Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam 13: Burns

(40 Items)
 

1. The newly admitted client has burns on both legs. The burned areas appear white and leather-like.
No blisters or bleeding are present, and the client states that he or she has little pain. How should this
injury be categorized?

A. Superficial
B. Partial-thickness superficial
C. Partial-thickness deep
D. Full thickness

2. The newly admitted client has a large burned area on the right arm. The burned area appears red,
has blisters, and is very painful. How should this injury be categorized?

A. Superficial
B. Partial-thickness superficial
C. Partial-thickness deep
D. Full thickness

3. The burned client newly arrived from an accident scene is prescribed to receive 4 mg of morphine
sulfate by IV push. What is the most important reason to administer the opioid analgesic to this client by
the intravenous route?

A. The medication will be effective more quickly than if given intramuscularly.

B. It is less likely to interfere with the client’s breathing and oxygenation.
C. The danger of an overdose during fluid remobilization is reduced.
D. The client delayed gastric emptying.

4. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely to be a long-term consequence of a full-thickness burn injury?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

5. Which client factors should alert the nurse to potential increased complications with a burn injury?

A. The client is a 26-year-old male.

B. The client has had a burn injury in the past.
C. The burned areas include the hands and perineum.
D. The burn took place in an open field and ignited the client’s clothing.

6. The burned client is ordered to receive intravenous cimetidine, an H2 histamine blocking agent,
during the emergent phase. When the client’s family asks why this drug is being given, what is the
nurse’s best response?

A. “To increase the urine output and prevent kidney damage.”

B. “To stimulate intestinal movement and prevent abdominal bloating.”
C. “To decrease hydrochloric acid production in the stomach and prevent ulcers.”
D. “To inhibit loss of fluid from the circulatory system and prevent hypovolemic shock.”

7. At what point after a burn injury should the nurse be most alert for the complication of hypokalemia?

A. Immediately following the injury

B. During the fluid shift
C. During fluid remobilization
D. During the late acute phase

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8. What clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to possible carbon monoxide poisoning in a client
who experienced a burn injury during a house fire?

A. Pulse oximetry reading of 80%

B. Expiratory stridor and nasal flaring
C. Cherry red color to the mucous membranes
D. Presence of carbonaceous particles in the sputum

9. What clinical manifestation indicates that an escharotomy is needed on a circumferential extremity

burn?

A. The burn is full thickness rather than partial thickness.

B. The client is unable to fully pronate and supinate the extremity.
C. Capillary refill is slow in the digits and the distal pulse is absent.
D. The client cannot distinguish the sensation of sharp versus dull in the extremity.

10. What additional laboratory test should be performed on any African American client who sustains a
serious burn injury?

A. Total protein
B. Tissue type antigens
C. Prostate specific antigen
D. Hemoglobin S electrophoresis

11. Which type of fluid should the nurse expect to prepare and administer as fluid resuscitation during
the emergent phase of burn recovery?

A. Colloids
B. Crystalloids
C. Fresh-frozen plasma
D. Packed red blood cells

12. The client with a dressing covering the neck is experiencing some respiratory difficulty. What is the
nurse’s best first action?

A. Administer oxygen.
B. Loosen the dressing.
C. Notify the emergency team.
D. Document the observation as the only action.

13. The client who experienced an inhalation injury 6 hours ago has been wheezing. When the client is
assessed, wheezes are no longer heard. What is the nurse’s best action?

A. Raise the head of the bed.

B. Notify the emergency team.
C. Loosen the dressings on the chest.
D. Document the findings as the only action.

14. Ten hours after the client with 50% burns is admitted, her blood glucose level is 90 mg/dL. What is
the nurse’s best action?

A. Notify the emergency team.

B. Document the finding as the only action.
C. Ask the client if anyone in her family has diabetes mellitus.
D. Slow the intravenous infusion of dextrose 5% in Ringer’s lactate.

15. On admission to the emergency department the burned client’s blood pressure is 90/60, with an
apical pulse rate of 122. These findings are an expected result of what thermal injury–related response?

A. Fluid shift
B. Intense pain
C. Hemorrhage
D. Carbon monoxide poisoning

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16. Twelve hours after the client was initially burned, bowel sounds are absent in all four abdominal
quadrants. What is the nurse’s best action?

