(5001CMD303720001)

MLS71,81,91,42H Test Pattern

NEET(UG)
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Leader Course/MLS42H/29-11-2020 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1/40

 MINOR TEST # 01 Topics DATE : 29 - 11 - 2020
LEADER COURSE : ML
PHYSICS : BASIC MATHS, VECTOR, NLM (UP TO BB-4).

CHEMISTRY: ATOMIC STRUCTURE, CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM, IONIC

EQUILIBRIUM.

BIOLOGY : TRANSPORT IN PLANTS, MINERAL NUTRITION,

PHOTOSYNTHESIS, RESPIRATION.

HUMAN REPRODUCTION.

Page 2/40 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target : Pre-Medical 2021/29-11-2020

1. 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + . . . . . . 20 terms is equal to- 1. 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + . . . . . . 20 ; &
(1) 400 (2) 200 (1) 400 (2) 200
(3) 100 (4) 50 (3) 100 (4) 50

d d
2. x2 ? 2. x2 ?
dx dx

1 x 1 1 x 1
(1) 2 (2) (1) (2)
2 x 2 x2 2 2 x 2
2 x2 2

x x
(3) (4) 1 (3) (4) 1
2 x 2 x

d
3. sec5x d
dx 3. sec5x
dx
(1) cos 5x cos 5x (2) cos 5x tan 5 x
(1) cos 5x cos 5x (2) cos 5x tan 5 x
(3) sec 5x cos 5x (4) 5sec 5x tan 5x
(3) sec 5x cos 5x (4) 5sec 5x tan 5x
4. If the angle between the vectors A and B is ,
4. A B ]
the value of the product (B A).A is equal to-
(B A).A ; -
(1) zero (2) BA2 sin cos
(3) BA2 sin (4) BA2 cos (1) ; (2) BA2 sin cos
(3) BA2 sin (4) BA2 cos
5. The vectors A and B are such that

|A B| | A B | . The angle between the two 5. A B |A B| | A B|

vectors is &
(1) 60º (2) 75º (3) 45º (4) 90º (1) 60º (2) 75º (3) 45º (4) 90º
6. A and B are two vectors and is the angle
6. A B /; ];
between them, if | A B | 3(A.B) the value of
| A B| 3(A.B)
is
(1) 90º (2) 60º (3) 45º (4) 30º (1) 90º (2) 60º (3) 45º (4) 30º

Leader/ML/29-11-2020 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Page 3/40

7. The angle between the two vectors 2 i 3 j k 7. 2i 3j k i 2 j 4k /; &

(1) 0º (2) 90º

and i 2 j 4 k is -
(3) 180º (4)
(1) 0º (2) 90º
(3) 180º (4) none
8. 2iˆ ˆj 3kˆ 3iˆ 2ˆj kˆ

8. The area of parallelogram formed by two adja- { &

cent sides of 2iˆ ˆj 3kˆ and 3iˆ 2ˆj kˆ is (in (1) 65 (2) 69
square units)- (3) (4) 75
75
(1) 65 (2) 69
9. A 4iˆ 3jˆ 6kˆ B ˆi 3jˆ 8kˆ
(3) 75 (4) 75
, &
9. The unit vectors parallel to the resultant of the

ˆi 3jˆ 8kˆ is
(1) [3iˆ 6ˆj 2k]
ˆ
vectors A 4iˆ 3jˆ 6kˆ & B
1
(1) [3iˆ 6ˆj 2k]
ˆ (2) [3iˆ 6ˆj 2k]
ˆ
7

1 1
(2) [3iˆ 6ˆj 2k]
ˆ (3) [3iˆ 6ˆj 2k]
ˆ
7 49

1 1
(3) [3iˆ 6ˆj 2k]
ˆ (4) [3iˆ 6ˆj 2k]
ˆ
49 49

1 d 2x 2 3x
(4) [3iˆ 6ˆj 2k]
ˆ
10. ?
49 dx 2x

d 2x 2 3x (1) 0
10. ?
dx 2x (2) 1
(1) 0
x2
(2) 1 (3)
3
x2
(3)
3 (4)
(4) None of these
Page 4/40 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target : Pre-Medical 2021/29-11-2020
11. Shaded area is: 11. { &

y(metre) y(metre)

A B A B
16 16

x(metre) x(metre)
0 2 4 8 10 12 0 2 4 8 10 12

(1) 120 units (2) 100 units

(1) 120 units (2) 100 units
(3) 128 units (4)
(3) 128 units (4) None of these

12. The component of vector A 2iˆ 3jˆ along the 12. (iˆ ˆj) A 2iˆ 3jˆ ? &

direction of (iˆ ˆj) is

1 1
(1) (2)
2 2
1 1
(1) (2)
2 2
1 1
(3) (4)
1 1 2 2
(3) (4)
2 2
13. ˆi ˆj kˆ , &
13. The direction consines of ˆi ˆj kˆ are
(1) 1, 1, 1 (2) 2, 2, 2
(1) 1, 1, 1 (2) 2, 2, 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 (3) , , (4) , ,
(3) , , (4) , , 2 2 2 3 3 3
2 2 2 3 3 3
14. | A B| | A B|, A B
14. If | A B | | A B | , then the angle between A
&
and B will be
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 60° (4) 90°
(3) 60° (4) 90°
Leader/ML/29-11-2020 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Page 5/40
15. If A and B are two vectors, the value of 15. A B (A B) (A B)
(A B) (A B) is &

(1) 2(B A) (2) 2(B A) (1) 2(B A) (2) 2(B A)

(3) B A (4) A B
(3) B A (4) A B
16. 4i – 3 j + 5k z-
16. The angle made by the vector 4 i – 3 j + 5 k
&
with z-axis is -
(1) 30º (2) 45º
(1) 30º (2) 45º
(3) 90º (4) 120º
(3) 90º (4) 120º v
v 17. Mv dv
17. Mv dv u
u

1 1
(1) M(v2 – u2) (2) M(v 2 u2 ) (1) M(v2 – u2) (2) M(v 2 u2 )
2 2

1 1
(3) M(v u) (4) None (3) M(v u) (4) None
2 2

18. What is h in fig. length of pendulum is l - 18. h ; l &

B B

l l
0 h 0 h
120° 120°
l l

A A

l 3l l 3l
(1) (2) 2l (3) (4) l (1) (2) 2l (3) (4) l
2 2 2 2

19. A particle initially at rest at origin is moving 19. a = 6t î 8t ĵ m/s

2

according law a = 6t î 8t ĵ m/s2, where ‘a’ is ‘a’ t = 3 sec –

acceleration. Velocity of particle at t = 3 sec – (1) 45 m/s (2) 40 m/s
(1) 45 m/s (2) 40 m/s (3) 35 m/s (4) 22 m/s
(3) 35 m/s (4) 22 m/s
Page 6/40 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target : Pre-Medical 2021/29-11-2020
 1 1 1 1 1 1
20. The sum of series 1 ...... will be:- 20. 1 ...... ; &
2 4 8 2 4 8

