Pe MCQ Updated PDF

POWER ENGINEERING MCQ
MODULE 01 - Combustion of Reactive Mixtures

Q1- In order to burn 1Kg of 𝑪𝑯𝟒 completely the minimum number of kilogram of oxygen
needed is (take atomic weight H, C & O as 1,12,& 16 respectively)
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Q2 - In a pulverized fuel-fired large power boiler, then heat transfer from the burning fuel
to the walls of the furnace is
a) By conduction only
b) By convection only
c) By conduction and convection
d) Predominately by radiation
Q3- Which one of the following gaseous fuels does not have different higher and lower
calorific values?
a) Methane
b) Ethane
c) Carbon Monoxide
d) Hydrogen
Q4- In steam generators a stoker acts as one of the following devices. what is this device?
a) Air preheating devices
b) Steam superheating devices
c) Air superheating device
d) Fuel feeding device
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Q5- For maximum discharge the draught in mm of 𝑯𝟐 𝑶 is given by (H= Height of chimney
,T = Chimney gas temp, 𝑻𝟏 = atmosphere temp)
a) h=176.5 H/T
b) h= 176.5 H/𝑻𝟏
c) h = 176.5 T/H
d) h= 176.5 𝑻𝟏 /𝒉
Q6 - A chimney of height 40m has mean flue gas temp of 327℃. The temp of outside air is
30℃. The air fuel ratio is 14.3. Draught produced in mm of water column is
a) 2026 mm 𝑯𝟐 𝑶
b) 21.42 mm 𝑯𝟐 O
c) 23.26mm 𝑯𝟐 O
d) 24.61mm 𝑯𝟐 𝑶
𝟏 𝒎+𝟏 𝟏
Solution : h = 353H [𝑻 − ( )×𝑻 ]
𝟏 𝒎 𝟐
Q7 - The higher calorific value of fuel occurs when water vapour

a) present in products of combustion is condensed to the initial temperature of the fuel
b) present in products of combustion is not condensed to the initial temperature of the
fuel
c) it is not formed during combustion of a fuel
d) it is formed during combustion of a fuel
Q8 - Consider the following statements:

The difference between higher and lower heating values of the fuels is due to
1. Heat carried by steam from the moisture content of fuel
2. Sensible heat carried away by the fuel gases
3. Heat carried away by steam from the combustion of hydrogen in the fuel
4. Heat lost by radiation
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) 2,3&4
b) 1&2
c) 3 only
d) 1,2,3&4
Q9 - The expression for Stoichiometric air required for combustion of coal having C, H, O
& S is
𝑶
a) 4.32 (2.67 C + H - 𝟖
+S)
𝑶
b) 4.32 (2.67 C + 8H + S - 𝟖 )
𝑶
c) 2.67 C +8 (H + )+ S
𝟖
𝑶
d) 2.67 C + 8 (H - ) +S
𝟖
Q10 - Which is not a manufactured solid fuel

a) Bagasse
b) Briquettes
c) Coal
d) Coke
Q11 - __________is defined as ratio of volume of the gas to the total volume of mixture of
gasses
a) Excess Air
b) Mole fraction
c) Mass fraction
d) Actual air fuel ratio
Q12 - Mixture of theoretical air and fuel for complete combustion of fuel is called
a) Stoichiometric mixture
b) Stoichiometric air
c) Stoichiometric Air fuel ratio
d) Excess air
Q13 - A _________mixture is one which has an excess of air
a) Rich
b) Lean
c) Liquid
d) Mass
Q14 - A _____ mixture is one which has a deficiency of air
a) Rich
b) Lean
c) Liquid
d) Mass
Q15 - _______analysis shows the percentage mass of fixed carbon, moisture, volatile matter,
ash etc.
a) Ultimate
b) Oxidations
c) Proximate
d) Combustion
Q16 - If heat is released during the combustion process it is called an_______reaction
a) Endothermic
b) Product
c) Reactants
d) Exothermic
Q17 - _______fuel is defined as the difference between the enthalpy of the products and
enthalpy of reactants when complete combustion occurs at given temperature and pressure
a) Enthalpy of reaction
b) Enthalpy of combustion
c) Enthalpy of formation
d) Enthalpy of oxidation
Q18 - _____ is defined as the difference between the enthalpy of products at a specifes state
and the enthalpy of the reactants at same state for a complete reaction
a) Enthalpy of reaction
b) Enthalpy of combustion
c) Enthalpy of formation
d) Enthalpy of oxidation
Q19 - Changes in enthalpy in an exothermic reaction is
a) positive
b) negative
c) constant
d) neutral
Q20 - The change in the energy between a chemical reaction and the surroundings at
constant temperature is called
a) enthalpy change
b) enthalpy
c) enthalpy profile
d) dynamic enthalpy
Q21 - When incomplete combustion loss is high, the flue gas analysis shows large amount of
a) CO2
b) CO
c) O2
d) C
Q22 - During combustion of gaseous fuels, deficiency of air
a) lengthens the flame.
b) tends to shorten the flame.
c) does not affect the flame length.
d) increases the flame temperature
Q23 - Higher efficiency in the combustion of solid fuel can not be achieved by
a) proper fuel preparation.
b) keeping the flue gas exhaust temperature very high.
c) adopting efficient-fuel firing technique & equipment.
d) supplying correct quantity of combustion air.
Q24 - The internal energy of the combustion products is __________ compared to that of
reactants.
a) more
b) less
c) equal
d) more or less
Q25 - Presence of __________ in a dry gaseous fuel does not contribute to its calorific value.
a) sulphur
b) oxygen
c) hydrogen
d) carbon
Q26 - Which of the following constituents of coal is the most important in the production of
coke?
a) Moisture
b) Ash
c) Volatiles
d) Carbon
Q27 - Improper storage condition results in the weathering of coal and spontaneous
combustion, which increases its
a) caking index.
b) yield of carbonised products.
c) friability & oxygen content.
d) calorific value.
Q28 - Combustion reaction of fuels is a/an __________ reaction.
a) auto catalytic
b) exothermic
c) endothermic
d) none of these
Q29 - Junker’s calorimeter is used to determine the calorific value of
a) pulverised coal
b) gaseous fuels
c) fuel oil
d) none of these
Q30 - Bituminous coal
a) ignites less easily than anthracite.
b) is generally coking.
c) burns with smoky yellow flame.
d) both (b) and (c).
Q31 - Natural draught produced by a chimney depends upon the
a) density of the chimney gases.
b) height of the chimney.
c) both (a) and (b).
d) neither (a) nor (b).
Q32 - Wobbe index’ is a characteristic of
a) solid fuels
b) gaseous fuels
c) liquid fuels
d) fat coals
Q33 - Gray King Assay and Swelling Index of a coal is a measure of its
a) swelling characteristics.
b) abradability.
c) agglutinating properties.
d) resistance to impact breakage.
Q34 - Flue gas discharge velocity through chimney of a big thermal power plant may be
around __________ m/sec.
a) 0.5
b) 10
c) 50
d) 500
Q35 - Which of the following gaseous fuels has the lowest calorific value ?
a) Gobar gas
b) Refinery gas
c) Converter gas
d) Blast furnace gas
MODULE 02 - Steam Generators / Steam turbine / Reaction turbine
Steam Generators
Q1 - The correct gas flow path in a typical large modern natural circulation boiler is
a) Combustion chamber, reheater, superheater, economizer, air preheater, I.D. fan,
electrostatic precipitator , stack
b) Combustion Chamber, superheater, reheater , economizer, air preheater,
electrostatic precipitator, I.D. fan, stack
c) Combustion chamber, Reheater, superheater, air preheater, economizer, electrostatic
precipitator, I.D. fan, Stack,
d) Combustion chamber, superheater, reheater , economizer, air preheater, I.D.fan,
electrostatic precipitator, stack
Q2 - Consider the following statements

