MOCK – 14 Q4. Q8.

Which one of the following is Which one of the following

PART – A the synonym of the word is/are the correct word/words to
written in capital letters in the be used in the blank space in
http://t.me/UPSCCIVILS01 sentence ‘A PROVOCATIVE the sentence ‘You were going
message had been doing rounds to apply for the job, and then
http://t.me/UPSCEPFO2020AOEO on social media to instigate the you decided not to. So what
mob against migrants.’? …………………….?’?
Q1.
Which one of the following is A. dexterous A. put you off
the synonym of the word B. inflammatory B. put you out
written in capital letters in the C. valiant C. turned you off
sentence ‘Unbelonging and D. prudent D. turned you away
DEJECTED, he was cast away
from the team’? Q5. Q9.
Which one of the following Select the antonym of the word
A. Unagreeable is/are the correct word/words to (occurring in the sentence in
B. Weak be used in the blank space in capital letters) as per the
C. Crestfallen the sentence ‘Nobody believed context.
D. Loathsome Ram · at first but he ………….. Events ultimately led to
to be right.’? LUGUBRIOUS ending.
Q2.
Which one of the following is A. came out A. happy
the synonym of the word B. carried out B. hopeful
written in capital letters in the C. worked out C. helpful
sentence ‘She was the most D. turned out D. reassuring
ENTERPRISING girl in our
entire batch, which made her Q6. Q10.
special’? Which one of the following Select the antonym of the word
is/are the correct word/words to (occurring in the sentence in
A. Cherishing be used in the blank space in capital letters) as per the
B. Being entertaining the sentence ‘How are you context.
C. Taking initiative …………….. in your new job? He ACCELERATED the speed
D. Bewildering Are you enjoying it?’? of his car.
Q3. A. keeping on A. retarded
Which one of the following is B. going on B. reviewed
the synonym of the word C. getting on C. recorded
written in capital letters in the D. carrying on D. restored
sentence ‘The FICTITIOUS
characters of Cartoon Network Q7. Q11.
engage the kids these days Which one of the following Select the antonym of the word
more than the real time is/are the correct word/words to (occurring in the sentence in
characters in their lives ’? be used in the blank space in capital letters) as per the
the sentence ‘We live ……….. context.
A. Docile a tower block. Our apartment is The criminal was known to the
B. Domesticated on the fifteenth floor.’? police by VARIOUS names.
C. Harmless
D. Imaginary A. at A. separate
B. in B. distinct
C. over C. identical
D. above D. inert
Q12.
Select the antonym of the word
(occurring in the sentence in
capital letters) as per the
context.
The police praised the
METICULOUS arrangements
made by the organizers to
receive the guest at the airport.
A. haphazard
B. random
C. detailed
D. organised
Q13.
‘After the approbation by the
council, the due procedure
would come into play’. Which
one of the following correctly
sums up the underlined
expression?
A. Proper hearing
B. Negotiation
C. Approval
D. Settlement
Q14.
‘He is loquacious. So people
avoid him’. Which one of the
following correctly defines the
underlined word?
A. One who hates mankind.
B. One who loves women.
C. One who loves to talk.
D. One who hates to love.
Q15.
‘It appears that we are going to
win’. Which one of the
following is the appropriate
question tag that should follow
the sentence?
A. Doesn’t it?
B. Don’t we?
C. Do we?
D. Doesn’t we?
Q16.
Which one of the following is
the antonym of the underlined
word in the sentence
‘Independence has come after a
long and arduous struggle’?
A. Eager
B. Intense
C. Easy
D. Apathetic
Q17.
Which one of the following is
the antonym of the underlined
word in the sentence ‘The
speed of the growth of a plant
is influenced by a number of
factors, most of which we have
no control over’?
A. Promoted
B. Persuaded
C. Restrained
D. Instigated
Q18.
Which one of the following is
the correct word to be used in
the blank space in the sentence
‘He was so surprised that he
looked at the man with
_________’?
A. confusion
B. shock
C. confidence
D. perplexity
Q19.
Which one of the following
parts of the sentence ‘Nobody
really tells you how tough it
actually is to socialist,
especially when you are in a
city,’ has an error?
A. Nobody really tells
B. you how tough
C. it actually is to socialist,
D. especially when you are in a
city
Q20.
