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Roll No.

(Write Roll Number from left side


exactly as in the Admit Card) Signature of Invigilator
Question Booklet Series Y
PAPER–II Question Booklet No.
Subject Code : 14 (Identical with OMR
Answer Sheet Number)

LIFE SCIENCES
Time : 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

Instructions for the Candidates

1. Write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page as well as on the OMR Sheet provided.
2. At the commencement of the examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you
are requested to open the booklet and verify it:
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page.
(ii) Faulty booklet, if detected, should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator
within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time
will be given.
(iii) Verify whether the Question Booklet No. is identical with OMR Answer Sheet No.; if not, the full set is
to be replaced.
(iv) After this verification is over, the Question Booklet Series and Question Booklet Number should be entered
on the OMR Sheet.
3. This paper consists of One hundred (100) multiple-choice type questions. All the questions are compulsory. Each
question carries two marks.
4. Each Question has four alternative responses marked: A B C D . You have to darken the circle as
indicated below on the correct response against each question.
Example: A B C D , where C is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the questions are to be indicated correctly in the OMR Sheet. If you mark your response at
any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Rough work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
7. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except
in the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ
any other unfair means, such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself
liable to disqualification.
8. Do not tamper or fold the OMR Sheet in any way. If you do so, your OMR Sheet will not be evaluated.
9. You have to return the Original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the end of the examination compulsorily and must
not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry question booklet and
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet after completion of examination.
10. Use only Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator, mobile phone, electronic devices/gadgets etc. is strictly prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answer.

15790 [ Please Turn Over ]


Y–3 14–II

LIFE SCIENCES
PAPER II
1. If the husband carries an X-linked dreadly disease 6. The protein products encoded by two homologous
and wife is homozygous normal, select the correct option genes that are found in different species are called
from the following: (A) Orthologs
(A) They will have 50% chance of having the (B) Paralogs
affected male child (C) Homologs
(B) They can safely go for only female child (D) Analogs
(C) They can safely go for only male child
(D) They should not plan to have a child
2. Which part of renal tubule does not reabsorb
water? 7. Which of the following statments is NOT true
regarding the plant growth hormone brassinosteroids?
(A) Decending loop of Henle
(A) Brassinosteroids promote cell elongation and
(B) Ascending loop of Henle
cell division
(C) The collecting duct
(B) They facilitate differentiation of xylem tissue
(D) Ureter
(C) They inhibit leaf abscission
3. During gel electrophoresis experiment, a protein (D) They often induce dwarfism in plants
at a particular pH, that matches its isoelectric point will
(A) move towards cathode only
(B) move towards anode only
8. Proteomics technique used to analyse the
(C) move towards both cathode and anode characteristics of molecular protein network involved in
(D) be immobilized living cell is termed as
4. Following are four considerable modes of (A) Functional proteomics
inheritance for the given pedigree: (B) Expression proteomics
(a) X–linked recessive (b) X–linked dominant (C) Structural proteomics
(c) Autosomal dominant (d) Autosomal recessive (D) Protein mining
Which of the above modes of inheritance can explain the
pedigree shown below?

9. Processing and modification of rRNA needs a


class of small RNAs, called
(A) siRNA
(B) snoRNA
(A) (a) and (c) (C) micro RNA
(B) (b) and (d) (D) satellite RNA
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
5. When growing on agar, most members of which
group of bacteria form colonies with ‘fried egg’ 10. Dicentric and ring like chromosomes may appear
appearance? after the cells are exposed to
(A) -proteobacteria (A) UV-radiation
(B) Bacteroides (B) Infrared radiation
(C) -proteobacteria (C) Microwave radiation
(D) Mollicutes (D) Gamma–radiation
14–II Y–4
11. Tetrazolium test in pollen viability is based on the 16. Latimeria acts as a connecting link between
activity of which one of following enzymes? (A) Annelida and Arthropoda
(A) Esterase (B) Reptile and Bird
(B) Dehydrogenase
(C) Fish and Amphibia
(C) Catalase
(D) Annelida and Porifera
(D) Peroxidase