For a fluidized bed boiler
1. There is less formation of 𝑵𝑶𝒙
2. It can burn inferior grades of coal
3. Furnace is compact
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) 1&2
b) 2&3
c) 1&3
d) none of the above
Q3 - Which one of the following safety devices is used to protect the boiler when the water
level falls below a minimum level?
a) Water level indicator
b) Fusible plug
c) Blow off cock
d) Safety valve
Q4- Which of the following form part (s) of boiler mounting?

1. Economiser
2. feed check valve
3. steam trap
4. superheater
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 2 alone
b) 1&3
c) 2,3&4
d) 1,2,3&4
Q5 - Consider the following components

1. Radiation evaporator
2. Economiser
3. radiation superheater
4. convection superheater
In case of Benson boiler, the correct sequence of the entry of water through these components
is
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,4,3
c) 2,1,3,4
d) 2,1,4,3
Q6- At critical point the enthalpy of vaporization is

a) dependent on temperature only
b) maximum
c) minimum
d) zero
Q7 - The excess air required for combustion of pulverized coal is of the order of
a) 100 - 150%
b) 30-60%
c) 15-40%
d) 5-10%
Q8 - Match List-I with List - II

List - I
A. Soot blower
B. Electrostatic precipitator
C. Blow down
D. Zeolite
List - II
1. Removal of solid from boiler drums
2. To clean the tube surfaces of fly ash
3. Cleaning of flue gases
4. Air cleaning
5. Water purification
Select the correct codes given below
Codes :
A B C D
a) 2 4 3 5
b) 1 3 2 5
c) 3 2 1 4
d) 2 3 1 5
Q9 - _____________is a bent tube water tube boiler

a) Benson
b) Sterling
c) Cochran
d) Lamont
Q10 - Which of the following statements are true in the context of Lancashire boiler?
1. It is fire tube boiler
2. It employs two flue tubes and three passes
3. It is a water tube boiler
4. It makes use of external pump for circulation
Select the correct one
a) 1,2
b) 2,3
c) 1,4
d) 3,4
Q11 - Which boiler does not have a steam separating drum?

a) Lancashire
b) Lamont
c) Benson
d) Cornish
Q12 - The major short coming of fire tube boiler is

a) size and pressure limitation inherent in design
b) high cost
c) requirement of high draught
d) need of highly skilled labour for operation
Q13 - The mass flow rate of steam released from the drum is 2Kg/s and the mass flow rate
of saturated water at riser exit is 18kg/s the circulation ratio is
a) 9
b) 10
c) 8
d) 6
Q14 - Maximum amount of energy lost in boiler due to

a) incomplete combustion
b) flue gases
c) unburnt carbon in ash
d) ash content
Q15 - What is the disadvantage of natural draught?

a) it has less life
b) it has more maintenance cost of cleaning and more capital cost to build the chimney
c) the available draught decreases with increasing outside air temperature
d) all of the above
Q16 - The formation of scale boiler leads to

a) decrease in efficiency of boiler
b) increase in efficiency of boiler
c) increase in heat transfer
d) decrease in maintenance of boiler
Q17 - What is the pH value of water permissible for boiler?

a) 0
b) 7
c) slightly less than 7
d) slightly more than 7
Q18 - The boiler in which the tubes are surrounded by hot gases is called as
a) fire tube boiler
b) water tube boiler
c) both a. and b.
Q19 - What is the purpose of using economizer in the boiler?

a) to heat feedwater by utilizing heat from exhaust gaseS
b) to heat feedwater by utilizing some heat from superheated steam
c) to superheat steam
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Q20 - The purpose of superheater in a boiler is
a) to increase the temperature of saturated steam with increase in its pressure
b) to increase the temperature of saturated steam without increase in its pressure
c) to increase the temperature of feedwater for better efficiency
Q21 - Which device used to separate condensate from the steam without letting steam
escape?
a) condenser
b) steam valve
c) steam trap
Q22 - What is the critical pressure of steam?

a) 221.2 bar
b) 220 bar
c) 120 bar
d) 300 bar
Q23 - How can we classify steam generators on the basis of application?

a) utility steam generators
b) industrial steam generator
c) marine steam generator
d) all of the mentioned
Q24 - What is the length of shell of a Locomotive boiler?

a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 3m
d) 2m
Q25 - An air preheater is installed _____________

a) between the economiser and chimney
b) before the superheater
c) before the economizer
d) none of the mentioned
Q26 - The natural draught is produced by _________

a) team jet
b) chimney
c) centrifugal fan
Q27 - The subcritical steam generators operate between a pressure ranges of ___________
a) 120-160 bar
b) 100-110 bar
c) 130-180 bar
d) 140- 200 bar
Q28 - Marine steam generators are ___________ fired.

a) water
b) oil
c) phenol
Q29- In a fire-tube boiler, the water is in ___________

a) tube
b) shell
c) drum
Q30 - In a water-tube boiler, water flows through?

a) drum
b) shell
c) tube
Q31 - Industrial steam generators operate in a pressure range of ___________

a) 5-105 bar
b) 6-106 bar
c) < 5 bar
d) > 105 bar
Q32 - Fire-tube boilers are used in?

a) industrial steam generators
b) utility steam generators
c) marine steam generators
Q33 - Which of the following is not an advantage of a fire-tube boiler?

a) low first cost
b) reliability in operation
c) more draught required
d) quick response to load changes
Q34 - Which of these is an externally fired boiler?

a) Package boiler
b) Scotch-marine boiler
c) Lancashire boiler
d) None of the mentioned
Q35 - What is the function of the fusible plug installed in a furnace?