Which one of the following
parts of the sentence ‘Literature
is a great way to study others
human beings, cultures and past
societies,’ has an error?
A. Literature is a
B. great way to study
C. others human beings,
D. cultures and past societies
PART - B
Q21.
At an international dinner, 1/5
of the people attending were
French men. If the number of
French women at the dinner
was 2/3 times more than the
number of French men, and
there were no other French
people at the dinner, then what
fractions of people at the dinner
were NOT French?
A. 1/5
B. 2/5
C. 2/3
D. 7/15
Q22.
A family consisting of four
members weighs 140 kg
altogether. The father and the
elder child together weigh 80
kg. The mother and the elder
child together weigh 70 kg.
What is the difference of
weights of the two children?
A. 5 kg
B. 10 kg
C. 15 kg
D. 20 kg
Q23. Q27. Q31.
A group of 630 children is A job can be completed by 50 A certain number of two digits
seated in rows for a group persons in 100 days. For 80 is three times the sum of its
photo session. Each row days, 60 persons worked. In digits. If 45 is added to the
contains three less children how many days can 20 persons number, the digits will be
than the row in front of it. complete the remaining part of reversed. What is the sum of
Which one of the following the job? the squares of the two digits of
number of rows is not possible? the number?
A. 1 day
A. 3 B. 10 days A. 41
B. 4 C. 20 days B. 45
C. 5 D. 50 days C. 53
D. 6 D. 64
Q28.
Q24. A person selling an article for Q32.
Ten observations 6, 14, 15, 17, Rs. 96 finds that his loss There are two types of rice.
x + 1, 2x- 13, 30, 32, 34, 43 are percent is one-fourth of the Type I is sold for Rs. 10 per Kg
written in ascending order. The amount of rupees that he paid whereas type II is sold for Rs.
median of the data is 24. What for the article. What can be the 100 per Kg. A seller mixed
is the value of x? cost price? these two types of rice and sells
for Rs. 80 per Kg. If there is no
A. 15 A. Rs. 160 only change in the profit of the
B. 18 B. Rs. 240 only seller, then proportion of the
C. 20 C. Rs. 160 or Rs. 240 two types of rice is:
D. 24 D. Neither Rs. 160 nor Rs. 240
A. 1:1
Q25. Q29. B. 7:9
If the radius of a circle is What is the remainder when C. 2:7
increased by 6%, then its area x5 - 5x2 + 125 is divided by x D. 9:16
will increase by + 5?
Q33.
A. 6% A. 0 A cylinder circumscribes a
B. 9% B. 125 sphere. What is the ratio of
C. 12·36% C. -3125 volume of the sphere to that of
D. 16·64% D. 3125 the cylinder?

Q26. Q30. A. 2:3

If for a triangle the radius of the A bank announces that the B. 1 : 2
circumcircle is double the interest rate will be very high C. 3:4
radius of the inscribed circle, for coming two years. If D. 3:2
then which one of the following compound interest,
is correct? compounded annually in two Q34.
years, is 1.5 times the simple In a 1000 meters race, ‘A’ beats
A. The triangle is right angled interest of the same amount ‘B’ by 35 meters or 7 seconds.
B. The triangle is isosceles with same rate of interest in Which one of the following
C. The triangle is equilateral two years, then interest rate is: was A’s timing over the
D. None of the above course?
A. 100%
B. 200% A. 200 seconds
C. 300% B. 196 seconds
D. 400% C. 193 seconds
D. 190 seconds
Q35.
The HCF of two natural
numbers m and n is 24 and
their product is 552. How many
sets of values of m and n are
possible?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. No set of m and n is possible
satisfying the given conditions
Q36.
A word is coded by replacing
the j-th letter of the word by the
letter obtained by advancing j
places in the alphabet. Assume
that Z is followed by A. Then
the codes for ZORRO and
BAAZY are respectively given
by:
A. AQUVT and CCCDD
B. APUVT and CCCDC
C. APQVT and CDDDC
D. AQUVT and CCDDD
Q37.
Anil’s father has a daughter
named Meenu, who is married
to Robin. Relation of Robin’s
daughter with Anil is:
A. Niece
B. Nephew
C. Cousin
D. Grand daughter
Q38.