A. Reposition the client onto the right side.

B. Document the finding as the only action.
C. Notify the emergency team.
D. Increase the IV flow rate.

17. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the burned client is moving into the fluid remobilization
phase of recovery?

A. Increased urine output, decreased urine specific gravity

B. Increased peripheral edema, decreased blood pressure
C. Decreased peripheral pulses, slow capillary refill
D. Decreased serum sodium level, increased hematocrit

18. What is the priority nursing diagnosis during the first 24 hours for a client with full-thickness chemical
burns on the anterior neck, chest, and all surfaces of the left arm?

A. Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern

B. Decreased Tissue Perfusion
C. Risk for Disuse Syndrome
D. Disturbed Body Image

19. All of the following laboratory test results on a burned client’s blood are present during the emergent
phase. Which result should the nurse report to the physician immediately?

A. Serum sodium elevated to 131 mmol/L (mEq/L)

B. Serum potassium 7.5 mmol/L (mEq/L)
C. Arterial pH is 7.32
D. Hematocrit is 52%

20. The client has experienced an electrical injury, with the entrance site on the left hand and the exit
site on the left foot. What are the priority assessment data to obtain from this client on admission?

A. Airway patency
B. Heart rate and rhythm
C. Orientation to time, place, and person
D. Current range of motion in all extremities

21. In assessing the client’s potential for an inhalation injury as a result of a flame burn, what is the most
important question to ask the client on admission?

A. “Are you a smoker?”

B. “When was your last chest x-ray?”
C. “Have you ever had asthma or any other lung problem?”
D. “In what exact place or space were you when you were burned?”

22. Which information obtained by assessment ensures that the client’s respiratory efforts are currently
adequate?

A. The client is able to talk.

B. The client is alert and oriented.
C. The client’s oxygen saturation is 97%.
D. The client’s chest movements are uninhibited

23. Which information obtained by assessment ensures that the client’s respiratory efforts are currently
adequate?

A. The client is able to talk.

B. The client is alert and oriented.
C. The client’s oxygen saturation is 97%.
D. The client’s chest movements are uninhibited

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24. The burned client’s family ask at what point the client will no longer be at increased risk for infection.
What is the nurse’s best response?

A. “When fluid remobilization has started.”

B. “When the burn wounds are closed.”
C. “When IV fluids are discontinued.”
D. “When body weight is normal.”

25. The burned client relates the following history of previous health problems. Which one should alert
the nurse to the need for alteration of the fluid resuscitation plan?

A. Seasonal asthma
B. Hepatitis B 10 years ago
C. Myocardial infarction 1 year ago
D. Kidney stones within the last 6 month

26. The burned client on admission is drooling and having difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse’s best
first action?

A. Assess level of consciousness and pupillary reactions.

B. Ask the client at what time food or liquid was last consumed.
C. Auscultate breath sounds over the trachea and mainstem bronchi.
D. Measure abdominal girth and auscultate bowel sounds in all four quadrants.

27. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to use to prevent infection by cross-contamination
in the client who has open burn wounds?

A. Handwashing on entering the client’s room

B. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe
C. Administering the prescribed tetanus toxoid vaccine
D. Changing gloves between cleansing different burn areas

28. In reviewing the burned client’s laboratory report of white blood cell count with differential, all the
following results are listed. Which laboratory finding indicates the possibility of sepsis?

A. The total white blood cell count is 9000/mm3.

B. The lymphocytes outnumber the basophils.
C. The “bands” outnumber the “segs.”
D. The monocyte count is 1,800/mm3.

29. The client has a deep partial-thickness injury to the posterior neck. Which intervention is most
important to use during the acute phase to prevent contractures associated with this injury?

A. Place a towel roll under the client’s neck or shoulder.

B. Keep the client in a supine position without the use of pillows.
C. Have the client turn the head from side to side 90 degrees every hour while awake.
D. Keep the client in a semi-Fowler’s position and actively raise the arms above the head every hour
while awake.

30. The client has severe burns around the right hip. Which position is most important to be emphasized
by the nurse that the client maintain to retain maximum function of this joint?

A. Hip maintained in 30-degree flexion, no knee flexion

B. Hip flexed 90 degrees and knee flexed 90 degrees
C. Hip, knee, and ankle all at maximum flexion
D. Hip at zero flexion with leg flat

31. During the acute phase, the nurse applied gentamicin sulfate (topical antibiotic) to the burn before
dressing the wound. The client has all the following manifestations. Which manifestation indicates that
the client is having an adverse reaction to this topical agent?