a) to detect excess current
b) to detect excess heat
c) to detect water level in the tube
d) to detect water level in the shell
Q36- Which of the following gaseous fuels has the lowest calorific value?
a) Refinery Gas
b) Gobar Gas
c) Converter GaS
d) Blast Furnace Gas
Q37 - Flue gas discharge velocity through chimney of a big thermal power plant may be
around __________ m/sec.
a) 500
b) 0.5
c) 10
d) 50
Q38 - The diameter of flue tube in a Cornish boiler is __________ that of the shell.
a) 3/5
b) 2/5
c) 1/3
d) 1/4
Q39 - Willian’s line for the steam engine is a straight line relationship between the steam
consumption per hour and ___________
a) brake power
b) indicated power
c) pressure of steam
d) efficiency
Q40 - The shell diameter of a Locomotive boiler is?

a) 1.5m
b) 1m
c) 2m
d) 2.5m
Q41 - The number of fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are ___________

a) 75
b) 165
c) 225
d) 175
Q42 - The chimney draught varies with?

a) climatic conditions
b) temperature of furnace gases
c) height of chimney
Q43 - Lancashire boiler has _____ internal flue tubes.

a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
Q44 - Locomotive boiler is a ___________

a) single tube, vertical, externally fired & stationary boiler
b) single tube, horizontal, internally fired& stationary boiler
c) multitubular, horizontal, externally fired & stationary boiler
d) multitubular, horizontal, internally fired & mobile boiler
Q45 - Cut-off ratio is the ratio of?

a) cut-off volume to clearance volume
b) clearance volume to cut-off volume
c) volume at cut-off to swept volume
d) swept volume to volume at cut-off
Q46 - When steam after doing work in the cylinder passes into a condenser, the engine is said
to be a ___________
a) slow speed engine
b) vertical steam engine
c) condensing steam engine
d) no-condensing steam engine
Q47 - The performance of a boiler is measured by the ___________
a) dry flue gases
b) steam formation
c) moisture in fuel
d) unburnt carbon
Steam/Reaction Turbines
Q1 - Correct order of the maximum efficiency of turbine will be

a) De Laval < Curtis < Rateau < Parson
b) Curtis < Rateau < De Laval < Parson
c) Parson < Rateau > De Laval < Curtis
d) Depends on velocity values
Q2 - A single impulse turbine with a diameter of 120cm runs at 3000rpm. If blade speed
ration is 0.42, then the inlet velocity of steam will be
a) 79m/s
b) 188m/s
c) 450m/s
d) 900m/s
𝝅𝑫𝑵 𝝅×𝟏.𝟐×𝟑𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝟓𝒎
Solution : U = = = 𝟏𝟖𝟖.
𝟔𝟎 𝟔𝟎 𝒔
𝑼
since, 𝑽 = 𝟎. 𝟒𝟐
𝟏
𝑼
𝑽𝟏 = 𝟎.𝟒𝟐 = 𝟒𝟒𝟖. 𝟕𝟗𝒎/𝒔
Q3 - In a Parson’s reaction stage, blade velocity is 320m/s at the mean radius and the rotor
blade exit angle is 30°. For a minimum kinectic energy of steam leaving the stage , the steam
velocity at exits of stator will be
𝟔𝟒𝟎
a) m/s
√𝟑
b) 𝟔𝟒𝟎𝒎/𝒔
𝟑𝟐𝟎
c) m/s
√𝟑
d) 𝟏𝟔𝟎√𝟑 m/s
𝑼
Solution : P = 𝑽 = 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜶
𝟏
𝑼 𝟑𝟐𝟎 𝟔𝟒𝟎
𝑽𝟏 = 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜶 = 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟑𝟎 = 𝒎/𝒔
√𝟑
Q4 - Which one of the following relationship between angles of fixed blades and moving
blades corresponds to that of Parson’s turbine
a) 𝜶𝟏 = 𝜶𝟐
b) 𝜶𝟏 = 𝜷𝟐
c) 𝜶𝟐 = 𝜷𝟐
d) 𝜷𝟏 = 𝜷𝟐
Q5 - Assertion ( A ) : Modern turbines have velocity compounding at initial stages and
pressure compounding in subsequent stages
Reason (R) : Excessive tip leakage occurs in the high pressure region of reaction blading
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Q6 - Considering the varation of static pressure and absolute velocity in an impulse turbine
across one row of moving blades
a) both pressure and velocity decrease
b) pressure decreases but velocity increases
c) pressure remains constant, while velocity increases
d) pressure remains constant, while velocity decreases
Q7 - Which of the following statement is correct with respect to regenerative feed heating in
a steam cycle?
1. It increase cycle efficiency
2. It increases specific output
3. It reduces the condenser load
4. It improves the steam quality at the end of expansion
a) 1&3 only
b) 2&4 only
c) 2&3 only
d) 1,2,3,&4
Q8 - Running speeds of steam turine can be brought down to practical limits by which of
the following method (s) /
1. By using heavy flywheel
2. By using a quick response governor
3. By compounding
4. By reducing fuel feed to the furnace
Q9 - The optimum velocity of steam (in m/s) for a single stage impulse turbine with a rotor
diameter 5m and a speed of 4000rpm when the nozzle angle is 30°
a) 2420
b) 2100
c) 1050
d) 1210
𝝅𝑫𝑵 𝝅×𝟓×𝟒𝟎𝟎𝟎
Solution : Blade speed U = = = 𝟏𝟎𝟒𝟕. 𝟐𝒎/𝒔
𝟔𝟎 𝟔𝟎
𝑽𝒄𝒐𝒔 𝜶
under optimum condition, U = … … … (𝜶 = 𝒏𝒐𝒛𝒛𝒍𝒆 𝒂𝒏𝒈𝒍𝒆 = 𝟑𝟎°)
𝟐
𝟏𝟎𝟒𝟕.𝟐×𝟐
V= = 𝟐𝟒𝟏𝟖. 𝟒𝒎/𝒔 ≈ 𝟐𝟒𝟐𝟎𝒎/𝒔
𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟑𝟎°
Q10 - Curtis turbine is a

a) Mixed flow turbine
b) Velocity compound impulse tuebine
c) pressure compound impulse turbine
d) Axial flow turbine
Q11 - A steam turbine receives steam steadily at 10bar with an enthalphy 5000kJ/kg and a
velocity of 500m/s and discharges at 1bar with an enthalphy of 3000kJ/kg and velocity
50mm/s. If the net work output is 2000kJ/kg the heat transfer from the turbine casing to the
surrounding is equal to
a) 0
b) 201kJ/kg
c) 124kJ/kg
d) 40kJ/kg
Solution : Stage 1 = inlet of turbine
Stage 2 = exit of temperature
Using steady flow energy equation
𝑽𝟐 𝟏 𝑽𝟐 𝟐
𝒉𝟏 + + 𝒈𝒛𝟏 + 𝒒 = 𝒉𝟐 + + 𝒈𝒛𝟐 + 𝒘𝒄
𝟐 𝟐
neglect potential energy change
𝑽𝟐 𝟏 + 𝑽 𝟐 𝟐
⟹ (𝒉𝟏 − 𝒉𝟐 ) + ( ) − 𝒘𝒄 = −𝒒
𝟐
𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟐 −𝟓𝟎𝟐
⟹ −𝒒 = [(𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟎 − 𝟑𝟎𝟎𝟎) + − 𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟎]
𝟐
- q = 123.75kJ/kg
q = -124kJ/kg
Q12 - Consider the following characteristics