3 3
(1) 2 (2) (1) 2 (2)
2 2

(3) 3 (4) None of these (3) 3 (4) None of these

21. If volume increases with rate of (4 ) cm3/sec. at 21. r = 2 cm (4 ) cm3/sec <+
radius r = 2cm, what is the rate of increase of radius ] {= <+ &
of sphere -
(1) 0.25 cm/sec. (2) 0.5 cm/sec.
(1) 0.25 cm/sec. (2) 0.5 cm/sec.
(3) 12 m/sec. (4) None
(3) 12 m/sec. (4) None
22. y = 4x2 {= ; x = 1, x = 2 &
22. Area under curve y = 4x2 between x = 1, x = 2
is -
y

x
x=1 x=2
x
x=1 x=2
28 1
(1) (2)
3 3
28 1
(1) (2) (3) 56 (4) None (3) 56 (4) None
3 3

23. The angle between A and B is .R A B 23. A B R A B

2
makes an angle with A . Which of the following A &
2
is true? (1) A = 2B
(1) A = 2B (2) 2A = B (2) 2A = B
(3) AB = 1 (4) None of the above (3) AB = 1
(4) None of the above
Leader/ML/29-11-2020 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Page 7/40
24. a b . a b is - 24. a b . a b is -

(1) a 2 (2) b 2 a 2 (1) a 2 (2) b 2 a 2

(3) 0 (4) a 2 b2 (3) 0 (4) a 2 b2

d d
25. x log x x log x
dx 25.
dx
(1) log 2x – 1 (2) log 2x + 1 (1) log 2x – 1 (2) log 2x + 1
(3) log x – 1 (4) log x + 1
(3) log x – 1 (4) log x + 1
1
26. 3x 2 cos x dx 1
x 26. 3x 2 cos x dx
x
x3
(1) sin x log x c x3
3 (1) sin x log x c
3
x3
(2) sin x log x c x3
3 (2) sin x log x c
3
(3) x – sin x + log x + c
3

(3) x3 – sin x + log x + c

(4) x2 + sin x + log x + c
(4) x2 + sin x + log x + c
27. A particle moves from position 3iˆ 2 ˆj 6kˆ to
27. F 4iˆ ˆj 3kˆ N
14iˆ 13 ˆj 9 kˆ due to a force

F 4iˆ ˆj 3kˆ N. If the displacement is in 3iˆ 2 ˆj 6kˆ 14iˆ 13 ˆj 9kˆ

&
meter then work done will be
(1) 1 J (2) 2 J (1) 1 J (2) 2 J

(3) 3 J (4) 2.5 J (3) 3 J (4) 2.5 J

28. 0 dx is equal to 28. 0 dx &

(1) tan x sec x c (1) tan x sec x c

(2) tan x c (2) tan x c
(3) constant (3)
(4) 0 (4) 0
Page 8/40 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target : Pre-Medical 2021/29-11-2020
29. The surfaces are frictionless, the ratio of T1 and T2 29. ? T1 T2 &
is:

T2 T1 30º
T2 T1 3 kg 12 kg 15 kg
3 kg 12 kg 15 kg 30º

(1) 3:2 (2) 1: 3

(1) 3:2 (2) 1: 3

(3) 1 : 5 (4) 5 : 1 (3) 1 : 5 (4) 5 : 1

30. A train is moving with velocity 20 m/sec. on this, 30. 20 m/sec 50 kg/min /
dust is falling at the rate of 50 kg/min. The extra
force required to move this train with constant , &
velocity will be
(1) 16.66 N (2) 1000 N
(1) 16.66 N (2) 1000 N

(3) 166.6 N (4) 1200 N (3) 166.6 N (4) 1200 N

31. A mass M is suspended by a rope from a rigid 31. M , } , <+ P

support at P as shown in the figure. Another rope , Q
is tied at the end Q, and it is pulled horizontally { F [ ;
with a force F. If the rope PQ makes angle with PQ ] / PQ
the vertical then the tension in the string PQ is &

P
P
T
T
F
Q F
Q

M
M

(1) Fsin (2) F / sin (1) Fsin (2) F / sin

(3) Fcos (4) F / cos (3) Fcos (4) F / cos

Leader/ML/29-11-2020 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Page 9/40
32. In the following figure the masses of the blocks A 32. = A B
and B are same and each equal to m. The tensions m OA AB % T2 T1
in the strings OA and AB are T2 and T1 B , { mg ;
respectively. The system is in equilibrium with a T1 &
constant horizontal force mg on B. The T1 is
O
O
(1) mg (1) mg
T2
T2 2
2
(2) 2 mg (2) 2 mg
m A
m A

(3) 3 mg T1
T1 (3) 3 mg 1
1 B
B m mg
m mg
(4) 5 mg (4) 5 mg

33. A man of mass m stands on a crate of mass M. He

33. m , M > [
pulls on a light rope passing over a smooth light
pulley. The other end of the rope is attached to the
[
crate. For the system to be in equilibrium, the force > ;}
exerted by the men on the rope will be &

(1) (M + m)g (1) (M + m)g

1 M M
(2) (M m) g 1
2 (2) (M m) g
m 2 m
(3) Mg
(3) Mg
(4) mg
(4) mg
34. A man weighs 80kg. He stands on a weighing
scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a 34. 80kg , ;
uniform acceleration of 5m / s 2 . What would be ; 5m / s 2
the reading on the scale. (g = 10 m/s2) (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 400 N (2) 800 N (1) 400 N (2) 800 N

(3) 1200 N (4) Zero
(3) 1200 N (4) Zero
Page 10/40 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target : Pre-Medical 2021/29-11-2020
35. The ratio of the weight of a man in a stationary lift 35. a
and when it is moving downward with uniform
acceleration 'a' is 3 : 2. The value of 'a' is (g- 3:2 a &
Acceleration due to gravity on the earth)

3 g
3 g (1) g (2)
(1) g (2) 2 3
2 3

2
2 (3) g (4) g
(3) g (4) g 3
3

36. Two blocks of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are placed in 36. 4 kg 6 kg { ?

contact with each other on a frictionless horizontal 5N
surface. If we apply a push of 5 N on the heavier ] &
mass, the force on the lighter mass will be

5N 6 kg
4 kg
5N 6 kg
4 kg

(1) 5 N (2) 4 N
(1) 5 N (2) 4 N

(3) 2 N (4) None of the above

(3) 2 N (4) None of the above

37. Two blocks are attached to the two ends of a string 37. ?
passing over a smooth pulley as shown in the ]
figure. The acceleration of the block will be (in m/ (m/s2 ) (sin 37º = 0.60, sin 53º = 0.80)
s2) (sin 37º = 0.60, sin 53º = 0.80)
(1) 0.33
(1) 0.33
100 kg
50 kg
100 kg
50 kg (2) 0.133
(2) 0.133 37o 53o
37o 53o
(3) 1 (3) 1

(4) 0.066 (4) 0.066

Leader/ML/29-11-2020 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Page 11/40
38. The acceleration of block B in the figure will be 38. = B &
m 2g m 2g
(1) (4m m ) (1) (4m m )
1 2
1 2

2m 2g A m1 2m 2g A m1
(2) (4m m ) (2) (4m m )
1 2
1 2

2m1g 2m1g
(3) (m 4m ) (3) (m 4m )
1 2
1 2
m2 B m2 B
2m1g 2m1g
(4) (m m ) (4) (m m )
1 2
1 2

