NORMAL 1

1.Which of the followings are the most important female pelvis bone for the
midwife to study?
a) Two innominate or hip bone.
b) Ilio coccyx bone.
c) Both a&b.
d) Bitemporal bone.
2.all of the followings considers an important land mark of pelvis brim except :
a) sacral promontory.
b) Ischial spine
c) Symphysis pubis
d) Iliopectineal bone.
3.All of the followings considers internal female genitals except:
a) The vulva
b) The uterus
c) The vagina
d) The ovaries
4.The vaginal fluid is strongly acid with Ph 4.5 this is mainly related to:
a) The fact that there are no glands in the vagina.
b) The mucus from the cervix.
c) The action of doderlein’s bacili on glucogen found in the squamous epithelium
lining of the vagina.
d) None of the above
6.Which of the following is true about the function of the uterine tubes?
a) It transfers the ovum towards the uterus.
b) It receives the spermatozoa.
c) It provides a site for fertilization.
d) All of the above.
7. The uterine tubes consist of the following:
a) The interstitial portion, the corpus, the ampulla and the infundibulum.
b) The interstitial portion, the isthnus, the ampulla, and the cornua.
c) The interstitial portion, the isthmus, the ampulla, and the infundibulum.
d) The ampulla, the cornua, the isthmus, and the infundibulum.
8.All of the following are true about the ovaries EXCEPT:
a) The ovaries produce ova.
b) They produce estrogen and progesterone.
c) They produce FSH and LH.
d) They composed of the medulla and cortex.
9.Which of the following phases isNOT considered as part of the ovarian cycle:
a) Follicular phase.
b) Luteal phase.
c) Proliferative phase.
d) Ovulatory phase.
10.The gynaecoid pelvis is considered as the ideal pelvis for childbearing this is
mainly due to:
a) It’s rounded brim.
b) It’s generous forepelvis.
c) It’s shallow cavity and broad, curved sacrum.
d) All of the above.
11.The embryo is a term which applied for:
a) The first 3 weeks following conception.
b) From 3 - 8 weeks after conception.
c) After 8 weeks of pregnancy till birth.
d) None of the above.
12.Which of the following changes occur during the 32 - 36 weeks of pregnancy:
a) Increased fat makes the body more rounded.
b) Langue appears all over the body.
c) Head hair lengthens.
d) Nails reach tips of fingers.
13.Which of the following is true about the excessive salivation (ptyalism) during
pregnancy:
a) This occurs from 8 weeks gestation.
b) It is caused by the hormones of pregnancy.
c) It may accompany heartburn.
d) None of above.

14.The pelvis is composed of 4 bones, which of the following is correct regarding

pelvic bone:
a) Two hip bones, one sacrum, one coccyx.
b) Two innominate bones, ilium and ischium.
c) Two hip bones, ilium and pubic bone.
d) Two hip bones, ischium and sacrum.
15.A client is pregnant for the 6th time, she has 3 male children and one
female, she also aborted once at 16 weeks gestation. Which one of the
following is correct method of recording her obstetric status:
a) Gravida 6 para 4 abortion 1.
b) Gravida 6 para 3 abortion 1.
c) Gravida 5 para 4 abortion 0.
d) Gravida 6 para 5 abortion 0.
16.A mother her first day of last menstrual period was on 5/3/2008 what is
her expected date of delivery:
a) 12 August 2008
b) 12 July 2008.
c) 12 December 2008.
d) 12 September 2008.

17.During her initial assessment for the pregnant woman which of the
following condition require additional antenatal visit:
a) Age less than 18 years or over 35 years.
b) Vaginal bleeding at any time during pregnancy.
c) Unknown or uncertain EDD.
d) Both a&b.
18.In the examination at the initial antenatal health assessment which of the
following factors NOT require additional antenatal care or advice:
a) Blood pressure 140/90 or above.
b) Maternal weight over 85kg or less than 45kg.
c) Rhesus negative blood group.
d) Pelvic mass detected.
19.All of the following is true about menstrual cycle EXCEPT:
a) The female reproductive cycle is driven by a feedback lope between anterior
pituitary gland and the uterus.
b) The duration of the cycle is always 28 days
c) It is divided into two cycles which reflect changes in the ovaries and uterine
endometrium
d) The first few cycles are not usually accompanied by ovulation
20.Which of the following is true about bregma:
a) Found at junction of sagittal, coronal and frontal sutures
b) Its 3-4 cm long, 1.5 – 2cm wide
c) It closes by 18 month.
d) All of the above.
21.The placenta produce all of the following hormones EXCEPT:
a) Oestrogen and progesterone
b) Human placental lactogen
c) Prolactin
d) Human chorionic gonadotrophin
22. It bony canal lies below the pelvic brim, which the fetus must pass during
delivery it called:-