17. Suppose a new drug has been developed to treat


diabetes. Now, it is needed to examine upon the same
12. In which of the following years APG-IV has been
group of subjects whether the drug is more effective
published?
before or after taking a meal. The statistical test that is
(A) 2015
needed to perform in this scenario is
(B) 2016
(C) 2017 (A) Kruskal Wallis test
(D) 2018 (B) ANOVA
(C) Paired t-test
(D) Unpaired t-test

13. In particle gun direct gene transfer technique, the


size of the microprojectile gold particle ranges from:
(A) 0·2 – 0·4  18. The genome of rotaviruses consists of
(B) 1 – 3  (A) (+)–single-stranded RNA
(C) 5 – 10  (B) (–)–single-stranded RNA
(D) 10 – 12  (C) Double stranded DNA
(D) Double stranded RNA

14. In bacteriophage lambda the factor acting as a 19. An antibacterial antibiotic that binds to plasma
repressor that allows the establishment of lytic cycle is membrane and disrupts its structure and permeability
(A) CI properties is
(B) N (A) Tetracycline
(C) CIII (B) Bacitracin
(D) Cro (C) Vancomycin
(D) Polymyxin B

15. A chromosome locus is represented by two alleles


‘A’ and ‘a’. The frequency of ‘A’ allele in a population 20. Guide-RNA dependent insertion of uridylate
of 200 individuals is 0·3. The expected number of residue during RNA editing requires all the enzymes,
heterozygotes in this population will be except
(A) 18 (A) Endonuclease
(B) 42 (B) TUTase
(C) 84 (C) 3–U–Exonuclease
(D) 98 (D) RNA Ligase
Y–5 14–II
21. Which one of the following components is not 26. Colchicine is an inhibitory chemical which
engaged in association of actin filaments with z-disc prevents
during muscle contraction? (A) Microtubule polymerization
(A) Alpha ()-actinin (B) Microtubule depolymerization
(B) Desmin (C) Functioning of centriole
(C) Vimentin (D) Attachment of spindle fibre with kinetochore
(D) Vinblastine

27. Heterokaryons generated through protoplast


22. In testes and sperm cells, fructose is transported fusion can be quickly detected by
through the transporter (A) Calcafluor white
(A) GLUT 2 (B) Acridine orange
(B) GLUT 3 (C) Fluorescein isothiocyanate
(C) GLUT 4
(D) Triphenyl tetrazolium chloride
(D) GLUT 5

28. Which of the following plant families is


23. In which of the following animals secondary characterized by the presence of ‘Pappus’?
palate is NOT found? (A) Fabaceae
(A) Amphibians (B) Asteraceae
(B) Reptiles (C) Poaceae
(C) Birds (D) Cucurbitaceae
(D) Mammals

29. If the mean of Poisson distribution is 5, then the


24. During protein sequencing experiments, the standard deviation of the distribution is
peptide bond contributed by the carbonyl group of (A) 2·5
methionine residue is cleaved by: (B)  5
(A) Fluorodinitro benzene (C) 5
(B) Cyanogen bromide (D) 10
(C) Pepsin
(D) Trypsin

30. Identify the incorrect statement regarding lipid


raft.
(A) Lipid rafts are organized membrane
25. Succinate dehydrogenase converts succinate to microdomains.
fumarate. Which one of the following is true when the (B) Lipid rafts are primarily composed of
competitive inhibitor malonate is added to the reaction cholesterol and sphingolipids.
mixture?
(C) Lipid rafts are involved in important cellular
(A) Both Km and Vmax increase processes including endocytosis, signal
(B) Both Km and Vmax decrease transduction and cholesterol trafficking.
(C) Km increases and Vmax remains unchanged (D) Membrane proteins are totally absent in the
(D) Km increases and Vmax decreases lipid raft regions.
14–II Y–6
31. Consider a bacterial cell performs anaerobic 36. Where does amino acid catabolism predominantly
respiration. If the bacterial cell had access to 20 molecules occur?
of glucose, how many molecules of ATP will be produced? (A) Spleen
(A) 20 (B) Kidney
(B) 32 (C) Liver
(C) 36 (D) Adipose tissue
(D) 40