39. Two balls of mass 1 kg and 2 kg respectively are 39. % 1 kg 2 kg ]

connected to the two ends of the spring. The two
?
balls are pressed together and placed on a smooth
]
table. When released, the lighter ball moves with
2
2 ms &
an acceleration of 2 ms 2 . The acceleration of the
heavier ball will be (1) 4 ms 2 (2) 2 ms 2
(1) 4 ms 2 (2) 2 ms 2 (3) 1 ms 2 (4) 0.5 ms 2

(3) 1 ms 2
(4) 0.5 ms 2
40. A mass M of 100 kg is suspended with the help of
40. A mass M of 100 kg is suspended with the help of strings A, B and C as shown in the figure where
strings A, B and C as shown in the figure where W is the vertical wall and R is a rigid horizontal
W is the vertical wall and R is a rigid horizontal rod. The tension in the string B is (where g
rod. The tension in the string B is (where g acceleration due to gravity)
acceleration due to gravity) R
R 45°
C
45°
C
90°
90° A
B
A
B

W M = 100 kg
W M = 100 kg

(1) 100 g N (2) 0

(1) 100 g N (2) 0
100 100
(3) 100 2g N (4) gN (3) 100 2g N (4) gN
2 2
Page 12/40 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target : Pre-Medical 2021/29-11-2020
41. Two bodies of mass 4 and 6 kg are attached to 41. 4 6 kg ,
the ends of a string passing over a pulley. A 4 kg 4 , ;
mass is attached to the table top by another string. T1
The tension in this string T1 is equal to

T T1 T T1

4 kg 4 kg

T1 6 kg T1 6 kg

(1) 19.6 N (1) 19.6 N

(2) 25 N (2) 25 N
(3) 10.6 N (3) 10.6 N
(4) 10 N (4) 10 N
42 Three blocks A, B and C, each of mass 2 kg are 42. A, B C 2 kg
hanging over a fixed pulley as shown. The tension B C /;
in the string connecting B and C is
&

A B
A B

C
C

(1) zero
(1) zero
(2) 3.3. N
(2) 3.3. N
(3) 13.3 N
(3) 13.3 N
(4) 19.6 N
(4) 19.6 N
Leader/ML/29-11-2020 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Page 13/40
43. A rod of length L and mass M is acted on by two 43. L M , + F1
unequal force F1 and F2 (< F1) as shown in the F2 (< F1) ] = A
following figure. y %
C B A
F2 F1 C B A
F2 F1
y
y
L
L

The tension in the rod at a distance y from the end

A is given by: (1) F1 1
y
F2
y
L L
y y
(1) F1 1
L
F2
L y y
(2) F2 1
L
F1
L
y y
(2) F2 1
L
F1
L
y
(3) F1 F2
y L
(3) F1 F2
L
(4)
(4) None of these
44. F =
44. Two forces, each equal to F, act as shown in Fig. &
Their resultant is
F
F (1)
(1) 2
2
F F
(2) F (2) F

(3) 60º (3) 60º

3F 3F
F F
(4) 5F (4) 5F
45. A body slides down a smooth inclined plane in
45. 10
10 seconds. If dropped from the top of the in-
; : 5
clined plane, it reaches the ground in 5 seconds.
What is the angle of inclination? ] { >

(1) 30° (2) 45° (1) 30° (2) 45°

(3) 60° (4) None of the above (3) 60° (4)

Page 14/40 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target : Pre-Medical 2021/29-11-2020
46. The wavelength of 3rd line of Balmer series for 46. H /;
H-atom is &
21 100 21 100
(1) (2) (1) (2)
100R 21R 100R 21R

21R 100 R 21R 100 R

(3) (4) (3) (4)
100 21 100 21
47. If radius of the first orbit of H atom is r. Find the 47. H r Li2+
radius of first Bohr orbit of Li2+ will be ,&
(1) r/9 (2) r/3 (1) r/9 (2) r/3
(3) 3r (4) 9r (3) 3r (4) 9r
48. Average atomic weight of an element M is 51.7. If 48. M 51.7 M
two isotopes of M, M50 and M52 are present then M 50
M52 M50
calculate percentage occurance of M50 in nature. &
(1) 85% (2) 15% (1) 85% (2) 15%
(3) 75% (4) 25% (3) 75% (4) 25%
49. The ratio of energy of radiation of wavelength 49. ]; /
2000Å and 4000Å is
2000Å 4000Å &
(1) 2 (2) 4 (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 1/2 (4) 1/4 (3) 1/2 (4) 1/4
50. Zeeman effect explains splitting of lines in 50.
(1) Magnetic field (2) Electric field
(1) ;{= (2) ;{=
(3) Both of these (4) None of these
(3) (4)
51. The radius of nucleus 13Al27 will be
51. Al27
13
&
(1) 1.2 10 15
m (2) 2.7 10 15
m (1) 1.2 10 15
m (2) 2.7 10 15
m
(3) 10.8 10 15
m (4) 4 10 15
m (3) 10.8 10 15
m (4) 4 10 15
m
52. Bohr's theory is not applicable to
52. &
(1) He (2) Li2+
(1) He (2) Li2+
(3) He+ (4) H atom
(3) He+ (4) H atom
Leader/ML/29-11-2020 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Page 15/40
53. Calculate the energy of Li2+ ion in 2nd excited state 53. Li2+ ; ,&
(1) –13.6 eV/atom (1) –13.6 eV/atom
(2) 2 13.6 eV / atom (2) 2 13.6 eV / atom
(3) 4 13.6 eV / atom (3) 4 13.6 eV / atom
(4) –6.08 eV
(4) –6.08 eV
54. Neutron was discovered by
54. [
(1) J.J. Thomson (2) Goldstein
(1) J.J. Thomson (2) Goldstein
(3) Chadwick (4) Rutherford
(3) Chadwick (4) Rutherford
55. In hydrogen atom, energy of Ist excited state is –
55.
3.4 eV. Then KE of 2nd orbit of hydrogen atom is
–3.4 eV ] ;
(1) +3.4 eV (2) +6.8 eV
,&
(3) –3.4 eV (4) –6.8 eV
(1) +3.4 eV (2) +6.8 eV
56. If mass of neutron is doubled, mass of proton is
(3) –3.4 eV (4) –6.8 eV
halved and mass of electron is doubled, find out
the % change of at wt. of 6C12 56. ]
(1) 50% (2) 25%
] 6C12
(3) 60% (4) 75%
57. Calculate the frequency of photon of wavelength
(1) 50% (2) 25% (3) 60% (4) 75%
4000Å.
57. 4000Å /; &
(1) 7.5 1010 sec 1 (2) 7.5 1014 sec 1

(1) 7.5 1010 sec 1 (2) 7.5 1014 sec 1

(3) 7.5 105 sec 1 (4) 7.5 102 sec 1

58. Calculate radius ratio of 2nd orbit of hydrogen and (3) 7.5 105 sec 1 (4) 7.5 102 sec 1

3rd orbit of Li2+. 58. ; Li2+ ;

(1) 3 : 4 (2) 1 : 2 &
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 3 (1) 3 : 4 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 3
59. How much time an electron will take for one 59. He+ ; ,
complete revolution in 2nd orbit of He+? ; ?
(1) 3.05 10 10
sec (2) 3.05 10 16
sec (1) 3.05 10 10
sec (2) 3.05 10 16
sec
(3) 3.05 10 8 sec (4) 3.05 10 2 sec (3) 3.05 10 8 sec (4) 3.05 10 2 sec
Page 16/40 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target : Pre-Medical 2021/29-11-2020
60. Calculate the ratio of energies of He+ for Ist and 60. He+ ; ,
IInd excited state. &
(1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4 (1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 5 : 4 (3) 4 : 5 (4) 5 : 4
61. What will be the direction of reaction if 61. H2, I2 HI % 2, 2, 8 mole/litre
concentration of H2, I2 & HI are 2, 2, & 8 mole/
litre respectively. kc for the reaction is 4 H2 I2 2HI