a) The true pelvis

b) The false pelvis.
c) The vagina

d) The uterus.

23 The functional layer of the uterus which constantly changing in thickness

throughout the menstrual cycle is call:-
a) Permerium. b) Endometrial
c) Myometrium d) Mesoderm

24. Which of the followings is the best description of the proliferative phase of
the menstrual cycle?
a) It started from ending if menstruation to beginning of ovulation.
b) Ti called as regenerative phase
c) It called follicular phase.
d) This phase is controlled by estrogen.
25. All of the followings are true about the placenta EXCEPT.
a) It developed and function about 10-12weeks after fertilization.
b) There are two surfaces, the maternal and fetal surface.
c) Consist of 15-20 lobes.
d) It is weights 1\6 the baby at term.
26. The part of fallopian tube where fertilization occur, is:
a) Ampulla b) Isthmus c) Interstitial portion
27. Usually ovulation occurs_____ before the next menstrual cycl“menstruation”

a) 12 days
b) 13 days
c) 14 days
d) None of the above.
28. All of the following are functions of Estrogen except:

a) Increases the length of long bones

b) Stimulates the growth of endometrium and its vasculature
c) Promotes regeneration of endometrium after menstruation
d) Makes the cervical mucus more tenacious before and after ovulation
29. The temporary structure in fetal circulation that transports blood from right
atrium and left atrium is called:-

a) Formation ovale
b) Ductus arteriosus
c) Ductus venosus
d) The hypogastric arteries
30. The umbilical cord consists of:

a) Two veins and one artery b) Two arteries and one vein
b) One artery and one vein
31. Presentation is:

A) The relationship between the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the
uterus
b) The part of the fetus that lies in the lower pole of the uterus, or at the pelvic
prim
c) The part of the presentation that indicates the position
d) The relation of the denominator of the presentation and 6 points on the pelvic
prim
32. The sperm mainly store in:

a) In epididymis
b) in scrotum.
c) in spermatic cord.
d) in the seminal vesicles.
33. Which of the followings is NOT considers probable sings of pregnancy?

a) Presence of humaman chroronic gonadotrophine.

b) Softened isthmus.
c) Fetal heart is heard by Doppler.
d) Quickening.

34 .All of the following are positive signs of pregnancy, except:

a) Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound or X-ray

b) Detecting of fetal heart sounds by fetal stethoscope
c) Quickening
d) Fetal parts palpated
35. Anew client has had pregnancy test to determine if she is pregnant, the
hormone responsible for appositive test result is:

a) human chorionic gonadotropin

b) estrogen.
c) follicle stimulating hormone.

d) progesterone.

36. Which of the following true about the active phase of labour?

a) it is called the period of cervical dilatation.

b) dilatation of cervix will start from beginning of labour till 3cm.
c) it is divided to latent phase and active phase.
d) All of the above.
37. The midwife told the client that “she started her second stage of labour”.

What does that mean?

a) Expulsive uterine contractions.

b) Client has a desire to push.
c) Dilatation and gaping of the anus.
d) Appearance of the presenting part.