37. The large granular, bone-marrow derived, non-


phagocytic lymphocytes capable of recognizing and
32. The agitator or impeller in a stirred fermenter do
killing virally-infected and neoplastic cells are
not carry out the function of
(A) Helper T cells
(A) bulk fluid and gas-phase mixing
(B) NK cells
(B) dispersion of air (C) Dendritic cells
(C) transfer of O2 (D) Cytotoxic T cells
(D) mechanical foam breaker

38. The process by which a cell secretes macromolecules


33. What is the minimum loss of original habitat by fusing vacuole membrane to the plasma membrane is
which is necessary to designate a region as ‘biodiversity called
hotspot’? (A) Endocytosis
(A) 50% (B) Exocytosis
(B) 60% (C) Pinocytosis
(C) 70% (D) Phagocytosis
(D) 80%

39. Which of the following antibiotics resemble


penicillin in terms of their structure and mode of action?
34. Anthracene 9-carboxylic acid is used in studying
the disorder myotonia congenita. It acts as a (A) Tetracyclines
(A) Beta blocker (B) Streptomycin
2+ (C) Cephalosporins
(B) Ca -channel blocker
+ (D) Chloramphenicol
(C) K -channel blocker

(D) Cl -channel blocker

40. Human hair and rhinoceros horn differ in tensile


strength and rigidity though both the structures are made
35. Which of the following is NOT part of the up of -keratin protein. The extra strength of rhinoceros
endocrine system? horn is due to the presence of excess number of
(A) The thymus (A) hydrogen bonds
(B) The acini of the pancreas (B) hydrophobic interaction
(C) The pineal gland (C) peptide bonds
(D) The posterior pituitary (D) disulfide bonds
Y–7 14–II

41. Which one of the following is the limitation of 45. Collagen instability and connective tissue
liposome based drug delivery system? abnormalities are caused due to the absence of
(A) Vitamin A
(A) They are biocompatible
(B) Vitamin C
(B) They can entrap both hydrophobic and
(C) Vitamin D
hydrophilic drugs
(D) Vitamin H
(C) They undergo structural changes over time
during storage and leads to leakage of drug
molecules
(D) They can tolerate extreme pH conditions

46. In analysis of variance (ANOVA) one way model,


if the observed value of the F-statistics is less than 1, then
the null hypothesis is
(A) accepted
42. The most suitable in vitro technique considered
for porduction of genetically stable clones of plants is (B) rejected
(A) shoot meristem culture (C) rejected with probability 0·05
(B) callus mediated organogenesis (D) accepted with probability 0·05
(C) callus mediated somatic embryogenesis
(D) androgenesis

47. Which of the following proteins links the actin to


intermediate filaments in a cell?
(A) Tau
43. Woods of cycads mostly belong to which of the
(B) Spectrin
following types?
(A) Polyxylic and Pycnoxylic (C) Filamin
(D) Plectin
(B) Monoxylic and Manoxylic
(C) Polyxylic and Manoxylic
(D) Monoxylic and Pycnoxylic

48. The smallest three dimensional volume of soil


which gives full representation of horizontal variability
is called
44. The full form of MALT is
(A) Soil horizon
(A) Mucosa Attached Lymphoid Tissue
(B) Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue (B) Pedon
(C) Mucosa Acquired Lymphoid Tissue (C) Topography
(D) Mucosa Altered Lymphoid Tissue (D) Topology
14–II Y–8
49. 51. Why are the haploid plants induced through pollen
O O O culture technique suited for mutation research?
(A) They have short life span
H 3N+ CH C– –NH CH C–
–NH CH C– (B) They possess lesser number of chromosomes
in somatic cells
R1 CH 2 H 2C
(C) They allow immediate expression of recessive
mutations
H C CH 3
(D) They are obtained in high number
CH3
52. Which of the following plants are snail pollinated?
(A) Aroides
1
2
(B) Grasses
O
O
O (C) Palms
–NH CH C– –NH
CH C–
–NH CH C (D) Aquatic plants
O