H2 I2 2HI is , kc 4

(1) Forward direction

(1)
(2) Backward directin
(2)
(3) Equilibrium condition
(3)
(4) Reaction will be completed
(4)
1
62. SO 2 g O2 g SO3 g k1 1
2 62. SO 2 g O2 g SO3 g k1
2
4SO3 g 4SO 2 2O 2 k 2
g g 4SO3 g 4SO 2 2O 2 k 2
g g
What is the correct relation :
:
1
(1) k 2 k1
4 (2) k 2 k14 1
(1) k 2 k1
4 (2) k 2 k14

1
1 4 1 1
(3) k 2 (4) k 2 k1 1 4 1
k1 (3) k 2 (4) k 2 k1
k1
63. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
63. Br2 2Br , 500 k 700 k
Br2 2Br at 500 k & 700 k are 1 10 10 &
10
; % 1 10 1 10 5
1 10 5 respectively the reaction is :
] :
(1) Endothermic (2) Exothermic
(1) Endothermic (2) Exothermic
(3) Fast (4) Slow
(3) Fast (4) Slow
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64. In a 0.25 L tube dissociation of 4 mole of NO 64. 0.25 L 4 mole NO ;
takes place. If degree of dissociation is 10%. The 10% kp
value of kp for the reaction
2NO N2 O2
2NO N2 O 2 is
1 1
1 1 (1) 18 2 (2) 8 2
(1) 18 2 (2) 8 2

1 1 1 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
16 32 16 32

65. Evaluate kp for the reaction 65. H2 I2 2HI , kp

; 2 mole H2 I2
H2 I2 2HI if 2 moles of each H2 & I2 are
HI 2 mole &
taken initially. At equilibrium moles of HI is 2
(1) 2.5 (2) 4
(1) 2.5 (2) 4 (3) 0.25 (4) 1.0
(3) 0.25 (4) 1.0 66.
66. The reaction in which yield of production cannot
be increased by application of high pressure is :
(1) PCl
g
3 Cl 2
g
PCl5
g
(1) PCl
g
3 Cl 2
g
PCl5
g

(2) Ng 2 Og 2 2NO
(2) Ng 2 Og 2 2NO g
g

(3) Ng 2 3H 2 2NH 3 (3) Ng 2 3H

g
2 2NH 3
g
g g

(4) 2SO 2 O2 2SO3 (4) 2SO

g
2 O2
g
2SO3
g
g g g

67. For the reaction 67.

1 1 1 1
H2 I2 HI H2 I2 HI
2 2 2 2
Equilibrium constant is K then find equilibrium , ; K
constant for 2HI H2 I2 2HI H2 I2 ,

1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) k (4) 2k (1) (2) (3) k (4) 2k
k2 k k2 k
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 kp kp
68. for the following reaction will be: 68. , k :
kc c

1 1
A B g C Q A B g C Q
s 2g s s 2g s

1 1
(1) RT (2) (1) RT (2)
RT RT

1 RT 1 RT
(3) (4) (3) (4)
RT 2 RT 2

69. At certain temperature only 50% HI is dissociated 69. HI 50% ,

;
at equilibrium in the reaction 2 HI
g
H2 I2
g g

the equlibrium constant for the reaction is : 2 HI H2 I2

g g g

(1) 0.25 (2) 1.0 (3) 3.0 (4) 0.5

(1) 0.25 (2) 1.0 (3) 3.0 (4) 0.5
70. Active mass of 2 mole of NaCl kept is 4 litre vessel
at NTP is __ 70. 2 mole NaCl, 4 L NTP ] ;
&
1
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) (4) 4 1
2 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) (4) 4
2
71. If 8 mole of PCl5 is heated in a closed vessel of 10
L capacity and 25% of its dissociates into PCl3 71. 8 mole PCl5
and Cl2 at the equilibrium then Kp will be 10 L ; 25% PCl3 PCl2
Kp &
(1) P / 30 (2) P / 15
(1) P / 30 (2) P / 15
(3) 2 / 3P (4) 3 / 2P
(3) 2 / 3P (4) 3 / 2P
72. At 90°C, the pH of 0.001 M KOH solution will
be 72. 90°C 0.001 M KOH pH &
(1) 3 (2) 11 (3) 5 (4) 9 (1) 3 (2) 11 (3) 5 (4) 9
73. Vapour density of PCl5 is 104.25 at T°C. Then 73. T°C PCl5 ? 104.25 PCl5
degree of dissociation of PCl5 is (MW = 208.5) , &( = 208.5)
(1) 20% (2) 0% (3) 30% (4) 15% (1) 20% (2) 0% (3) 30% (4) 15%

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74. For two acids A and B PKa1 = 1.2, PKa2 = 2.8 74. A B , PKa1 = 1.2 PKa2 = 2.8
respectively in value then which is true? %
(1) A and B both are equally acidic (1) A B
(2) A is stronger than B
(2) A, B
(3) B is stronger than A
(3) B, A
(4) None of these
(4)
75. For the manufacture of NH3 by the reaction :
75. NH3 %
N2 3H 2 2NH3 219.KCal
N2 3H 2 2NH3 219.KCal
the favourable conditions are
NH3 , &
(1) Low temp, low pressure and catalyst
(1) ]
(2) Low temp, high pressure and catalyst
(2) ]
(3) High temp, low pressure and catalyst
(4) High temp, high pressure and catalyst (3) ]
76. The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts (4) ]
increases in order 76. 0.1 M pH <+ &
(1) NaCl < NH4Cl < NaCN < HCl (1) NaCl < NH4Cl < NaCN < HCl
(2) NaCN < NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl (2) NaCN < NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl
(3) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl (3) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl
(4) HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN (4) HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN
77. The pH of a 10–10 M NaOH solution is nearest to 77. 10–10 M NaOH pH &
(1) 10 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 0 (1) 10 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 0
78. Solubility of CaCl2 is 4 10 8 . Find its solubility in
78. CaCl2 is 4 10 8 10–2
presence of 10–2 M Ca(OH)2 solution.
M Ca(OH)2 ,
(1) 8 10 2 (2) 8 10 15
(1) 8 10 2 (2) 8 10 15