1. High steam and blade velocities
2. Low steam and blade velocities
3. Low speed of rotation
4. High carry over loss
Which of these characteristics are possessed by a simple impulse turbine?
a) 1&2
b) 2&3
c) 1&4
d) 3&4
Q13 - The compounding of stream turbine is done to

a) reduce turbine speed
b) improve efficiency
c) increase blade speed ratio
d) reduce axial thrust
Q14 - In reaction turbine with reduction of inlet pressure

a) the blade heights increase as the specific volume of steam decrease
b) the blade height increase as the specific volume of steam increases
c) the blade heights decrease as the specific volume of steam increase
d) the blade heights decrease as the specific volume of steam decrease
Q15 - The ratio of actual work done by the blade in a stage to the total isentropic enthalpy
drop in the stage is called
a) nozzle efficiency
b) gross stage efficiency
c) reheat factor
d) blade efficicency
Q16 - Bleeding in turbine means

a) leakage of steam
b) steam doing no useful work
c) extracted steam for preheating feed water
d) exhausted steam in condenser
Q17 - In an impulse turbine the energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam equal to
a) work done by steam
b) sum of KE & PE
c) Reaction energy of steam
d) kinetic energy of jet at entrance per kg of steam
Q18 - In flow through steam nozzle the actual discharge will be greater then the theoretical
value when
a) steam at inlet is superheated
b) steam at inlet is saturated
c) steam gets supersaturated
d) steam at inlet is wet
Q19 - Axial shift in steam turbine occurs due to

a) thermal expansion of turbine casing
b) wearing away of thrust bearing or pad
c) unequal expansion of rotor and casing
d) no axial shift is possible since it is a rotating machine
Q20 - The velocity of steam in impulse turbine as it flows through the blades
a) increases gradually
b) increases rapidly
c) drops gradually
d) remains constant
Q21 - The maximum blade efficiency of single stage impulse turbine in terms of nozzle angle
𝜶 under ideal condition proportional to
a) cos𝜶
b) sin 𝜶
c) si𝒏𝟐 𝜶
d) co𝒔𝟐 𝜶
Q22 - Steam turbine is classified on basis of __________

a) type of blades
b) exhausting condition
c) type of Steam flow
Q23 - Impulse blades are in the shape of __________

a) Rain drop
b) Circular
c) Half moon
Q24 - In reaction turbine

a) Kinetic energy is appreiciable as fluid
b) the vans are partly filled
c) total energy of fluid is converted to kinetic in runner
d) it is not exposed to atmosphere
Q25 - The term bleeding in a steam turbine refer to

a) removal of waste in low pressure stage of turbine
b) leakage of steam
c) steam extracted for preheating feed water
d) steam doing no useful work
Q26 -The degree of reaction turbine of a steam turbine is ratio between the enthalpy drop in
a) in nozzle & that in the stage
b) moving blade & that in the stage
c) moving blade & that in the nozzle
d) in nozzle & that in moving blade
Q27 - On Mollier chart flow through turbine is represented by

a) horizontal straight line
b) vertical straight line
c) straight inclined line
d) curved line
Q28 - Steam is supplied at 500m/s at an angle of 20° tangent to the turbine wheel. the
component of jet velocity in m/s which contribution to turbine work is
a) 500cos20°
b) 500cosec20°
c) 500sin20°
d) 500tan20°
Solution : 𝑽𝒋𝒆𝒕 = 𝑽𝒊 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽 = 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝒄𝒐𝒔 𝟐𝟎°
Q29 - 0.5Kg/s of steam of enthalpy 3140kJ/kg enters a steam turbine. It leaves the turbine
with the enthalpy of 2640kJ/kg. The turbine power output is
a) 500kw
b) 105.5kJ/s
c) 250kw
d) 177kw
Solution : P = 0.5× (𝟑𝟏𝟒𝟎 − 𝟐𝟔𝟒𝟎) = 𝟐𝟓𝟎𝒌𝒘
Q30 - Curtis turbine is an example of

a) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
b) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
c) pressure velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
d) reaction steam turbine
Q31 - Critical pressure is pressure of steam at

a) throat of steam nozzle
b) exit of steam nozzle
c) either at inlet or at outlet of steam nozzle
d) inlet of steam nozzle
Q32 - Compounding of steam turbine is done to

a) balance rotor
b) reduce the blade friction
c) reduce rotor speed
d) constant shaft of onw turbine to that of another
Q33 - Which of the following does not relate to steam engine?

a) crankshaft
b) cross head
c) steam chest
d) steam separator
Q34 - Maximum diagram efficiency for Parson’s reaction turbine is given by
𝟐𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟐 𝜶
a)
(𝟏+𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟐 𝜶)
𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟐 𝜶
b)
(𝟏+𝟐𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟐 𝜶)
𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟐 𝜶
c)
(𝟏−𝟐𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟐 𝜶)
𝟐𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟐 𝜶
d)
(𝟏+𝟐𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟐 𝜶)
Q35 - In a reaction turbine the heat drop in fixed blade is 8kJ/kg and total heat drop per
stage is 20kJ/kg. the degree of reaction is
a) 40%
b) 60%
c) 66.67%
d) 80%
𝒉𝒆𝒂𝒕 𝒅𝒓𝒐𝒑 𝒊𝒏 𝒎𝒐𝒗𝒊𝒏𝒈 𝒃𝒍𝒂𝒅𝒆 𝟏𝟐
Solution :degree of reaction is given by : R = = = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎𝟎 =
𝒕𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 𝒉𝒆𝒂𝒕 𝒅𝒓𝒐𝒑 𝒊𝒏 𝒑𝒆𝒓 𝒔𝒕𝒂𝒈𝒆 𝟐𝟎
𝟔𝟎%
Moving blade =(20-8) = 12
Q36 - Throttle governing in steam turbine
a) lead to significant pressure loss
b) increase the efficiency
c) increase heat
d) decrease steam temperature
Q37 - When steam flow over moving blade of an impulse turbine

a) both pressure & velocity decrease
b) pressure drop & velocity increase
c) pressure remains constant & velocity decreases
d) both pressure & velocity remains constant
Q38 - Reheat factor for a multi stage steam turbine is ratio of

a) inlet temperature to exit temperature
b) cumulative enthalpy drop to the total isentropic enthalpy
c) total isentropic enthalpy drop to the total enthalpy increase
d) total isentropic enthalpy drop to exit temperature
Q39 - The ratio of power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied to the
turbine is called
a) mechanical efficiency
b) overall efficiency
c) turbine efficiency
d) hydraulic efficiency
Q40 - A draft tube is used with____________

a) impulse trbine
b) reaction turbine
c) pelton turbine
d) axial turbine pump
Q41 -In a reaction turbine the draft tube is used _________

a) to run the turbine full
b) to prevent air to enter the turbine
c) to increase the effective head of water
d) to transport water to downstream
Q42 -Which turbine is also called as propeller turbine ?