A. Increased wound pain 30 to 40 minutes after drug application

B. Presence of small, pale pink bumps in the wound beds
C. Decreased white blood cell count
D. Increased serum creatinine level

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32. The client, who is 2 weeks postburn with a 40% deep partial-thickness injury, still has open wounds.
On taking the morning vital signs, the client is found to have a below-normal temperature, is
hypotensive, and has diarrhea. What is the nurse’s best action?

A. Nothing, because the findings are normal for clients during the acute phase of recovery.
B. Increase the temperature in the room and increase the IV infusion rate.
C. Assess the client’s airway and oxygen saturation.
D. Notify the burn emergency team.

33. Which intervention is most important to use to prevent infection by autocontamination in the burned
client during the acute phase of recovery?

A. Changing gloves between wound care on different parts of the client’s body.
B. Avoiding sharing equipment such as blood pressure cuffs between clients.
C. Using the closed method of burn wound management.
D. Using proper and consistent handwashing.

34. When should ambulation be initiated in the client who has sustained a major burn?

A. When all full-thickness areas have been closed with skin grafts
B. When the client’s temperature has remained normal for 24 hours
C. As soon as possible after wound debridement is complete
D. As soon as possible after resolution of the fluid shift

35. What statement by the client indicates the need for further discussion regarding the outcome of skin
grafting (allografting) procedures?

A. “For the first few days after surgery, the donor sites will be painful.”
B. “Because the graft is my own skin, there is no chance it won’t ‘take’.”
C. “I will have some scarring in the area when the skin is removed for grafting.”
D. “Once all grafting is completed, my risk for infection is the same as it was before I was burned.”

36. Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding of rehabilitation after burn injury?

A. “I will never be fully recovered from the burn.”

B. “I am considered fully recovered when all the wounds are closed.”
C. “I will be fully recovered when I am able to perform all the activities I did before my injury.”
D. “I will be fully recovered when I achieve the highest possible level of functioning that I can.”

37. Which statement made by the client with facial burns who has been prescribed to wear a facial mask
pressure garment indicates correct understanding of the purpose of this treatment?

A. “After this treatment, my ears will not stick out.”

B. “The mask will help protect my skin from sun damage.”
C. “Using this mask will prevent scars from being permanent.”
D. “My facial scars should be less severe with the use of this mask.”

38. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client in the rehabilitative phase of recovery from a burn
injury?

A. Acute Pain
B. Impaired Adjustment
C. Deficient Diversional Activity
D. Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements

39. Nurse Faith should recognize that fluid shift in an client with burn injury results from increase in the:

a. Total volume of circulating whole blood

b. Total volume of intravascular plasma
c. Permeability of capillary walls
d. Permeability of kidney tubules

40. Louie, with burns over 35% of the body, complains of chilling. In promoting the client’s comfort, the
nurse should:

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a. Maintain room humidity below 40%
b. Place top sheet on the client
c. Limit the occurrence of drafts
d. Keep room temperature at 80 degrees

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Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam 13: Burns
(40 Items)
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1. Answer: A

The characteristics of the wound meet the criteria for a full-thickness injury (color that is black, brown,
yellow, white or red; no blisters; pain minimal; outer layer firm and inelastic).

2. Answer: B

The characteristics of the wound meet the criteria for a superficial partialthickness injury (color that is
pink or red; blisters; pain present and high).

3. Answer: C

Although providing some pain relief has a high priority, and giving the drug by the IV route instead of IM,
SC, or orally does increase the rate of effect, the most important reason is to prevent an overdose from
accumulation of drug in the interstitial space during the fluid shift of the emergent phase. When edema
is present, cumulative doses are rapidly absorbed when the fluid shift is resolving. This delayed
absorption can result in lethal blood levels of analgesics.

4. Answer: D

Skin exposed to sunlight activates vitamin D. Partial-thickness burns reduce the activation of vitamin D.
Activation of vitamin D is lost completely in fullthickness burns.

5. Answer: C

Burns of the perineum increase the risk for sepsis. Burns of the hands require special attention to
ensure the best functional outcome.

6. Answer: C

Ulcerative gastrointestinal disease may develop within 24 hours after a severe burn as a result of
increased hydrochloric acid production and decreased mucosal barrier. Cimetidine inhibits the
production and release of hydrochloric acid.