(3) 8 10 11 (4) 8 10 6
(3) 8 10 11 (4) 8 10 6

79. S0, S1, S2 and S3 are the solubilities of AgCl in

water, 0.01 M CaCl2, 0.01 M NaCl and 0.5 M 79. S0, S1, S2 S3 AgCl, 0.01 M CaCl2 ,
AgNO3 solution respectively then which of the 0.01 M NaCl 0.5 M AgNO3 AgCl
following relation is true?
(1) S0 > S2 > S1 > S3 (1) S0 > S2 > S1 > S3
(2) S0 = S2 = S1 > S3 (2) S0 = S2 = S1 > S3
(3) S3 > S1 > S2 > S0 (3) S3 > S1 > S2 > S0
(4) S0 > S2 > S3 > S1 (4) S0 > S2 > S3 > S1
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80. Which of the following Bronsted acid has the 80. Bronsted {
weakest conjugate base?
(1) H2O (2) HCN
(1) H2O (2) HCN
(3) HCOOH (4) HF
(3) HCOOH (4) HF
81. ;
81. Which of the following is acidic salt?
(1) Na2HPO3 (2) NaH2PO2
(1) Na2HPO3 (2) NaH2PO2
(3) Na2HPO4 (4)
(3) Na2HPO4 (4) All of the above
82. Calculate the degree of hydrolysis of a mixture 82. 0.1 N NH4OH 0.1 N HCN ,
containing 0.1 N NH3OH & 0.1 N HCN. .

ka = 10–5, kb = 10–5 ka = 10–5, kb = 10–5

(1) 10–1 (2) 10–2 (1) 10–1 (2) 10–2

(3) 10–3 (4) 10–4 (3) 10–3 (4) 10–4

83. Ksp of AgI = 8.5 × 10–17. Find the solubility of 83. AgI Ksp , AgI = 8.5 × 10–17 AgI
AgI in 0.1 M KI solution 0.1 M KI &
(1) 0.1 M (2) 8.5 × 10–16 (1) 0.1 M (2) 8.5 × 10–16
(3) 5 × 10–17 M (4) 8.5 × 10–18 M (3) 5 × 10–17 M (4) 8.5 × 10–18 M
84. What is the pH of a 1 M CH3COONa solution? 84. 1 M CH3COONa pH
ka = 1.8 × 10–5 ka = 1.8 × 10–5
(1) 2.4 (2) 3.6
(1) 2.4 (2) 3.6
(3) 8.2 (4) 9.4
(3) 8.2 (4) 9.4
85. Solubility of AgCl is S mole/litre. Find its solubility
85. AgCl S mole/litre AlCl3
in presence of AlCl3 whose concentration is C
mole/litre , C mole/litre &

Ksp Ksp Ksp Ksp

(1) S' (2) S' (1) S' (2) S'
C 2C C 2C

Ksp Ksp Ksp Ksp

(3) S' (4) S' (3) S' (4) S'
3C 3C 3C 3C

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86. Which of the following solution has highest degree 86. ,
of hydrolysis?

(1) 0.01 M NH4CN (1) 0.01 M NH4CN

(2) 0.1 M NH4CN (2) 0.1 M NH4CN

(3) 1 M NH4CN (3) 1 M NH4CN

(4) All have same degree of hydrolysis. (4)

87. &
87. Find degree of ionisation of water
(1) 1.8 10 9% (2) 1.8 10 7%
(1) 1.8 10 9% (2) 1.8 10 7%

5
(3) 0.02% (4) 1.8 10 5%
(3) 0.02% (4) 1.8 10 %
88. 25ºC pH = 7 ; 70ºC
88. pH of water is 7 at 25ºC. If water is heated to
] &
70ºC then choose the correct statement-
(1) pH ? ;
(1) pH will decrease and solution becomes acidic
(2) pH
(2) pH will increase
(3) pH 7
(3) pH will remain constant as 7
(4) pH ?
(4) pH will decrease but solution will remain neutral
89. AB2 ;
89. The solubility of a sparingly soluble salt AB2 in
water is 10–5 molL–1. Its solubility product is 10–5 molL–1 &

AB2 (s) A 2B AB2 (s) A 2B

(aq.) (aq.)
(aq.) (aq.)

(1) 10–15 (2) 10–10 (1) 10–15 (2) 10–10

(3) 4 10 15 (4) 4 10 10
(3) 4 10 15 (4) 4 10 10

90. pH of a 0.02 M ammonia solution which is 5% 90. 0.02 M NH3 5% ]

ionised will be- pH &
(1) 9 (2) 11 (1) 9 (2) 11

(3) 12 (4) 7 (3) 12 (4) 7

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91. What is incorrect regarding bundle sheath cells of 91. C4
leaves in C4 plants?
(1) No intercellular space (1) ;
(2) Large number of chloroplast (2) [; chloroplast
(3) Allows Co2 gas to enter (3) Co2
(4) Both 2 and 3
(4) 2 3
92. During C4 cycle, the compound transported from
92. C4 /;
bundle sheath cells to Mesophyll cells is a:
&
(1) Two carbon compound
(1)
(2) Three carbon compound
(2)
(3) Four carbon compound
(3)
(4) Five carbon compound
(4)
93. Primary electron acceptor of P700 is
93. P700 &
(1) Plastocyanin (2) Plastoquinone
(1) Plastocyanin (2) Plastoquinone
(3) Pheophytin (4) FRS
(3) Pheophytin (4) FRS
94. The immediate donar of hydrogen in dark reaction
of photosynthesis is : 94. hydrogen
&
(1) NADPH + H + (2) H2O
(1) NADPH + H + (2) H2O
(3) NADH + H+ (4) CO2
(3) NADH + H+ (4) CO2
95. Which of the following is formed during
photorespiration? 95.
(1) Sugar (1) Sugar
(2) NADPH (2) NADPH
(3) Phosphoglycolate (3) Phosphoglycolate
(4) ATP (4) ATP
96. Chlorophyll contains 96. &
(1) Fe (2) Mg (1) Fe (2) Mg
(3) Mn (4) K (3) Mn (4) K
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97. Chlorophyll-a is found in 97. -a &
(1) All O2 releasing photosynthetic forms (1) O2 :
(2) Only higher plants (2)
(3) Higher plants that photosynthesize
(3)
(4) All photosynthetic eukaryotes.
(4) eukaryotes
98. Select the incorrect statements
98. ; ,&
(1) C4 pathway for CO2 fixation was discovered
by Hatch and Slack. (1) CO2 C4 Hatch Slack [
(2) CO2 is essential for photo synthesis.
(3) Phloem is the principal tissue for translocation (2) CO2 ,
of solutes organic. (3) ; , Phloem [;
(4) High CO2 concentration causes stomata to
open.
(4) CO2 [
99. Identify the incorrect statement with respect to
99. Calvin cycle ;
calvin cycle.
(1) 18 molecules of ATP are synthesized during (1) CO2 ; 18 ATP
CO2 fixation.
(2) NADPH2 produced in light reaction is used to (2) ; NADPH2
reduce diphosphoglycerate. diphosphoglycerate
(3) The carboxylation of RuBP is catalyzed by (3) RuBP carboxylation RuBiSCO enzyme
RuBiSCO.
(4) The first stable intermediate compound formed
(4) ; phosphoglycerate.
is phosphoglycerate.
100. ]
100. Which of the following is true for photosynthesis?
(1) Reduction of CO2 and water (1) Reduction of CO2 and water

(2) Oxidation of CO2 and water (2) Oxidation of CO2 and water

(3) Reduction of CO2 and Oxidation of water (3) Reduction of CO2 and Oxidation of water

(4) Oxidation of CO2 and Reduction of water (4) Oxidation of CO2 and Reduction of water
101. ______ is a CAM plant. 101. ______ CAM plant
(1) Maize (2) Pea (1) (2)
(3) Onion (4) Pineapple (3) (4)
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102. Photolysis of each water molecule in light reaction 102. , &
will yield
(1) 1 2
(1) 1 electron and 2 proton
(2) 2 1
(2) 2 electron and 1 proton