(CH2)4 R2 R3 53. Select the correct match of larval forms with their
groups from the following:
+NH
3
(A) Brachiolaria – Trochophore; Cysticercus –
Cestoda; Planula – Jelly fish; Asteroidea –
Polycheta
3 4 (B) Brachiolaria – Asteroidea; Cysticercus –
Cestoda; Planula – Jelly fish; Trochophore
Aminopeptidase catalyzes the hydrolysis of amino acids – Polycheta
from the N-terminal end of a protein, while
(C) Brachiolaria – Cestoda; Cysticercus –
carboxypeptidase catalyzes the hydrolysis of amino acids
Asteroidea; Planula – Polycheta;
from the C-terminal end of a protein. Chymotrypsin
Trochophore – Jelly fish
catalyzes the hydrolysis of peptide bonds following
aromatic amino acids, while trypsin catalyzes the (D) Brachiolaria – Asteroidea; Cysticercus – Jelly
hydrolysis of peptide bonds following lysine and arginine. fish; Planula – Cestoda; Trochophore –
Select the correct order from the following: Polycheta

(A) 1-Aminopeptidase, 2-Chymotrypsin, 54. Beta-barrel structures cannot be predicted by


3-Trypsin, 4-Carboxypeptidase hydropathy plot analysis. Choose the most appropriate
(B) 1-Chymotrypsin, 2-Trypsin, reason behind this phenomenon.
3-Aminopeptidase, 4-Carboxypeptidase (A) Presence of a stretch of hydrophobic amino
(C) 1-Chymotrypsin, 2-Trypsin, acids in its linear sequence
3-Carboxypeptidase, 4-Aminopeptidase (B) Absence of hydrophobic amino acids in the
(D) 1-Aminopeptidase, 2-Trypsin, secondary structure of beta-barrel
3-Chymotrypsin, 4-Carboxypeptidase (C) Presence of alternating hydrophilic and
hydrophobic amino acid residues in the
primary sequence of beta-barrel
(D) Presence of alternating cis and trans amino
acid residues in its primary sequence

50. In hybridization experiments, high stringency 55. In the RNAi regulatory pathway, the DICER
washing means, washing in presence of enzyme cleaves
(A) low salt concentration and high temperature (A) RNA polymerase into non-functional pieces
(B) high salt concentration and low temperature (B) ssDNA into repetitive sequences
(C) high salt concentration and high temperature (C) ds RNA into short strands
(D) only water (D) mRNA into short strands
Y–9 14–II
56. How many DNA duplexes will be obtained from 61. Identify the experiment that is unable to detect the
one DNA duplex after 5 cycles of PCR? lateral diffusion of membrane proteins.
(A) 5 (A) Fluorescence recovery after photobleaching
(B) 10 (B) Fluorescence loss in photobleaching
(C) 16 (C) Human-mouse hybridoma cell (heterokaryon)
(D) 32 formation
(D) X-ray diffraction

57. Deamination of guanine produces 62. In bacterial taxonomy which one of the following
(A) Uracil serves as the ‘golden standard’ for identification and
determination of evolutionary relationship?
(B) Xanthine
(A) DNA base composition analysis
(C) Hypoxanthine
(D) 5–Methylcytosine (B) 16S rRNA gene sequence analysis
(C) Analysis of cell surface antigens
(D) Phage typing

58. Vinblastine, an important alkaloid, is extracted


63. Macrophages express MHC class II after getting
from which of the following plants?
activated by interferon gamma secreted from which one
(A) Rauwolfia vomitoria
of the following?
(B) Vitex negundo
(A) CD8 cytotoxic T cells
(C) Vanda tessellata
(B) Plasma cells
(D) Catharanthus roseus
(C) Polymorphonuclear neutrophils
(D) Dendritic cells

59. Which fish species does perform catadromous


64. A molecular cloning vector should have all of the
migration? following except:
(A) Tenulosa ilisha (A) Multiple cloning site
(B) Oncorhynchus mykiss (B) Autonomously replicating sequence
(C) Anguilla anguilla (C) Antibiotic resistance marker sequence
(D) Sardinella longiceps (D) Reverse transcriptase

