Any period which the president feels suitable]

886. The Promulgation of an ordinance by a President is done when ___?

[A] President feels that ordinance should be promulgated (on discretion)
[B] When Supreme Court advises the President
[C] When Council of Ministers advises President
[D] When any house of the parliament passes a resolution
Answer: C [When Council of Ministers advises President]

887. Which among the following were inserted in the constitution of India on
recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee?
[A] Fundamental Rights
[B] Directive Principles of State Policy
[C] Fundamental Duties
[D] 12th Schedule
Answer: C [Fundamental Duties]
Explanation: Sardar Swaran Singh committee was constituted by Indira Gandhi soon
after emergency was imposed in the country. The objective of this committee was to
study the question of amending the constitution in the light of past experiences and
recommend the amendments. The 42nd amendment act which is also called “Mini
Constitution” which amended many articles and even the Preamble was a result of the
recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh committee. The 10 fundamental duties were
also added as per the recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh committee
888. What is the maximum life of an ordinance promulgated by President of India?
[A] 6 months
[B] 7.5 months
[C] 8 months
[D] 10 months
Answer: B [7.5 months]
Explanation: Article 123 of the Indian constitution empowers the President to
promulgate ordinances. This mechanism has been devised to enable the executive to
deal with a situation that may suddenly and immediately arise when the Parliament is
not in session (either one or both houses). As maximum gap between two session of a
house can be 6 months therefore maximum life of a ordinance can be 6 months and 6
weeks, which is roughly 7.5 months.

889. The Town Planning Committee comes under which among the following parts of
Constitution of India?
[A] Part VII
[B] Part IX
[C] Part IXA
[D] None of them
Answer: C [Part IXA]

890. Consider the following:

1. Legislative Council
2. Upper House of Parliament
3. Municipal Council
Which among the above are permanent?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: B [1 & 2]

891. Who appoints” ad hoc” Judges of the Supreme Court?

[A] President
[B] Vice President
[C] President with advice of Council of Ministers
[D] Chief Justice of the Supreme Court with permission of President
Answer: D [Chief Justice of the Supreme Court with permission of President]
Explanation: Ad hoc judges can be appointed in the Supreme Court by “Chief Justice
of India” with the prior consent of the President, if there is no quorum of judges available
to hold and continue the session of the court. Only the persons who are qualified as to
be appointed as Judge of the Supreme Court can be appointed as ad hoc judge of the
Supreme Court. (Article 127). Further, as per provisions of the Article 128, Chief Justice
of India, with the previous consent of the President, request a retired Judge of the
Supreme Court High Court, who is duly qualified for appointment as a Judge of the
Supreme Court, to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court. The salary & allowance
of such judge are decided by the president. The retired Judge who sits in such a
session of the Supreme Court has all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of the
Judges BUT are NOT deemed to be a Judge.
892. Which among the following is the correct age of retirement of Judge of Supreme
Court?
[A] 58 years
[B] 60 years
[C] 62 years
[D] 65 years
Answer: D [65 years]
Explanation: The current age of retirement for Supreme Court judges is 65 years while
High Court Judges is 62 years.

893. The Indian Constitution has adopted Parliamentary System of Constitution from
which among the following countries?
[A] USA
[B] UK
[C] Japan
[D] France
Answer: B [UK]

894. Which among the following articles defines the Money Bill?
[A] Article 110
[B] Article 111
[C] Article 112
[D] Article 113
Answer: A [Article 110]
Explanation: Only those financial bills which contain provisions exclusively on matters
listed in article 110 of the constitution are called Money Bills

895. Which among the following articles speaks about impeachment of the President of
India?
[A] Article 60
[B] Article 61
[C] Article 62
[D] Article 63
Answer: B [Article 61]
Explanation: As per Article 61, President of India can be impeached on ground
of violation of the Constitution. However what amounts to violation of the Constitution
has not been defined. The process of impeachment can begin in any of Lok Sabha or
Rajya Sabha. The charges for impeachment should be signed by 1/4 members of the
house in which the process begins and a notice of 14 days should be given to the
President. The impeachment bill has to be passed by majority of not less than two-thirds
of the total membership of the House {special majority}. One passed in that house, the
bill reaches to another house, which shall investigate the charges. President has right to
appear and be represented in case of such investigations. If other house also sustains
those charges, then it would again need to pass the bill by special majority and thus
president stands removed from the office on which the bill is passed in other house.
Since it is a bill for removal of president himself, no presidential assent is needed here

896. Which among the following articles of Constitution of India abolishes the
untouchablity?
[A] Article 15
[B] Article 16
[C] Article 17
[D] Article 18
Answer: C [Article 17]
Explanation: Abolition of untouchability has been included among fundamental rights
under article 17. This is one of the few fundamental rights available against individuals.
To make untouchability law further strong, parliament passed Untouchability (offences)
Act in 1955 which came into force 1st June, 1955. This act was further amended and
renamed in 1976 as Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.

897. In which year, The Citizenship Act passed?

[A] 1950
[B] 1955
[C] 1960
[D] 1965
Answer: B [1955]
Explanation: Constitution of India did not codify permanent laws for citizenship and put
this onus on parliament. Using the powers of article 10 and 11, the parliament enacted
Citizenship Act 1955 which has been amended from time to time. This act mentions four
ways in which a person may be Indian citizen viz. by birth, by descent, by registration
and by naturalization. Citizenship by birth and descent are called natural citizens.

898. What is the number of Schedules in Constitution of India?

[A] 8
[B] 10
[C] 11
[D] 12
Answer: D [12]
Explanation: Schedules are lists in the Constitution of India that categorizes and
tabulate bureaucratic activities and policy of the Government. Indian Constitution had
originally eight schedules. 9th schedule was added via First Amendment Act.
10th Schedule was first added by 35th Amendment {Sikkim as Associate State}. Once
Sikkim became a state of India, the 10 Schedule was repealed but later added once
again by 52th Amendment Act, 1985 in context with the “Anti-defection” law.
Eleventh Schedule was added by 73rd amendment and has list of subjects under the
Panchayat Raj institutions or rural local government.
Twelfth Schedule was added by 74th amendment and enlists the subjects under
Municipalities or urban local government.

899. First Indian Prime Minister to resign from Office?

[A] Atal Bihari Vajpayee
[B] Morarji Desai
[C] H.D.Deve Gowda
[D] P.V.Narasimha Rao
Answer: B [Morarji Desai]

900. Who among the following heads the Central government in India?
[A] Prime minister
[B] Chief Minister
[C] President
[D] Vice-President
Answer: A [Prime minister]

901. What is the maximum duration of the interval between two sessions of parliament?
[A] 30 days
[B] 50 days
[C] 6 months
[D] 12 months
Answer: C [6 months]
Explanation: From time to time, the sessions of the parliament are called upon by
president. According to constitution, the maximum gap between two sessions cannot be
more than six months. Thus, in each year, there must be two sessions of parliament.
However, there are usually three sessions viz. Budget session (between February to
May), Monsoon Session (between July to September) and Winter Session (Between
November to December).

902. Under which of the following articles of constitution of India, president can impose
presidential rule in a state?
[A] Article 352
[B] Article 360
[C] Article 355
[D] Article 356
Answer: D [Article 356]
903. Which among the following parts of constitution of India, includes the concept of
welfare states?
[A] Preamble
[B] Fundamental rights
[C] Directive principles
[D] Fourth Schedule
Answer: C [Directive principles]

904. How many members can be nominated to Lok Sabha by President ?

[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
Correct Answer: B [2]
Explanation: Article 331: Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in Lok Sabha:
It says that President may appoint two members from Anglo-Indian Community to is not
represented adequately, notwithstanding anything mentioned in Article 81 which deals
with Composition of Lok Sabha

905. Consider the following about National Commission for Women:

1. It was established as per mandate of Constitution of India
2. It was established by an act of parliament of India
3. Its chairperson is nominated by President of India
Which among the above statements is/ are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] 1 & 2
[D] 1, 2, 3
Answer: B [Only 2]
Explanation: The National Commission for Women is a statutory body established in
January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990.

906. In which year, First Public Service Commission was set up in India?
[A] 1922
[B] 1924
[C] 1926
[D] 1928
Answer: C [1926]

907. The Mandal Commission was constituted during the tenure of which among the
following prime ministers?
[A] Indira Gandhi
[B] Morarji Desai
[C] Rajiv Gandhi
[D] V P Singh
Answer: B [Morarji Desai]
Explanation: On 20 December 1978 India’s prime minister, Morarji Desai of the Janata
Party, announced the formation of a second Backward Classes Commission whose
chairman was B. P. Mandal, a former member of Parliament
On 31 December 1980 the Mandal Commission submitted its report to President N. S.
Reddy, recommending ways to advance India’s “socially and educationally backward
classes.”
On 7 August 1990 Prime Minister V. P. Singh announced in the Parliament that his
government would implement the Mandal Commission’s recommendations. This was
followed by the violent objections in northern part of India.

908. In which year first general election held in India?

[A] 1948
[B] 1949
[C] 1950
[D] 1951
Answer: D [1951]
Explanation: The first general elections were held between October 25, 1951 and
March 27, 1952

909. A Lok Sabha speaker addresses his/ her resignation to whom among the
following?
[A] Deputy Speaker
[B] President
[C] Prime Minister
[D] Law Ministry
Answer: A [Deputy Speaker]

910. Consider the following statements about Bodo Language:

1. It is an official language of Assam
2. It is one of the 22 Languages of 8th Schedule of Constitution of India
3. It is written in Devanagari Script
Which among the above is / are correct statements?
[A] Only 1
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: D [1, 2 & 3]

911. Which among the following is the first state in India to make voting compulsory?
[A] Gujarat
[B] Maharastra
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Tamil Nadu
Answer: A [Gujarat]
912. Which of the following is / are parts of Union Executive?
1. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
2. President of India
3. Central Secretariat
4. Vice President
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1, 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: B [Only 1 & 2 ]
Explanation: President, the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers collectively
constitute the Union Executive.

913. The accounts of which of the following are not audited by CAG?
[A] Municipal institutions
[B] State Governments
[C] Government Companies
[D] Central Government
Answer: A [Municipal institutions]
Explanation: Comptroller and Auditor General of India audits the receipts and
expenditure of State Governments, Government Companies and Central Government.
The audit of local bodies is not done by CAG.

914. Which of the following is / are correct statements regarding audit?

1. Audit is a legislative means of control over administration
2. Audit is a part of internal control over administration
3. The accounts of state governments are audited by CAG
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: C [Only 1 & 3]
Explanation: The second statement is not correct. Audit is a part of external control
over administration.

915. Which of the following is not a function of the Chief Secretary of state?
[A] To exercise control over the whole Secretariat
[B] To advise the Chief Minister on all matters related to administration
[C] To act as a spokesman of the State Government
[D] To report to Union Home Minister regarding affairs of the state
Answer: D [To report to Union Home Minister regarding affairs of the state]

916. Regarding chief secretary of a state, which of the following is / are correct
statements?
1. He She is selected from among the IAS officers
2. His / Her appointment is done by President of India

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A [Only 1 ]
Explanation: The person for the office of the Chief Secretary in a State is chosen from
among the IASA officers by Chief Minister. His appointment is done undea seal of the
Governor.

917. Who among the following appoints Attorney General of India?

[A] President
[B] Prime minister
[C] Law Ministry
[D] Cabinet Committee on Appointments
Answer: A [President]

918. Supreme Court has made Right to Free Education as the part of which among the
following rights?
[A] Right to life
[B] Right against Exploitation
[C] Right to freedom of speech and expression
[D] Cultural and Educational Rights
Answer: A [Right to life]

919. What is the minimum age prescribed by the Constitution of India for a candidate to
be elected as Vice president of India?
[A] 18 years
[B] 25 years
[C] 30 years
[D] 35 years
Answer: D [35 years]
Explanation:
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as Vice President of India- 35 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as MLA- 25 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as member of Lok Sabha-25 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as member of Rajya Sabha-30 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as MLC- 30 years

920. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the
accounts of the States are submitted to which among the following?
[A] The President
[B] The Governor
[C] The Parliament
[D] The Chief Minister
Answer: B [The Governor]
Explanation: Article 151. Audit Reports :-
(1) The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts
of the Union shall be submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be laid before
each House of Parliament.
(2) The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts
of a State shall be submitted to the Governor of the State, who shall cause them to be
laid before the Legislature of the State.

921. Who among the following was first woman judge of India?
[A] Leila Seth
[B] Anna Chandy
[C] Fathima Beevi
[D] Sujata Manohar
Answer: C [Fathima Beevi]
Explanation: It took four decades after independence for Supreme Court to have its
first women judge {Justice Fathima Beevi was the first female judge of the Supreme
Court of India whose tenure lasted from October 6 1989 to April 29, 1992. The second
was Justice Sujata V Manohar, from November 8, 1994 to August 27, 1999}.

922. The objective of the Cripps Mission, headed by Sir Stafford Cripps was to __:
[A] To prevent the launch of Quit India Movement
[B] To persuade Indian Leaders to support the British War Efforts
[C] To Convince the Congress Ministries to withdraw their resignations
[D] To set up a Constitution making body
Answer: B [To persuade Indian Leaders to support the British War Efforts]
Explanation: The Cripps mission was an attempt in late March 1942 by the British
government to secure Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II.
The mission was headed by Sir Stafford Cripps, a senior left-wing politician and
government minister in the War Cabinet of Prime Minister Winston Churchill. The
mission proved a failure.

923. In context with the Constituent Assembly, which among the following observations
is / are correct?
1. The members of Constituent Assembly were elected directly
2. The basis of seats allocation was population
3. Composition of the Constituent Assembly was roughly in line with the suggestions of
the Cabinet Mission plan
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2 are correct
[B] Only 2 & 3 are correct
[C] Only 1 & 3 are correct
[D] 1, 2 & 3 are correct
Answer: B [Only 2 & 3 are correct]
Explanation: Election of the members of the Constituent Assembly had been elected
firstly, for undivided India. Its first sitting was held on December 9, 1946 and re-
assembled as Constituent Assembly for divided India on 14 August 1947. oIts members
were elected by indirect election by the members of the Provisional Legislative
Assemblies that had been established in 1935. oThe Constituent Assembly was
composed roughly along the lines suggested by the plan proposed by the committee of
the British cabinet, known as the Cabinet Mission. As per the Cabinet Mission plan,
each Province and each Princely State or group of States were allotted seats
proportional to their respective population roughly in the ratio of 1:10 Lakh. As a result
the Provinces (that were under direct British rule) were to elect 292 members while the
Princely States were allotted a minimum of 93 seats. The seats in each Province were
distributed among the three main communities, Muslims, Sikhs and general, in
proportion to their respective populations. oMembers of each community in the
Provisional Legislative Assembly elected their own representatives by the method of
proportional representation with single transferable vote. oThe method of selection in
the case of representatives of Princely States was to be determined by consultation.
oAs a consequence of the Partition under the plan of 3 June 1947 those members who
were elected from territories which fell under Pakistan ceased to be members of the
Constituent Assembly. oThe numbers in the Assembly were reduced to 299 of which
284 were actually present on 26 November 1949 and appended their signature to the
Constitution as finally passed.

924.For removal of a Governor from office, the President seeks advice from __:
[A] Council of Ministers
[B] Supreme Court
[C] Chief Minister of the concerned state
[D] None of them
Answer: D [None of them]
Explanation: The Governor is an agent of the President who holds the office during the
pleasure of the President. So, to remove him / her from office, president does not need
to seek advice from anybody.

925.Who among the following can remove the governor of a state from office?
[A] Legislative Assembly
[B] Parliament
[C] President
[D] Supreme Court
Answer: C [President]

926.The Part VI of constitution of India is not applicable to __:

[A] Arunachal Pradesh
[B] Jammu & Kashmir
[C] Sikkim
[D] Goa
Answer: B [Jammu & Kashmir]
927.In which among the following cases, the Supreme Court of India propounded the
theory of basic structure of the Constitution?
[A] Gopalan vs. State of Madras
[B] Golak Nath
[C] Keshvanand Bharati Case
[D] Minerva Mills
Answer: C [Keshvanand Bharati Case]

928.The 52nd amendment to the constitution of India is most closely related to __:
[A] Extension of Reservations in Government Jobs
[B] Provision for special status to Tripura
[C] Provisions for increasing age of eligibility for voting
[D] Provisions against political defections
Answer: D [Provisions against political defections]

929. Which among the following are the three types of services envisaged in the
Constitution of India?
[A] Navy Service, Air force Service and Army Service
[B] Civil Service, Military Service and Paramilitary Service
[C] All-India services, Central services and State services
[D] First Grade Service, Second Grade Service and Third Grade Services
Answer: C [All-India services, Central services and State services]

930.What is the correct chronological order of creation of Assam, Nagaland, Goa &
Mizoram?
[A] Assam, Nagaland, Goa , Mizoram
[B] Assam, Mizoram, Nagaland,. Goa
[C] Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Goa
[D] Assam, Goa, Mizoram, Nagaland
Answer: C [Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Goa ]
931.Which of the following is not a correct statement about UPSC?
[A] UPSC submits its annual report to the President
[B] UPSC Chairman can be removed by Central Government by order
[C] Composition of UPSC is determined by President
[D] All of the above are correct statements
Answer: B [UPSC Chairman can be removed by Central Government by order ]
Explanation: Article 317 deals with the removal of the Chairman or any other member
of a Public Service Commission. Only president is empowered to remove members /
chairmen of UPSC, JPSC as well as state PSCs. They can be removed from office by
order of the President on the ground of misbehaviour after the Supreme Court, on
reference being made to it by the President, has, on inquiry held in accordance with the
procedure prescribed in that behalf under article 145, reported that the Chairman or
such other member, as the case may be, ought on any such ground to be removed.