Suppose, P, Q, R and S are
consecutive months. If P, Q and
S have equal number of days,
then R has:
A. 31 days.
B. 28 or 29 days only.
C. 30 days only.
D. 28 or 29 or 30 days.
Q39.
There are seven persons up on
a ladder, A, B, C, D, E, F and G
(not in that order). A is further
up than E but is lower than C.
B is in the middle. G is
between A and B. E is between
B and F. If F is between E and
D, the person on the bottom
step of the ladder will be
A. B
B. F
C. D
D. E
Q40.
Seven years back the age of X
was five times her daughter and
the next year, the age of X will
be three times her daughter.
What is present age of the
daughter?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 16
D. 40
Q41.
The provisions in Fifth
Schedule and Sixth Schedule in
the Constitution of India are
made in order to:
A. protect the interests of
Scheduled Tribes
B. determine the boundaries
between States
C. determine the powers,
authority and responsibilities of
Panchayats
D. protect the interests of all
the border States
Q42.
With reference to the Union
Government, consider the
following statements:
1. The Department of Revenue
is responsible for the
preparation of Union Budget
that is presented to the
Parliament.
2. No amount can be
withdrawn from the
Consolidated Fund of India
without the authorization from
the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made
from Public Account also need
the authorization from the
Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given
above is / are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q43.
What will follow if a Money
Bill is substantially amended
by the Rajya Sabha?
A. The Lok Sabha may still
proceed with the Bill, accepting
or not accepting the
recommendations of the Rajya
Sabha
B. The Lok Sabha cannot
consider the Bill further
C. The Lok Sabha may send the
Bill to the Rajya Sabha for
reconsideration
D. The President may call a
joint sitting for passing the Bill
Q44.
Who/Which of the following is
the custodian of the
Constitution of India?
A. The President of India
B. The Prime Minister of India
C. The Lok Sabha Secretariat
D. The Supreme court of India
Q45.
Which one of the following
statements is correct?
A. In India, the same person
cannot be appointed as
Governor for two or more
States at the same time.
B. The Judges of the High
Court of the states in India are
appointed by the Governor of
the State just as the Judges of
the Supreme Court are
appointed by the President.
C. No procedure has been laid
down in the Constitution of
India for the removal of a
Governor from his/her post.
D. In the case of a Union
Territory having a legislative
setup, the Chief Minister is
appointed by the Lt. Governor
on the basis of majority
support.
Q46.
The “law of Returns to scale”
applies to:
A. The short run, but not the
long run.
B. The long run, but not the
short run.
C. Both the short run and the
long run.
D. Neither the short run nor the
long run.
Q47.
__________ is the official
minimum rate at which the
Central Bank of a country is
prepared to rediscount
approved bills held by banks.
A. CRR
B. SLR
C. Bank rate
D. Repo rate
Q48.
Consider the following
statements:
1) Inflation benefits the
debtors.
2) Inflation benefits the
bondholders.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q49.
Abolition of intermediaries and
tenancy reforms are both parts
of:
A. Industrial reforms in India.
B. External sector reforms in
India.
C. Land reforms in India.
D. Banking reforms in India.
Q50.
A situation of employment in
which a person is apparently
employed but his contribution
to the production is almost nil
is called __________
unemployment.
A. Structural
B. Chronic
C. Disguised
D. Cyclical.
Q51.
With reference to Indian
History, the Members of the
Constituent Assembly from the
Provinces were:
A. Directly elected by the
people of those Provinces
B. Nominated by the Indian
National Congress and the
Muslim League
C. Elected by the Provincial
Legislative Assemblies
D. Selected by the Government
for their expertise in
constitutional matters
Q52.
The Rowlatt Act aimed at:
A. Compulsory economic
support to war efforts
B. Imprisonment without trial
and summary procedures for
trial
C. Suppression of the Khilafat
Movement
D. Imposition of restrictions on
freedom of the press
Q53.
Consider the following events
1. Indigo Revolt
2. Santhal Rebellion
3. Deccan Riot
4. Mutiny of the Sepoys
The correct chronological
sequence of these events is:
A. 4, 2, 1, 3
B. 4, 2, 3, 1
C. 2, 4, 3, 1
D. 2, 4, 1, 3
Q54.
The song 'Amar Sonar Bangla'
written during the Swadeshi
Movement 'of India inspired
the liberation struggle of
Bangladesh and was adopted as
the National Anthem of
Bangladesh. Who wrote this
Song?