65. The symbiotic association of N2-fixing prokaryotes


with higher plants often result in nodule formation.
60. Which of the following is a moss lacking peristome Which of the following associations represents an
teeth? exception?
(A) Funaria (A) Frankia — Alnus
(B) Sphagnum (B) Rhizobium — Sesbania
(C) Pogonatum (C) Anabaena — Azolla
(D) Entodon (D) Frankia — Casuarina
14–II Y–10
66. Numerical taxonomy which involves the 71. Xeroderma pigmentosum is an autosomal
numerical evaluation of the similarity between taxonomic recessive mutation that affects the mechanism of repair
units and ordering of these units into taxa on the basis of of UV-induced thymine dimer formation in DNA. Which
their similarity was coined by of the following enzymes is most likely to be defective?
(A) Lederberg and Zinder (A) DNA pol I
(B) Sokal and Sneath (B) DNA pol II
(C) Benda and Sokal (C) Endonuclease
(D) Emerson and Arnold (D) Exonuclease

72. In eukaryotic cells, the assemblage of ribosomal


67. Alternative name of ‘albuminous cell’ is subunits take place in
(A) Malpighian cell (A) Nucleoli
(B) Myrosin (B) Golgi complex
(C) Strassburger cell (C) Endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Silica cell (D) Peroxisomes

73. Chloroquine is used as an antimalarial drug against


the malaria caused by protist Plasmodium falciparum.
68. Glycogen synthase, the key regulatory enzyme Resistance against chloroquine occurs in the protist due
for glycogenesis, is inactivated by to
(A) Acetylation (A) amplification of gene encoding ABC
(B) Carboxylation transporter that pumps out the drug from
cytoplasm
(C) Phosphorylation
(B) amplification of gene encoding ABC
(D) Oxidation transporter that accumulates the drug into
cytoplasm
(C) decrease in the coding of ABC transporter
gene that accumulates the drug into cytoplasm
(D) formation of a hydrolase that breaks down
69. Activity of which of the following pairs of plant the drug in cytoplasm
hormones are similar in delaying senescence?
(A) Auxin and gibberellin
(B) Auxin and cytokinin 74. Which of the following pair of proteins regulate
(C) Cytokinin and ethylene production of anterior structure in Drosophila embryo?
(D) Gibberellin and cytokinin (A) Bicoid and Nanos
(B) Bicoid and Hunchback
(C) Caudal and Nanos
(D) Caudal and Hunchback

70. Which of the following statements about Giardia


lamblia is NOT correct?
75. Each individual antigenic determinant of the
(A) It has both trophozoite and cyst stages in its variable region of the antibody is referred to as
life cycle
(A) Paratope
(B) It is transmitted by the faecal oral route (B) Epitope
(C) It causes haemolytic anaemia (C) Agretope
(D) It can be diagnosed by the string test (D) Idiotope
Y–11 14–II
76. ‘Red rust of tea’, a common disease, is caused by 81. Which of the following pairs of immunoglobulin
which of the following? isotypes have characteristic ‘J’ chain to form the
(A) Cephaleuros virescens polymeric structure?
(B) Trentepohlia aurea (A) IgG and IgA
(C) Puccinia thwaitesii (B) IgM and IgA
(D) Puccinia striiformis (C) IgG and IgM
(D) IgD and IgA

77. ‘Nori’, a highly priced algal food, is obtained


from
(A) Porphyra 82. The CRISPR sequences are recognized by
(B) Eucheuma (A) Zinc Finger domains
(C) Laminaria (B) Guide RNA
(D) Fucus (C) Leucine Zippers
(D) TALE repeats

78. Protamines, small arginine rich proteins, are


characteristically
83. Heterocysts commonly found in Cyanobacteria
(A) large sized DNA fragments are associated with
(B) sequences of DNA that are unique in nature
(A) vegetative reproduction
(C) histone like proteins found in fish sperm
(B) nitrogen fixation
(D) moderately repeated DNA sequence
(C) stress management
(D) photosynthesis