932.The executive power of the state is vested in __?

[A] Chief Minister
[B] President
[C] Governor
[D] Council of Ministers in the state
Answer: C [Governor ]
Explanation: The executive authority of a state is vested in the Governor; and
Governor is the constitutional head of the state in the same way as President is the
Constitutional head of the Union.

933.A judge of Supreme Court of India can be removed from office by __ ?

[A] Parliament by law
[B] Judges of supreme court by Majority
[C] President on a resolution by parliament
[D] President on his/ her own discretion
Answer: C [President on a resolution by parliament ]
Explanation: A Judge of the Supreme Court (and also High Court) can be removed
from his position by President only on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
The power for investigation and proof of such misbehaviour or incapacity is vested in
the parliament. Each house, in order to remove the judge, will have to pass a resolution
which is supported by 2/3rd of members present and voting and majority of the total
membership of the house {absolute + special majority}

934.The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission is appointed by?

[A] President
[B] Vice-President
[C] Union Home Minister
[D] Minister in charge of DoPT
Answer: A [President ]

935.What is the minimum years of age for candidate for office of the Vice-President?
[A] 25
[B] 30
[C] 35
[D] 28
Answer: C [35 ]
Explanation: As per article 66, the candidate contesting for election of Vice-President
of India should fulfil the below conditions:
1. He must be a citizen of India
2. He must have completed age of 35 years
3. He cannot hold an office for profit.
4. He must be qualified to become a member of Rajya Sabha.

936. What is the current age of retirement of judges from supreme courts and high
courts respectively in India?
[A] 65 & 62
[B] 65 & 60
[C] 65 for both
[D] 65 and 63
Answer: A [65 & 62 ]
Explanation: The current age of retirement for Supreme Court judges is 65 years while
High Court Judges is 62 years. There was a bill introduced to raise the age of retirement
of high court judges also to 65 years but that bill was never passed.

937. Which of the following parts of constitution explicitly mentions that India is a
secular state?
[A] Preamble
[B] Fundamental Rights
[C] Directive Principles of state policy
[D] The Union
Answer: A [Preamble ]
Explanation: Preamble of Indian Constitution declares India as SOVEREIGN,
SOCIALIST, SECULAR and DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC. The words Socialist, Secular,
and Integrity were not in the original constitution and have been inserted by 42nd
amendment act 1976

938.By which of the following amendments of the Indian Constitution, Sikkim became a
state of India?
[A] 32nd, 1974
[B] 35th, 1975
[C] 36th, 1975
[D] 37th, 1978
Answer: C [36th, 1975 ]
Explanation: Sikkim became a state of India via the Thirty-sixth Amendment Act, 1975
on 26th April, 1975. The Sikkim State day is observed on 16th May of every year
because this was the day when the first Chief Minister of Sikkim assumed office.
939. From which date, the Citizenship, Elections, provisional parliament, temporary &
transitional provisions were given effect by Indian Constitution?
[A] 26th January 1949
[B] 26th March 1949
[C] 26th November 1949
[D] 26th January 1950
Answer: A [26th January 1949 ]

940.Once a Budget has been presented in the Parliament, the government has to get all
money bills related to the union budget passed within __?
[A] 30 Days
[B] 60 Days
[C] 75 Days
[D] 90 Days
Answer: C [75 Days]
Explanation: As per rules, government has to get all money bills related to the union
budget passed within 75 days of the presentation of the budget.

941. With reference to the Sindhi, Sanskrit and Kashmiri languages, which among the
following statements is/ are correct?
1. All these languages have been included in the 8th Schedule of Constitution of
India
2. All these languages are not the official languages of any state in India
3. All these languages are classical languages of India
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: A [Only 1 & 2]
942. Which of the following were the first two states in India which established
Panchayati Raj in 1956?
[A] Rajasthan and Maharastra
[B] Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh
[C] Rajasthan and Odisha
[D] Rajasthan and Punjab
Answer: B [Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh]

943.Which among the following is / are parts of Nagar panchayat?

1. Notified Area Committee
2. Town Area Committee
3. District Planning Committee
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: A [Only 1 & 2]
Explanation: Both Notified Area Committee & Town Area Committee are parts of
Nagar panchayat.

944. Which among the following political party of India has an election symbol almost
close to the election symbol of Republican Party of USA?
[A] Samajwadi Party
[B] Bahujan Samaj party
[C] Janta Dal (United)
[D] Telugudesam Party
Answer: B [Bahujan Samaj party]
945.Via which among the following amendments of the Constitution, the territories of
Goa, Daman & Diu were incorporated in the Indian Constitution?
[A] Constitution (10th) Amendment Act 1961
[B] Constitution (12th) Amendment Act 1962
[C] Constitution (14th) Amendment Act 1962
[D] None of the above
Answer: B [Constitution (12th) Amendment Act 1962]

946. The Vice President of India is elected by the electoral collage consisting of the
members of __:
1. Rajya Sabha
2. Lok Sabha
3. State Legislatures
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] Only 1 & 4
Answer: B [Only 1 & 2]
947. With respect to the President of India, which among the following statements is /
are correct?
1. A person who has been president of India is eligible for immediate re-election
2. A person cannot hold the office of president of India for more than two
consecutive terms
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A [Only 1]
Explanation: The second statement is not correct because President of India can be
re-elected to office for any number of terms.

948. Jurisdiction of which among the following high courts covers the Union Territory of
Lakshadweep?
[A] Tamil Nadu High Court
[B] Kerala High Court
[C] Kolkata High Court
[D] Bombay High Court
Answer: B [Kerala High Court]

949. The number of judges can be altered in the Supreme Court by __:
[A] Presidential Order
[B] Parliament by Law
[C] Supreme Court by Notification
[D] Central Government by notification
Answer: B [Parliament by Law]
Explanation: The parliament of India has power to make laws, organizing jurisdiction
and powers of Supreme Court. The number of judges can be increased or decreased by
the parliament by legislation. There was a Provision in our constitution originally that
there will be a CJ and 7 other judges. This number was raised to 10 in 1956, 13 in 1960,
17 in 1977, 25 in 1985. Later number of judges in the supreme court was raised from 26
(25+1) to 31 (30+1) . Current sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court is thus 31.

950.In India, a three tier Panchayat is envisaged for states which have a population
above__:
[A] 15 Lakh
[B] 20 Lakh
[C] 25 Lakh
[D] 30 Lakh
Answer: B [20 Lakh]
951.With reference to the State Legislative Council in India, which among the following
statements is / are correct?
1. The Legislative Council is a continuing House & two-third of the members retire
in two years.
2. Members of local bodies elect one-third of the total number of members of the
legislative council
3. If a state legislative council is to be created or abolished , a resolution to that
effect is to be first passed by the State legislature by a two-third majority
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer: B [Only 2 & 3]
Explanation: The first statement is factually incorrect. Legislative Council is a
continuing House and one-third of the members retire in two years.

952. With reference to the executive power in a state in India, which among the
following statements is / are correct?
1. Executive power of the state is vested in Governor
2. Real executive authority in a state is Council of Ministers
3. All executive decisions in a state are taken in the name of Chief Minister
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Correct Answer: A [Only 1 & 2]
Explanation: Third statement is not correct because executive decisions in a state are
taken in the name of Governor.
953.A member of a State Public Service Commission can be appointed and removed
respectively by __:
[A] Governor, Governor
[B] Governor, President
[C] President, Governor
[D] President, President
Answer: B [Governor, President]
Explanation: Governor can appoint and President can remove (On the report of
Supreme Court)

954. Who among the following can dismiss Governor of a state from his office?
[A] State Legislative Assembly
[B] Parliament
[C] President
[D] None of them
Answer: C [President]
Explanation: The Governor of a state in India is the agent of the President and holds
office during the pleasure of the president.

955. With reference to the procedure of the Mercy petitions in India, consider the
following statements:
1. A mercy petition can be filed only by Indian Citizens
2. There is no time limit for the president to respond on the mercy petition
3. The mercy petition is subject to Judicial Review
4. In India, the only authority to decide on mercy petitions is the President
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1 & 2 are correct
[B] Only 1, 2 & 3 are correct
[C] Only 2 & 3 are correct
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct
Answer: C [Only 2 & 3 are correct]
956. In context with the Election of Speaker in a newly constituted Lok Sabha, consider
the following statements:
1. A member of Lok Sabha can propose his / her own name if he / she desires to
contest the election
2. The date for election of the speaker is fixed by President
3. Until a new speaker is elected, Lok Sabha is presided by Secretary-General of
Lok Sabha
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 2 & 3 are correct
[C] Only 1 & 2 are correct
[D] Only 2 is correct
Answer: D [Only 2 is correct]
Explanation: Election of the Speaker of Lok Sabha oElection of Speaker shall be held
on such date as the President may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send to every
member notice of this date. oAt any time before noon on the day preceding the date so
fixed, any member may give notice in writing, addressed to the Secretary- General, of a
motion that another member be chosen as the Speaker of the House, and the notice
shall be seconded by a third member and shall be accompanied by a statement by the
member whose name is proposed in the notice that he is willing to serve as Speaker, if
elected: oProvided that a member shall not propose his own name, or second a motion
proposing his own name, or propose or second more than one motion. oA member in
whose name a motion stands on the list of business shall, unless he states that he does
not wish to move the motion, move the motion when called upon to do so. In either case
he shall confine himself to a mere statement to the effect that he moves the motion or
that he does not intend to move the motion. oThe motions which have been moved and
duly seconded shall be put one by one in the order in which they have been moved, and
decided, if necessary, by division. If any motion is carried, the person presiding shall,
without putting later motions, declare that the member proposed in the motion which
has been carried, has been chosen as the Speaker of the House.
957. In Lok Sabha of India, the “Leader of the House” is nominated by ___:
[A] President
[B] Lok Sabha Speaker
[C] Prime Minister
[D] Deputy Speaker
Answer: C [Prime Minister]
Explanation: Leader of the House “Leader of the House” means the Prime Minister, if
he is a member of the House, or a Minister who is a member of the House and is
nominated by the Prime Minister to function as the Leader of the House.

958. A National emergency on the grounds of security threat is proclaimed under which
among the following articles?
[A] Article 344
[B] Article 352
[C] Article 367
[D] Article 301
Answer: B [Article 352]
Explanation: Article 352 of the Indian Constitution 1949 deals with the National
emergency that can be proclaimed on the grounds of security threat or the situation
crisis in India. In the history of independent India, there were three periods during which
a state of emergency was deemed to have existed. It has been proclaimed three times
so far-1962, 1971 and 1975. Financial emergency (article 360) has not been declared
so far.

959. Which among the following committee was appointed by the government of India in
1986 to revitalize panchayati raj institutions for democracy and development ?
[A] L.M.Singhvi Committee
[B] G.V.K. Rao Committee
[C] Ashok Mehta Committee
[D] The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Answer: A [L.M.Singhvi Committee]
Explanation: L.M.Singhvi Committee was formed by the government to study the
Panchayatiraj. The Gram Sabha was considered as the base of a decentralized
democracy, and PRIs viewed as institutions of self-governance which would actually
facilitate the participation of the people in the process of planning and development. Its
salient recommendations are as follows: Local self-government should be
constitutionally recognized, protected and preserved by the inclusion of new chapter in
the Constitution non-involvement of political parties in Panchayat elections.
960. Which among the following is not true about the Notified Area Committee ?
[A] It is an area which does not necessarily fulfill all the conditions for the constitution of
the municipality
[B] It is created in an area which is fast developing and where new industries are set up
[C] All the members are appointed by the state government
[D] Notified Area Committee is constituted by an act of legislatures
Answer: D [Notified Area Committee is constituted by an act of legislatures]
Explanation: Notified Area Committee is not constituted by an act of legislatures. It is
an area which does not necessarily fulfill all the conditions for the constitution of the
municipality. The chairman and all the other members of the committee are appointed
by the state government.NAC can be constituted by a notification and no need for an
statute

961.Which of the following commissions was formed in 1983 to recommend the

relationship and balance of power between state and central governments ?
[A] Kalelkar Commission
[B] Sarkaria Commission
[C] Narendran Commission
[D] Mandal Commission
Answer: B [Sarkaria Commission]
Explanation: Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central government
of India. The Sarkaria Commission’s charter was to examine the relationship and
balance of power between state and central governments in the country and suggest
changes within the framework of Constitution of India. The Commission was so named
as it was headed by Justice Rajinder Singh Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme
Court of India. The other two members of the committee were Shri B Sivaraman and Dr
SR Sen. The Commission after conducting several studies, eliciting information, holding
discussions and after detailed deliberations submitted its 1600 page final report in
January 1988. the Commission recommended, by and large, status quo in the Centre-
State relations, especially in the areas, relating to legislative matters, role of Governors
and use of Article 356.

962. According to the provisions of which article of the Indian Constitution that the
Parliament can create a new all India service, if a resolution is passed by Rajya Sabha?
[A] Article 315
[B] Article 312
[C] Article 320
[D] Article 345
Answer: B [Article 312]
Explanation: According to the provisions of article 312, the Parliament can create a
new all India service, if resolution to that effect in national interest is passed by the
council of states.
963.Which among the following was the first municipal corporation set up in India in the
year 1687 ?
[A] Madras Municipal Corporation
[B] Bombay Municipal Corporation
[C] Delhi Municipal Corporation
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Madras Municipal Corporation]
Explanation: The first municipal corporation was set up in India in 1687 at Madras
preceding the Bombay and Delhi municipal corporations.

964. The power to vote money for public expenditure vests in __:
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
 3. Legislative Assembly
4. Legislative Council
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 1, 2, & 3
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: B [Only 1 & 3]

965.Deputy Speaker and Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign by giving in writing to
__:
[A] President
[B] Prime Minister
[C] Leader of House
[D] Each Other
Answer: D [Each Other]

966.The President of India can nominate to how many members to Rajya Sabha and
Lok Sabha respectively?
[A] 10, 3
[B] 12, 2
[C] 10, 2
[D] 12, 3
Answer: B [12, 2]

967. The Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar islands comes under the jurisdiction
of a __:
[A] Circuit bench of the Bombay High Court at Port Blair
[B] Circuit bench of the Madras High Court at Port Blair
[C] Circuit bench of the Kolkata High Court at Port Blair
[D] Circuit bench of the Supreme Court at Port Blair
Answer: C [Circuit bench of the Kolkata High Court at Port Blair]

968. Lakshadweep is subject to the Jurisdiction of which among the following high
courts?
[A] Madras High Court
[B] Kerala High Court
[C] Kolkata High Court
[D] Bombay High Court
Answer: B [Kerala High Court]

969. Current sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court of India is __:

[A] 20
[B] 25
[C] 30
[D] 31
Answer: D [31]
Explanation: The parliament of India has power to make laws, organizing jurisdiction
and powers of supreme court. The number of judges can be increased or decreased by
the parliament. There was a Provision in our constitution originally that there will be a
CJ and 7 other judges. This number was raised to 10 in 1956, 13 in 1960, 17 in 1977,
25 in 1985. The present strength of the judges in the Supreme Court is 25, against the
sanctioned strength of 31.

970. Constitution of India makes provisions for a person to become judge of supreme
court if he/ she has practiced as an advocate in High Court for a minimum period of__:
[A] 10 Years
[B] 15 Years
[C] 12 Years
[D] 8 Years
Answer: A [10 Years]

971. By which among the following amendments of constitution, Delhi was made the
National Capital Territory?
[A] 63rd
[B] 69th
[C] 74th
[D] 75th
Answer: B [69th]

972. Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 makes provisions for a 3-tier system of
Panchayati Raj for all the States having population of above__:
[A] 15 Lakh
[B] 20 Lakh
[C] 25 Lakh
[D] 30 Lakh
Answer: B [20 Lakh]
Explanation: The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 makes the following salient
provisions:
• To provide 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all the States having population of
over 20 Lakhs.
• To hold Panchayat Elections regularly every 5 years.
• To provide reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and
Women (not less than 33%)
• To appoint State Finance Commission to make recommendations as regards the
financial powers of the Panchayats.
• To constitute District Planning Committee to prepare draft development plan for
the district as a whole.