7. Answer: C

Hypokalemia is most likely to occur during the fluid remobilization period as a result of dilution,
potassium movement back into the cells, and increased potassium excreted into the urine with the
greatly increased urine output.

8. Answer: C

The saturation of hemoglobin molecules with carbon monoxide and the subsequent vasodilation induces
a “cherry red” color of the mucous membranes in these clients. The other manifestations are associated
with inhalation injury, but not specifically carbon monoxide poisoning.

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9. Answer: C

Circumferential eschar can act as a tourniquet when edema forms from the fluid shift, increasing tissue
pressure and preventing blood flow to the distal extremities and increasing the risk for tissue necrosis.
This problem is an emergency and, without intervention, can lead to loss of the distal limb. This problem
can be reduced or corrected with an escharotomy.

10. Answer: D

Sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait are more common among African Americans. Although clients
with sickle cell disease usually know their status, the client with sickle cell trait may not. The fluid,
circulatory, and respiratory alterations that occur in the emergent phase of a burn injury could result in
decreased tissue perfusion that is sufficient to cause sickling of cells, even in a person who only has the
trait. Determining the client’s sickle cell status by checking the percentage of hemoglobin S is essential
for any African American client who has a burn injury.

11. Answer: B

Although not universally true, most fluid resuscitation for burn injuries starts with crystalloid solutions,
such as normal saline and Ringer’s lactate. The burn client rarely requires blood during the emergent
phase unless the burn is complicated by another injury that involved hemorrhage. Colloids and plasma
are not generally used during the fluid shift phase because these large particles pass through the leaky
capillaries into the interstitial fluid, where they increase the osmotic pressure. Increased osmotic
pressure in the interstitial fluid can worsen the capillary leak syndrome and make maintaining the
circulating fluid volume even more difficult.

12. Answer: B

Respiratory difficulty can arise from external pressure. The first action in this situation would be to
loosen the dressing and then reassess the client’s respiratory status.

13. Answer: B

Clients with severe inhalation injuries may sustain such progressive obstruction that they may lose
effective movement of air. When this occurs, wheezing is no longer heard and neither are breath
sounds. The client requires the establishment of an emergency airway and the swelling usually
precludes intubation.

14. Answer: B

Neural and hormonal compensation to the stress of the burn injury in the emergent phase increases
liver glucose production and release. An acute rise in the blood glucose level is an expected client
response and is helpful in the generation of energy needed for the increased metabolism that
accompanies this trauma.

15. Answer: A

Intense pain and carbon monoxide poisoning increase blood pressure. Hemorrhage is unusual in a burn
injury. The physiologic effect of histamine release in injured tissues is a loss of vascular volume to the
interstitial space, with a resulting decrease in blood pressure.

16. Answer: B Decreased or absent peristalsis is an expected response during the emergent phase of
burn injury as a result of neural and hormonal compensation to the stress of injury. No currently
accepted intervention changes this response, and it is not the highest priority of care at this time.

17. Answer: A

The “fluid remobilization” phase improves renal blood flow, increasing diuresis and restoring fluid and
electrolyte levels. The increased water content of the urine reduces its specific gravity.

18. Answer: C

During the emergent phase, fluid shifts into interstitial tissue in burned areas. When the burn is
circumferential on an extremity, the swelling can compress blood vessels to such an extent that

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circulation is impaired distal to the injury, necessitating the intervention of an escharotomy. Chemical
burns do not cause inhalation injury.

19. Answer: B

All these findings are abnormal; however, only the serum potassium level is changed to the degree that
serious, life-threatening responses could result. With such a rapid rise in the potassium level, the client
is at high risk for experiencing severe cardiac dysrhythmias and death.

20. Answer: B

The airway is not at any particular risk with this injury. Electric current travels through the body from the
entrance site to the exit site and can seriously damage all tissues between the two sites. Early cardiac
damage from electrical injury includes irregular heart rate, rhythm, and ECG changes.

21. Answer: D

The risk for inhalation injury is greatest when flame burns occur indoors in small, poorly ventilated
rooms. although smoking increases the risk for some problems, it does not predispose the client for an
inhalation injury.

22. Answer: C

Clients may have ineffective respiratory efforts and gas exchange even though they are able to talk,
have good respiratory movement, and are alert. The best indicator for respiratory effectiveness is the
maintenance of oxygen saturation within the normal range.