79. Porogamy refers to as


(A) Fertilization in which pollen tube enters the
ovule through integument 84. Sickle cell anaemia is a heritable disorder where
(B) Fertilization without the involvement of pollen at least one -globin subunit of haemoglobin-A is
grains replaced forming haemoglobin-S. This demonstrates
(C) Fertilization in which pollen tube enters the (A) aneuploidy
ovule through chalaza (B) chromosomal translocation
(D) Fertilization in which pollen tube enters the (C) autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance
ovule through micropyle
(D) X-linked inheritance pattern

80. Which of the following hormones initiates


biological actions by crossing the plasma membrane and 85. Which one of the cranial nerves has both sensory
then binding to a receptor? and motor functions?
(A) Glucagon (A) Facial
(B) Estradiol (B) Auditory
(C) Norepinephrine (C) Trochlear
(D) Insulin (D) Abducens
14–II Y–12
86. Frameshift mutation is caused by the agent 91. Initiation of protein synthesis from most
(A) Nitrous acid eukaryotic mRNA requires:
(B) 5–Bromouracil (A) 3poly–A tail
(C) Proflavin (B) 5poly–A tail
(D) Ethyl methane sulfonate
(C) 3cap
(D) Both poly A tail and 5cap

87. In an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the competitive 92. The term protein splicing refers to
inhibition by an inhibitor is mediated when it
(A) removal of intervening sequences between
(A) binds at several sites of an enzyme
genes
(B) binds reversibly at the active site of enzyme
(B) splicing out introns from RNA
(C) binds only to the ES complex
(D) binds covalently to the enzyme (C) removal of intervening protein sequences
termed as ‘intein’ from translated protein
(D) joining of two different gene products to
generate a novel protein

88. Highly repetitive DNA sequences are normally


concentrated in eukaryotic chromosome near
93. A tautomeric shift causing the substitution of one
(A) Euchromatic region
purine for a pyrimidine is called
(B) Centromeric region
(C) Nucleolar organiser region (A) Transversion
(D) Both euchromatic and heterochromatic (B) Translocation
regions (C) Transition
(D) Inversion

94. Which of the following inhibitors of electron


89. Which of the following proteins have not been
transport system is a secondary metabolite of
used in genome editing?
Streptomyces sp.?
(A) ZFN
(A) Rotenone
(B) TALENS
(B) Amobarbitol
(C) CRISPR-Cas 9
(C) Antimycin A
(D) MHC
(D) Cyanides

95. Phosphatidyl serine, an important component of


90. Evolutionary changes in one species prompt the biological membrane is located in
corresponding changes in other species with which the (A) the outer leaflet but flip flops to inner leaflet
former interacts ecologically. This process is known as at specific conditions
(A) Coevolution (B) both the leaflets
(B) Genetic drift (C) middle of the bilayer
(C) Parallel evolution (D) the inner leaflet but flip flops to outer leaflet
(D) Microevolution at specific conditions
Y–13 14–II
96. Which one of the following enzymes

dissociates 99. During synchronous contraction of cardiac muscle

HCO3 ions into CO2 and an OH (hydroxyl) ion in cells, electrical impulse is transmitted through
pulmonary capillaries? (A) Gap junction
(A) Bicarbonate decarboxylase (B) Tight junction
(B) Bicarbonate hydrogenase (C) Desmosomes
(C) Pulmonary decarboxylase (D) Hemidesmosomes
(D) Carbonic anhydrase

97. Pollination of flower by bat is termed as


(A) Chiropterophily
(B) Melittophily
(C) Myophily
(D) Anemophily

98. Which of the following agents stimulates the 100. Configuration of a protein can only be altered by
heart and inhibits the ability of the heart directly to relax? breaking
(A) Sympatholytic (A) Hydrogen bond
(B) Sympathomimetic (B) Disulfide bond
(C) Parasympatholytic (C) Hydrophobic interaction
(D) Parasympathomimetic (D) Ionic interaction
14–II Y–14

ROUGH WORK
Y–15 14–II

ROUGH WORK
14–II Y–16

ROUGH WORK

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