38. All of the following are considered as hormonal factors that stimulate the
onset of labour, except:
a) Reduction of progesteron at term
b) Increase of Oestrogen level at term
c) Oxytocin is released from Pituitary gland at term
d) Reduction of amniotic fluid at term.
39.The nurse should do all of the following while taking care of the lady during
first stage of labour, except:
a) Give microlax enema to empty the bowel if there is no contraindication
b) Give fluid/glucose to the lady to maintain hydration and energy
c) Advice the lady to stay on bed all the time and do not move because walking
is harmful for the baby
d) Watch for psychological fatigue, and make emotional support for the lady

40.All of the following are considered as uterine action during the first stage
of labour, EXCEPT:
a. Fundal dominance.
b. Polarity.
c. Contraction and retraction of the uterine muscle.
d. Contraction and relaxation of the uterine muscle.
41. Which of the followings is the best descriptions of the first stage of labour?
a. it is begins with dilatation o cervix to full dilatation.
b. Begins with regular rhythmic contraction and is competed when the cervix is
filly dilated.
c. It is started from cervix 3cm until fully dilated.
d. None of the above.
42.All of the followings are considerations pre labour symptoms EXCEPT:
a. Lightening
b. Frequency of micturation.
c. Shortening of cervix in MG
d. Spurious labour.

43.Which of the following changes on the cervix could differentiate

between true and false labour:
a. The cervix does not shorten progressively.
b. The os is dilating progressively.
c. The membranes feel tense during a contraction.
d. Both b&c.
44.Which of the following information the midwife will ask the laboring
woman about her previous deliveries:
a. Character of previous labours, especially if operative delivery was
necessary.
b. Weights of previous babies.
c. Condition of previous babies.
d. All of the above.

45.Which of the following issues the midwife should discuss with the
woman in the birth plan:
a. Her chosen birth companion.
b. Her choice of cloths for labour.
c. Position for delivery.
d. Cutting the umbilical cord.

46.Which of the following information the midwife should include on the

partogram:
a. Fetal heart rate.
b. Details of vaginal examinations.
c. Pulse.
d. All of above..
***
47.Which of the following is true about the active phase of labour:
a. It is the second phase of the first stage of labour (from 3cm to fully
diltation of the cervix).
b. It proceeds at a rate of 1 – 1.5 cm per hour.
c. Rupture of membrane could occur on this stage.
d. All of the above.

48.Normally fetal heart responded to contraction by which of the

followings?
a. Will remain steady or acceleration.
b. Early deceleration.
c. Late deceleration.
d. Variable deceleration.
49.in case of late deceleration what is the best management by the midwife
should be done:
a. if syntocinon is being administered it should be stopped immediately+.
b. Administered of oxygen.
c. Put the mother on her back.
d. Put the mother in her left side.

50.all of the followings are indication of fetal distress EXCEPT:

a. Fetal tachycardia .
b. Meconiom stained amniotic fluid.
c. Baseline variability.
d. Late and early deceleration.

51.The most important management which should be done by the midwife after
rupture is:
a. PV exam to check prolapsed cord and fetal heart rate.
b. Take the mother vital signs.
c. Position the mother in left side.
d. Administer of oxygen.

52.during your PV for client in labor you found the presenting part at -2 station
this mainly mean:
a. The head is two fifth abdominally palpable.
b. The head is -2 from the ischial spine.
c. The head is 2cm from the introits
d. None of the above.

53.which of the followings are the most important midwifery during the first
stage of labor?
a. Observe maternal and fetal vital signs.
b. Record of intake and output.
c. observing the progress of labuor.
d. All of the above.

54. one of the most important midwifery action during labuor is bladder care
which mainly it causes?
a. Full bladder may prevent the fetal head from entering the pelvic brim.
b. It will also inhibit effective uterine action.
c. It is increase uterine action.
d. Cause vesicovaginal fistula.

55.which of followings are true uterine actions during the second stage of
labour?
a. Contraction become stronger and longer.
b. Contraction more frequent to allow mother and fetus rest.
c. The contraction become expulsive.
d. Both a&b.
56.all of the followings are presumptive sings of second stage of labour EXCEPT.
a. Rupture of for water.
b. Mother have strong desire to push.
c. Expulsive uterine action.
d. Dilatation and gaping of the anus
.
57. which of the followings are most important confirmatory evidence of second
stage of labuor?
a. Gaping of anus.
b. Rupture of membranes.
c. Show.
d. Only by performing a vaginal examination

58.one of most midwifery skill which most midwife should be thought before
delivery of fetus is restitution which mainly is:
a. Extension of head.
b. Delivery of head.
c. Crowing.
d. Correction of the twist the neck of fetus internally by slight untwisting
movement externally.

59.Which of the followings perception of pain during labour?

a. Fear and anxiety
a. a personality
b. fatigue.
c. All of the above.