A. Rash Behari Ghosh
B. Dwijendra Lal Roy
C. Bankimchandra
Chattopadhyay
D. Rabindranath Tagore
Q55.
“Lectures from Colombo to
Almora” is based on the
experiences of which one of the
following?
A. Ramakrishna Paramhans
B. Annie Besant
C. Swami Vivekananda
D. Veer Savarkar
Q56.
The 1929 Session of Indian,
National Congress is of
significance in the history of
the Freedom Movement
because the:
A. Attainment of Self-
Government was declared as
the objective of
the Congress
B. Attainment of Poorna
Swaraj was adopted as the goal
of the Congress
C. Non-Cooperation Movement
was launched
D. Decision to participate in the
Round Table Conference in
London was taken
Q57.
With reference to Rowlatt
Satyagraha, which of the
following statements is/are
correct?
1. The Rowlatt Act was based
on the recommendations of the
‘Sedition Committee’
2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha
Gandhiji tried to use the Home
Rule League
3. Demonstrations against the
Simon Commission coincided
with the Rowlatt Satyagraha.
Select the correct answer using
the code given below.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q58.
In the context of the Indian
Freedom Struggle 16th
October, 1905 is well known
for which one of the following
reasons?
A. The formal proclamation of
Swadeshi Movement was made
in Calcutta town hall
B. Partition of Bengal took
effect
C. Dadabhai Naoroji declared
that the goal of Indian National
Congress was Swaraj
D. Lokmanya Tilak started
Swadeshi Movement in Poona
Q59.
With reference to Congress
Socialist Party, consider the
following statements.
1. It advocated the boycott of
British goods and evasion of
taxes.
2. It wanted to establish the
dictatorship of proletariat.
3. It advocated separate
electorate for minorities and
oppressed classes.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. Only 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None of these
Q60.
The Congress ministries
resigned in the seven provinces
in 1939, because:
A. The Congress could not
form ministries in the other
four provinces
B. Emergence of a ‘left wing’
in the Congress made the
working of the ministries
impossible
C. There were widespread
communal disturbances in their
provinces
D. None of the statements A.,
B. and (e) given above is
correct
Q61.
The ‘Chardham Mahamarg
Vikas Pariyojna’ project to
upgrade and develop the roads
which connect all the four
‘Dhams’. Which of the
following is not part of the four
‘Dhams’?
A. Kedarnath
B. Yamunotri
C. Badrinath
D. Tungnath
Q62.
Which of the following is NOT
a parameter used in
determination of ‘Global
Hunger Index’ rankings issued
by Welthungerhilfe and
Concern Worldwide?
A. Child Wasting
B. Child Stunting
C. Child Overweighing
D. Child Mortality
Q63.
The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in
Economic Sciences, 2020
awarded to Paul R.
Milgrom and Robert B. Wilson,
for:
A. For their experimental
approach to alleviating global
poverty
B. For integrating technological
innovations into long-run
macroeconomic analysis
C. For improvements to auction
theory and inventions of new
auction formats
D. For their empirical analysis
of asset prices
Q64.
SOFIA ‘The Stratospheric
Observatory for Infrared
Astronomy’ is a joint venture
of:
A. National Centre for Space
Studies (France) and ISRO
B. NASA and the German
Aerospace Center (DLR)
C. NASA and ISRO
D. ISRO and German
Aerospace Center (DLR)
Q65.
Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment has launched
the Ambedkar Social
Innovation and Incubation
Mission (ASIIM) under:
A. Rural Marketing Fund for
SCs and STs
B. Gender Equality Fund for
SCs
C. Venture Capital Fund for
SCs
D. Space Technology Fund for
SCs and STs
Q66.
A bee-sting leaves an acid
which causes pain and
irritation. The injected acid is:
A. acetic acid
B. sulphuric acid
C. citric acid
D. methanoic acid
Q67.
Iron nails are dipped into blue
copper sulphate solution. After
some time iron nails are:
A. dissolved and blue colour is
discharged.
B. dissolved but blue colour is
not discharged.
C. not dissolved and blue
colour is not discharged.
D. not dissolved but blue
colour is discharged.
Q68.