(3) 2 electron and 2 proton (3) 2 2

(4) 4 electron and 4 proton (4) 4 4

103. Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure of 103. thyllakoid = A, B, C D

thyllakoid :

A B C D
A B C D
(1) PS-I PS-II Cytochrome ATP synthetase
(1) PS-I PS-II Cytochrome ATP synthetase
(2) PS-II PS-I ATP synthetase Cytochrome
(2) PS-II PS-I ATP synthetase Cytochrome
(3) PS-I Cytochorme PS-II ATP synthetase
(3) PS-I Cytochorme PS-II ATP synthetase
(4) PS-II Cytochrome PS-I ATP synthetase
(4) PS-II Cytochrome PS-I ATP synthetase

104. &
104. Some beneficial elements required by higher plants.
(1) Sodium, silicon, cobalt, selenium
(1) Sodium, silicon, cobalt, selenium

(2) Sodium, potassium, cobalt (2) Sodium, potassium, cobalt

(3) Sodium, silicon, chloride (3) Sodium, silicon, chloride

(4) Sodium, silicon, copper, iron (4) Sodium, silicon, copper, iron
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105. In the plant metabolism, phosphorus play a major 105. ; ] [; &
role to
(1)
(1) Generate metabolic energy
(2)
(2) Create aerobic condition
(3) CO2
(3) Evolve CO2 during respiration
(4) O2
(4) Evolve O2 during photosynthesis
106. ] }
106. Technique of growing plants in a nutrient solution,
&
in complete absence of soil is called as
(1) (2)
(1) Aeroponics (2) Alcohol culture
(3) (4)
(3) Hydroponics (4) Soil culture
107. Two sub-units of ribosome remain united at a 107.
critical ion level of &

(1) Magnesium (2) Calcium (1) Magnesium (2) Calcium

(3) Copper (4) Manganese (3) Copper (4) Manganese

108. The process of transfer of amino group from one 108.

amino acid to the keto group of a ketoacid is called &
as (1)
(1) Oxidative amination
(2)
(2) Reductive amination
(3)
(3) Transamination
(4)
(4) Deamination
109. (Micronutrients)
109. Micronutrients are those nutrients which are
(1)
(1) Required by cell in low amount and their (toxic)
moderate decrease cause toxicity
(2)
(2) Required by cell in small amount and their
(deficiency)
moderate decrease cause deficiency
(3)
(3) Required by cell in low amount and their
moderate increase cause toxicity.
<+ ] toxicity
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(4) Both (2) & (3)
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110. Highly selective and saturated transport not present 110. &
in
(1) ;
(1) Active transport
(2) Simple diffusion (2)

(3) Facilitated transport (3) /;

(4) Uphill transport (4)
111. Water potential concept is fundamental to
111. [; &
understand
(1) Solute movement (1) ;
(2) Solvent movement (2)
(3) Water movement (3)
(4) Solution movement
(4)
112. When water enters a plant cell due to diffusion
causing a pressure build up against the 112. }
(1) Vacuole (2) Cytoplasm &
(3) Cell wall (4) Nucleus (1) (2) ;
113. Terrestrial plants take up huge amount water daily (3) (4)
but most of it is lost to
113. ;
(1) Water through guttation
;; &
(2) Vacuole through osmosis
(3) Air through photosynthesis (1) : }
(4) Air through transpiration (2) : }
114. If some solute is dissolved in pure water than (3) : }
(1) Concentration of water increases and w
(4) : }
decreases.
114. ; ?
(2) Concentration of water decreases and w

increases. (1) <+ w

(3) Concentration of solute decreases and w (2) ? <+

w
increases.
(3) ; ? w <+
(4) Concentration of solute increases and w

decreases. (4) ; <+ w

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115. If a plasmolysed cell has OP = 15, TP = –5, its 115. OP = 15, TP = –5 DPD
DPD will be &
(1) +10 (2) –10 (1) +10 (2) –10
(3) +20 (4) –20 (3) +20 (4) –20
116. Multidirectional flow of a variety of organic and 116. ; ; &
inorganic solute occurs through
(1) + }
(1) Root phloem only
(2) }
(2) Phloem
(3) }
(3) Tracheids
(4) : }
(4) All xylem and phloem
117. Apoplastic movement not involve 117. &

(1) Intercellular space flow in plants (1) ;

(2) Wall's of cells (2) }

(3) Continuous except casparian strip (3)

(4) Crossing the cell membrane (4)

118. Small soft stemmed plant's stem horizontally near 118. { ]
the base with sharp blade when plenty of (; )
atmospheric moisture, early in morning you will
soon see.
(1)
(1) Water vapour from cutted part
(2) :
(2) Drops of solution ooze out
(3) :
(3) Drops of pure water ooze out
(4)
(4) Nothing will release
119. Usually the source is part of plants which 119. &

(1) Transport the food e.g. phloem. (1) | e.g.

(2) Synthesize the growth hormone e.g. root. (2) e.g.

(3) Transport the water e.g. xylem. (3) e.g.

(4) Synthesize the food e.g. leaf. (4) | e.g.