60 .pushing is one most important technique that each midwife should teach
every mother in labuor ,it's mainly should be thought when:
a. When mother she feels the urge to push.
b. Once the head become visible the women encourage to follow her inclination
with contraction.
c. When cervix fully dilated.
d. None of the above.

61. massage is one of the easy and useful physical method of relieving pain
during labuor which mainly done :
a. Massage over the lumbosacral area.
b. Talcum powder may be used to reduce friction.
c. Abdominal massage may be used.
d. All of the above.

62 .the best definition of third stage is :

a. It is stage of separation and expulsion of the placenta and membranes and
controlled bleeding.
b. It is started from fully dilated until complete delivery of placenta and it's
membranes.
c. It is stage of delivery of placenta and membranes.
d. None of above.
63 .all of the followings factors which play a big roles of homeostasis of the third
stage EXCEPT:
a. Retraction of oblique uterine muscle fibers in the upper uterine segment.
b. The presence of vigorous uterine contraction.
c. Activation of the coagulation and fibrinolytic systems.
d. Retraction of oblique uterine muscle in the lower uterine.

64 .which of the followings signs and symptoms of placental separation of the

placenta?
a. Small gush of fresh of blood.
b. Cord lengthens.
c. Fundus becomes rounder smaller mobile and rises in the abdomen.
d. All of the above.

65 .which of the followings are true about intravenous ergometrine?

a. It is acts within 45seconds
b. No more than 5mg should be given
c. It is very safe and can be given without precaution.
d. Only it should be given after complete delivery of placenta.

66 . the best time for given syntometrine is:

a. Usually administered as the anterior shoulder is delivered.
b. After delivery of placenta.
c. After delivery of head.
d. At the end of second stage.

complicated

1.Which of the following is not characteristics of puerperium?

a) The generative organs return almost to their pre-pregnant state
b) Lactation is initiated and established
c) The involution of the uterus does not occur in this period
d) The mother recovers from the physical and emotional stress of labour

2.Lochia serosa is pink in colour, it is the period extends from:

a) First day only
b) First 3-4 days
c) The 5th –9th days
d) After 10 days

3.Sub-involution of the uterus can occur in all cases, except:

a) Infection
b) Retained products
c) Oligohydramnios
d) Multiparous
4. The most common organism which cause UTI is:
a. Streptococcus.
b. Staphylococcus.
c. Escherichia coli.
d. All of the above.
5.To prevent the complication of UTI as urinary incontinence is:
a. Prevent prolonged labuor.
b. Personnel hygiene.
c. Exercise the muscle of the pelvic floor exercise regularly throughout life.
d. Force fluid.

6. Which of the followings is the most predisposing factors of thrombophlebitis in

puerperium?
a. Obesity.
b. Increase parity.
c. Prolonged labuor and immobility.
d. None of the above.
7.On physical examination , which of the followings is the most important
finding in case of superficial embolism?
a. Tenderness, warm, redness in the affect leg.
b. Tenderness, coldness ,redness in affect leg.
c. Tenderness odema, in the affected leg.
d. All of the above.
8.The most common diagnosis of DVT is/are:
a. Tenderness along involved vein.
b. Areas of palpable thrombosis.
c. Positive human's sign pallor and coldness in affect limb.
d. Decrease peripheral pulses.

9. Which of the followings is/are the most predisposing causes of puerperal

infection?
a. Prolonged labour.
b. Laceration of vaginal wall.
c. PPH &retained product.
d. All of the above
10.Infection from patient own genital tract is called?
a. Endogenous.
b. Exogenous.
c. Autogenous.
d. None of the above..
11. The most common clinical features of GTI or septicemia is:
a. Law grade fever,continous or remitted.
b. High tempretue,lochia scanty and offensive.
c. Uterus sub involution.
d. All of the above.
12.Which of the is the most causes of puerperal pyrexia?
a. UTI.
b. General tract infection.
c. Thrombosis.
d. Breast infection.
13.Which of the followings is/are the most predisposing causes of puerperal
infection?
e. Prolonged labour.
f. Laceration of vaginal wall.
g. PPH &retained product.
h. All of the above
14.Infection from patient own genital tract is called?
a. Endogenous.
b. Exogenous.
c. Autogenous.
d. None of the above..
15. The most common clinical features of GTI or septicemia is:
a. Law grade fever,continous or remitted.
b. High tempretue,lochia scanty and offensive.
c. Uterus sub involution.
d. All of the above.
16.Which of the is the most causes of puerperal pyrexia?
a. UTI.
b. General tract infection.
c. Thrombosis.
d. Breast infection. 2-3

