21. B.

Fiasco

22. C. Fast

23. E. Ignorant

24. C. Praise

25. A. Obstruction

26. A. Lively

27. B. Display

28. D. Enchanted

29. D. Uncertain

30. E. Fruitful

31. C. Discourage

32. A. Harmed

33. B. Haging

34. E. Nabale-wala

35. E. Mapag-ipon

36. C. Sumuway

37. B. Dagta

38. E. Mahalimuyak

39. D. Hindi sariwa

40. C. Maingat

Grammar and Correct Usage

Acing this part of the examination will greatly help you in taking other eligibility tests (maybe you also
want to take the LET of BAR exams) as well because correct grammar plays a vital role. Here are the CSE
answer keys to the Grammar and Correct Usage part of the reviewer.
41. C = As many information: The correct sentence is “I went to the library to get as much information as
I could”. The word “information” is an uncountable noun and should be used with “much” not with
“many”.

42. D = Putting her leg: It should be “Pulling” her leg, which is an idiomatic expression that means “just
joking”.

43. A = Between: The correct sentence is; “Among the three of us, I think I am the slowest runner”.

44. B = Scarcely no: The correct sentence is; “There are scarcely any birds in this area”. “Scarcely no” is a
double negative word.

45. B = Are going: The correct sentence is “Either Jenny or Nancy is going to lead the cheering squad
contest tomorrow”.

46. E = Writes

47. D = To

48. C = Vain

49. A = Their

50. A = Borrow

51. D = Covered

52. E = Had Gone

53. B = Being hunted

54. C = Saw

55. B = Wakes

56. B = Would not permit

57. A = Haven’t heard

58. E = Are visiting

59. D = Have been teaching

60. C = To write

61. C = Make the most of what you’ve been given.

62. C = All talk and no action.

63. E = Very disappointed.

64. B = Taking shortcuts and doing shoddy works.

65. D = Something bad turned out to be a good thing.

66. A = Doing something earlier than you were supposed to.

67. A = Doing or saying something that is precisely correct.

68. E = None of the above.

69. B = Agreeing with someone.

70. C = Not feeling well.

Spelling

This section of the test should be easy for you if you like reading English books, magazines, or articles.

71. B = peril

72. C = continuous

73. E = excitable

74. A = changeable

75. A = characteristic

76. A = chemistry

77. B = exhibition

78. D = civilization

79. D = segregation

80. A = absorption

Paragraph Organization
Another time-eater in the actual test on one of the hardest Civil Service Exam answers to perfect. I hope
you studied enough about the CSE paragraph organization and did not spend too much time in this part
of the practice exam.

81. E = 4231

82. A = 23145

83. B = 23541

84. D = 34512

85. D = 25413

86. C = 53142

87. E = 31542

88. A = 43215

89. B = 24135

90. B = 51342

91. A = 31254

92. C = 42351

93. E = 12435

94. D = 21435

95. D = 12345

Reading Comprehension

The Reading Comprehension part of the Civil Service exam is also one of the most time-consuming. By
training yourself to read and understand fast, you will have a better chance of getting the right CSE
answer keys. Once you are able to quickly comprehend what you read, you will have more time in
choosing the best Civil Service Exam answers.

96. B = are well on their way of being sorted out.

97. A = a large number of orders on the first day of the show.

98. B = 80 planes on Monday.

99. B = didn’t place an order for the new super-jumbo.

100. C =may sell some Dreamliners to Delta Air Lines.

101. B = Many people

102. B = might not

103. C = will lead to the destruction of the rain forests.

104. A = drive food prices up.

105. E = affects both people and environment.

106. C = nagliliwanag tuwing gabi

107. E = mangingisda

108. B = magbigay ng isda

109. B = sila ay lapastangan

110. E = hindi masabi

Numerical Reasoning

Depending on what you prefer answering, Numerical Reasoning is one of the hardest parts of the exam.
There are no shortcuts to learning them and I hope you have reviewed enough to get you through this
set. If you are still having trouble with Math, then these Numerical Reasoning reviewers might help you
get better with numbers.