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120. Passive transport is not 120. ; &
(1) Simple diffusion (1)
(2) Facilitated diffusion (2) /;
(3) Active transport (3) ;
(4) Osmosis (4)
121. Excess water of plants removed through 121. ; &
(1) Guttation (2) Respiration (1) } (2) }
(3) Photosynthesis (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) } (4) (1) (2)
122. For same amount of CO2 fixed in photosynthesis 122. C3 CO2
in C3 plant, C4 plant loses water CO2 C4 [ &
(1) Half as much water as a C3 looses. (1) [ C3 [
(2) Equal as C3 looses. (2) C3 [
(3) Twice as much water as a C3 looses. (3) C3
(4) Four times less water than C3 looses. (4) C3
123. The enzyme converting sucrose into Glucose and 123. Sucrose Glucose fructose enzyme
fructose is &
(1) Hexokinase (2) Isomerase (1) Hexokinase (2) Isomerase
(3) Invertase (4) Enolase (3) Invertase (4) Enolase
124. The complete oxidation of pyruvate will yield 124. Pyruvate &
(1) 2 CO2 molecule (1) 2 CO2 molecule
(2) 3 CO2 molecules (2) 3 CO2 molecules
(3) 4 CO2 molecules (3) 4 CO2 molecules
(4) 6 CO2 molecules (4) 6 CO2 molecules
125. TCA cycle starts with 125. TCA &
(1) Condensation reaction (1) Condensation reaction
(2) Decondensation reaction (2) Decondensation reaction
(3) Substrate level phosphorylation (3) Substrate level phosphorylation
(4) Isomerization reaction (4) Isomerization reaction
Leader/ML/29-11-2020 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Page 29/40
126. In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded 126. fatty acid &
exclusively in the:
(1) Golgi body (2) Glyoxysome
(1) Golgi body (2) Glyoxysome
(3) Phagosome (4) Chloroplast
(3) Phagosome (4) Chloroplast
127. How many ATP equivalents are produced by the 127. succinate fumerate
oxidation of succinate to fumerate? ATP ;
(1) 1 ATP (2) 2 ATP (1) 1 ATP (2) 2 ATP
(3) 3 ATP (4) 4 ATP (3) 3 ATP (4) 4 ATP
128. The number of ATP molecules synthesised in the 128. ETC ATP [; &
ETC depends on
(1) ATP synthetase
(1) The nature of ATP synthetase
(2) Cytochrome complex
(2) The nature of Cytochrome complex
(3) The nature of electron Donar (3)
(4) The nature of terminal electron acceptor in (4)
mitochondria 129. = [ &
129. When stomata open only in night, they are called
(1)
(1) Photoactive stomata
(2)
(2) Scotoactive stomata
(3) Lenticels (3)
(4) Hydothodes (4)
130. A constituent of both nitrogenase as well as nitrate 130. &
reductase is :- (1) Molybdenum (2)
(1) Molybdenum (2) Copper
(3) (4)
(3) Zinc (4) Manganese
131. ; :-
131. Cellular respiration is the mechanism of :-
(1)
(1) Converting the energy of oxidation reduction
, :
into chemical energy and store it as starch
(2) Breakdown ofATP to release energy for various (2) ,
processes of the organisms ATP
(3) Biosynthesis of different types of molecules like (3) ] ,
carbohydrates, fats and proteins from light energy }
(4) Breakdown of food materials within the cell (4) [| ,
and trapping the released energy for synthesis of
ATP ,
ATP
Page 30/40 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target : Pre-Medical 2021/29-11-2020
132. For the production of one sucrose from Calvin 132. , ,]
cycle how manyATP are required for the continuity ( ,, )
of cycle after the formation of triose phosphate , ATP
(PGAL) ?
(1) One ATP (2) Eighteen ATP
(1) ATP (2) ATP
(3) Six ATP (4) Twelve ATP
(3) % ATP (4) ATP
133. Which of the following statements is correct
regarding fermentation ? 133.
(1) Pyruvic acid dehydrogenase and alcohol (1) ;:
decarboxylase enzymes catalyse the alcoholic , , }
fermentation
(2) Release of CO2 is not the essential feature of (2) CO2
fermentation
(3)
(3) In fermentation seventy percent of the energy
, : ;
in glucose is released and it is trapped as ATP.
(4) Presence of oxygen (O2) is essential for (4) , (O2)
fermentation.
134. Which one of the following options gives the 134. ,
correct match of processes (A, B, C) with the (A, B, C) }
products they give out ?
A B C A B C
Z-scheme of Photorespiratio Biosyntheti C4
light n c phase of
Z-
reaction C4 plants
(1) , ATP ATP ATP,
(1) Glucose, ATP ATP and ATP, oxygen
and oxygen NADPH and sucrose NADPH
(2) ATP, Phosphoglycerate Glucose (2) ATP, NADPH
NADPH and
(3) Only ATP Only NADPH Only oxygen (3) ATP
(4) Water, Phosphoglycerate Glucose, (4) , NADPH ] ,
NADPH and and ATP fructose and CO2 ATP
CO2 sucrose
135. ]
135. During complete oxidation of one glucose, by
oxidative phosphorylation, the net gain of ATP is:- } ] ATP :-

(1) 40 (2) 32 (3) 36 (4) 38 (1) 40 (2) 32 (3) 36 (4) 38

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136. How many organs in the list given below are 136.
included in external genitalia of human ?
female ?
] ] ]
Mons pubis, labia majora, ] .
labia minora, hymen, clitoris. (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 137. :-
137. Human females are :- (1)
(1) Spontaneous ovulators
(2)
(2) Induced ovulators
(3)
(3) Reflex ovulators
(4) (2) (3)
(4) Both (2) & (3)
138. ; 200
138. How many ova and sperms would be produced
100
from each 200 secondary oocytes and 100
secondary spermatocytes during gametogenesis in
Human? (1) 100 , 100
(1) 100 ova, 100 sperms (2) 200 , 200
(2) 200 ova, 200 sperms (3) 50 , 100
(3) 50 ova, 100 sperms (4) 200 , 400
(4) 200 ova, 400 sperms
139. (puberty) ;] ;
139. At the time of puberty how many primary follicle
are left in each ovary ?
(1) 60,000 - 80,000
(1) 60,000 - 80,000
(2) 40,000 - 60,000
(2) 40,000 - 60,000
(3) 1,20,000 - 1,60,000
(3) 1,20,000 - 1,60,000
(4) 80,000 - 1,20,000
(4) 80,000 - 1,20,000
140. &
140. Sertoli cells is present in
(1)
(1) Seminiferous tubule
(2)
(2) Egg
(3) Sperm (3)

(4) (2) and (3) both (4) (2) (3)

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141. Which of the following is mismatch homologus 141. (homologus) ,
organ?

(1) Scrotum - labia majora (1) & (labia majora)

(2) Penis - clitoris
(2) -
(3) Prostate - Prostatic utricle
(3) - ;
(4) Cowper gland - Bartholin gland
(4) -
142. Find the odd one with respect to number of
chromosomes 142. = [; &
(1) Zygote, spermatogonia, secondary (1) ] ]
spermatocyte
(2) ]? ; ]
(2) Ovum, polarbody, secondary oocyte.
(3) ] ]
(3) Sperm, spermatid, secondary oocyte

(4) spermatogonia, oogonia, primary oocyte. (4) ] ]

143. From which of the following structure urethra 143. ;

passes out in male
(1)
(1) Corpora cavernosa
(2)
(2) Corpora spongiosum
(3)
(3) Cavern
(4) (1) (2)
(4) (1) and (2) both

144. When environmental temperature is low, which of 144. ,]

the following structure elevate the testes towards (abdomen)
abdomen :-
(1)
(1) Dartos muscles
(2)
(2) Cremaster muscles
(3)
(3) Detrussor muscles
(4)
(4) Gubernaculum
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145. Four structure are labelled as A, B, C and D in 145. = A, B, C D
given diagram.

Identify the correct option :- &

Structure Character
=
(1) A Endometrium Middle layer of uterus
(1) A ; % ;
Increase thickness during
(2) B Myometrium
mentrual blood flow
(2) B ;
made up of glandular
(3) C Perimetrium
cells (3) C ;
finger like projections
;
(4) D Fimbriae which help to collect
ovum after ovulation. (4) D

146. Which of the following is widest part of fallopian

tube : 146.
(1) Ampulla (2) abdominal - ostium &
(3) Isthmus (4) Body (1) (2) &
(3) (4)

147.
147.