a) Kalpan turbine
b) Pelton turbine
c) Thompson turbine
d) Francis turbine
MODULE 03 - Gas Turbine
Q1 - A Gas turbine operates between 5℃ 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝟖𝟑𝟗℃ the pressure ratio for maximum work
is approximately (given 𝜸 = 𝟏. 𝟒)
a) 128
b) 11.31
c) 24.6
Solution : Given 𝑻𝟏 = 𝟓℃ = 𝟓 + 𝟐𝟕𝟑 = 𝟐𝟕𝟖𝑲, 𝑻𝟑 = 𝟖𝟑𝟗℃ = 𝟖𝟑𝟗 + 𝟐𝟕𝟑 = 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟐𝑲
𝜸
𝑻
For max work 𝒓𝒑 = ( 𝟑 )𝟐(𝜸−𝟏) = 𝟏𝟏. 𝟑𝟏
𝑻𝟏
Q2 - In a single stage open cycle gas turbine the mass flow through the turbine is higher than
the mass flow through compressor because,
a) the specific volume of air increases by use of intercooler
b) the temp of air increases in the reheater
c) the combustion of fuel takes place in the combustion chamber
d) the specific heats at constant pressure for incoming and exhaust gases are different
Q3 - In a gas turbine hot combustion products with the specific heats 𝒄𝒑 =0.98 kJ/kgK and
𝒄𝒗 = 𝟎. 𝟕𝟓𝟑𝟖𝒌𝑱/𝒌𝒈𝑲 enter the turbines at 20 bar, 1500K exit at 1 bar. The isentropic
efficiency of the turbine is 0.94. The work developed by the turbine per kg of gas flow is
a) 689.64 kJ/kg
b) 794.66 kJ/kg
c) 1009.72 kJ/kg
d) 1312.00 kJ/kg
𝒄𝒑
Solution : 𝜸 = 𝒄 = 𝟏. 𝟑
𝒗
𝜸−𝟏
𝑻 𝑷
Now, 𝑻𝟒 = (𝑷𝟒 ) 𝜸 , 𝑻𝟒 = 𝟕𝟓𝟏. 𝟑𝟕𝒌
𝟑 𝟑
𝑻𝟑 −𝑻′ 𝟒
turbine efficiency 𝜼 = , 𝑻𝟒 ′ = 𝟕𝟗𝟔. 𝟐𝟓𝒌
𝑻𝟑 −𝑻𝟒
Turbine work W = 𝒄𝒑 (𝑻𝟑 − 𝑻𝟒 ′ ) = 𝟔𝟖𝟗. 𝟔𝟕𝒌𝑱/𝒌𝒈
Q4 - The compression ratio of a gas power plant cycle corresponding to maximum work
output for the given temp limits of 𝑻𝒎𝒊𝒏 & 𝑻𝒎𝒂𝒙 will be
𝜸
𝑻𝒎𝒂𝒙 𝟐(𝜸−𝟏)
a) ( )
𝑻𝒎𝒊𝒏
𝜸
𝑻
b) (𝑻 𝒎𝒊𝒏 )𝟐(𝜸−𝟏)
𝒎𝒂𝒙
𝜸−𝟏
𝑻𝒎𝒂𝒙
c) ( 𝑻 ) 𝜸
𝒎𝒊𝒏
𝜸−𝟏
𝑻𝒎𝒊𝒏
d) (𝑻 ) 𝜸
𝒎𝒂𝒙
Q5 - Use of maximum pressure ratio corresponding to maximum to minimum cycle temp

ratio in case of Joule cycle gives which one of the following ?
a) Maximum efficiency but very less specific work output
b) Maximum efficiency but very high specific work output
c) Minimum efficiency but very less specific work output
d) Minimum efficiency but very high specific
Q6 - Brayton cycle with infinite intercooling and rehaeating stages would approximate a
a) Stirling cycle
b) Ericsson cycle
c) Otto cycle
d) Atkinson cycle
Q7 - In an ideal air standard gas turbine cycle the minimum and maximum temperature are
respectively 310K & 1100K. Draw the cycle on a T-s diagram and calculate the optimal
pressure ratio of the cycle for maximum work output. Assume for air (𝜸 = 𝟏. 𝟒) is the ratio
of specific heats.
a) 9.174
b) 2.174
c) 14.582
d) 18.586
𝜸
𝑻
Solution : 𝒓𝒑(𝒐𝒑𝒕𝒊𝒎𝒂𝒍) = ( 𝑻𝒎𝒂𝒙 )𝟐(𝜸−𝟏) =9.174
𝒎𝒊𝒏
Q8 - Which of the following cycles are employed in ships and submarines ?

a) Open Brayton cycle
b) Closed Brayton cycle
c) Rankine cycle
d) Diesel cycle
Q9 - Arrange Otto cycle , Brayton cycle and Rankine cycle in increasing order of maximum
temp reached
a) Otto > Brayton > Rankine
b) Brayton > Rankine > Otto
c) Rankine > Otto > Brayton
d) Otto > Rankine > Brayton
Q10 - Arrange the following order in increasing order of pressure ratio

a) Otto > Brayton > Rankine
b) Brayton > Rankine > Otto
c) Rankine > Otto > Brayton
d) Otto > Rankine > Brayton
Q11 - The temperature at exit of compressor of a gas turbine operating on Brayton cycle is
127 ℃ and the maximum temperature reached is 1027℃ The back work ratio is :
a) 0.308
b) 0.410
c) 0.631
d) 0.841
𝒘𝒄 𝑻 −𝑻
Solution : Back work ratio (𝒓𝒃 ) = = 𝑻𝟐 −𝑻𝟏
𝒘𝒕 𝟑 𝟒
𝑻 𝑻 𝑻𝟑 ×𝑻𝟏
For Brayton cycle , 𝑻𝟐 = 𝑻𝟑 ==≫ 𝑻𝟒 =
𝟏 𝟒 𝑻𝟐
𝑻𝟐 −𝑻𝟏 𝑻
𝒓𝒃 = 𝑻 −𝑻 = 𝑻𝟐
𝑻𝟑 ×( 𝟐 𝟏 ) 𝟑
𝑻𝟐
𝟏𝟐𝟕+𝟐𝟕𝟑
𝒓𝒃 = (𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟕+𝟐𝟕𝟑) = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟎𝟖
Q12 - Which of the following are effect of regeneration in a gas cycle?