111. D = 78,848

112. A = 25

113. B = 1

114. C = 3

115. E = -17

116. B = Level 2
117. A = 9%

118. D = 17%

119. C = 18

120. E = 20 : 40 = 1 : 2

121. E = P1,409.50

122. C = 41

123. A = 270

124. B = 144 hectares per day

125. D = 120

126. C = P12,000.00

127. B = 10

128. E = 240 kg

129. A = 753 1/8 kg

130. B = 250 km

131. C = $9.00

132. C = -16

133. A = 19

134. D = (x – 12)(x + 12)

135. B = 5 3⁄4 feet

Analogy

Analogy deals with your presence of mind and common sense. If you love analyzing things, then this part
of the test won’t be too hard for you. Be aware though that only those who review enough on these
types of questions will be able to get as many CSE answer keys correct. That will also boost their chances
of passing the Civil Service Exam in just one take.
136. B = Ernest Hemingway

137. A = train

138. C = cousin

139. C = Italian

140. E = linen

141. D = Greece/Madrid

142. B = roof/head

143. A = touching/nose

144. D = stars/day

145. C = wood/bread

146. A = koala : Australia

147. D = house : kitchen

148. B = pig : sty

149. A = sword : scabbard

150. D = bear : cub

Logic

This is the same with Analogy only this time you’ll be dealing with plenty of answers to choose from.
Again, if you took the time to read the CSE Logic Reasoning reviewers I posted earlier, then you will have
an easier time with these types of questions.

151. E = None of these: Clearly, the company intends to reduce the gap between income and
expenditure by increasing the price of its product i.e. by keeping the expenditure unaltered and
increasing the income only. So, II is implicit while I is not. However, rival companies may or may not
follow the same pursuit. So, III is not implicit.
152. D = All I, II, and III are implicit: The statement expresses grave concern over the lack of proper
premises and inadequate staff in labor and industrial courts. This implies that adequate staff is a must to
serve the purpose of these courts and a proper office only can ensure their smooth functioning. So, both
I and III are implicit. The lack of facilities to the courts also indicates the state’s negligent attitude to the
condition of the courts. So, II is also implicit.

153. C = Only I and III are implicit: Clearly, a company would highlight only that feature in its
advertisement which people crave for and which it can make possible. So, both I and III are implicit.
Nothing can be deduced about the growth of the computer industry. So, II is not implicit.

154. A = Only I is implicit: Clearly, since Pramod decides to get the reservation in May for the journey in
July, so I is implicit. The number of trains to Madras or the position of vacancies in different classes
cannot be deduced from the given statement. So, neither II nor III is implicit.

155. C = Only I and II are implicit: Since the consultant talks of borrowing money from financial
institutions, so I is implicit. That the owners wish to make the company ‘commercially viable’ makes II
implicit. Also, it is mentioned that staff strength is to be reduced to make the company ‘commercially
viable’. So, III is not implicit.

156. D = Only III follows: Since no song is prose, some proses are songs is not a correct statement. We
cannot also definitely infer from the given statements that some epics are lullabies. However, since a
lullaby is a song, some songs are definitely lullabies. Thus from the given statements only conclusion III
follows.

157. A = Neither I nor II follows: The statements nowhere mention about private schools. Nor do they
mention anything about residential schools charging fees. Thus only the first assumption is implicit. An
important rule for deriving conclusions from two premises that can readily come in handy here is as
follows: “If one premise is negative, the conclusion must be negative.” Since here neither of the
mentioned conclusion is negative, none can be a valid conclusion.

158. D = Only conclusion I follows: An important rule for deriving conclusions from two premises that
can readily come in handy here is as follows: “If both the premises are affirmative, the conclusion must
be affirmative.” Since the second conclusion is not affirmative, it cannot follow. Thus it cannot follow.
However, the first conclusion is definitely affirmative and follows directly from the statements.
Cricketers constitute a subset fully contained inside the set sports-persons which in turn is fully
contained within the superset “supremely fit”. It also follows the other rule of logical deduction: “If both
the premises are universal, the conclusion must be universal.” So, while conclusion I follows, conclusion
II does not.