973. Real executive authority is vested in a state in ___:

[A] Governor
[B] Legislative Council
[C] Legislative Assembly
[D] Council of Ministers
Answer: D [Council of Ministers]
Explanation: The Governor is the head of executive power of a state but real executive
authority is vested in the Council of Ministers

974. What is the minimum age prescribed by the Constitution of India for a candidate
seeking elections to a state Legislative Assembly?
[A] 21 years
[B] 25 years
[C] 30 years
[D] 35 years
Answer: B [25 years]
Explanation:
inimum age for a candidate to be elected as President of India- 35 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as Vice President of India- 35 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as MLA- 25 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as member of Lok Sabha-25 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as member of Rajya Sabha-30 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as MLC- 30 years

975. Who can participate in the proceedings of both the houses without even being a
member?
[A] Attorney General
[B] Comptroller and Auditor General
[C] Solicitor General
[D] All the above
Answer: A [Attorney General]
Explanation: Attorney general has right of audience in all courts within the territory of
India. He has also the right to speak and take part in proceedings of both the houses of
parliament including joint sittings. However, he cannot vote in parliament. Further,
attorney general can also be made a member of any parliamentary committee but in the
committee also, he has no power to vote. Attorney General has all the powers and
privileges that of a member of parliament

976. What is the number of freedoms, guaranteed by Indian Constitution to Indian

Citizens?
[A] 6
[B] 7
[C] 8
[D] 9
Answer: A [6]
Explanation: Article 19 embodies the six basic freedoms. Originally, these freedoms
were seven as right to property was also included them. This freedom was taken off
from fundamental rights and was put as a constitutional right under article 300-A
via 44th amendment act. The six freedoms are as follows:
1. to freedom of speech and expression;

2. to assemble peaceably and without arms;

3. to form associations or unions or cooperative societies

4. to move freely throughout the territory of India;

5. to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India;

6. to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

The words or cooperative societies have been inserted via 97th amendment Act 2011.
977. A session of the LokSabha is prorogued by order of ………..?
[A] Prime minister
[B] President
[C] Speaker
[D] Leader of the house
Answer: B [President]
Explanation: Prorogation is end of a session. A prorogation puts an end to a
session. The time between the Prorogation and reassembly is called
Recess. Prorogation is end of session and not the dissolution of the house {in case of
Lok Sabha, as Rajya Sabha does not dissolve}.
While adjournment is done by presiding officers {speaker / deputy speaker in Lok Sabha
and Chairman / Deputy chairman in Rajya Sabha); prorogation is done by President.
Dissolution of Lok Sabha is also done by president.

978. Who among the following decides whether a bill is money bill or not?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] Council of Ministers
[C] Lok Sabha Speaker
[D] Lok Sabha Secretary
Answer: C [Lok Sabha Speaker]
Explanation: Only those financial bills which contain provisions exclusively on matters
listed in article 110 of the constitution are called Money Bills. Question of whether a
financial bill is money bill or not, is decided by Speaker. Such bill needs to be endorsed
by Speaker when passed by Lok Sabha and sent to Rajya Sabha.

979. A person arrested and / or detained by Police, has to be produced before nearest
Magistrate within …………period?
[A] 12 hours
[B] 24 hours
[C] 36 hours
[D] 48 hours
Answer: B [24 hours]
Explanation: Article 22 makes the minimum procedural requirements which must be
included in any law enacted by legislature in accordance of which a person is deprived
of his personal liberty. Article 22(1) and (2) are also called Rights of an arrested person.
• A person cannot be arrested and detained without being informed why he is
being arrested.
• A person who is arrested cannot be denied to be defended by a legal practitioner
of his choice. This means that the arrested person has right to hire a legal practitioner
to defend himself/ herself.
• Every person who has been arrested would be produced before the nearest
magistrate within 24 hours.
• The custody of the detained person cannot be beyond the said period by the
authority of magistrate.

980. The “administrative authority’ at the block level is___?

[A] Zila Panchayat
[B] Panchayat Samiti
[C] Panchayat
[D] District Planning Committee
Answer: B [Panchayat Samiti]
Explanation: The three tier Panchayat Institutions consist of a Gram Panchayat at the
lowest level, Panchayat samiti at the Block level and Zila Parishad of the District level.
The “administrative authority’ at the block level is Panchayat samiti

981. Which among the following was NOT constituted as per mandate of Constitution of
India?
[A] Election Commission
[B] NITI Aayog
[C] Finance Commission
[D] Inter state council
Answer: B [NITI Aayog]
982. The minimum and maximum age for a candidate to content elections for President
of India’s office?
[A] 25 years, 65 years
[B] 35 years, 65 years
[C] 35 years , no limit
[D] 25 years, no limit
Answer: C [35 years , no limit]
Explanation: Article 58 of the constitution lays down the qualifications of a president in
India. These qualifications are:
• He should be a citizen of India,
• He must have completed the age of 35 years
• He must be qualified to become a Lok Sabha member.
• He should not hold any office of profit under Union or state government.

983. A bill cannot become an act of parliament, unless and until_____?

[A] It is passed by Lok Sabha
[B] It is passed by Rajya Sabha
[C] It gets assent from President
[D] It is passed by Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Answer: C [It gets assent from President]

984. In terms of Parliamentary terminology, What do we call a rule of legislative

procedure under which a further debate on a motion can be stopped?
[A] Closure
[B] Gullitone
[C] Expunction
[D] Recess
Answer: A [Closure]
Explanation: Closure is one of the means by which a debate may be brought to an end
by a majority decision of the House, even though all Members wishing to speak have
not done so.
Guillotine refers to putting by the Speaker of outstanding question or questions relating
to the business in hand on expiry of the time allotted for its discussion.
While closure is preceded by a motion, guillotine is not preceded by any motion. On the
last of the allotted days at the appointed time, the Speaker puts every question
necessary to dispose of all the outstanding matters in connection with the demands for
grants. During budget, guillotine concludes the discussion on demands for grants.

985. “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States”. The above mandate has been
enshrined in the Constitution of India, in which among the following?
[A] Preamble
[B] Article 1
[C] Article 2
[D] Schedule 1
Answer: B [Article 1]
Explanation: Article 1(1) of the constitution of India says that “India, that is Bharat, shall
be Union of States”. Though the term “federation’ has been used in context with India,
yet technically, Federation is not a result of agreement between the units of which it is
made up of. By the term “Union” we simply mean that the units of Indian federation have
no freedom to recede from it.

986. A no-confidence motion against the Union Government can be initiated in which
among the following ?
[A] ONLY Lok Sabha
[B] ONLY Rajya Sabha
[C] Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
[D] ONLY Lok Sabha with prior consent of President
Answer: A [ONLY Lok Sabha]
Explanation: Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha and it
remains in office till it enjoys confidence of majority of the members in Lok Sabha. Thus,
a motion of no-confidence is moved to remove the council of ministers and thus oust the
government from office.
Following are conditions of No-confidence motion:
• No-confidence motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha {or state assembly as the
case may be}. It is not allowed in Rajya Sabha {or state legislative council}

• It is moved against the entire Council of Ministers and not individual ministers or
private members.

• It needs support of at least 50 members when introduced in Lok Sabha.

987. What can be the maximum number of members in a legislative assembly of a state
in India?
[A] 400
[B] 500
[C] 450
[D] 550
Answer: B [500]
Explanation: The Legislative assembly of each state cannot have number of members
more than 500 and less than 60. However, there are three exceptions to this viz. Sikkim
(32), Goa (40) and Mizoram (40)

988. What is the minimum age for a candidate to be elected as President of India?
[A] 20 years
[B] 25 years
[C] 30 years
[D] 35 years
Answer: D [35 years]
Explanation: Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as President of India- 35
years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as Vice President of India- 35 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as MLA- 25 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as member of Lok Sabha-25 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as member of Rajya Sabha-30 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as MLC- 30 years

989. Which among the following is the constitutional body appointed by the president,
every five years to review centre state financial relationships?
[A] Finance Commission
[B] Inter State Commission
[C] Inter State Council
[D] Zonal Council
Answer: A [Finance Commission]
Explanation: Finance Commission of India is established by President of India as per
Article 280 of the constitution.
Article 280 reads: President should, within two years of commencement of the
Constitution and thereafter on expiry of every 5th year, or at such intervals as he/ she
thinks necessary, would constitute a Finance Commission.

990. 73rd Amendment of the Constitution of India, is related to which among the
following?
[A] Townships
[B] Panchayats
[C] Municipalities
[D] District Boards
Answer: B [Panchayats]
Explanation: 73rd Constitutional Amendment 1992 provided the present shape to the
Panchayati Raj System. Now the Panchayati Raj Institutions in most of the States have
been set up at three levels, village, intermediate and district levels. But in smaller States
having a population of less than 20 lakh, there are only two tiers, the village level and
the district level.

991. On the pattern of which among the following countries, the parliamentary system
was established in India by the Constitution of India?
[A] United States
[B] England
[C] Australia
[D] Canada
Answer: B [England]

992. Which among the following is the final authority to interpret the Constitution of
India?
[A] President
[B] Supreme court
[C] Council of ministers
[D] Parliament
Answer: B [Supreme court]

993. What is the maximum size & Minimum size of a Vidhan Sabha in Indian state, as
outlined in the Constitution of India?
[A] 500,50
[B] 400,40
[C] 500,60
[D] 450,50
Answer: C [500,60]
Explanation: In any state assembly maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum
strength at 60. It means that its strength varies from 60 to 500 depending on the
population size of the state. However, in case of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa,
the minimum number is fixed at 30 and in case of Mizoram and Nagaland, it is 40 and
46 respectively
994. Consider the following statements about Chairman of Rajya Sabha:
1. Vice President, who is also ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha is not a member
of the Parliament
2. Vice President, who is also ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha has no right to
vote
Which among the above statements is/ are correct?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 2 is correct
[C] Both 1 & 2 are correct
[D] Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer: C [Both 1 & 2 are correct]

995. Consider the following:

1. Delhi
2. Puducherry
3. Lakshadweep
4. Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Which among the above Union Territories are represented in Rajya Sabha?
[A] 1 only
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: B [1 & 2]
Explanation: Among all the union territories only Delhi and Puducherry have
representation in Rajya Sabha.

996. For how long, A joint sitting of both the houses of Parliament may be convened to
consider a bill which was passed by one house and pending in another house?
[A] 3 Months
[B] 6 Months
[C] 9 Months
[D] 12 Months
Answer: B [6 Months]
997. Which among the following constitutional amendment act, reduced the age of
voting from 21 years to 18 years?
[A] 59th Amendment Act
[B] 60th Amendment Act
[C] 61st Amendment Act
[D] 62nd Amendment Act
Answer: C [61st Amendment Act]
Explanation: In the year 1989 through 61st constitutional amendment act, reduced the
age of voting from 21 years to 18 years

998. Which among the following article of the Constitution of India says that all public
places are open to all citizens?
[A] Article 15 (2)
[B] Article 16 (2)
[C] Article 17
[D] Article 18
Answer: A [Article 15 (2)]
Explanation: Article 15(2) says that all public places are open to all citizens with out
any discrimination. Article 16 (2)- No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race,
caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or
discriminated against in respect or, any employment or office under the State.

999. Socialist” was implicit in the constitution, but made explicit by which among the
following Constitution Amendment Acts?
[A] 38th Amendment Act
[B] 42nd Amendment Act
[C] 49th Amendment Act
[D] 52nd Amendment Act
Answer: B [42nd Amendment Act]
Explanation: By the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), three new words were
added to the preamble of the constitution- socialist, secular and integrity.

1000. Which among the following acts, incorporated 11th Fundamental duty in Indian
Constitution?
[A] 42nd Amendment Act
[B] 43rd Amendment Act
[C] 86th Amendment Act
[D] 89th Amendment Act
Answer: C [86th Amendment Act ]
Explanation: Based On the recommendations Sardar Swaran Singh Committee 10
Fundamental Duties were added in Part-IV of the Constitution under Article 51-A in the
year 1976 through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
Later in the year 2002, 11th Fundamental duty was added through 86th constitutional
Amendment Act. It states that A parent or guardian has to provide opportunities for the
education of his child/ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

1001. In which year state of Meghalaya came into existence?

[A] 1970
[B] 1971
[C] 1972
[D] 1973
Answer: C [1972]
Explanation: Till 1972, Meghalaya was a part of Assam. On 21st Jan 1972 Meghalaya
was formed. By carving out United Khasi Hills and Jaintia Hills, and the Garo Hills on
from Assam.

1002. Who among the following was the Prime Minister of India when Mandal
Commission was constituted?
[A] Indira Gandhi
[B] Morarji Desai
[C] Rajiv Gandhi
[D] V P Singh
Answer: B [Morarji Desai]
Explanation: In terms of Article 340 Morarji Desai Government appointed the Second
Backward Classes Commission under the chairmanship of B P Mandal in the year1979
to investigate the conditions of the socially and educationally backward classes and
suggest measures for their advancement. The commission submitted its report in 1980
and identified as many as 3743 castes as socially and educationally backward classes.
27% government reservation of jobs for the Other Backward Classes (OBCs) is
recommended by the commission so that the total reservation for all ((SCs, STs and
OBCs) amounts to 50%.
After ten years in 1990 that the V P Singh Government declared reservation of 27%
government jobs for the OBCs.

1003. Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code is related to which among the following?
[A] Murder
[B] Culpable Homicide
[C] Death under Negligence
[D] Rape
Answer: D [Rape]
Explanation: Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code defines rape. Section 376 defines
the punishment for rape.

1004. 1. Consider the following statements:

1. Highest Law officer of India is Attorney General
2. Highest Law officer of a State in India is Advocate General
Which among the above statements is/ are correct?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 2 is correct
[C] Both 1 & 2 are correct
[D] Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer: C [Both 1 & 2 are correct]

1005.The constitutional position of President of India is most closely similar to __:

[A] British Monarch
[B] US President
[C] Russian President
[D] British Prime Minister
Answer: A [ British Monarch ]
Explanation: Constitutional position of Indian President is closely similar to British
Monarch.

1006. How many presidents of India so far were elected unopposed?

[A] One
[B] Two
[C] Three
[D] Four
Answer: B [ Two ]
Explanation: Apart from N Sanjiva Reddy First President Dr. Rajendra Prasad was
elected unopposed for the period 1950 to 1952; but he faced opposition in further
elections.

1007. The prime minister of India can not participate in voting on a No-confidence
motion against his / her government if he / she __:
[A] leads a coalition government
[B] has minority in Rajya Sabha
[C] is a member of Rajya Sabha
[D] forbidden by speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: C [ is a member of Rajya Sabha ]
Explanation: If PM is a member of Rajya Sabha, he can participate in procedures of
both houses but can vote only in Rajya Sabha. Vote of No Confidence can be moved
only in Lok Sabha so PM will not vote in it.

1008. Which Article of Indian Constitution incorporates the Common law doctrine of
pleasure?
[A] Article 123
[B] Article 213
[C] Article 310
[D] Article 368
Answer: C [Article 310]
Explanation: Article 310 of the Indian constitution incorporates the common law
doctrine of pleasure. It expressly provides that all persons who are members of the
defenses services or the civil services of the union of the all-India services hold office
during the pleasure of the governor.
1009. Who among the following was the chairperson of the Provincial Constitution
Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
[A] Jawaharlal Nehru
[B] Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
[C] Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
[D] J.B. Kripalani
Answer: B [Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel ]
Explanation: The constituent assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with
different tasks of constitution. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the chairperson of the
Provincial Constitution Committee.

1010. The Tenth Schedule of Indian Constitution was added via the:
[A] 24th Amendment Act
[B] 52nd Amendment Act
[C] 61st Amendment Act
[D] 85th Amendment Act
Answer: B [52nd Amendment Act]
Explanation: The law was added via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. The Tenth
Schedule, also known as the Anti-Defection Act, was included in the Constitution in
1985 by the Rajiv Gandhi ministry and sets the provisions for disqualification of elected
members on the grounds of defection to another political party.

1011. Which of the following states is not included in the sixth schedule of Indian
Constitution?
[A] Meghalaya
[B] Tripura
[C] Mizoram
[D] Manipur
Answer: D [Manipur]
Explanation: Sixth Schedule of Indian Constitution consists of provisions for
administration of Tribal Area in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram & Arunachal
Pradesh. District or the Regional Councils in these states may after its first constitution
make rules with the approval of the Governor.

1012. The Second Schedule of Indian Constitution contains provisions for the salary of:
[A] Speaker of Lok Sabha
[B] President
[C] Governors
[D] All of the above
Answer: D [All of the above ]
Explanation: Second schedule lists the emoluments for holders of constitutional offices
such as salaries of President, Vice President, Ministers, Judges and Comptroller and
Auditor-General of India etc.