1. Net work output increases
2. Both heat supplied and heat rejected decreases
3. These is an increases in mean temperature of heat addition
4. There is a decrease in cycle efficiency
a) 1,3
b) 2,3
c) 2,4
d) 1,4
Q13 - In a gas turbine cycle, the turbine output is 800kJ/kg, the compressor work is 500kJ/kg
and the heat supplied is 1200kJ/kg. The thermal efficiency of the cycle is
a) 15%
b) 25%
c) 30%
d) 35%
Solution : net work =𝑾𝒕 − 𝑾𝒄 = 𝟖𝟎𝟎 − 𝟓𝟎𝟎 = 𝟑𝟎𝟎𝒌𝑱/𝒌𝒈
heat supplied = 1200kJ/kg
𝒏𝒆𝒕 𝒘𝒐𝒓𝒌 𝟑𝟎𝟎
thermal efficiency = 𝒉𝒆𝒂𝒕 𝒔𝒖𝒑𝒑𝒍𝒊𝒆𝒅 = 𝟏𝟐𝟎𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎𝟎 = 𝟐𝟓%
Q14- An open cycle constant pressure gas turbine uses a fuel of calorific value 45000kJ/kg
with A/F ratio 60:1 and develop a net output of 100kJ/kg of air. The thermal efficiency of the
cycle is
a) 10.33%
b) 12%
c) 13.33%
d) 16.67%
𝒏𝒆𝒕 𝒐𝒖𝒕𝒑𝒖𝒕 𝟏𝟎𝟎×𝟔𝟎
Solution : 𝜼 = = 𝟒𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟎 = 𝟏𝟑. 𝟑𝟑%
𝒎𝒇 ×𝒄𝒗
Q15 - Which one of the following is the correct statement?

In a two stage gas turbine plant with inter-cooling and reheating
a) both work ratio and thermal efficiency improves
b) work ratio improves but thermal efficiency decreases
c) thermal efficiency improves but work ratio decreases
d) both work ratio and thermal efficiency decreases
Q16 - Which of the following statement correctly give the effects of intercooling ?
1. Decrease in compressor work input
2. Increase in turbine work output
3. For the plant of fixed power output , it reduces the size of plant
4. Increases in efficiency
a) 1,3
b) 2,4
c) 1,4
d) 2,3
Q17 - Identify the types of Gas turbines ___________

a) Turbo jet
b) Turboprop
c) Turbo fan
d) All of the mentioned
Q18 - Gas Turbine Engines, when compared to Reciprocating engines have ________
a) high power to weight ratio
b) low power to weight ratio
c) produce low power
Q19 - Most preferable Gas turbines are required to be used in _____________

a) fluctuating loads
b) constant loads
c) idling conditions
Q20 - Gas turbines work on ________

a) Otto cycle
b) Dual cycle
c) Brayton cycle
d) Diesel cycle
Q21 - Gas turbine performance majorly depends on __________

a) compressor efficiency
b) calorific value of fuel used
c) nozzle efficiency
Q22 - . In order to generate energy in Sahara Desert where water is available in significantly
low amount. Which system can we employ in such a place?
a) Steam Turbine
b) Gas Turbine
c) Steam Engine
d) Tidal Engine
Q23 - How many burners are placed in can-annular combustors in gas turbines?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) Not specific one or more
Q24 - Silo combustors are mounted Internal to gas turbine body.

a) True
b) False
Q25 - What does TRIT in a gas turbine stand for?

a) Turbine Rotor Inlet Temperature
b) Total Raise at Inlet Temperature
c) Temperature Raise In Turbine
Q26 - When at idle conditions Gas Turbine Engines use more fuel when compared to
Reciprocating engines.
a) True
b) False
Q27 - In Gas Turbines Compressors raise the pressure of air by _______ times.
a) 25
b) 15
c) 30
d) 10
Q28 - Turbine and Output shaft rotate freely without any connection to the engine.
a) True
b) False
Q29 - A compressor in the gas turbine is driven by the Turbine.

a) True
b) False
Q30 - Turbojet is a combination of gas turbine with a propeller engine.

a) True
b) False
Q31 - What is bypass ratio in Turbofan?

a) None of the mentioned
b) Mass of the air passing through the engine / Mass of the air bypassing the engine
c) Air entering the engine / Air leaving the engine
d) Mass of the air bypassing the engine / Mass of the air passing through the engine
Q32 - Turbojet emits ______ engine noise when compared to Turbofan.

a) more
b) less
c) equal
d) none
Q33 - A closed cycle gas turbine follows ________

a) Dual Cycle
b) Brayton Cycle
c) Stirling cycle
d) Carnot cycle
Q34 - Tanuj and Shyam have a strong discussion over the advantages of Induction-
Extraction turbine.
Tanuj: They are employed when a particular manufacturing process require a large quantity
of steam at a particular pressure.
Shyam: They are employed when an abundance of waste steam is available at the same
pressure. Which one the two you think is correct?
a) Tanuj
b) Shyam
c) Tanuj & Shyam
Q35 - Arjun underwent industrial training in his 2nd year at National Thermal Power Plant.
But he was surprised to know that a special turbine is used to meet the electrical energy
requirement in the plant itself. Can you identify which turbine did he observe?
a) High Pressure Condensing Turbine
b) House Turbine
c) Gas Turbine
d) Mixed Pressure Turbine
Q36 - This turbine is an ingenious method for accomplishing multi velocity staging in a single
wheel. Name this turbine?
a) Tangential Turbine
b) Single Stage Impulse Turbine
c) Multi Stage Impulse Turbine
Q37 - You own an industry in which the boiler generates a lot of waste steam which you think
could be utilized. Which turbine will you utilize?
a) Mixed Pressure Turbine
b) Back Pressure Turbine
c) Twin-Shaft Gas Turbine
d) Induction-Extraction Turbine
Q38 - Mac doubts that why do we use House Turbine in National Thermal Power Plants.
Can you clear his doubts?
a) The exhaust steam or extraction steam is used for feedwater heating or to supply
steam for small turbines serving as auxiliary drives
b) Have huge capacity sufficient enough to run the plant
c) Have minimum losses
d) They can be vertical compounded
Q39 - A marine officer asks you to design a turbine for marine propulsion. Which of the
below would be your best choice?
a) Mixed pressure turbine
b) Condensing high pressure regenerative turbine
c) Gas Turbine
d) Tandem-Compound double flow turbine
Q40 - . Gas and Steam turbine combined power plant produces more electricity than
traditional power plants by how much percent?
a) 25
b) 40
c) 50
d) The given statement was false
Q41 - Brayton cycle is also known as __________

a) Joule cycle
b) Regenerative cycle
c) Carnot cycle
d) None of the mentioned.
Q42 - Brayton cycle is also called an Ericsson cycle.