159. B = Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect: The increase in average life expectancy
can directly be attributed to increased government spending on the National Health Services, possibly
enhancing access and quality of health service available to the general populace. Thus statement II can
be construed as the cause and statement I can directly follow as its effect.

160. C = Both statements are effects of some common cause: The statements do not have a cause and
effect relationship between them. However, they clearly qualify as effects arising out of some common
cause (e.g. inclement weather alert or threat of external aggression).

161. E = Both I and II follow: Both I and II directly follow from the statement.

162. E = Both I and II follow: The phrase ‘not much has been done in this field’ indicates that wind
energy is a comparatively newly emerging field. So, I follows. The expression ‘there is vast potential for
developing wind as an alternative source of energy’ proves II to be true.

163. B = Only conclusion II follows: The population per household and not the population per unit area is
being talked about in the statement. So, only II follows while I does not.

164. D = Neither I nor II follows: Clearly, both I and II do not follow from the given statement.

165. B = Only conclusion II follows: The statement implies that people are inclined towards giving their
children good education. So, only II follows while I does not.

166. E = Both I and II follow: Since the new system gives the students the option of dropping Science and
Mathematics, so students weak in these subjects can also be admitted. So, I follows. Also, it is
mentioned that the new system will come into effect from the next academic year. This means that it
did not exist previously. So, II also follows.
167. B = Only conclusion II follows: Clearly, I is vague and so does not follow. However, II directly follows
from the given statement.

168. E = Both I and II follow: Both I and II directly follow from the given statement.

169. D = Neither I nor II follows: The Commissioner only cites examples of cities X and Y and undertakes
to beautify city Z. This does not imply that he has worked in cities X and Y. So, I do not follow. Also,
nothing about people’s response to the state of the city can be deduced from the statement. Thus, II
also does not follow.

170. C = Either I or II follows: The Government seeks to review the policy so as to determine whether the
diesel price needs to be increased or it can be kept stable by adjusting certain other factors. So, either
decision may be taken. Thus, either I or II follows.

Clerical Operations

This part of the exam is probably one of the easier parts of the test so you should get plenty of correct
CSE answer keys here.

171. B = Edge

172. D = Form 138

173. E = USB Drive

174. A = E-mail

175. B = Blind Carbon Copy

176. B = 14352

177. A = 32514

178. E = 24153

179. C = 34125
180. E = 54312

181. C = Third: The order would be Silvia Campos, Pedro Castaneda, Humberto Castillo, Norma Cortez,
Janine Custodio.

182. A = First: The order would be Tom Lee, Steve Leung, Vanessa Leviste, Sara Lewis, Mary Lopez.

183. C = Third: The order would be Barbara Mackey, John Marscha, Marie Martinez, Steve Mayer, and
Alan Mayfield.

184. B = Second: The order would be Lionel Chandler, Lillian Chang, Lindssey Chapelton, Lin Chase, and
Linda Chavez.

185. E = Fifth: The order would be Eric Ramos, Charlotte Ramsey, Mark Reagan, Elisa Regalado and
Divine Reyes.

186. A = one: In the COPY, “Seatle” should be spelled “Seattle” as shown in the ORIGINAL.

187. B = two: “Roeland” should be spelled “Roland” and “4568” should be “4588”.

188. B = two: “353575-5551” should be “353575-5501” and “848848-7689” should be “848488-7689”.

189. A = one: “Stevie” should be spelled “Steve”

190. D = four: “Tomas” should be spelled “Thomas”, “11” should be “211”, “18668 Oak Ave.” should be
“18468 Oak Ave.”, and “Gladis Way” should be spelled “Gladys Way”.

The easiest part of the Civil Service Exam and in my opinion is the most neglected part of the test when
people are reviewing. Some people actually just search for the Civil Service Exam answers and do not
even bother to read the questions, which is wrong.

191. E = Ombudsman

192. B = Inspector

193. A = Constitution of Universality

194. C = Bill of Rights

195. D = Hotels and Restaurants

196. E = R.A. 6713

197. A = 30 days
198. B = Naturalization

199. C = Labor

200. A = Two-thirds