1013. The Emergency Provisions of Indian Constitution have been borrowed from:
[A] Germany
[B] Japan
[C] USSR
[D] U.S.A
Answer: A [Germany]
Explanation: The Emergency Provisions of the Indian Constitution have been borrowed
from Germany. The part 18 of Indian constitution deals with the emergency provisions.
Under the emergency provisions, if the President is satisfied that a grave emergency
exists whereby the security of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened,
whether by war or external aggression or armed rebellion, he may, by Proclamation,
make a declaration to that effect in respect of the whole of India or of such part of the
territory thereof as may be specified in the Proclamation.

1014. Which of the following words is not included in the Preamble?

[A] Equality
[B] Liberty
[C] Dignity
[D] Justice
Answer: C [Dignity]
Explanation: WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, are having solemnly resolved to constitute
India into a SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST, SECULAR, DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to
secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the
Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this 26th day of November, 1949, do HEREBY
ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION

1015. The Vice-President of India is:

[A] nominated by the President
[B] elected by the members of Rajya Sabha
[C] elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of members of both
Houses of Parliament
[D] None of the above
Answer: C [elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of members
of both Houses of Parliament]

1016. Which of the following statements is not correct about the Rajya Sabha?
[A] Rajya Sabha is a permanent body
[B] It was duly constituted for the first time on April 3, 1952
[C] Twelve of Rajya Sabha members are nominated by the President
[D] One-third of its members retire every year
Answer: D [One-third of its members retire every year]
Explanation: Fourth statement is incorrect because one-third of its members retire
every two years. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body. It was duly constituted for the first
time on April 3, 1952. Twelve of Rajya Sabha members are nominated by the President.

1017. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

[A] Members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the eligible voters
[B] Money Bills can only be introduced in Lok Sabha
[C] The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha
[D] President nominates four members of Anglo-Indian Community to Lok Sabha
Answer: D [President nominates four members of Anglo-Indian Community to
Lok Sabha]
Explanation: Fourth statement is incorrect. President nominates two members of
Anglo-Indian Community to Lok Sabha, when it is felt that the community is not
adequately represented.

1018. The Sarkaria commission is related to which of the following?

[A] Centre and State Relations
[B] Banking & Financial Sector
[C] Elections Reforms
[D] Freedom of Press In India
Answer: A [ Centre and State Relations ]
Explanation: Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central government
of India. The Sarkaria Commission’s charter was to examine the relationship and
balance of power between state and central governments in the country and suggest
changes within the framework of Constitution of India. The Commission was so named
as it was headed by Justice Rajinder Singh Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme
Court of India. The other two members of the committee were Shri B Sivaraman and Dr
SR Sen.

1019. Which among the following authorities decides , how far the fundamental rights
can apply to the members of the armed forces in India?
[A] President of India
[B] Parliament of India
[C] Arms Forces themselves
[D] Arms Forces Tribunal
Answer: B [ Parliament of India ]
Explanation: Its prerogative of parliament.

1020. In the constitution of India, the Freedom of speech and expression:

[A] Is enshrined in Part III
[B] Is absolute
[C] Can not be curtailed by legislation
[D] Can be suspended in emergency
Answer: C [ Can not be curtailed by legislation ]

1021.Constitution of India guarantees which of the following to the states of India?

[A] Territorial Integrity
[B] Sovereignty
[C] Right to secede from Union
[D] None of them
Answer: D [ None of them ]
Explanation: The Constitution of India does not guarantee any of the above to the
states.
1022. The annual reports of which of the following bodies is NOT caused to be laid
before the Parliament by President of India?
[A] Finance Commission
[B] National Human Rights Commission
[C] Public Accounts Committee
[D] UPSC
Answer: B [ National Human Rights Commission ]
Explanation: A question was asked in 2012 Prelims on this fact that the Parliamentary
Committees present their reports themselves. The Reports and Statements get by
President to be laid before parliament are as follows: 1. Annual Financial Statement 2.
Reports of Auditor General 3. Annual report of UPSC 4. Reports of Finance
Commission 5. Reports of Special officers of SC & ST 6. Report of the Special officers
of Linguistic Minorities and Backward Classes. The report of NHRC is submitted to
Central Government which in turn submits to parliament.

1023. Knesset is the name of the parliament of which country?

[A] Israel
[B] Lebanon
[C] Tunisia
[D] Egypt
Answer: A [ Israel ]
Explanation: Knesset is the unicameral national legislature of Israel. As the legislative
branch of the Israeli government, the Knesset passes all laws, elects the President and
Prime Minister, approves the cabinet, and supervises the work of the government. In
addition, the Knesset elects the State Comptroller. It also has the power to waive the
immunity of its members, remove the President and the State Comptroller from office,
dissolve the government in a constructive vote of no confidence, and to dissolve itself
and call new elections. The Prime Minister may dissolve the Knesset. The Knesset is
located in Givat Ram, Jerusalem.

1024. With reference to United Nations, the decision that major countries should have
veto power, was taken at which of the following conferences?
[A] Teheran conference
[B] Dumbarton oaks
[C] Yalta Conference
[D] Moscow Conference
Answer: B [ Dumbarton oaks ]
Explanation: The decision that major countries should have veto power was taken at
Dumbarton oaks.
1025. In which year, the Government of India had set up the Sarkaria Commission on
Centre-State relations?
[A] 1980
[B] 1983
[C] 1987
[D] 1992
Answer: B [ 1983 ]
Explanation: Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central government
to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central
governments in the country and suggest changes within the framework of Constitution
of India. The Commission was so named as it was headed by Justice Rajinder Singh
Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. The other two members of the
committee were Shri B Sivaraman and Dr SR Sen.

1026. Which of the following is the first country in Asia to have large scale
industrialization?
[A] Japan
[B] China
[C] India
[D] Iran
Answer: A [Japan ]

1027. Japan was the first Asian country to witness large scale industrialization. 1027. In
which year, Congress acted as an opposition party in Indian Parliament for the first
time?
[A] 1975
[B] 1977
[C] 1981
[D] 1998
Answer: B [1977 ]

1028. Congress party remained in power for thirty continuous years between
independence in 1947 and its first taste of electoral defeat (at the national level) in
1977. 1028. With reference to Attorney General and Advocate General, consider the
following statements:
1. Highest Law officer of India is Attorney General
2. Highest Law officer of a State in India is Advocate General
Which among the above statements is/ are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C [ Both 1 & 2 ]
Explanation: While Attorney General is highest law officer of India, Advocate General
is the highest law officer of any state in India. Both of these are constitutonal posts.

1029. Which of the following commissions in the British era had made
recommendations for a change in the pattern of dyarchy introduced under Government
of India Act, 1919?
[A] Simon Commission
[B] Sapru Commission
[C] Butler Commission
[D] Muddiman Committee
Answer: A [Simon Commission]
Explanation: The GOI Act 1919 had provided that a commission would be appointed
after 10 years for investigation into the progress of governance scheme of the act.
The Simon Commission was appointed in 1927 {Two years earlier} for the same
purpose. This commission had made recommendations for a change in the pattern of
dyarchy introduced under Government of India Act, 1919.

1030. As per plan of Sir Stafford Cripps, it envisaged that after the conclusion of World
War-II:
[A] India should be granted complete independence
[B] India should be partitioned and granted independence
[C] India should be made a republic
[D] India should be given dominion status
Correct Answer: D [India should be given dominion status]
1031. Bring out the only incorrect statement:
[A] National Judicial Academy is located at Bhopal
[B] Justice MM Punchi Commission is related to Centre state relations
[C] India became a party to the UN in 1945
[D] Indian Parliament is based upon the principle of Dyarchy
Answer: D [Indian Parliament is based upon the principle of Dyarchy]
Explanation: India Parliament is based upon bicameralism. Bicameralism and Dyarchy
are different words

1032. The Constitution of India gives a right to audience in all courts of India, to whom
among the following?
[A] President of India
[B] Chief Justice of India
[C] Attorney General of India
[D] Solicitor General of India
Answer: C [Attorney General of India]

1033. The concept of Judicial Review in the Constitution of India is borrowed from which
of the following?
[A] USSR
[B] USA
[C] Japan
[D] Switzerland
Answer: B [USA]
1034. What is the current number of High Courts in India?
[A] 20
[B] 22
[C] 24
[D] 25
Answer: C [24]

1035. Which of the following is the Official language of Nagaland?

[A] Nagamese
[B] Assamese
[C] English
[D] Chang
Answer: C [English]

1036. The word “Politburo” is used for the executive committee of communist political
parties. This term has originate from which of the following countries?
[A] USSR
[B] Germany
[C] Poland
[D] Austria
Answer: B [Germany]
Explanation: It is short for Politisches Büro des Zentralkomitees.

1037. Which among the following is NOT a classical language?

[A] Tamil
[B] Telugu
[C] Kannada
[D] Bengali
Answer: D [Bengali]
Explanation: Bengali is not a classical language as of now. The classical languages
are as follows:
Tamil (since 2004)
Sanskrit (since 2005)
Telugu (since 2008)
Kannada (Since 2008)
Malayalam (since 2013)
Odiya (since 2014)

1038. Which among the following was NOT a political party at the time of its foundation?
[A] Sikkim Democratic Front
[B] Mizo National Front
[C] Shiv Sena
[D] Uttarakhand Kranti Dal
Answer: C [Shiv Sena]

1049. Who among the following is widely remembered for his efforts in achieving the
Official Language of India status for Hindi?
[A] Mahavir Tyagi
[B] Purshottam Das Tandon
[C] Jayaprakash Narayan
[D] Bhagwan Das
Answer: B [Purshottam Das Tandon]
1050. Who among the following introduced the Preventive Detention Bill in 1950 in the
Indian parliament?
[A] Baldev Singh
[B] Narahar Vishnu Gadgil
[C] Sardar Patel
[D] Jawahar Lal Nehru
Answer: C [Sardar Patel]

1051. The famous “Ripon Resolution” of 1882 is most closely related to which among
the following?
[A] Public Services in India
[B] Educational Reforms
[C] Local Self Government
[D] Public Health Policy
Answer: C [Local Self Government]

1052. The Recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee led to which of the
following constitutional Amendments?
[A] 72nd Amendment
[B] 73rd Amendment
[C] 74th Amendment
[D] 75th Amendment
Answer: B [73rd Amendment]

1053. Which among the following was the first French enclave of Pondicherry to merge
with the Dominion of India?
[A] Mahe
[B] Karaikal
[C] Chandranagore
[D] Pondicherry
Answer: D [Pondicherry]

1054. Who among the following was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
[A] Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar
[B] M.A. Ayyangar
[C] Sardar Hukam Singh
[D] N. Sanjiva Reddy
Answer: A [Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar]
Explanation: First Lok Sabha had two speakers. Ganesh Vasudev Mavlankar remained
speaker between 8 May 1952 and 8 Mar 1956 and M. A. Ayyangar between 27 Feb
1956 and 10 May 1957

1055. Which among the following article was inserted in the Indian Constitution by 42nd
amendment 1976, in purview of India being a signatory of Stockholm Conference of
1972?
[A] Article 45
[B] Article 47
[C] Article 47 A
[D] Article 48 A
Answer: D [Article 48 A]

1056. The Supreme Court’s Samata judgment (1997) nullified all mining leases granted
by the State government of Andhra Pradesh in the Scheduled areas and asked it to stop
all mining operations, thus protecting the land of tribal people. Under which is the
following schedules of Indian Constitution, Supreme Court protected the land of the
tribal people through this judgment?
[A] Schedule 4
[B] Schedule 5
[C] Schedule 6
[D] Schedule 9
Answer: B [Schedule 5]
1057. Which among the following is constituted by the President of India under Article
280 (1) of the Constitution?
[A] Planning Commission
[B] Election Commission
[C] Finance Commission
[D] Farmer’s Commission
Answer: C [Finance Commission]

1058. Who among the following has been given the power by the Constitution of India to
“Impose Reasonable Restrictions” on the fundamental rights?
[A] President
[B] Parliament
[C] Supreme Court
[D] Both Parliament & Supreme Court
Answer: B [Parliament]

1059. Jawahar Lal Nehru headed the Interim Cabinet as _________?

[A] President
[B] Vice President
[C] Prime Minister
[D] Chairman
Answer: B [Vice President]

1060. Consider the following:

1. PIO Card Holder
2. NRI
3. Overseas Citizens of India
Which among the above would require to register with authorities if their stay exceeds 6
months in India?
[A] Only 2
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] Only 1
Answer: D [Only 1]

1061. In which year Indian Citizenship Act was passed?

[A] 1940
[B] 1947
[C] 1950
[D] 1955
Answer: D [1955]

1062. Which of the following fundamental right is also known to have incorporated a
“Necessary Evil” of the Constitution of India?
[A] Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.
[B] Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
[C] Protection of life and personal liberty.
[D] Protection against arrest and detention in certain case
Answer: D [Protection against arrest and detention in certain case]

1063. Consider the following years and the number of languages in Eighth Schedule of
Indian Constitution:
1. 1952 : 14 Languages
2. 1970 : 17 Languages
3. 1996 : 22 Languages
Which among the above are correct matches?
[A] 1 only
[B] 1 & 2 only
[C] 1 & 3 only
[D] None of them is correct
Answer: A [1 only]

1064. Consider the following :

1. Private Recognized Schools
2. Government Recognized Schools
3. Madarsas
Which among the above come under the purview of Right to Education Act?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] neither 1 Nor 2
Answer: A [1 Only]

1065. Consider the following statements:

1. Lok Adalats envisage the Alternative Dispute Resolution Mechanism in India
2. The judicial proceedings and every Lok Adalat is deemed to be a Civil Court.
Which among the above statements is / are correct ?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] 1 & 2 Both
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C [1 & 2 Both]
Explanation: System of Lok Adalats is an improvement on resolving disputes through
the mediation of village elders and is based on Gandhian principles. All proceedings of
a Lok Adalat are deemed to be judicial proceedings.

1066. Who among the following founded the Indian Statistical Institute?
[A] Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
[B] Calyampudi Radhakrishna Rao
[C] S. N. Roy
[D] S. S. Shrikhande
Answer: A [Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis]

1067. Consider the following statements:

1. The constituent assembly was elected on a popular basis.
2. The constitution of India was referred to People of India through a referendum
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both are correct
[D] Both are incorrect
Answer: D [Both are incorrect]

1068. Consider the following statements:

1. Demand for Linguistic states in India started only after independence
2. S K Dhar Commission was in favor of creating some states on linguistic basis.
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D [Neither 1 nor 2]

1069. Who among the following was President of United States when Cripps Mission
visited India?
[A] Herbert Hoover
[B] Harry S. Truman
[C] Franklin D. Roosevelt
[D] Calvin Coolidge
Answer: C [Franklin D. Roosevelt]

1070. The Cripps Mission was welcomed and accepted by which among the following ?
[A] Congress
[B] Muslim League
[C] Hindu Mahasabha
[D] None of them
Answer: D [None of them]
1071. Who among the following headed the Union powers Committee of the Constituent
Assembly?
[A] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[B] H C Mookherjee
[C] Jawahar Lal Nehru
[D] Dr. B R Ambedkar
Answer: C [Jawahar Lal Nehru]

1072. Which among the following article throws all public places to all citizens?
[A] Article 15 (2)
[B] Article 16 (2)
[C] Article 17
[D] Article 18
Answer: A [Article 15 (2)]

1073. “Socialist” was implicit in the constitution, but made explicit by _______?
[A] 38th Amendment Act
[B] 42nd Amendment Act
[C] 44th Amendment Act
[D] 50th Amendment Act
Answer: B [42nd Amendment Act]
1074. Who among the following quoted “Preamble” as Political Horoscope?
[A] Thakurdas Bhargava
[B] N A Palkhi Wala
[C] K M Munshi
[D] Jawahar Lal Nehru
Answer: C [K M Munshi]

1075. How many times the word “Secular” appears in our constitution?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
Answer: B [2]
Explanation: Preamble and article 25 a

1076. Which among the following was the outcome of kesavanand Bharti Case v/s
State of Kerala Case 1973?
[A] Preamble is Part of the constitution and subject to amending power of the parliament
[B] Preamble is Part of the constitution but not subject to amending power of the
parliament
[C] Preamble is not a part of the constitution and is subject to amending power of the
parliament
[D] Preamble is not a Part of the constitution and not subject to amending power of the
parliament
Answer: A [Preamble is Part of the constitution and subject to amending power of the
parliament]

1077. Which among the following is not correctly matched?

[A] Fundamental Rights : Article 12-35
[B] Directive Principles : Article 36-51
[C] Municipalities : Article 243-245
[D] Official Language : Article 343-351
Answer: C [Municipalities : Article 243-245]
Explanation: Municipalities article 243 p to 243 ZG
1078. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that Preamble as basic
structure of the Constitution?
[A] SR Bommai Case
[B] Kesavanand Bharti Case
[C] Ashok Kumar Thakur Case
[D] M C Mehta Case
Answer: A [SR Bommai Case]