A student by chance mixed
acetone with alcohol. This
mixture of acetone and alcohol
can be separated by:
A. filtration.
B. separating funnel.
C. fractional crystallization.
D. fractional distillation.
Q69.
Silver ware turns black after a
period of time due to formation
of:
A. nitrate coating on silver.
B. sulphide coating on silver.
C. chloride coating on silver.
D. oxide coating on silver.
Q70.
Which of the statements given
below is/are correct?
Permanent hardness of water is
due to the presence of soluble:
1. chloride of calcium.
2. bicarbonate of calcium.
3. sulphate of magnesium.
4. bicarbonate of magnesium.
Select the correct answer using
the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q71.
Which one of the following
organs breaks fat to produce
cholesterol?
A. Intestine
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Kidneys
Q72.
Which one among the
following statements about
stomach is not correct?
A. Stomach acts as a temporary
reservoir
B. Stomach mixes food with
gastric juice
C. Stomach secretes lipase and
amylase in gastric juice
D. Rate of stomach emptying
depends on the type of food
Q73.
Sometimes, indigestion is
caused by the secretion of too
much hydrochloric acid in the
stomach. To ease the pain
caused, a tablet can be taken
that reacts to reduce the amount
of acid present. Which one
among the following would be
inappropriate for a
manufacturer to include as a
major reactant in the tablet?
A. CaCO3
B. MgCO3
C. NaOH
D. Mg (OH)2
Q74.
Which of the following
statements regarding oxidation
and reduction are correct?
1. In oxidation, loss of electron
takes place whereas in
reduction, gain of electron
takes place.
2. In oxidation, gain of electron
takes place whereas in
reduction, loss of electron takes
place.
3. Oxidizing agent decreases
the oxidation number but
reducing agent increases the
oxidation number.
4. Oxidizing agent increases the
oxidation number but reducing
agent reduces the oxidation
number.
Select the correct answer using
the code given below:
Code:
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 4
Q75.
Carbohydrates are stored in
plants and animals in the form
of:
A. cellulose and glucose
respectively
B. starch and glycogen
respectively
C. starch and glucose
respectively
D. cellulose and glycogen
respectively
Q76.
In software context, SQLite is
a:
A. Relational Database engine
B. Real-time Operating System
C. Anti-virus Software
D. Network Operating System
Q77.
ISO 9001 is a Standard for:
A. Information Security
Management
B. Risk Management
C. Quality Management
D. Food Safety Management
Q78.
One nibble is equivalent to how
many bits?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 1
Q79.
Which of the following is not a
function of the Input Unit?
A. It reads instructions and data
from the outside world.
B. It converts the data into
computer acceptable format.
C. It makes the data into user
understandable format.
D. It supplies the data and
instructions to the computer for
further processing.
Q80.
All of the following are
examples of input devices
EXCEPT a:
A. Scanner
B. Mouse
C. Keyboard.
D. Printer
Q81.
The marketing theory of
collective bargaining was
developed by
A. Richard Walton and Robert
McKersie
B. N.W. Chamberlain and J.W.
Kuhn
C. John T. Dunlop
D. John Henry Richardson
Q82.
Who started the publication of
the English Weekly called
‘Socialist’ in 1923?
A. Shripad Amrit Dange
B. Muzaffar Ahmad
C. N.M. Joshi
D. Ansuya Ben Sarabhai
Q83.
According to whom, trade
unionism is not an instrument
for the revolutionary overthrow
of the capitalist order but, on
the contrary, is a means of
equalizing the bargaining
power of labour and capital?
A. Selig Perlman
B. Sydney and Beatrice Webb
C. Karl Marx
D. Frank Tannenbaum
Q84.
Which of the following
statements relating to collective
bargaining is not correct?
A. Collective bargaining can
take place at the industry level.
B. Collective bargaining can
take place at the corporate
level.
C. Collective bargaining can
take place at the plant level.
D. Collective bargaining cannot
take place at the craft level.
Q85.
Arrange the following
developments that took place in
the trade union movement in
India from the earliest to the
latest.
1. Formation of AITUC.
2. Formation of Indian Trade
Union Federation
3. Formation of Red Trade
Union Congress.
A. 1, 3 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 3, 2 and 1
D. 2, 1 and 3
Q86.
In UK, when the parties to a
dispute fail to settle their
dispute through collective
bargaining and having
exhausted all internal
procedures available to them in
their establishments for
settlement of disputes, can seek
settlement through.