23. Answer: C

Clients may have ineffective respiratory efforts and gas exchange even though they are able to talk,
have good respiratory movement, and are alert. The best indicator for respiratory effectiveness is the
maintenance of oxygen saturation within the normal range.

24. Answer: B

Intact skin is a major barrier to infection and other disruptions in homeostasis. No matter how much time
has passed since the burn injury, the client remains at great risk for infection as long as any area of skin
is open.

25. Answer: C

It is likely the client has a diminished cardiac output as a result of the old MI and would be at greater risk
for the development of congestive heart failure and
pulmonary edema during fluid resuscitation.

26. Answer: C

Difficulty swallowing and drooling are indications of oropharyngeal edema and can precede pulmonary
failure. The client’s airway is in severe jeopardy and intubation is highly likely to be needed shortly.

27. Answer: A

Cross-contamination occurs when microorganisms from another person or the environment are
transferred to the client. Although all the interventions listed above can help reduce the risk for infection,
only handwashing can prevent crosscontamination.

28. Answer: C

Normally, the mature segmented neutrophils (“segs”) are the major population of circulating leukocytes,
constituting 55% to 70% of the total white blood count. Fewer than 3% to 5% of the circulating white
blood cells should be the less mature “band” neutrophils. A left shift occurs when the bone marrow
releases more immature neutrophils than mature neutrophils. Such a shift indicates severe infection or
sepsis, in which the client’s immune system cannot keep pace with the infectious process.

29. Answer: C

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The function that would be disrupted by a contracture to the posterior neck is flexion. Moving the head
from side to side prevents such a loss of flexion.

30. Answer: D

Maximum function for ambulation occurs when the hip and leg are maintained at full extension with
neutral rotation. Although the client does not have to spend 24
hours at a time in this position, he or she should be in this position (in bed or standing) more of the time
than with the hip in any degree of flexion.

31. Answer: D

Gentamicin does not stimulate pain in the wound. The small, pale pink bumps in the wound bed are
areas of re-epithelialization and not an adverse reaction. Gentamicin is nephrotoxic and sufficient
amounts can be absorbed through burn wounds to affect kidney function. Any client receiving
gentamicin by any route should have kidney function monitored.

32. Answer: D

These findings are associated with systemic gram-negative infection and sepsis. This is a medical
emergency and requires prompt attention.

33. Answer: A

Autocontamination is the transfer of microorganisms from one area to another area of the same client’s
body, causing infection of a previously uninfected area. Although all techniques listed can help reduce
the risk for infection, only changing gloves between carrying out wound care on difference parts of the
client’s body can prevent autocontamination.

34. Answer: D

Regular, progressive ambulation is initiated for all burn clients who do not have contraindicating
concomitant injuries as soon as the fluid shift resolves. Clients can be ambulated with extensive
dressings, open wounds, and nearly any type of attached lines, tubing, and other equipment.

35. Answer: B

Factors other than tissue type, such as circulation and infection, influence whether and how well a graft
“takes.” The client should be prepared for the possibility that not all grafting procedures will be
successful.

36. Answer: D

Although a return to preburn functional levels is rarely possible, burned clients are considered fully
recovered or rehabilitated when they have achieved their highest possible level of physical, social, and
emotional functioning.

37. Answer: D

The purpose of wearing the pressure garment over burn injuries for up to 1 year is to prevent
hypertrophic scarring and contractures from forming. Scars will still be present. Although the mask does
provide protection of sensitive newly healed skin and grafts from sun exposure, this is not the purpose
of wearing the mask. The pressure garment will not change the angle of ear attachment to the head.

38. Answer: B

Recovery from a burn injury requires a lot of work on the part of the client and significant others. Seldom
is the client restored to the preburn level of functioning. Adjustments to changes in appearance, family
structure, employment opportunities, role, and functional limitations are only a few of the numerous life-
changing alterations that must be made or overcome by the client. By the rehabilitation phase, acute
pain from the injury or its treatment is no longer a problem.

39. Answer: C

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In burn, the capillaries and small vessels dilate, and cell damage cause the release of a histamine-like
substance. The substance causes the capillary walls to become more permeable and significant
quantities of fluid are lost.

40. Answer: C

A Client with burns is very sensitive to temperature changes because heat is loss in the burn areas.

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