1079. Which among the following acts, incorporated 11th Fundamental duty in Indian
Constitution?
[A] 42nd Amendment Act
[B] 44th Amendment Act
[C] 86th Amendment Act
[D] 100th Amendment Act
Answer: C [86th Amendment Act]

1080. Which among the following is not correctly matched?

[A] Third Schedule: Forms of oath
[B] Sixth Schedule : Scheduled Areas of India
[C] Seventh Schedule : Concurrent List
[D] Ninth Schedule : Land & tenure Reforms
Answer: B [Sixth Schedule : Scheduled Areas of India]

1081. In which states of India the “Foreigners Detection Tribunals ” are active?
[A] Assam
[B] Meghalaya
[C] Tripura
[D] Mizoram
Answer: A [Assam]
1082. Which of the following amendment bill has extended the nomination of Anglo-
Indians to the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies by another 10 years?
[A] 107th Amendment Bill
[B] 108th Amendment Bill
[C] 109th Amendment Bill
[D] 106th Amendment Bill
Answer: C [109th Amendment Bill]

1083. In which of the following months Quami Ekta Week or National Integration Week
is celebrated every year ?
[A] October
[B] November
[C] December
[D] January
Answer: B [November]
Explanation: Quami Ekta Week is observed from November 19-25 every year

1084. What is the total number of the Supreme Court Judges (Including CJI) after the
Supreme Court (Number of Judges ) Amendment Act 2008?
[A] 28
[B] 29
[C] 30
[D] 31
Answer: D [31]
1085. Who among the following is the first woman in India to head an State election
commission?
[A] Neela satyanarayan
[B] Sudha Pillai
[C] Rita Sinha
[D] Leena Mehendale
Answer: A [Neela satyanarayan]
1086. In which year Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act came into force?
[A] 2004
[B] 2006
[C] 2008
[D] 2010
Answer: B [2006]
Explanation: It was passed in 2005 but Ministry of Women and Child Development has
issued a notification to bring it into force from 26th October, 06

1087. Which of the following year has been declared as Year of Gram Sabha?
[A] 2008-09
[B] 2009-10
[C] 2010-11
[D] 2011-12
Answer: B [2009-10]
1088. If strength of a house is 520 , 20 members are abstaining and a bill is voted in
favor by 251 members, this will be an example of ___?
[A] Bill passed by simple majority
[B] Bill passed by effective majority
[C] Bill passed by absolute majority
[D] None of the above
Answer: A [Bill passed by simple majority]

1089. Which among the following bills embodies the Budget?

[A] Money bill
[B] Finance Bill
[C] Appropriation Bill
[D] All the above
Answer: C [Appropriation Bill]
1090. How many states are part of the North eastern Council ?
[A] 5
[B] 6
[C] 7
[D] 8
Answer: D [8]

1091. The State Reorganization Act 1956 divided the country in 5 Zones. In which Zone
Rajasthan was placed?
[A] Northern Zone
[B] Western Zone
[C] Central Zone
[D] South Zone
Correct Answer: A [Northern Zone]

1092. Who among the following recommends to the President the basis for distribution
of the net proceeds of taxes between the centre and states?
[A] Finance Minister
[B] RBI
[C] Finance commission
[D] Parliament
Answer: C [Finance commission]

1093. Which among the following is first Classical Language?

[A] Sanskrit
[B] Konkani
[C] Malayalam
[D] Tamil
Answer: D [Tamil]
Explanation: The new category of classical language was created in 2004 and Tamil
was declared first classical language of India Tamil in 2004,Sanskrit in 2005,Kannada in
2008, and Telugu in 2008

1094. In which year maximum number of languages were added to the Eighth Schedule
?
[A] 1967
[B] 1982
[C] 1997
[D] 2003
Answer: D [2003]
Explanation: 1967 (Sindhi), 1992 (Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali), 2003 (Bodo, Maithili,
Santhali & Dogri) so answer is 2003

1095. The contingency fund of India has been placed at the disposal of which among
the following authorities?
[A] Comptroller and Auditor General of India
[B] President of India
[C] Parliament of India
[D] Prime Minister of India
Answer: B [President of India]
Explanation: Please note that contingency funds of State Governments are at disposal
of Governor.

1096. In context of panchayati Raj in India. The date 24 December 1996 is known for
which of the following?
[A] 73rd Constitutional Amendment
[B] Report of Ashok Mehta committee was tabled
[C] Extension to the Scheduled Areas
[D] Constitution of District Planning Committee
Answer: C [Extension to the Scheduled Areas]
Explanation: On 24 December 1996, Panchayats(extension to the Scheduled Areas)
Act 1996 came into force

1097. Which among the following is not correctly matched?

[A] Schedule Two – Salaries and Allowances
[B] Schedule Five – Scheduled Areas
[C] Schedule Six – Tribal Areas of Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram
[D] Schedule Ten – panchayats
Answer: D [Schedule Ten – panchayats]
Explanation: Schedule Ten (disqualifications on grounds of defection inserted by 52nd
Amendment), Schedule Eleven (list 29 subjects under panchayats administration control

1098. The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the house of people”.
Which article states this?
[A] 75(2)
[B] 75(1)
[C] 75(4)
[D] 75(3)
Answer: D [75(3)]
Explanation: Article 75: Other provisions as to Ministers
(1) The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall
be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister
(2) The Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of the President
(3) The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People
(4) Before a Minister enters upon his office, the President shall administer to him the
oaths of office and of secrecy according to the forms set out for the purpose in the Third
Schedule
(5) A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of either
House of Parliament shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister
(6) The salaries and allowances of Ministers shall be such as Parliament may from time
to time by law determine and, until Parliament so determines, shall be as specified in
the Second Schedule The Attorney General for India

1099. Supreme court of India has given a landmark guideline spelled out the
restrictions on the Union Government’s power to dismiss a state government as per the
Article 356 of the Indian Constitution in which of the following famous case?
[A] Minerva Mills Case
[B] S R Bommai Case
[C] Sajjan Singh Case
[D] Golaknath case
Answer: B [S R Bommai Case]

1100. Whose consent is required for a money bill to originate in the state legislature?
[A] Chief Minister
[B] President
[C] Governor
[D] Finance Minister
Answer: C [Governor]

INDIAN POLITY QUIZ: PRACTICE

1. Who is selected as the 14th President of India?
A. Ram Nath Kovind
B. Suresh Kumar
C. Rajesh kumar
D. Meira kumar

2. Which ministry launched the Talent Hunt for artists and give them a platform to
showcase their talent on the national stage?
A. Minister of Environment and climate change
B. Ministry of culture and tourism
C. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
D. Ministry of Labour and Employment

3. Who approves 20 lakh houses for urban poor approved under PM Awas Yojna
recently?
A. Shri Venkaiah Naidu
B. Shri Arun Jaitley
C. Shri Naveen Patnaik
D. Shri Suresh Menon

4. This ministry launched the Mission Retro-Fitment recently.

A. Ministry of Railways
B. Ministry of Rural Development
C. Ministry of Consumer Affairs
D. Ministry of External Affair

5. Which ministry bans the cattle slaughter Across India?

A. Ministry of Environment
B. Ministry of Civil Aviation
C. Ministry of Human Resource Development
D. Ministry of agriculture and Farmer welfare

6. Which Union minister Inaugurates the Integration of eSanad with CBSE's

Academic Repository recently?
A. Shri Nitin Gadkari
B. Shri Suresh Prabhu
C. Smt Sushma Swaraj
D. Smt Smriti Irani

7. Which app is launched by the Union Minister Piyush Goyal to monitor the coal
dispatch?
A. URJA
B. Vidhyut Pravah
C. SEVA
D. GARV-II

8. Who get the additional charge of Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change (MoEFCC)?
A. Ramvilas Paswan
B. Kalraj Mishra
C. Jagat Prakash Nadda
D. Harsha Vardhan

9. Which Union Minister launched the mobile app of (MHA) Grievances Redressal
Mobile Application and Border Security Force (BSF)?
A. Ramvilas Paswan
B. Y.S. Chowdary
C. Rajnath Singh
D. Venkaiah Naidu

10. Leena Nair is appointed as the secretary in the ministry of _____________.

A. Home Affairs
B. Tribal affairs
C. External Affairs
D. Chemicals and Fertilizers, Parliamentary Affairs
11. External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj inaugurated the eighth conference of
head of missions in ________.
A. Mumbai
B. Pune
C. Goa
D. New Delhi

12. Who is appointed as a chairman of Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of

Parliament?
A. Mallikarjun Kharge
B. Kuruppassery Varkey Thomas
C. N. Janardhana Reddy
D. Buta Singh

13. Who launched Vidya - Veerta Abhiyan to encourage Universities to display

portraits of Param Veer Chakra-decorated soldiers?
A. Prakash Javadekar
B. Harsh Vardhan
C. Smriti Zubin Irani
D. Venkaiah Naidu

14. Union Minister for Urban development and housing M. Venkaiah Naidu
launched which of the following app with MSEFC portal?
A. MyMSME
B. MKisan
C. MEAIndia
D. mKavach

15. Devineni Rajshekhar, the former Minister of Andhra Pradesh has passed
away. He was associated with which political party?
A. Indian National Congress (INC)
B. Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
C. Communist Party of India (CPI)
D. Telugu Desam Party (TDP)

16. Which union ministry has launched nation-wide training programme for
Elected Women representatives (EWRs) of Panchayats?
A. Ministry of Home Affairs
B. Ministry of Human Resource Development
C. Ministry of Women and Child Development
D. Ministry of Tribal Affairs

17. The Union Government has launched RUSA portal to act as a one-stop for
States' Higher Education Plans. What does 'RUSA' stands for?
A. Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan
B. Rashtriya Uttam Shiksha Abhiyan
C. Rashtriya Unmukht Shiksha Abhiyan
D. Rashtriya Unnatsheel Shiksha Abhiyan

18. Which port has topped the list in the first-ever ranking of the ports on
Sanitation Parameters under the Union Ministry of Shipping?
A. Kandla Port
B. Cochin Port
C. Haldia Port
D. Vizag Port

19. Which committee has been constituted by the Union Government to examine
the existing framework with regard to Virtual Currencies?
A. Dinesh Sharma committee
B. Shaktikanta Das committee
C. H R Khan committee
D. B S Dharamraj committee
20. Akhilesh Das Gupta, the former Union Minister has passed away. He was
associated with which political party?
A. Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
B. Indian National Congress (INC)
C. All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)
D. Nationalist Congress Party (NCP)

21. Supreme Court Judges retire upon attaining the age of

A. 65 years
B. 62 years
C. 68 years
D. 70 years

22. Who was the first Chief Justice of India

A. Patanjali Sastri
B. H J Kania
C. SR Das
D. Chand Mahajan

23. Total number of amendment in Indian Constitution

A. 98
B. 92
C. 101
D. 56

24. Largest Union Territory of India is

A. Delhi
B. Chandigarh
C. Daman and Diu
D. Pondichery
25. Total number of seats in the Lower House of Parliament is
A. 545
B. 565
C. 530
D. 552

26. Total number of seats in Upper House of Parliament is

A. 250
B. 210
C. 215
D. 284

27. When was the first session of Lok Sabha held

A. 15th August,1950
B. 15th August,1952
C. 13th May,1952
D. 12th January,1953

28. Who was the first speaker of lok sabha

A. GV Mavlankar
B. MA Ayyangar
C. Rajendra Prasad
D. None of the Above

29. Longest serving speaker of lok sabha is

A. Somnath Chatterjee
B. PA Sangma
C. Balram Jakhar
D. KS Hegde
30. How many sessions are held in a year in Lok Sabha
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 5

31. Which state has the the highest number of representative in both the houses
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Bihar
D. West Bengal

32. Who was the first Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission

A. JL Nehru
B. CM Trivedi
C. Ashok Mehta
D. Gulzari Lal Nanda

33. Total number of High Courts in India

A. 32
B. 24
C. 25
D. 27

34. Which one is the oldest High court in India

A. Calcutta High Court
B. Madras High Court
C. Andra High Court
D. Delhi High Court
35. Which High Court has the largest jurisdiction in the terms of states
A. Gauhati High Court
B. Delhi High Court
C. Madras High Court
D. Patna High Court

36. Department of official languages comes under which ministry ?

A. Ministry of External affairs
B. Ministry of Defence
C. Home ministry
D. Finance Ministry

37. Under whom are the powers of the union executive as per the constitution ?
A. President of India
B. Vice President
C. Prime Minister
D. Finance Minister

38. The official duration of the National Anthemof India is

A. 40s
B. 48s
C. 52s
D. 60s

39. Who is the head of state government ?

A. Chief Minister
B. Both 1 and 4
C. Finance Minister
D. Governor

40. The people of which state in India have dual citizenship ?

A. Gujarat
B. Jammu & Kashmir
C. Punjab
D. West Bengal

41. The Second largest judicial complex in the World

A. Gauhati High Court
B. Delhi High Court
C. Madras High Court
D. Bombay High Court

42. When the first General Election held in India

A. 1950
B. 1951
C. 1952
D. 1955

43. The only person who had defeated Indira Gandhi in Lok Sabha election-1977
A. Ram Manohar Lohia
B. Morarji Desai
C. Lal Bahadur Shastri
D. Raj Narain

44. Who hold the record of winning Lok Sabha election with highest margin of
votes
A. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
B. Anil Basu
C. Indira Gandhi
D. Khagen Das

45. The President of India address his resignation letter to the

A. Speaker
B. Vice President of India
C. Chief Justice
D. Prime Minister

46. Which state has the largest number of seats reserved for schedule tribes in
Lok Sabha
A. Bihar
B. Assam
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Chhattisgarh

47. Who is the longest serving Chief Minister in India

A. M Karunanidhi
B. Jyoti Basu
C. Pawan Kumar Chamling
D. Manik Sarkar

48. Which state has no Panchayati Raj Institution?

A. Mizoram
B. Manipur
C. Nagaland
D. Jarkhand

49. Which High Court for the first time in India declared 'Bandh" as illegal
A. Allahabad High Court
B. Gujarat High Court
C. Kerala High Court
D. Rajasthan High Court

50. Who is the Chairman of Kendriya Hindi Samiti

A. President
B. Vice President
C. Prime Minister
D. HRD Minister

51. Right to Information Act in India came fully into force in

A. October,2008
B. June,2005
C. July,2008
D. October,2005

52. Right to Information Act in India applies to all states and Union Territories
except
A. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Nagaland
C. Goa
D. Sikkim

53. Which state has the largest Legislative Assembly

A. Karnataka
B. West Bengal
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Maharastra

54. Who is the first Predent of Indian National Congress

A. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. M K Gandhi
C. George Yule
D. W C Bonnerjee

55. Minimum age required to contest for Lok Sabha election

A. 30 Years
B. 35 Years
C. 28 Yeras
D. 25 Years

56. The time period for a constituent assembly in Jammu & Kashmir is
A. 7 years
B. 5 years
C. 4 years
D. 6 years
57. The…………………. is the formal head of theexecutive and legislature of India
and is the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
A. Prime Minister
B. Vice President
C. President of India
D. Chief Justice of India
C. None of these

58. The oath of the President is administered by the……………………….

A. Home minister
B. Finance Minister
C. Chief Justice of India.
D. Vice President

59. Narendra Damodardas Modi is the …………. Prime Minister of India.

A. 15th
B. 14th
C. 13th
D. 12th

60. ………………………. is the first Bengali to be elected as President

A. Zail Singh
B. Pratibha Patil
C. Pranab Mukherjee
D. V V Giri

61. Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship in India

A. 30 Years
B. 35 Years
C. 28 Yeras
D. 25 Years

62. Minimum age required to contest for Rajya Sabha

A. 30 Years
B. 35 Years
C. 28 Yeras
D. 25 Years

63. Who got Bharat Ratna Award before becoming the President of India
A. Dr Zakir Hussain
B. Rajendra Prasad
C. Dr V V Giri
D. APJ Abdul Kalam

64. How many members of Anglo Indian Community can be nominated by

President to Parliament?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 3
D. 2

65. How many seats have been reserved for Union Territories in the Lok Sabha
A. 25
B. 20
C. 15
D. 18

66. Maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament

A. 2 Months
B. 6 Months
C. 8 Months
D. 5 Months

67. Total number of fundamental duties in the Indian Constitution is

A. 8
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

68. Which Indian President was elected unopposed

A. Rajendra Prasad
B. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
C. Pranab Mukherjee
D. Zail Singh

69. Who is the first Deputy Prime Minister of India

A. G L Nanda
B. Devi Lal
C. Charan Singh
D. Vallabhbhai Patel

70. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of
A. 4 Years
B. 5 Years
C. 3 Years
D. 6 Years