A. Advisory Conciliation and
Arbitration Services.
B. Central Arbitration
Committee
C. House of Lords
D. Employment Appeal
Tribunals
Q87.
“The state shall take steps, by
suitable legislation or in any
other way, to secure the
participation of workers in the
management of undertakings,
establishments or other
organisations engaged in any
industry”.
The above statement was
provided under:
A. Article 43A of Constitution
(42 Amendment) Act, 1976.
B. Article 19C of the Indian
Constitution
C. Convention No. 11 of I.L.O.
D. Article 14 of the Indian
Constitution
Q88.
Assertion A.: With the
evolution of industrial and
employment relations in the
face of rapid changes and
significant advances in
technology among other things,
collective bargaining became
an instrument of social change.
Reason (R): Shifts in the labour
and product markets created
pressures as well as
opportunities for a new
approach.
Code:
A. Assertion A. is wrong and
Reason (R) is correct.
B. Assertion A. is correct and
Reason (R) is a proper
explanation of Assertion A..
C. Assertion A. is correct but
Reason (R) is wrong.
D. Reason (R) is not an
explanation of Assertion A..
Q89.
Under which type of collective
bargaining one party gains at
the expense of another party?
A. Distributive Bargaining
B. Integrative Bargaining
C. Intra-organisational
Bargaining
D. Concession Bargaining
Q90.
The Second National
Commission on labour
suggested that the selection of a
registered trade union as a
recognised union should be
based on:
A. Verification of the fee-
paying membership of the
union.
B. Election by secret ballot
C. Check-off system
D. Any method that is
convenient to the employer
Q91.
Which one of the following
explanations is indicated by the
term ‘welfare’ as a total
concept?
A. It is a desirable state of
existence involving physical,
mental, moral and emotional
well-being
B. It is the welfare of man, his
family and community
C. It is contingent upon time
and space
D. It demands certain minimum
acceptable conditions of
existence, biologically and
socially
Q92.
‘Atonement’ and ‘Investment’
are two co-equal aspects of
which one of the following
labour welfare theory?
A. The Philanthropic theory
B. The Placating theory
C. The Public Relations theory
D. The Religious theory
Q93.
The first Factories Act for India
was enacted in the year:
A. 1948
B. 1881
C. 1911
D. 1891
Q94.
Which one of the following
statements about industrial
relations is NOT correct?
A. Industrial relations have to
be managed in the interest of
maintaining a viable
collaborative structure
B. Formulation of rules by
consensus and their
implementation are core to
industrial relations
C. The pluralistic framework
looks employee participation in
industrial relations from a
disintegrative perspective.
D. The radicalists consider
industrial relations in a
distributive sense.
Q95.
Which one of the following is
NOT a logic of industrial
relations?
A. The logic of conflict
B. The logic of competition
C. The logic of industrial peace
D. The logic of employment –
income protection
Q96.
Which of the following is NOT
a method for fixing Minimum
Wages by the appropriate
government under the ‘The
Code on Wages, 2019’?
A. Notification Method
B. Committee Method
C. Bargaining Method
D. None of the above
Q97.
Under the provision of ‘The
Code on Wages, 2019’, which
of the following is true
regarding imposition of fine by
the employer?
1. Every fine shall be deemed
to have been imposed on the
day of the act or omission in
respect of which it was
imposed.
2. All fines and all realisations
shall be applied only to such
purposes beneficial to the
persons employed in the
establishment.
3. No fine shall be imposed on
any employee until such
employee has been given an
opportunity of showing cause
against the fine.
A. Only 1 and 3
B. Only 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. All of the above
Q98.
The provisions relating to
‘Conditions of Employment in
Industrial Establishment’ are
incorporated in which of the
following Labour Code?
A. The Code on Wages, 2019
B. The Code on Social
Security, 2020
C. The Industrial Relation
Code, 2020
D. The Occupational Safety,
Health and Working Conditions
Code, 2020
Q99.
As per ‘The Industrial Relation
Code, 2020’, there is a
provision for which of the
following under the chapter of
Trade Unions?
A. Decent Work
B. Health and Safety
C. Political Fund
D. All of the above
Q100.
As per ‘The Code on Social
Security, 2020’, the number of
visits allowed by the employer
to the women to visit creche in
a day is:
A. Four, including the interval
for rest allowed to her.