17.Pulse immediately after delivery will be?

a. Tachycardia as compensatory mechanism.
b. Generally slightly slower than normal.
c. Rapid and thread.
d. None of above.
18.One of important thing in puerpuerium is lactation ,which should be:
a. Started immediately after delivery .
b. Start at 3rd day until there is full form of milk.
c. Both a& b.
d. Neither a nor b.

19.Which of the followings is the most common cause of oligohydramnios?

a. UTI
b. renal agenesis
c. PROM
d. Rupture of membranes at tem pregnancy
20The most common diagnosis of oligohydramnios is\are:
a. Uterus appears large for date.
b. Reduction of fetal movement.
c. Uterus is small for date.
d. Both b&c.

21.Polyhydramnios mainly associated which of the followings?

a. Renal agenesis.
b. PROM.
c. Oesphageal atrsia &open neural tube defect.
d. None of the above.
22.One methods of recognition of polyhydramnios is abdominal palpation,
mainly we find all of the followings EXCEPT?
a. Difficult to palpate fetal parts
b. Lie longitudinal.
c. A fluid thrill.
d. Uterus feels tens.

23.All of the following are considered as predisposing factors to accidental

Hemorrhage( placenta abruption) EXCEPT.
a. Pre-eclamptic toxemia
b. Chronic nephritis
c. Short cord
d. Direct trauma.
24. Blood retained behind the placenta which cause forced into myometrium
and it infiltrates between the muscle fibers of the uterus is called.
a. Revealed hemorrhage.
b. Concealed hemorrhage.
c. Mixed hemorrhage.
d. Couvelaire uterus.
25The most important diagnosis of antepartum hemorrhage is pain which
mainly is
a. Painless vaginal incase of placenta abruption.
b. Painful vaginal incase of placenta previa.
c. Both statements are right.
d. Both are wrong.
26.The best definition of placenta previa is:
a. Premature of separation of low laying placenta.
b. When the placenta is partially or wholly implanted in the lower uterine on the
either the anterior or posterior wall.
c. Premature separation of normally situated placenta.
d. None of the above
27.Patient admitted with sever PIH has been receiving magnesium sulfate, on
assessment found decrease in urine output ,increase in BP , decrease in
respiratory rate to 10beat|min mainly the patient which of the followings?
a. Sever PET.
b. Eclampsia.
c. Magnesium sulfate toxicity.
d. None of above..
28.For the above condition what is/are the best midwifery actions?
a. Take no action, continue close monitor and call doctor.
b. Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion.
c. Prepare patient for caesarian section.
d. Decrease infusion rate.
29.All of the followings are possible complication of preeclampsia EXCEPT.
a. Eclampsia.
b. Abruption placenta.
c. Pulmonary edema.
d. Gestational diabetes.
30.The best definition of preterm labor is ?
a. Preterm labuor before 37 complete weeks.
b. Premature contaration after 24 week.
c. It is regular uterine contraction that cause progressive dilatation of the cervix
after 24 gestation and before 36 completd weeks.

31. 22. In case of antepartum hemorrhage, the nurse can do the following
EXCEPT:
a. Vaginal examination.
b. Take assessment and history.
c. Vital signs very frequent.
d. Prepare for blood transfusion if needed.