See the above diagram carefully and find out the

incorrect match.
(1) G - Fimbriae - Collection of ovum = /; , < <;&
(2) E - Myometrium - Thick layer of smooth (1) G - Fimbriae -
muscles (2) E - Myometrium -
(3) F - Isthmus - Part of uterus (3) F - Isthmus - ;
(4) D - Endometrium - Glandular layer (4) D - Endometrium -
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148. Testosterone is secreted by the 148.
(1) Leydig's cells (2) Sertoli cells (1) (2)
(3) Pituitary gland (4) Testis (3) (4)
149. 10 oogonia yield 10 primary oocytes, then how 149. 10 10 ]
many ova are produced on completion of
oogenesis
(1) 5 (2) 10
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 20 (4) 40
(3) 20 (4) 40
150.
150. Corpus luteum develops from
(1) } (2)
(1) Oocyte (2) Nephrostome
(3) Graafian follicle (4) Antrum (3) (4)

151. In mammals, maturation of sperm take place at a 151.

temperature (1)
(1) Equal to that of body (2)
(2) Higher than that of body
(3)
(3) Lower than that of body
(4)
(4) At any temperature
152.
152. Lutein cells are found in
(1) ,
(1) Tunica albugenia
(2) ,
(2) Corpus albicans
(3) &
(3) Corpus luteum
(4)
(4) All
153.
153. Which is correct?
(1) Menstrual cycle is present in all mammals. (1)

(2) Menstrual cycle is present in all primates. (2)

(3) Estrous cycle occurs in all mammals. (3)

(4) Estrous cycle is present in all primate. (4)

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154. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages 154.
leading to the formation of sperms in a mature
human testis is
(1) & & &
(1) Spermatogonia - spermatid - spermatocyte -
sperms (2) & & &
(2) Spermatocyte - spermatogonia - spermatid - (3) & & &
sperms (4) & & &
(3) Spermatogonia - spermatocyte - spermatid - 155. }
sperms
(4) Spermatid - spermatocyte - spermatogonia -
(1) (2)
sperms
155. Hysteresctomy is surgical removal of (3) (4) ;
(1) Prostate gland (2) Vas-deferense 156. ,. ,
(3) Mammary glands (4) Uterus
156. Which hormones is essential for maintenance of (1) FSH (2) LH
the endometrium? (3) Progesterone (4) Testosterone
(1) FSH (2) LH 157. &
(3) Progesterone (4) Testosterone
(1) (foetus) (placenta)
157. The signals for parturition originate from
(2)
(1) Fully developed foetus and placenta
(3) ;
(2) Vagina
(3) Uterus (4) (1) (2)
(4) Both (1) and (2) 158.
158. At ovulation, the mammalian egg is covered by a &
membrane called (1) (2)
(1) Chorion (2) Zona pellucida (3) (4) (2) (3)
(3) Corona radiata (4) Both (2) and (3)
159. %
159. Which of the following under goes cyclical changes ;
during menstrual cycle and exhibits strong
:-
contraction during parturition respectively:-
(1) Endometrium, Myometrium
(1) Endometrium, Myometrium
(2) Perimetrium, Myometrium (2) Perimetrium, Myometrium

(3) Myometrium, Endometrium (3) Myometrium, Endometrium

(4) Endometrium, Endometrium (4) Endometrium, Endometrium
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160. Which of the following is correct ? 160.

One-celled 2-celled 8-16 celled 32-celled }& 8-16 32 -

(1) Egg Zygote Morula Blasocyst ; ; ; ;
(2) Zygote — Morula Blastocyst (1) ;
(3) Gastrula Zygote Morula Blastocyst
(2) —
(4) Zygote Morula Blastula Gastrula
(3)
161. See the diagram carefully and select correct option. (4)

f 161. = /;
a
f
b a
c
b
d
c
d

Structure Function
(1) a - Acrosome Fertilization
(2) b - Middle piece Cleavage
(3) c - Mitochondria Produce energy of (1) a - Acrosome
sperm motility (2) b - Middle piece
(4) d - Nucleus Energy production (3) c - Mitochondria ,

162. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in

(4) d - Nucleus
(1) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor in
162.
calcium.
(1) ,
(2) Fructose and calcium but has no enzyme.
(2) ,
(3) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.
(3) ] , ;
(4) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no
calcium. (4) ,

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163. Cryptorchidism is a condition in which 163.
(1) Testis does not descend into scrotal sac (1) ]
(2) Sperm is not found (2)
(3) Male hormones are not reactive (3)
(4) Ovaries are removed (4) ; ,
164. In males testes are contained in the scrotal sacs
164. ] ,
because
(1) ,
(1) Other organs do not make space for the testes
in the abdominal cavity.
(2) Testes in the abdomen will hamper maturation (2)
of sperms.

(3) It provides temperature that is slightly lower (3)

than body temperature required for formation of ,
functional sperms.
(4) ,
(4) It facilitates ejaculation.
165. &
165. Head of sperm consists of
(1) (2)
(1) Nucleus (2) Acrosome
(3) (4)
(3) Mitochondria (4) Acrosome & nucleus
166. /; [ ?
166. The cytoplasm surrounding the mitochondria found
;
in the middle piece of the sperm is called
(1) (2)
(1) Acrosome (2) Microsome
(3) Manchette (4) Centrosome (3) (4)

167. Which type of cell division occurs in the gonads? 167.

(1) Mitosis only (1)

(2) Meiosis only (2)

(3) Both mitosis and meiosis (3)

(4) Amitosis and meiosis (4)

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168. In males, the essential hormones for secondary 168.
sexual characteristics are &
(1) Progesterone (2) Testosterone (1) (2)
(3) Relaxin (4) Estrogen (3) (4)
169. The duct which carries sperms from testis to 169.
epididymis is &
(1) Vasa efferentia (2) Vasa differentia (1) (2)
(3) Ureter (4) Seminiferous tubules (3) (4)
170. Sugar fructose is present in the secretion of 170.
(1) Bartholin's gland (2) Cowper's gland (1) (2)
(3) Perineal glands (4) Seminal vasicle (3) (4) ;
171. Cowper's glands are found in 171.
(1) Female amphibians (1) ,
(2) Male mammals (2)
(3) Female mammals (3)
(4) Male amphibians (4) ,
172. Which gland in mammals secretes alkaline juice 172. , { ;
for lubrication? ,
(1) Pineal body (2) Prostate gland (1) ; (2)
(3) Cowper's gland (4) Testis (3) (4)
173. Semen has sperms and secretions of 173. , ;
(1) Follicles, ureters and prostate gland (1) ]
(2) Prostate, Cowper's and Bartholin's gland (2) ]
(3) Seminal vesicle, prostate and Cowper's glands (3) ;]
(4) Seminal vesicle, ureters and prostate gland (4) ;]
174. The head of epididymis is called 174.
(1) Caput epididymis (2) Cauda epididymis (1) , (2) ,
(3) Gubernaculum (4) Vas deferens (3) (4)
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175. If the vasa differentia of a man are surgically cut or 175. , } ;
blocked ,
(1) Sperms in the semen become nonmotile. (1)
(2) Spermatogenesis will not take place. (2)
(3) Testosterone will disappear from blood. (3)
(4) Semen will be without sperms. (4)
176. Testosterone is secreted by 176. }
(1) Mast cells (1) }
(2) Sertoli cells (2) }
(3) Kupffer cells
(3) }
(4) Leydig cells
(4) }
177. The nutritive cells found in seminiferous tubules are
177. &
(1) Sertoli cells
(1)
(2) Leydig cells
(2)
(3) Chromaffin cells
(3)
(4) Spermatogonial cells
(4)
178. Which one is unpaired gland in male reproductive
system? 178. = &
(1) Seminal vesicle (2) Cowper's gland (1) ; (2)

(3) Prostate gland (4) Lacrimal gland (3) (4)

179. Freshly released human egg has 179. ; &

(1) Two Y-chromosome (1) Y- =
(2) One X-chromosome (2) X- =
(3) Two X-chromosomes (3) X- =
(4) One X-chromosome and one Y-chromosome (4) X- = , Y- =
180. External genitalia in male is 180. ;&
(1) Penis (2) Prostate (1) (2)
(3) Seminal vesicle (4) All of the above (3) ; (4)
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