B. Four, excluding the interval
for rest allowed to her
C. Two, including the interval
for rest allowed to her
D. Three, excluding the interval
for rest allowed to her
Q101.
Salary to a partner under fixed
capital account is credited to
A. Partner’s Capital A/c
B. Partner’s Current A/c
C. Profit & Loss A/c
D. Partner’s Loan A/c
Q102.
Which one of the following
item cannot be recorded in
Profit and Loss Appropriation
Account?
A, Interest on Capital
B. Manager’s Commission
C. Interest on Drawings
D. Partner’s Salary
Q103.
The term ‘depletion’ applies to
decrease in value of:
A. Tangible asset
B. Intangible asset
C. Wasting asset
D. Current asset
Q104.
Creating Provision against
fluctuation in the price of
investment is an example of
which accounting convention:
A. Convention of conservatism
B. Convention of full
disclosure
C. Convention of materiality
D. Convention of consistency
Q105.
The work of factory employees
that can be physically
associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is
classified as
A. Manufacturing overhead
B. Indirect materials
C. Indirect labour
D. Direct labour
Q106.
Which concept states that a
matter is material if its
misstatement would reasonably
influence the decision of a user
of accounts?
A. Prudence
B. Materiality
C. Consistency
D. Accrual
Q107.
Which of the following
accounts is not opened under
Joint Venture accounts:-
A. Stock Reserve Account
B. Joint Bank Account
C. Other Partner’s Account
D. Joint Venture Account
Q108.
A book-keeper extracts a trial
balance which fails to agree.
He places the difference in
a/an:
A. Asset A/c
B. Expenses A/c
C. Revenue A/c
D. Suspense A/c
Q109.
Creating a provision for
doubtful debts shows a more
realistic amount of collectible
debts at the end of the
accounting year. Such a
practice is in compliance with
the:
A. Matching principle
B. Principle of conservatism
C. Double- entry system
D. Going concern convention
Q110.
If the closing inventory is
understated, the profit of the
period will:
A. Be overstated
B. Not change
C. Be understated
D. None of the above
Q111.
Payment received from debtor:
A. Decreases the total assets
B. Increases the total assets
C. Results in no change in total
assets
D. Increase the total liabilities
Q112.
If the capital at the end of the
accounting period is Rs.
50,000, the net profit for the
year is Rs. 15,000 and drawing
is Rs. 3,000, what is the capital
at the beginning of the period?
A. Rs. 38,000
B. Rs. 62,000
C. Rs. 32,000
D. Rs. 47,000
Q113.
When the purchase of
stationery of Rs. 650 was
posted to general ledger, it was
posted to the wrong side of the
stationery account.
Which of the following will
correct the error on the
stationery account?
A. A debit entry of Rs. 650
B. A debit entry of Rs. 1,300
C. A credit entry of Rs. 1,300
D. A credit entry of Rs. 650
Q114.
An ‘account sales’ is sent by:
A. The consignor to the
consignee
B. The consignee to the credit
customers
C. The consignor to the credit
customers
D. The consignee to the
consignor
Q115.
A memorandum joint venture
summaries:
A. Assets and liabilities
B. Expenses and incomes
C. Receipts and payments
D. All transactions
Q116. Q120.
Profit & Loss A/c is prepared Fixed assets and current assets
for a period of one year by are categorized as per concept
which of the following concept: of:

A. Consistency concept A. Separate entity

B. Conservatism concept B. Going concern
C. Accounting period concept C. Consistency
D. Cost Concept D. Money Measurement

Q117. http://t.me/UPSCCIVILS01
When a bill of exchange is http://t.me/UPSCEPFO2020AOEO
endorsed the amount is payable
to the:

A. Original holder
B. Drawee
C. Endorsee
D. Notary public

Q118.
The abnormal loss is debited to
following accounts:

A. Consigment
B. General Profit and Loss A/c
C. Consignee
D. Insurance company

Q119.
Goods are sent to branch at cost
plus 20%. If closing stock of
the branch is Rs. 60,000 at
invoice price, how much
amount will be credited to
Stock Reserve A/c?

A. Rs. 10,000
B. Rs. 12,000
C. Rs. 6,000
D. Rs. 12,600