71. Who is the first Prime Minister except Jawaharlal Nehru to return to the power
after completing a full five-year term
A. Indira Gandhi
B. Manmohan Singh
C. Rajib gandhi
D. Lal Bahadur Shastri

72. Indira Gandhi was appointed as ________ minister in Lal Bahadur Shastri's
cabinet
A. Railway
B. Defeance
C. Information and Broadcasting
D. Finance

73. When and where was the first EVM (Electronic Voting Machine) used
A. 1998, Maharastra
B. 2000, West Bengal
C. 1982, Kerala
D. 1981, karnataka

74. Which Municipal Corporation was first set up in India

A. Bangalore
B. Mumbai
C. Delhi
D. Chennai
75. Nagar Palika Bill was first introduced in Parliament during the Prime
Ministership of
A. Indira Gandhi
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Rajib Gandhi
D. V P Singh

76. From which country India borrowed Five year plan

A. USSR
B. USA
C. UK
D. Ireland

77. Which is the article that provide special status to the state Jammu and
Kashmir
A. Article 121
B. Article 274
C. Article 370
D. Article 390

78. Which article of constitution provide Indian citizens 'Right to Equality'

A. Article 11
B. Article 14
C. Article 29
D. Article 42

79. The member of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by
A. President
B. Chief Justice
C. Chief Minister
D. Governor
80. 'Panchsheel Treaty' was signed between India and China in the year
A. 1959
B. 1954
C. 1948
D. 1964

81. Who coined the term 'Non-alignment'

A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Moraji Desai
D. Mahatma Gandhi

82. Where the headquater of SAARC is located

A. Delhi
B. Abu Dhabi
C. Kathmandu
D. Kuala Lumpur

83. The name of the Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi islands was changed to
Lakshadweep by an Act of Parliament in the year
A. 1970
B. 1971
C. 1972
D. 1973

84. Who is consider as the chief architect of Indian Constitution

A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. B. R. Ambedkar
D. Vallabhbhai Patel
85. Joint session of parliament is presided by
A. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. President
D. Vice-President

86. Who is the longest serving president of Indian national Congress

A. Indira Gandhi
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Sonia Gandhi

87. Who was the first muslim presidents of Indian National Congress
A. Abul Kalam Azad
B. Badruddin Tyabji
C. Syed Hasan Imam
D. None of the above

88. Which is the first state to be formed on the basis of language

A. Maharastra
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Karnataka
D. Andhra Pradesh

89. Who was the president of India at the time of emergency in 1975
A. Zail Singh
B. VV Giri
C. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
D. Shankar Dayal Sharma
90. If both the office of President and Vice-President vacant, who has been
empowered the President function
A. Chief Justice
B. Prime Minister
C. Speaker of Loksabha
D. Chief of Army Staff

91. In which year, Sikkim become a part of India

A. 1972
B. 1975
C. 1977
D. 1980

92. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under
the Article
A. Article 122
B. Article 178
C. Article 272
D. Article 315

93. The National Human Rights Commission is formed in the year

A. 1990
B. 1993
C. 1995
D. 1997

94. The National Human Rights Commission is a

A. Autonomous Public Body
B. Constitutional Body
C. Extra Constitutional Body
D. None of the above
95. Who can be the Chair person of National Human Rights Commission
A. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
B. Judge of Supreme Court
C. Chief Justice of High Court
D. Meember of Lok Sabha

96. Who is the nominator for Comptroller and Auditor General of India
A. President of India
B. Vice-President of India
C. Prime Minister of India
D. Chief Justice of India

97. Who was the first Comptroller and Auditor General of India
A. AK Chandra
B. AK Roy
C. S Ranganathan
D. V Narahari Rao

98. The maximum number of Public Accounts Committe (PAC) can be

A. 10
B. 12
C. 22
D. 25

99. The chairman of Public Accounts Committe (PAC) is appointed by

A. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. President
C. Chief Justice
D. Speaker of Rajya Sabha

100. Which one is the 28th State of India

A. Uttarakhand
B. Goa
C. Jharkhand
D. Chhattisgarh

101. A money bill in parliament can be introduce with the recommendation of

A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. Finance Minister
102. Who was the only Lok Sabha Speaker to have become the President of India
A. VV Giri
B. Zail Singh
C. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
D. S Radhakrishnan

103. The state of emergency in India was deeclared in the year

A. 1972
B. 1973
C. 1975
D. 1977

104. Who was the Prime Minister of India when emergency was declared
A. Rajiv Gandhi
B. Indira Gandhi
C. Morarji Desai
D. Charan Singh

105. The Emergency in India in 1975 was applied under the article
A. 375
B. 242
C. 320
D. 352

106. India's 'Look East Policy' was started by the Prime Minister
A. Rajib Gandhi
B. PV Narasimha Rao
C. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
D. Manmohan Singh

107. Which of the following article constitute the "Right to Life" in Indian
Constitution?
A. Article 16
B. Article 21
C. Article 26
D. Article 36

108. The constitution of India can be amended by

A. Article 256
B. Article 324
C. Article 352
D. Article 368

109. The 12th Schedule of the India Constitution defines ________ new tasks in
the functional domain of the Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities)
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18

110. From which country has the Directive Principles of State Policy been
adopted
A. England
B. USA
C. Ireland
D. Germany

111. Which state is not included in the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution which
contains provisions concerning the administration of tribal areas
A. Assam
B. Meghalaya
C. Tripura
D. Nagaland

112. Which of the following is an extra-constitutional body

A. Planning Commission
B. SC and ST Commission
C. Finanace Commisssion
D. Inter-State Council

113. The Chairman of which Committee is generally from the opposition party
A. Public Undertakings Committee
B. Assurances Committee
C. Estimates Committee
D. Public Accounts Committee

114. The Directive Principles of State Policy are incorporated in which part of the
Indian Constitution
A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV
115. Which one of the following is not included in the state list in the constitution
of India?
A. Criminal Procedure Code
B. Police
C. Law and Order
D. Prison

116. Which one of the following is not a part of the Directive Principles of the
State Policy?
A. Right against exploitation
B. Right to work
C. Right to education
D. Right to public assistance in case of unemployment

117. Which one of the following words was not originally included in the
Preamble to the Constitution of India
A. Sovereign
B. Socialist
C. Secular
D. Republic

118. The vacancy of the President post of India must be filled up within the period
of
A. One Month
B. Three Month
C. Six Month
D. One Year

119. In which year the Election Commission of India become three member
commission
A. 1989
B. 1990
C. 1991
D. 1993

120. Total number of members in the drafting committee of Indian Constitution

including the Chairman was
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

121. Who is to certify that any bill is a money bill?

A. Finanace Minister
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Prime Minister
D. None of the above

122. Total number of nominated members in Rajya Sabha

A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16

123. How many times the Constitution of India has been amended till August,
2015
A. 98
B. 99
C. 100
D. 101
124. In which year the first amendment of the Indian Constitution was carried
out?
A. 1951
B. 1955
C. 1962
D. 1971

125. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for a President of the
Country?
A. Article 3
B. Article 5
C. Article 34
D. Article 52

126. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for a Vice President of the
Country?
A. Article 8
B. Article 39
C. Article 54
D. Article 63

127. Right to Property according to the Constitution of India is a

A. Fundamental Right
B. Directive Principles
C. Legal Right
D. Social Right

128. Who give the final approval to the draft of Five Year Plan?
A. President of India
B. Parliament of India
C. Finanace Secretary
D. National Development Council

129. The Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution in the year
A. 1956
B. 1976
C. 1980
D. 1987
130. What is "Zero Hour" in Parliament?
A. When the proposals of the opposition are considered
B. When matters of utmost importance are raised
C. Interval between the morning and afternoon sessions
D. When a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha

131. Which Article provides the provision of Prime Minister as the head of union
cabinet ?
A. Article 55
B. Article 74
C. Article 79
D. Article 83

132. Who appoints ambassadors to foreign countries

A. Prime Minister
B. External Affairs Minister
C. President
D. Defence Minister

133. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly ?

A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60

134. How many hours before actual polling, the election campaign has to stop in
our country?
A. 12 hours
B. 40 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 60 hours

135. What is strength of Judges in Supreme Court of India ?

A. Chief Justice and 15 other Judges
B. Chief Justice and 20 other Judges
C. Chief Justice and 30 other Judges
D. Chief Justice and 35 other Judges

136. Who is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

A. The President of India
B. The Prime Minister of India
C. The Lok Sabha Secretariate
D. The Supreme Court of India

137. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the
Constitution?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. BR Ambedkar
D. BN Rao

138. Article 14 of the Constitution of India guarantees

A. Right to education
B. Right to property
C. Freedom of speech and expression
D. Equality before law

139. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution provides that the
Speaker shall have and excercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of
voting
A. Article 99
B. Article 100
C. Article 101
D. Article 102

140. The provision of the join sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha under
President is provided by the Article
A. 102
B. 105
C. 108
D. 152

141. The Right to Vote in India is a

A. Fundamental Right
B. Constitutional Right
C. Legal Right
D. Natural Right

142. The Parliament in India is consist of

A. The Lok Sabha
B. The Rajya Sabha
C. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
D. The Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President

143. According to Constitution, Prime Minister is

A. Head of the Union Cabinet
B. Head of the Union Council of Ministers
C. Head of the Union Government
D. Head of the Union Administration

144. To promulgate ordinance is constitutionally President's

A. Function
B. Directive
C. Right
D. Power

145. The Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas Act was passed in which year
?
A. 1992
B. 1996
C. 1998
D. 2001

146. The Constitution of India was adopted by

A. The Constituent Assembly
B. The Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly
C. The People of India
D. The Government of India

147. Discrimination on the ground of religion is prohibited by the Indian

Constitution under
A. Article 13
B. Article 14
C. Article 15
D. Article 16
148. Who is considered as a radical humanist?
A. Ambedkar
B. Aurobindo Ghosh
C. M N Roy
D. Savarkar

149. The preamble of the Constitution of India was amended by

A. 36th amendment
B. 42nd amendment
C. 45th amendment
D. 48th amendment

150. The Right to Property, as a fundamental right was deleted by virtue of

A. 44th amendment
B. 45th amendment
C. 47th amendment
D. 52nd amendment

151. The Right to Education belongs to which of the following categories

A. Directive Principles
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Legal Rights

152. Disputes regarding election of the President and Vice President of India are
decided by which one of the following
A. The election Commission of India
B. The Parliament
C. The Supreme Court of India
D. The Rajya Sabha
153. Through which Constitution Amendment Act, reservation of students
belonging to SC/ST/OBC in admission to private unaided educational institutions
is provided
A. 92nd in 2003
B. 93rd in 2005
C. 94th in 2006
D. 95th in 2009

154. Which one is not included in the State List in the Constitution of India?
A. Police
B. Law and Order
C. Prisons
D. Passport

155. The three lists- Union List, State List and Concurrent List are mentioned in
which one of the following
A. Vth Schedule
B. VIth Schedule
C. VIIth Schedule
D. VIIIth Schedule

156. Which one of the following Articles empowers the President to nominate two
Anglo-Indian to the Lok Sabha
A. Article 79
B. Article 112
C. Article 331
D. Article 402

157. In how many states a political party must be a recognized party, to become a
National Party
A. 4 states
B. 6 states
C. 9 states
D. 12 states

158. What is the maximum strength of Lok Sabha?

A. 552
B. 545
C. 530
D. 500

159. Narsimham committee was related to which of followins reforms

A. High education reforms
B. Tax structure reforms
C. Planning implementation reforms
D. Banking structure reforms

160. The slogan 'garibi hatao' was introduced in which plan

A. First Plan
B. Third Plan
C. Fifth Plan
D. Seventh Plan

161. Article 17 of Indian Constitution deals with

A. Health
B. Food
C. Right to Education
D. Abolition of Untouchability

162. Which article is reffered as the "jewel of the indian constitution?"

A. Article 15
B. Article 32
C. Article 50
D. Article 50 A

163. Right to Freedom is guaranteed in which article?

A. Article 13
B. Article 19
C. Article 26
D. Article 65

164. The word "secularism" was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of
India by which amendment
A. 30th
B. 35th
C. 42nd
D. 48th
165. Panchayath Raj is included in the
A. State List
B. Union List
C. Concurrent List
D. Residuary Power List

166. The amending power of the Consitution of India is described in Article

A. 309
B. 332
C. 350
D. 368

167. Which constitutional amendment reduced the voting age from 21 to 18

A. 23rd
B. 52nd
C. 61st
D. 78th

168. New political parties in India are accorded by

A. Election Commission
B. Supreme Court
C. President of India
D. Speaker

169. Which article of the Indian Constitution relates to “Right to Education?”

A. Article 21A
B. Article 26
C. Article 36A
D. Article 45

170. How many subjects have been included in the Union List ?
A. 92
B. 97
C. 100
D. 103

171. The first handwritten Indian Constitution was signed by ____________

members of the Constituent Assembly
A. 252
B. 270
C. 284
D. 296

172. The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to

A. Rajya Sabha
B. Lok Sabha
C. President
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha

173. Who has the power to review the judgement delivered by the Supreme
Court?
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Lok Sabha Speaker
D. Attorney General

174. A non-member of Parliament can be a minister for a maximum period of

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years

175. From the following, which state does not have legislative council?
A. Rajasthan
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Bihar
D. Maharashtra

176. Total number of States in India with legislative council

A. 5
B. 7
C. 12
D. 23

177. The most important part of the Panchayat System is

A. High Court
B. Union Government
C. State Government
D. Gram Sabha

178. Which Article of the Indian Constitution explains the functions and powers of
the Chief Minister?
A. 164
B. 167
C. 169
D. 174

179. Which fundamental right was called "soul and heart" of Constitution by Dr.
Ambedkar
A. Right to Equality
B. Right against Exploitation
C. Right to Freedom of Religion
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies

180. In India, local government is a subject of

A. Union list
B. State list
C. Concurrent list
D. Residuary subject

181. Which state first adopted the Pachayati Raj in India in 1959?
A. Rajasthan
B. Karnataka
C. Gujrat
D. Punjab

182. What is the intermediate tier of the Panchayati Raj system is called
A. Zila Parishad
B. Taluka Pachayat
C. Pachayat Samiti
D. Gram Sabha

183. Where the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration is

located
A. Shimla
B. Delhi
C. Ooty
D. Mussoorie

184. Who is the first Woman Chief Minister in India?

A. Janaki Ramachandran
B. Sucheta Kriplani
C. Shashikala Kakodkar
D. Nandini Satpathy

185. Who is the first Woman Governor in India?

A. Vijayalakshmi Pandit
B. Sarojini Naidu
C. Padmaja Naidu
D. Fathima Beevi

186. Present Lok Sabha is the

A. 15th
B. 17th
C. 13th
D. 14th
187. Number of Constituencies in Uttar Pradesh for Lok Sabha election
A. 66
B. 80
C. 55
D. 92

188. Number of standing committees in the Indian Parliament

A. 12
B. 17
C. 38
D. 45

189. Who is the chairman of Rajya Sabha

A. Chief Justice
B. President
C. Vice-President
D. Attorney General

190. Minimum duration to stay in India before applying for Indian Citizenship
A. 3 Years
B. 5 Years
C. 6 Years
D. 7 Years

191. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?