a) True
b) False
Q43 - Actual Brayton cycle works on _________

a) Isoentropic process and Isobaric process
b) Adiabatic process and Isobaric process
c) Isoentropic process
Q44 - Ideal Brayton cycle consists of ________

a) Isoentropic process and Isobaric process
b) Adiabatic process and Isobaric process
c) Adiabatic process
Q 45 - Reheating in gas turbine
a) Increase the compressor work
b) decrease the compressor work
c) increase the turbine work
d) decrease the turbine work
Q46 - In Brayton cycle heat rejection at ____________
a) constant temperature
b) constant pressure
c) constant volume
d) constant enthalpy
Q47 - Gas turbine consist of ___________
a) two isothermal & two isentropic
b) two isentropic & ywo constant volume
c) two isentropic , one constant volume & one constant pressure
d) two isentropic & two constant pressure
Q48 - The compressors used in gas turbine are typically of which type
a) centrifugal
b) centripetal
c) reciprocating
d) axial
Q49 - For maximum work output in 2 stage expansion gas turbine with perfect gas
intercooling, the intermediate pressure (P) has the following relationship with max pressure
(P1) & maximum pressure (P2) of cycle
𝑷𝟏+𝑷𝟐
a) 𝑷 = √𝑷𝟏−𝑷𝟐
b) 𝑷 = √𝑷𝟏 × 𝑷𝟐
𝑷𝟏 𝟏⁄
c) P = (𝑷𝟐) 𝟐
𝑷𝟏+𝑷𝟐 𝟏⁄
d) P = ( ) 𝟐
𝟒
Q50 - Brayton cycle is a reversed ________

a) Carnot cycle
b) Rankine cycle
c) Joule cycle
d) Dual cycle
Q51 - In a gas turbine cycle, the turbine output is 600 kJ/kg, the compressor work is 400
kJ/kg & the heat supplied is 1000kJ/kg. the thermal efficiency of this cycle is
a) 80%
b) 60%
c) 20%
d) 40%
Solution : Net work done = 600- 400 = 200kJ/kg
heat supplied = 1000kJ/kg
𝒐𝒖𝒕𝒑𝒖𝒕 𝟐𝟎𝟎
𝜼= × 𝟏𝟎𝟎 = × 𝟏𝟎𝟎 = 𝟐𝟎%
𝒊𝒏𝒑𝒖𝒕 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
MODULE 04 : JET PROPULSION ENGINE
Q1 - An aircraft flying horizontally at a speed of 900km/h is propelled by a jet leaving the

nozzle at a speed of 500m/s. The propulsive efficiency is ?
a) 0.334
b) 0.426
c) 0.556
d) 0.667
Solution : velocity of aircraft = 900km/hr =250m/s
𝟐𝑽 𝟐×𝟐𝟓𝟎
propulsive efficiency = 𝑽 +𝑽𝒂 = 𝟓𝟎𝟎+𝟐𝟓𝟎 = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟔𝟕
𝒋 𝒂
Q2 - Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the position of the given
components in Turbo-prop?
a) Propeller, compressor, turbine, burner
b) Compressor, propeller, burner, turbine
c) propeller , compressor, burner, turbine
d) compressor, propeller, turbine , burner
Q3 - Turbo-prop engine has the following additional feature over the turbojet
a) Propeller
b) Diffuser
c) Starting engine
d) Turbine and combustion chamber
Q4 - Which one of the following is the correct epression for the propulsion efficiency of a
jet plane (neglect the mass of fuel)?
𝟐
a) 𝜼𝒑 = 𝑽
( 𝒂 )+𝟏
𝑽𝒋
𝟐
b) 𝜼𝒑 = 𝑽𝒋
( )+𝟏
𝑽𝒂
𝟐
c) 𝜼𝒑 = 𝑽
( 𝒂 )−𝟏
𝑽𝒋
𝟐
d) 𝜼𝒑 = 𝑽𝒋
( )−𝟏
𝑽𝒂
Q5 - An aircraft is flying at a speed of 800km/hr at an altitude where the atmospheric
temperature is -20℃ What is the approx. value of the Mach number of aircraft ?
a) 0.653
b) 0.697
c) 0.240
d) 0.231
Solution : V= 800km/hr =222.22m/s
C = √𝜸𝑹𝑻𝟎
𝑻𝟎 = −𝟐𝟎℃ = (−𝟐𝟎 + 𝟐𝟕𝟑)𝑲 = 𝟐𝟓𝟑𝑲
C = √𝟏. 𝟒 × 𝟐𝟖𝟕 × 𝟐𝟓𝟑 = 318.83m/s

Mach number (M) = V/C = 222.22/318.83 = 0.697
Q6 - The relative jet exit velocity from a rocket is 2700m/s the forward flight velocity is
1350m/s. The propulsive efficiency of the unit is
a) 90%
b) 66.66%
c) 50%
d) 33.33%
Solution : 𝑪𝒋 − 𝑪𝒂 = 𝟐𝟕𝟎𝟎𝒎/𝒔
𝑪𝒂 = 𝟏𝟑𝟓𝟎𝒎/𝒔
𝑪𝒋 = 𝟐𝟕𝟎𝟎 + 𝟏𝟑𝟓𝟎𝟎 = 𝟒𝟎𝟓𝟎𝒎/𝒔
𝟐𝑪𝒂 𝟐×𝟏𝟑𝟓𝟎
Propulsive efficiency = = = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟎 = 𝟓𝟎%
𝑪𝒋 +𝑪𝒂 𝟒𝟎𝟓𝟎+𝟏𝟑𝟓𝟎
Q7 - The absolute jet exit velocity from a jet engine is 2800m/s and the forward flight
velocity is 1400m/s. The propulsive efficiency is
a) 33.33%
b) 40%
c) 66.67%
d) 90%
𝟐𝑪𝒂 𝟐×𝟏𝟒𝟎𝟎
Solution : Propulsive efficiency = = 𝟐𝟖𝟎𝟎+𝟏𝟒𝟎𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎𝟎 = 𝟔𝟔. 𝟔𝟕%
𝑪𝒋 +𝑪𝒂
Q8 - The power plant having highest specific fuel consumption