32. A primipara at 32 wks gestation comes to the hospital complaining of vaginal

bleeding. She has soaked one perineal pad. She has sever pain and cramps. In
performing an assessment, the nurse would suspect which of the following:
a. Placenta previa.
b. Abruptio placenta.
c. Vasa previa.
d. Incompetent cervix

33.Incase of sever placental abruption the best management are:

a. Start of IV line prepare for caesarian section.
b. Wait until labuor started spontaneously.
c. Induction of labour.
d. Pain relief and amniotomy
34.Which one of the following is not considered as a cause of bleeding before 28
weeks of pregnancy?
a) Abortion
b) Cervical erosions, polypi, and varicose veins
c) Ectopic pregnancy
d) Placenta praevia.
35. When the fetus and some membranes only are expelled from the vagina, this
is considered as?
a) Complete abortion
b) Missed abortion
c) Incomplete abortion
d) Therapeutic abortion

gynecology

1. Which of the following is considered as a cause of dysfunctional uterine

bleeding?
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Inflammation or infection of vagina
c) Endometriosis
d) Psychological causes
2. Menopausal effects on the woman do not include:
a) Lack of estrogen, leads to increase menstrual flow
b) Hypertrophy of vulva, vagina and urethra
c) Vasomotor flushes in 5% of women
d) Osteoporosis, leads to increase hip fracture.
3. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of Cystocele:
a) urgency, frequency and incontinence of urine
b) May be asymptomatic
c) Pelvic pressure or heaviness, “bearing down feeling”
4. Nursing care of uterine prolapse includes:
a) Teach pelvic floor exercise to increase muscle tone
b) Decrease fluid intake to decrease bladder infection
c) Control pain with cold baths
5. Subtotal Hysterectomy includes:
a) Corpus of uterus is removed but cervical stump remains
b) Entire uterus, tubes and ovaries are removed
c) Entire uterus including cervix, tubes are removed and ovaries remain
6. Post coital test includes all, except:

a) Examine ovulation and semen analysis 2-3 hours after coitus

b) Good results showed abundant elastic mucus with a low motile sperms
c) Finding of no sperms means azoospermia
d) Problem can result if the mucus is very thick
7.All of the following are considered as a uterine problem of infertility, except:
a) Bicornuate uterus
b) Endomertriosis
c) Woman who has undergone D&C several times
d) Hypoplastic uterus
8.All of the following has a positive effect on calcium absorption except:
a) Pregnancy
b) Vit. D
c) Alkaline media
d) Parathyroid hormones
9.Risk factor of osteoporosis that can be changed is
a) A thin or small built
b) Menopause
c) Smoking
d) Advancing age
10.Osteoporosis can be prevented by:
a) limit smoking to 5 cigarettes by day
b) Eating yellow vegetables
c) Swimming for 30 minutes twice weekly
d) Daily practice of weight bearing exercise
11.Osteoporosis can be treated by using
a) Hormonal replacement therapy
b) Calcium supplement
c) Regular exercise
d) All of the above
 neonate

1 . If oxygen therapy is used inappropriately to a premature baby, he may

develop:

a. glucoma

b. cataracts

c. ophthalmia neonatorum

d. retrolental fibroplasias

2. The best prophylactic treatment to prevent further rheumatic fever

attack:

a. prednisone

b. aspirin

c. penicillin

d. paracetamol

3. Dietary management for newborn with (PKU) should be:-

a. High protein diet. b. High phenylalanine diet.
c. Low phenylalanine diet. d. Low fat diet.
The nurse must continuously monitor preterm infant for the most .4

: common preterm complication of

a. Respiratory distress

b. Hemorrhage

c. Brain damage

d. Aspiration of mucus

The nurse must continuously monitor a preterm infants temperature and provide appropriate . 5
:nursing care because the preterm infant

. a. Has an inability to break down glycogen to glucose

b. Has a limited ability to use shivering to produce heat

c. Has a limited supply of brown fat available to provide heat

.d. Has an underdeveloped pituitary system to control internal heat

 When observing a newborn for signs of pathologic jaundice, the nurse should be .6

:alert for

a. Muscular irritability at birth

b. Neurologic signs during the first 24 hours

.c. The appearance of jaundice during the first 24 hours

.d. Jaundice development between the second and fourth day of life

7. Anemia may result from:

a. Blood loss.

b. Decrease production of R.B.C s.

c. Increase destruction of R.B.C s.

d. All of the above.

:All the following are complication of gastroenteritis Except .8

. a. Dehydration

.b. Alkaloses

.c. Electrolyte disturbance

.d. Edema due to excess parenteral fluids

9. In post term newborn the fetus is at risk for:

a. Nutritional deficiency.
b. Hypoxia.
c. Asphyxia.
d. All the above are true.

3-6