A. Speaker of LokSabha
B. Attorney general
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Vice President

192. Who is the chairman of Planning Commissison?

A. Prime Minister
B. Finance Minister
C. President of India
D. None of the above

193. The idea of Fundamental Rights in Indian Constitution was adopted from
A. England
B. France
C. Germany
D. America

194. The Chief Election Commissioner can be appointed by the

A. Prime Minister
B. Vice President
C. Chief Justice of India
D. President

195. Who is the first Chief Election Commisssioner of India?

A. V. S. Ramadevi
B. Kalyan Sundaram
C. Sukumar Sen
D. T N Seshan

196. Who is the first female Speaker of Lok Sabha?

A. Pratibha Patil
B. Urmilla Singh
C. Meira Kumar
D. Sarojini Naidu

197. Which article of constitution give the power to President's to impose

President Rule in a State?
A. Article 66
B. Article 112
C. Article 223
D. Article 356

198. In which state, the President's Rule was first imposed in India?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Bihar
C. Assam
D. Arunachal Pradesh

199. President's Rule can be imposed initially for a minimum duration of

A. Six Months
B. One Year
C. Two Years
D. Three Years

200. What is the minimum age required for Governor of a state?

A. 25 Years
B. 28 Years
C. 35 Years
D. 40 Years

201. If President dies while in office, the Vice President can act as President for a
maximum time period of
A. 3 Years
B. 2 Years
C. 1 Years
D. 6 Months

202. The union budget is presented in the Parliament each year on the
A. last day of February
B. 1st March
C. 1st day of February
D. 15th March

203. What is the maximum number of elected members for a state assembly?
A. 350
B. 500
C. 380
D. 650

204. What is the minimum number of members required for a state legislative
assembly
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 60

205. Which state has the highest number of members in its state assembly?
A. Bihar
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu

206. Under whose Prime Ministership was the right to property removed from the
list of fundamental rights
A. Indira Gandhi
B. Lal Bahadur Shastry
C. Moraji Desai
D. Rajiv Gandhi
207. How many languages were originally recognised by the Constitution as
regional languages?
A. 14
B. 15
C. 9
D. 12

208. Which union territory has a High Court of its own?

A. Chandigarh
B. Delhi
C. Pondicherry
D. Lakshadweep

209. Which article of constitution give the provision of President in India?

A. Article 52
B. Article 56
C. Article 72
D. Article 76

210. Total number of schedules in Indian Constitution

A. 24
B. 12
C. 10
D. 18

211. From which country India borrowed Five year plan?

A. USSR
B. USA
C. UK
D. Ireland
212. Which is the article that provides special status to the state Jammu and
Kashmir?
A. Article 121
B. Article 274
C. Article 370
D. Article 390

213. Which article of constitution provides Indian citizens 'Right to Equality'?

A. Article 11
B. Article 14
C. Article 29
D. Article 42

214. The member of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by
A. President
B. Chief Justice
C. Chief Minister
D. Governor
215. 'Panchsheel Treaty' was signed between India and China in the year
A. 1959
B. 1954
C. 1948
D. 1964

216. Who coined the term 'Non-alignment'?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Moraji Desai
D. Mahatma Gandhi

217. Where the headquater of SAARC is located

A. Delhi
B. Abu Dhabi
C. Kathmandu
D. Kuala Lumpur

218. The name of the Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi islands was changed to
Lakshadweep by an Act of Parliament in the year
A. 1970
B. 1971
C. 1972
D. 1973

219. Who is consider as the chief architect of Indian Constitution

A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. B. R. Ambedkar
D. Vallabhbhai Patel

220. Joint session of parliament is presided by

A. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. President
D. Vice-President

221. Who is the longest serving president of Indian national Congress?

A. Indira Gandhi
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Sonia Gandhi
222. Who was the first muslim presidents of Indian National Congress?
A. Abul Kalam Azad
B. Badruddin Tyabji
C. Syed Hasan Imam
D. None of the above

223. Which is the first state to be formed on the basis of language?

A. Maharastra
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Karnataka
D. Andhra Pradesh

224. Who was the president of India at the time of emergency in 1975
A. Zail Singh
B. VV Giri
C. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
D. Shankar Dayal Sharma

225. If both the office of President and Vice-President vacant, who has been
empowered the President function
A. Chief Justice
B. Prime Minister
C. Speaker of Loksabha
D. Chief of Army Staff

226. Which article of the Indian Constitution is related to Indian Foreign Policy
A. Article 51
B. Article 60
C. Article 312
D. Article 380
227. In India, who is competent to amend Fundamental Rights of the citizens?
A. President
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Parliament
D. Supreme Court

228. In which state, reservation for scheduled castes not applied in Panchayat
elections?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Assam
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Haryana

229. Which of the following is not a condition for acquisition of Indian

citizenship?
A. Domicile
B. Descent
C. Registration
D. Property

230. A person to be qualified to contest in Panchayat elections must have

attained the age of
A. 18 years
B. 21 years
C. 25 years
D. 35 years

231. How many Fundamental Rights are enjoyed by the Indians?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

232. Under which Article of the Consitution, can an individual move to the
Supreme Court directly in case of any violation of a Fundamental Right?
A. Article 12
B. Article 18
C. Article 26
D. Article 32

233. The law on which the Supreme Court functions was taken from
A. England
B. Ireland
C. USSR
D. Japan

234. The Directive Principles are enshrined in the Constitution in

A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV

235. The Fundamental Rights have the sanction of

A. Supreme Court
B. Constitution
C. Maority Opinion
D. The Government

236. India has been described by the Constitution as

A. A Federation of States
B. Quasi-federal
C. A union of states
D. None of the above

237. Who was the only independent candidate to win the election of President of
India?
A. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
B. VV Giri
C. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
D. R Venkataraman

238. Which Indian Prime Minister did not face the Parliament?
A. I K Gujral
B. Chandra Shekhar
C. Morarji Desai
D. Chaudhary Charan Singh

239. Under the Constitution of India organization of Village Panchayat is

A. Fundamental Right
B. Fundamental Duty
C. Directive Principle
D. None of the above

240. The seat of a Member of Parliament who absents himself from sessions
without permission for _____ days can be declared vacant
A. 30 days
B. 45 days
C. 60 days
D. 75 days

241. The power to form a new State or change the boundaries of an existing State
rests with
A. The President
B. Parliament
C. Supreme Court
D. Election Commission

242. In the Constitution of India, "to protect and improve the natural environment
including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living
creatures" is
A. Fundamental Right
B. Fundamental Duty
C. Directive Principle of State Policy
D. None of the above
243. Who among the following has right to address the Parliament ?
A. Attorney General of India
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Chief Election Commissioner of India
D. National Security Advisor

244. The following states were initially given the status of autonomous state and
subsequently made full-fledged states. Mark them
A. Meghalaya and Jammu and Kashmir
B. Assam and Bihar
C. Meghalaya and Sikkim
D. Nagaland and Assam

245. The 86th Amendment of the Indian Constitution made primary education as a
Fundamental Right in the year
A. 1998
B. 2000
C. 2002
D. 2004
246. The two additional words "Socialist" and "Secular" were added to the Indian
Constitution by the ________ Amendment
A. 39
B. 42
C. 43
D. 48

247. Which Article of Indian Constitution says that "untouchability" is abolished?

A. Article 13
B. Article 17
C. Article 18
D. Article 21
248. The ideals of "liberty, equality and fraternity" in the Preamble have been
taken from the ________ Revolution
A. Russian
B. French
C. American
D. German

249. The Indian Constitution is published by ___________ of Ministry of law and

Justice
A. Legislative department
B. Department of Legal Affairs
C. Department of Justice
D. National Judicial Commission
250. Article 371(2) of the Indian Constitution is related to which of the following
states
A. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Maharashtra and Gujarat
C. Nagaland and Manipur
D. Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

251. Article 371(A) of the Indian Constitution is related to which of the following
states
A. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Manipur
C. Mizoram
D. Nagaland

252. The parliament can abolish a Legislative Council on the recommendations of

A. The President
B. The Governor
C. State Council of Ministers
D. State Legislative Assembly

253. Which of the following judgements stated that Preamble was not a part of the
Constitution?
A. Berubari Case
B. Golaknath case
C. Kesavananda Bharati Case
D. Bommai Vs Union of India

254. Article 356 of the Constitution has generated lots of debate because it deals
with
A. Inter-State Water Disputes
B. Greater autonomy for States in financial matters
C. Declaration of President's rule in a state
D. Status of Kashmir

255. Who had the shortest tenure as the President of India

A. Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan
B. Dr. Zakir Hussain
C. Shri. V.V. Giri
D. Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed

256. Who is the first Indian President to die in office?

A. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
B. V.V. Giri
C. Zakir Hussain
D. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

257. Who made the comment, "Governor is a bird in golden cage?"

A. Vijayalaxmi Pandit
B. Sarojini Naidu
C. C. Rajgopalachari
D. A.K. Ayyar

258. A money bill can be introduced only in

A. Rajya Sabha
B. Lok Sabha
C. Both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
D. None of the above

259. Who is the constitutional head of the State Governments?

A. Chief Minster
B. High Court Judge
C. Governor
D. Speaker

260. The minimum number of judges of the Supreme Court required for hearing
any case involving interpretation of the Constitution is
A. 5
B. 6
C. 9
D. 10

261. Which among the following functions as a coordinator between the Planning
Commission and State Government?
A. National Integration Council
B. Finance Commission
C. National Development Council
D. None of the above

262. Who of the following Presidents of India was associated with Trade Union
Movement?
A. Zakir Husain
B. V. V. Giri
C. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
D. Morarji Desai

263. Which part of our Constitution envisages a three tier system of Panchayats?
A. Part IX
B. part X
C. Part XI
D. Part XII
264. A seat of M.P. can be declared vacant if he absents himself from the house
for a continuous period of
A. One month
B. Two month
C. Three month
D. Six month
265. First Five Year Plan of India was based on the
A. Harrod Domar Model
B. Mahalanobis Model
C. Dadabhai Naroji Model
D. J.L. Nehru Model

266. Constitution Day of India is celebrated on

A. 26th January
B. 16th August
C. 26th November
D. 30th November

267. A Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is only a/an

A. Advisory Body
B. Consultative Committee
C. Co-ordinating and Supervisory Authority
D. Administrative Authority

268. The tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India is

A. Five years
B. Five years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
C. Six years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
D. Six years or 70 years of age whichever is earlier
269. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which of the following Articles of the Indian
Constitution was to remain a dead-letter
A. Article 32
B. Article 96
C. Article 352
D. Article 356
270. Who was the Chairman of the First Union Commission of Backward Classes
of India?
A. B.P. Mandal
B. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Kanshi Ram
D. Kaka Kalelkar

271. The provision for 'free legal aid' is provided in

A. Article 32
B. Article 15(A)
C. Article 21(A)
D. Article 39(A)

272. What does the Part IV of the Indian Constitution deal with?
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Fundamental Duties
C. Directive Principles of State Policies
D. Panchayati Raj Institutions

273. Under which of the following Articles, additional and acting judges can be
appointed in the High Courts
A. Article 220
B. Article 229
C. Article 224
D. Article 231

274. The maximum permissible period between two sessions of a State

Legislative Assembly is
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One Year
D. Indefinite

275. Under which Article, the Supreme Court has the power to review its own
judgement or order
A. Article 137
B. Article 254
C. Article 256
D. Article 142

276. The Speaker can ask a Member of the House to stop speaking and let
another Member speak. This is known as
A. decorum
B. crossing the floor
C. interpretation
D. yielding the floor

277. Chief Ministers of all the States are the ex officio members of the
A. Finance Commission
B. Planning Commission
C. Inter State Council
D. National Development Council
278. The right to Education Act 2009, is not related to
A. primary education
B. quality of education
C. free education
D. higher education

279. In which schedule of the Constitution, the recognised 22 languages has been
included
A. 6th schedule
B. 7th schedule
C. 8th schedule
D. 9th schedule

280. The idea that Indians should have a constituent assembly to frame a
Constitution of India was initiated by
A. Rajendra Prasad
B. M.N. Roy
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. B.R. Ambedkar

281. Which Amendment Act enabled Delhi and Pondicherry to vote in the
Presidential Elections?
A. 64th Amendment Act
B. 70th Amendment Act
C. 74th Amendment Act
D. 81th Amendment Act

282. Article 132 of the Indian Constitution deals with

A. The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in constitutional cases
B. The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court from High Court in Civil cases
C. Criminal appeals from High Courts to Supreme Court
D. Special leave to appeal by Supreme Court

283. The Maternity Benefit Act was enacted in the year

A. 1958
B. 1961
C. 1968
D. 1972

284. Setting up of Village Panchayats is associated with which part of the Indian
Constitution
A. Preamble
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Directive principles of State Policy
D. Fundamental Duties
285. Which Article consist of the provision relating to composition and its power
and functions of the Election Commission of India
A. Article 324
B. Article 328
C. Article 339
D. Article 345

286. Which Article of the Constitution of India gives provision to set up village
panchayats?
A. Article 15
B. Article 25
C. Article 243
D. Article 42

287. Total number of women memebers in the Constituent Assembly was

A. 12
B. 15
C. 18
D. 21

288. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of
India are made in order to
A. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
B. determine the boundaries between States
C. determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
D. protect the interests of all the border States

289. The residuary powers of legislation under Indian Constitution rests with
A. The President
B. The Prime Minister
C. The Parliament
D. The Chief Justice

290. Which Institution has the final authority to interpret the India Constitution?
A. Praliament
B. President
C. Attorney General of India
D. Supreme Court of India

291. The Panchayat Samiti remains accountable for its functions to

A. Zilla Parishads
B. Janpad Panchayats
C. Anchal Panchayats
D. The Gram Panchayats and Gram Sabhas
292. Who was the first person to be re-elected as Indian Vice President after
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
A. Zakir Husain
B. V V Giri
C. Shankar Dayal Sharma
D. Mohammad Hamid Ansari

293. Which is not concern of the local government?

A. Public Health
B. Sanitation
C. Law and Order
D. Public Utility Services

294. In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from

A. England
B. USA
C. France
D. Japan

295. Who had proposed partyless democracy in India?

A. Vinoda Bhave
B. V V Giri
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Jaya Prakash Narayan

296. Who is the first Law Officer in India?

A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Law Minister
D. Attorney General

297. Which Amendment of the Constitution relates to Anti-defection Law?

A. 51st
B. 52nd
C. 54th
D. 56th

298. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India gave verdict that
the Preamble is part of Indian Constitution
A. Golak Nath Case
B. Babari Masjid Case
C. Minerva Mills Case
D. Kesavananda Bharati Case

299. The Governor does not appoint the

A. Judges of the High Court
B. Chief Minister
C. Advocate General of the State
D. Chairman of the State Public Service Commission

300. The Panchayati Raj is included in the

A. Union List
B. Concurrent List
C. State List
D. Residuary List

301. What does Article 21A of the Constitution of India deals with
A. Free and Compulsory Education to children aged 6-14 Yrs
B. Freedom of Speech and Expression
C. Protection of Life and Liberty
D. Protection of Language, script or culture of minorities

302. Judgement of Supreme Court in Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India relates to
A. Reservation for OBC
B. Reservation of Scheduled Caste
C. Reservation of Minorities
D. Reservation of Scheduled Tribe

303. Under which Article of Indian Constitution amendment process has been
described
A. 362
B. 365
C. 368
D. 372

304. Within which time period an ordinance promulgated by the President be laid
down before both the Houses of Parliament after their reassemble
A. Six months
B. Six days
C. Six weeks
D. Two months

305. Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions about President's power of
Pardon?
A. Article 52
B. Article 62
C. Article 68
D. Article 72

306. For how many days can Rajya Sabha delay the Money Bill
A. 14 days
B. 30 days
C. 35 days
D. 45 days

307. How many members of Lok Sabha join the Public Accounts Committee?
A. 7
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15

308. Which one of the following cases propounded the concept of "Basic
structure" of the Indian Constitution?
A. Indra Sauhney Case
B. Shankari Prasad's Case
C. Rudal Shah's Case
D. Keshvanand Bharati Case
309. What is "guillotine" in parliamentary context?
A. Walk out
B. Bringing the house to a standstill
C. Cut in the budget expenditure
D. Approving bills without any discussion

310. For how much period, President's rule can be imposed in a State without
approval of the Parliament
A. One Month
B. Two Months
C. Four Months
D. Six Months

311. Which article of the Constitution directs that the State shall take steps to
organize village panchayats?
A. 39
B. 40
C. 41
D. 42

312. The words "Procedure established by Law", incorporated in Article 21 of the

Constitution were adopted from the Constitution
A. Britain
B. USA
C. Canada
D. Japan
313. Which rule of the Lok Sabha Rules of Procedure provides for the
presentation of the budget to the Lok Sabha in two or more parts
A. Rule 205
B. Rule 213
C. Rule 225
D. Rule 230
314. Which Committee was constituted by Government of India to study
Criminalization of Politics in India?
A. Vohra Committee
B. Tarkunde Committee
C. Sri Krishna Committee
D. Dinesh Goswami Committee

315. A candidate will lose deposit in an assembly election, if he does not secure
A. More than 1/5th of the valid votes polled
B. More than 1/6th of the valid votes polled
C. More than 1/8th of the valid votes polled
D. More than 1/10th of the valid votes polled

316. In India, if motion of thanks to President's address is defeated, then who

would resign?
A. The Government
B. President
C. Prime Minister
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha

317. Which Article of the Constitution addresses our Country as "India, that is
Bharat?"
A. Preamble
B. Article 1
C. Article 2
D. Article 3

318. The Union Finance Commission which first categorized the States as Special
and General Category States is
A. Third Finance Commission
B. Fourth Finance Commission
C. Fifth Finance Commission
D. Sixth Finance Commission

319. Which body decides the number and size of constituencies in India for
electoral purposes?
A. NITI-Aayog
B. Election Commission of India
C. Delimitation Commission
D. Ministry of Home Affairs

320. Which Lok Sabha is of shortest duration till now?

A. 7th Lok Sabha
B. 8th Lok Sabha
C. 10th Lok Sabha
D. 12th Lok Sabha

321. Which article of the Constitution states that "All are equal before Law?"
A. Article 14
B. Article 15
C. Article 17
D. Article 19

322. Which Article of the Constitution speaks about Uniform Civil Code?
A. 38
B. 41
C. 44
D. 47

323. Under which article of the Constitution C&AG submits a report on finances
of a State to the Governor
A. Article 136
B. Article 143
C. Article 151
D. Article 159