a) Ramjet
b) Turbojet
c) Piston
d) Rocket
Q9 - Lowest thrust per unit engine weight is developed
a) Ram jet
b) Piston Engine
c) Turbo Jet
d) Rocket
Q10 - The surrounding air is not used as oxidizer in
a) flying bomb
b) rocket propulsion
c) turbo jet
d) turbo prop
Q11 - The propulsion system having highest efficiency at higher speed
a) turbo jet
b) reciprocating aircraft
c) ramjet
d) rocket
Q12 - Chemical rockets use propellant which is
a) solid
b) liquid
c) free radical
Q13 - If 𝒗𝒋 is the jet velocity & 𝒗𝟎 is the vehicle velocity the propulsive efficiency of a rocket
is given by
𝒗
𝟐 ( 𝟎⁄𝒗𝒋 )
a) 𝒗
𝟏+ ( 𝒗𝟎 )𝟐
𝒋
𝒗
( 𝟎⁄𝒗𝒋 )
b) 𝒗
𝟏+( 𝒗𝟎 )𝟐
𝒋
𝒗𝟎
c)
𝒗𝟎 +𝒗𝒋
𝒗𝒋
d)
𝒗𝟎 +𝒗𝒋
Q14 - A rocket works with maximum overall efficiency when air-craft velocity is equal to
the
a) jet velocity
b) half the jet velocity
c) double the jet velocity
d) no such relationship with the jet velocity
Q15 - A jet engine works on the principle of conservation of
a) mass
b) discharge
c) energy
d) momentum
Q16 - In small rocket engine motors the movement of cooling fluid is
a) helical
b) axial
c) radial
d) none
Q17 - The thrust developed in turbojet engine is the
a) unbalanced force
b) balanced force
c) both of the mentioned
Q18 - The propulsive efficiency is given by
a) work done by engine / propulsive power
b) propulsive power / work done by engine
c) energy input rate / propulsive power
d) propulsive power / energy input rate
Q19 - . In aircraft propulsion the most widely used engine is
a) turbojet
b) turbofan
c) turboprop
Q20 - The bypass ratio is the ratio of
a) mass flow rates of two streams
b) pressure ratio of inlet and exit
c) volume flow rate of inlet and exit
Q21 - Increasing the bypass ratio of turbofan engine ____ thrust.
a) does not affect
b) decreases
c) increases
Q22 - Removing the cowl from the fan gives us
a) turbojet
b) turbofan
c) turboprop
Q23 - Jet engines are classified into _______ types.
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
Q24 - Jet engines works on ______ cycle.
a) brayton
b) dual
c) dual
d) otto
Q25 - Turbofans gives more efficiency when the speed is ______ than the mach speed.
a) greater
b) less
c) equal
Q26 - ________ compressors are used in turbojets.
a) Axial
b) Radial
c) Axial & Radial
Q27 -__________ compressors can be used in turbojets.
a) Radial
b) Centrifugal
c) Radial & Centrifugal
Q28 - Internal energy in the fuel is converted into __________ of the exhaust in turbojets.
a) kinetic energy
b) pressure energy
c) kinetic & pressure energy
Q29 - Jet engines have ________ shafts.
a) single
b) multiple
c) single or multiple
Q30 - ______ jets produce micro gas turbines.
a) Bladon
b) Turbo
c) Bladon & Turbo
Q31 -Hybrid electric vehicles are powered by _________
a) turbo shafts
b) micro gas turbines
c) turbo jet
Q32 - Micro turbines are based on _________
a) weight
b) size
c) micro combustion
Q33 - Micro turbines have ________ power to weight ratio.
a) constant
b) low
c) high
Q34 - Micro turbines have ________ emissions.
a) high
b) low
c) medium
Q35 - In micro turbines generator is integrated with _________
a) turbine shaft
b) combustor
c) turbine shaft & combustor
Q36 - Micro turbines use _______ bearings.
a) air & journal
b) journal
c) air
Q37 -Turboprops have ________ control unit.
a) thrust
b) fuel
c) surge
Q38 - _______ control unit is present in turboshaft engines.
a) exhaust
b) fuel
c) thrust
Q39 - ___ produced can be varied by varying fuel flow.
a) Exhaust gases
b) Thrust
c) Exhaust gases & Thrust
Q40 - Thrust produced also depends upon rotor _________
a) blade surface
b) blade pitch
c) blade angle
Q41 - Extra fuel supply causes compressor to _______
a) stall
b) surge
c) surge & stall
Q42 - When fuel flow is _______ it causes surge.
a) fuel flow is not related to surge
b) decreased
c) increased

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POWER ENGINEERING MCQ

MODULE 01 - Combustion of Reactive Mixtures

Q7 - The higher calorific value of fuel occurs when water vapour

Q8 - Consider the following statements:

Q10 - Which is not a manufactured solid fuel

Q2 - Consider the following statements

Q4- Which of the following form part (s) of boiler mounting?

Q5 - Consider the following components

Q6- At critical point the enthalpy of vaporization is

Q8 - Match List-I with List - II

Q9 - _____________is a bent tube water tube boiler

Q11 - Which boiler does not have a steam separating drum?

Q12 - The major short coming of fire tube boiler is

Q14 - Maximum amount of energy lost in boiler due to

Q15 - What is the disadvantage of natural draught?

Q16 - The formation of scale boiler leads to

Q17 - What is the pH value of water permissible for boiler?

Q19 - What is the purpose of using economizer in the boiler?

Q22 - What is the critical pressure of steam?

Q23 - How can we classify steam generators on the basis of application?

Q24 - What is the length of shell of a Locomotive boiler?

Q25 - An air preheater is installed _____________

Q26 - The natural draught is produced by _________

Q28 - Marine steam generators are ___________ fired.

Q29- In a fire-tube boiler, the water is in ___________

Q30 - In a water-tube boiler, water flows through?

Q31 - Industrial steam generators operate in a pressure range of ___________

Q32 - Fire-tube boilers are used in?

Q33 - Which of the following is not an advantage of a fire-tube boiler?

Q34 - Which of these is an externally fired boiler?

Q35 - What is the function of the fusible plug installed in a furnace?

Q40 - The shell diameter of a Locomotive boiler is?

Q41 - The number of fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are ___________

Q42 - The chimney draught varies with?

Q43 - Lancashire boiler has _____ internal flue tubes.

Q44 - Locomotive boiler is a ___________

Q45 - Cut-off ratio is the ratio of?

Q47 - The performance of a boiler is measured by the ___________

Q1 - Correct order of the maximum efficiency of turbine will be

Q10 - Curtis turbine is a

Q12 - Consider the following characteristics

Q13 - The compounding of stream turbine is done to

Q14 - In reaction turbine with reduction of inlet pressure

Q16 - Bleeding in turbine means

Q19 - Axial shift in steam turbine occurs due to

Q22 - Steam turbine is classified on basis of __________

Q23 - Impulse blades are in the shape of __________

Q24 - In reaction turbine

Q25 - The term bleeding in a steam turbine refer to

Q27 - On Mollier chart flow through turbine is represented by

Q30 - Curtis turbine is an example of

Q31 - Critical pressure is pressure of steam at

Q32 - Compounding of steam turbine is done to

Q33 - Which of the following does not relate to steam engine?

Q34 - Maximum diagram efficiency for Parson’s reaction turbine is given by

Q37 - When steam flow over moving blade of an impulse turbine

Q38 - Reheat factor for a multi stage steam turbine is ratio of

Q40 - A draft tube is used with____________

Q41 -In a reaction turbine the draft tube is used _________

Q42 -Which turbine is also called as propeller turbine ?

Turbine work W = 𝒄𝒑 (𝑻𝟑 − 𝑻𝟒 ′ ) = 𝟔𝟖𝟗. 𝟔𝟕𝒌𝑱/𝒌𝒈

Q5 - Use of maximum pressure ratio corresponding to maximum to minimum cycle temp

Q8 - Which of the following cycles are employed in ships and submarines ?