324. In which year, did the right to education come into force as a fundamental
right
A. 2009
B. 2010
C. 2011
D. 2012

325. How many members are from the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
respectively in the Parliamentary Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Caste and
Scheduled Tribes?
A. 10 and 5
B. 5 and 12
C. 20 and 10
D. 20 and 12

326. The Model Code of Conduct for elections is issued by the Election
Commission as per
A. Rules in the Constitution
B. Rules in the Indian Penal Code
C. Issued for voluntary compliance
D. Rules laid down in the Peoples Representation Act

327. Which of these Fundamental Rights is available only to a citizen of India?

A. Rights under Article 19
B. Rights under Article 21
C. Rights under Article 25
D. Rights under Article 28

328. The Fundamental Duties are introduced in the Constitution upon

recommendation of the Committee
A. Chavan Committee
B. Swaran Sing Committee
C. Buta Singh Committee
D. Narasimha Rao Committee

329. Which Article of the Directive Principles of the Constitution mentions about
empowering Village Panchayats?
A. Article 38
B. Article 39
C. Article 40
D. Article 41

330. To becomes an Act, how many times a Bill need to go through in Parliament
House
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

331. Whose permission is required to receive a title or award from foreign country
while the person is occupying an "office of profit?"
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Union Cabinet
D. Minister of External Affairs
332. How many members are required in recognized as the opposition party in
Lok Sabha?
A. 1/5 of the total strength
B. 1/10 of the total strength
C. 3/10 of the total strength
D. 2/5 of the total strength

333. Which constitutional amendment provided for appointment of a person as

Governor for more than one state
A. Sixth
B. Seventh
C. Eleventh
D. Seventeenth

334. In which year, the Union Ministry of Panchayati Raj Institutions was
established?
A. 1998
B. 2001
C. 2004
D. 2005

335. Which schedule of the Indian constitution contains powers of Panchayati Raj
Institutions?
A. 9th
B. 10th
C. 11th
D. 12th

336. India had been described as "functional anarchy" by

A. Morris Jones
B. Atul Kohli
C. J.K. Galbraith
D. Selig Harrison

337. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments has been described as a

“Mini Revision of Constitution”?
A. 42nd
B. 44th
C. 52nd
D. 58th

338. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution envisages a Uniform Civil Code for all
A. Religious Communities
B. Ethnic Groups
C. Women
D. Citizens

339. A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a

Member of the House if the Member
A. Voluntarily gives up his/ her membership of the political party from which he /she was
elected
B. Is expelled by the political party from which he/ she had been elected to the House
C. Joins a political party after being elected as an independent candidate
D. Abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his/ her political party
340. Which one of the following language is not recognized in the Eighth
Schedule to the Constitution of India?
A. English
B. Sanskrit
C. Urdu
D. Nepali

341. Consider the following statements:

1. The President of India shall have the power to appoint and remove the Speaker of
Lok Sabha.
2. The Speaker has to discharge the function of his office himself throughout of his
office term and cannot delegate his function to the Deputy Speaker during his absence
from the station or during his illness.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
342. Which one of the following statements about the process of the Parliament
to make new States is not correct?
A. The Parliament may by law form a new State and alter the boundaries or names of
existing States.
B. A Bill to this effect cannot be introduced in the Parliament except on the
recommendation of the President.
C. A Bill to this effect may be referred by the President to the Legislature of the affected
State.
D. Such a law will fall under the purview of Article 368.

343. Which of the following statements with regard to citizenship provisions of

the Constitution of India is/ are correct?
1. No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 5, or be deemed to be a
citizen of India by virtue of Article 6 or Article 8, if he /she has voluntarily acquired the
citizenship of any foreign State.
2. The Parliament has power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and
termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship. Select the correct
answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

344. The protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 of the
Constitution of India is not available to
1. An enemy alien
2. A person detained under a preventive detention law
3. A foreigner
4. An overseas citizen of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4 only

345. Freedom of conscience under the Constitution of India is subject to

1. Public order, morality and health
2. A law providing for social welfare and reform
3. Opening Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all Hindus
4. Defamation or incitement to an offence Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 2 only

346. Which one among the following statements is not correct?

A. The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359
of the Constitution of India
B. The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
C. Punishments can be prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of
the Constitution of India
D. The Fundamental Rights can be abrogated by law made by the Parliament with
regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order

347. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under
the Constitution of India?
A. To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
B. To visit the monuments of national importance
C. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D. To know more and more about the religions of India

348. The Constituent Assembly of India convened to prepare the Constitution of

India appointed a sub-committee headed by Gopinath Bordoloi.
Which of the following recommendations was/were made by the committee?
1. Fifth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Asom) Tribal and Excluded Areas.
2. Constitution of District Councils in all autonomous districts of Asom.
3. Sixth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Asom) Tribal and Excluded Areas.
4. Demarcation of territories in North-East India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
A. Only 1
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. Only 4

349. The term of office of the Vice-president is as follows?

A. 6 years
B. 4 years
C. 7 years
D. 5 years

350. The Vice-president is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya sabha?

A. Rajya Sabha
B. Lok Sabha
C. Planning Commission
D. National Development Council

351. Which one of the following article deals with the appointment of the Prime
Minister and other ministers?
A. Article 76
B. Article 74
C. Article 75
D. Article 72

352. The Prime Minister is appointed by which one of the following?

A. Attorney general of India
B. President
C. Vice-president
D. Chief justice of India

353. Who among the following shall communicate to the president all the
decisions of the council of ministers under article 78?
A. Home minister
B. Prime minister
C. Attorney general
D. Finance minister

354. The total number of ministers including the prime ministers shall not exceed-
A. 20% members of the Lok sabha
B. 10% members of the Lok sabha
C. 25% members of the Lok sabha
D. 15% members of the Lok sabha

355. The Supreme Court at present contains the following number of Judges?
A. 25 judges
B. 31 judges
C. 20 judges
D. 30 judges

356. Who among the following appoints the Chief Justice and other Judges of
the Supreme Court?
A. Prime minister
B. Vice-president
C. Home minister
D. President

357. Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court?
A. Original and Appellate Jurisdiction
B. Appointment of ad-hoc judges
C. Judicial review
D. All the above”

358. Which article of the constitution of India provides the composition and
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India?
A. Article 137-141
B. Article 144
C. Article 126
D. Article 124

359. The National Judiciary Appointments Commission (NJAC) consists of the

following persons?
A. Chief Justice of India
B. Two senior most Supreme Court judges
C. The Union Minister of Law and Justice
D. All the above
360. Mr. T.S. Thakur is the ...................Chief Justice of India.
A. 41st
B. 42nd
C. 43rd
D. 44th

361. The executive power of the Union is vested in which one of the below?
A. Prime minister
B. Home minister
C. Vice-president
D. President

362. Which one of the following article deals with the pardoning power of the
President?
A. Article 71
B. Article 74
C. Article 72
D. Article 75

363. The impeachment of the President is carried by which one of the following?
A. Attorney general
B. Members of the legislative
C. Parliament
D. Prime minister

364. Which one of the following article deals with the tenure of the President?
A. Article 53
B Article 56
C. Article 55
D. Article 52
365. Which of the following article deals with the impeachment of the President?
A. Article 65
B. Article 62
C. Article 64
D. Article 61

366. The Pressure groups are:

A. Political organisations
B. Economic organisation
C. Moral organisations
D. Organisations of universal character

367. The Pressure Group tries to promote the interests of their members by
exerting pressure on:
A. Executive
B. Judiciary
C. Legislative
D. All the above

368. Which of the following are known as Pressure Groups?

A.. Trade unions
B. Caste groups
C. Tribal organisations
D. All the above

369. Which of the following is not a feature of pressure group?

A. It tries to influence from outside
B. Its membership is large
C. It actively joins political parties
D. Its members can join any number of groups
370. Which of the following is not a method used by the pressure group for
achieving its objectives?
A. It finances political parties
B. It organises demonstrations
C. It clearly aligns with a political party
D. It tries to influence policy makers

371. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and
Management constituted?
A. 1950
B. 2005
C. 1970
D. 1985

372. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Youth constituted?

A. 2010
B. 2008
C. 2006
D. 1985

373. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Global Warming and Climate
Change constituted?
A. 2005
B. 2006
C. 2007
D. 2008

374. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Disaster Management

constituted?
A. 2011
B. 2010
C. 2009
D. 2008

375. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Children constituted?

A. 2006
B. 2007
C. 2008
D. 2009

376. Which of the following describes India as a secular state?

A. Fundamental rights
B. Directive principles of state policy
C. Fifth schedule
D. Preamble of the constitution
377. “The independence of Judiciary” in Indian constitution is taken from.
A. Britain
B. USA
C. South Africa
D. Australia

378. In a parliamentary form of Government the real powers of the state, are
vested in the….
A. The President
B. Chief Justice of the Supreme court
C. Council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister
D. Parliament

379. Which of the following amendment acts amended the Preamble of the Indian
constitution?
A. 44th Amendment act
B. 42nd Amendment act
C. 56th Amendment act
D. It has never been amended

380. Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not a part of the constitution in
which of the following cases/case?
A. Berubari Union case (1960)
B. Unni Krishnan vs Union of India
C. Minnerva Mills vs. the union of India and other states
D. Sunil Batra vs. Delhi government

381. Which of the following article of the Indian Constitution deals with the
constitution of the Parliament of India?
A. Article 73
B. Article 78
C. Article 79
D. Article 72

382. Which of the following article deals with the composition of council of states
( Rajya sabha) and the manner of election of its members?
A. Article 82
B. Article 81
C. Article 90
D. Article 80

383. The representatives of the state in the Rajya sabha are elected by which one
of the following?
A. Chief minister of the state
B. Elected members of the state legislative assembly
C. Governor
D. President
384. The number of representatives of the Rajya sabha from states and union
territories are among which one of the following?
A. 238
B. 212
C. 200
D. 220

385. How many number of members are nominated by the President to the Rajya
sabha?
A. 20
B. 18
C. 12
D. 15

386. Which among the following is not a standing committee?

A. Public accounts committee
B. Ethics committee
C. Railway convention committee
D. Business advisory committee

387. Consider the following statements. Which among them is/are NOT true?
1. Standing Committees are the permanent committees that are constituted on a regular
basis
2. Ad hoc committees are temporary committees that are dissolved when the task is
completed
3. Committee of Privileges is an ad-hoc committee
4. Joint Committee on Fertilizer pricing is a standing committee
A. Only 3 and 4
B. Only 1 and 2
C. Only 1 and 3
D. Only 2 and 4
388. What among the following is NOT true about the Public Accounts
Committee?
1. The committee was first set up in 1919
2. It's main function is to audit the annual reports of Comptroller and Auditor General of
India (CAG)
3. It consists of 15 Lok Sabha members and 7 Rajya Sabha members
4. The term of the office of the Public Accounts Committee is one year
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. All are true

389. Which among the following is NOT true about the Estimates Committee?
1. The first Estimates Committee of the post-independence era was first set up in 1950
2. Estimates Committee has a right to question the policies approved by the Parliament
3. It consists of members that are both from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
4. Chairman of the Estimates Committee is always from the Opposition party
A. Only 4
B. Only 3
C. Only 2 and 4
D. Only 2, 3 and 4

390. Consider the following statements about the Committee on Government

Assurances. Which of the following is/are not true?
A. It was constituted in 1953
B. Its main function is to examine the assurances and undertakings given by the
ministers on the floor of the House and report back on the status of these assurances
and promises
C. For the Lok Sabha, it consists of 15 members
D. For the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 10 members

391. Who heads the Niti aayog as its chairperson?

A. President of India
B. Prime minister
C. Finance minister
D. Minister of planning

392. NITI Aayog came into effect from?

A. 1st march 2015
B. 1st April 2015
C. 1st January
D. 25th dec 2014

393. Think tank of Government of India that replaced the Planning commission
is?
A. NITI dharma
B. NITI Vakya
C. NITI Shashan
D. NITI Aayog

394. Which one of the following is the CEO of Niti Aayog?

A. Arvind Mayaram
B. Rajiv Meharshi
C. Amitabh Kant
D. None

395. Which of the following below is the vice-chairman of the NITI Aayog?
A. Montek singh ahluwalia
B. Abhijeet sen
C. Amartya sen
D. Arvind panagariya

396. Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 makes provisions for a 3-tier
system of Panchayati Raj for all the States having population of above__:
A.15 Lakh
B. 20 Lakh
C. 25 Lakh
D. 30 Lakh

397. Which of the following state was the first to establish Panchayati raj
institutions?
A. Rajasthan
B. Andhra pradesh
C. West Bengal
D. Gujarat

398. Which part of the constitution deals with the panchayats?

A. Part IX
B. Part X
C. Part IX
D. Part XI

399. The panchayat system was adopted to:

A. To decentralise the power of democracy
B. Make people aware of politics
C. Educate the peasants
D. None of this

400. Which of the following states have no panchayati raj institution at all?
A. Nagaland
B. Assam
C. kerala
D. Tripura

ANSWER KEY

1. A 2.B 3.A 4.A 5.A 6.C 7. C 8.D 9.C 10. B

11.D 12.A 13. A 14.A 15.D 16.C 17. A 18.C 19.A 20.B
21.A 22.B 23.A 24.D 25.A 26.A 27.C 28.A 29.C 30.B
31.A 32.D 33.B 34.A 35.A 36.C 37.A 38.C 39.D 40.B
41.C 42.B 43.D 44.B 45.B 46.C 47.C 48.C 49.C 50.C
51.D 52.A 53.C 54.D 55.D 56.D 57.C 58.C 59.A 60.C
61.B 62.A 63.A 64.D 65.B 66.B 67.C 68.B 69.D 70.D
71.B 72.C 73.C 74.D 75.C 76.A 77.C 78.B 79.D 80.B
81.A 82.C 83.D 84.C 85.A 86.D 87.B 88.D 89.C 90.A
91.B 92.D 93.B 94.A 95.A 96.C 97.D 98.C 99.A 100.C
101.B 102.C 103.C 104.B 105.D 106.B 107.B 108.D 109.D 110.C
111.D 112.A 113.D 114.D 115.A 116.A 117.B 118.C 119.A 120.B
121.B 122.C 123.C 124.A 125.D 126.D 127.C 128.D 129.B 130.B
131.B 132.A 133.D 134.C 135.C 136.D 137.A 138.D 139.B 140.C
141.B 142.D 143.B 144.D 145.B 146.A 147.C 148.C 149.B 150.A
151.B 152.C 153.B 154.D 155.C 156.C 157.A 158.A 159.D 160.C
161.D 162.B 163.B 164.C 165.A 166.D 167.C 168.A 169.A 170.B
171.C 172.B 173.A 174.B 175.A 176.B 177.D 178.B 179.D 180.B
181.A 182.C 183.D 184.B 185.B 186.A 187.B 188.D 189.C 190.B
191.C 192.A 193.D 194.D 195.C 196.C 197.D 198.A 199.A 200.C
201.D 202.C 203.B 204.D 205.C 206.C 207.A 208.B 209.A 210.B
211.A 212.C 213.B 214.D 215.B 216.A 217.C 218.D 219.C 220.A
221.D 222.B 223.D 224.C 225.A 226.A 227.C 228.C 229.D 230.B
231.B 232.D 233.D 234.D 235.B 236.C 237.B 238.D 239.C 240.C
241.B 242.B 243.A 244.C 245.C 246.B 247.B 248.B 249.A 250.B
251.D 252.D 253.A 254.C 255.B 256.C 257.B 258.B 259.C 260.A
261.C 262.B 263.A 264.B 265.A 266.C 267.D 268.C 269.D 270.D
271.D 272.C 273.C 274.B 275.A 276.D 277.C 278.D 279.C 280.B
281.B 282.A 283.B 284.C 285.A 286.C 287.B 288.A 289.C 290.D
291.A 292.D 293.C 294.A 295.D 296.D 297.B 298.D 299.A 300.C
301.A 302.A 303.C 304.C 305.D 306.A 307.D 308.D 309.D 310.B
311.B 312.D 313.B 314.A 315.B 316.A 317.B 318.C 319.C 320.D
321.A 322.C 323.C 324.B 325.C 326.C 327.A 328.B 329.C 330.B
331.A 332.B 333.B 334.C 335.C 336.C 337.A 338.D 339.B 340.A
341.B 342.B 343.C 344.A 345.D 346.C 347.C 348.D 349.D 350.A
351.C 352.B 353.B 354.D 355.B 356.D 357.D 358.D 359.D 360.C
361.D 362.C 363.C 364.B 365.D 366.D 367.D 368.D 369.C 370.C
371.B 372.C 373.D 374.A 375.A 376.D 377.A 378.C 379.B 380.A
381.C 382.D 383.B 384.A 385.C 386.C 387.A 388.D 389.D 390.D
391.B 392.C 393.D 394.C 395.D 396.B 397.A 398.A 399.A 400.A