Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Taking The SAT Reasoning Test™
Taking The SAT Reasoning Test™
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Practice Test
SAT Reasoning Test
2. Sit at a desk
or table cleared of any
sections. day of the test. before you begin answer-
ing questions.
E E E E E E 3. Date of Birth B B 1 1 1
4. Social Security Number
F F F F F F Month Day Year C C 2 2 2
G G G G G G Jan. D D 3 3 3
H H H H H H Feb. 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 E E 4 4 4
I I I I I I Mar. 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 F F 5 5 5
J J J J J J Apr. 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 G G 6 6 6
K K K K K K May 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 H H 7 7 7
L L L L L L June 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 I I 8 8 8
M M M M M M July 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 J J 9 9 9
N N N N N N Aug. 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 K K
O O O O O O Sept. 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 L L
P P P P P P Oct. 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 M M
Q Q Q Q Q Q Nov. 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 N N
R R R R R R Dec. 9 9 9 O O
T T T T T T
6. Registration Number Q Q
Number
U U U U U U
(Copy from Admission Ticket.) (Copy from front of test book.) R R
V V V V V V S S
W W W W W W T T
X X X X X X 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 U U
Y Y Y Y Y Y 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 V V
Z Z Z Z Z Z 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 W W
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 X X
ONLY
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 Y Y
FOR
USE
ETS
5. Sex 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 Z Z
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra answer spaces blank.
1 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 31 A B C D E
2 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 32 A B C D E
3 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 33 A B C D E
SECTION 4 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 34 A B C D E
1
5 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 35 A B C D E
6 A B C D E 16 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 36 A B C D E
7 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 37 A B C D E
8 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 38 A B C D E
9 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 39 A B C D E
10 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 40 A B C D E
1 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 31 A B C D E
2 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 32 A B C D E
3 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 33 A B C D E
SECTION
4 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 34 A B C D E
2 5 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 35 A B C D E
725217
6 A B C D E 16 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 36 A B C D E
7 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 37 A B C D E
8 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 38 A B C D E
9 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 39 A B C D E
10 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 40 A B C D E
Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra answer spaces blank.
1 A B C D E 16 A B C D E 31 A B C D E
2 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 32 A B C D E
3 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 33 A B C D E
SECTION 4 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 34 A B C D E
3
5 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 35 A B C D E
6 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 36 A B C D E
7 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 37 A B C D E
8 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 38 A B C D E
9 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 39 A B C D E
10 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 40 A B C D E
11 A B C D E 26 A B C D E
12 A B C D E 27 A B C D E
13 A B C D E 28 A B C D E
14 A B C D E 29 A B C D E
15 A B C D E 30 A B C D E
ONLY ANSWERS ENTERED IN THE OVALS IN EACH GRID AREA WILL BE SCORED.
YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES ABOVE THE OVALS.
16 17 18 19 20
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
21 22 23 24 25
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra answer spaces blank.
1 A B C D E 16 A B C D E 31 A B C D E
2 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 32 A B C D E
3 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 33 A B C D E
SECTION 4 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 34 A B C D E
u a ting
4
5 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 35 A B C D E
6 A B C D E
t he e
21q A B C D E 36 A B C D E
7 A B C D E
t i o n 4 , 22 A
c
B
t ice
C D E 37 A B C D E
8 A B C
S
D
e cE
his
23
p rAa B C D E 38 A B C D E
9 A B C D E
o n o f t 24 A B
t e
C
d. D E 39 A B C D E
e c t i m i t
s en o
10 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 40 A B C D E
11 A B C D E
a s b e 26 A B C D E
test, h
12 A B C D E 27 A B C D E
13 A B C D E 28 A B C D E
14 A B C D E 29 A B C D E
15 A B C D E 30 A B C D E
ONLY ANSWERS ENTERED IN THE OVALS IN EACH GRID AREA WILL BE SCORED.
YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES ABOVE THE OVALS.
16 17 18 19 20
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
21 22 23 24 25
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra answer spaces blank.
1 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 31 A B C D E
2 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 32 A B C D E
3 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 33 A B C D E
SECTION 4 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 34 A B C D E
5
5 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 35 A B C D E
6 A B C D E 16 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 36 A B C D E
7 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 37 A B C D E
8 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 38 A B C D E
9 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 39 A B C D E
10 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 40 A B C D E
1 A B C D E 6 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 16 A B C D E
SECTION
2 A B C D E 7 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 17 A B C D E
6 3
4
5
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
E
E
8
9
10
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
E
E
13
14
15
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
E
E
18
19
20
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
E
1 A B C D E 6 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 16 A B C D E
SECTION
2 A B C D E 7 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 17 A B C D E
7 3
4
5
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
E
E
8
9
10
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
E
E
13
14
15
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
E
E
18
19
20
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
E
CERTIFICATION STATEMENT
Copy the statement below (do not print) and sign your name as you would an official document.
I hereby agree to the conditions set forth online at www.collegeboard.com and/or in the Registration Bulletin and certify
that I am the person whose name and address appear on this answer sheet.
Signature: Date:
Special Questions
1 A B C D E
2 A B C D E
3 A B C D E
Copyright © 2004 by College Entrance Examination Board. All rights reserved. College Board and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Entrance Examination Board.
SAT Reasoning Test is a trademark owned by the College Entrance Examination Board.
SECTION 1
Time — 30 minutes
25 Questions
Directions: In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide
which is the best of the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.
Notes:
1. The use of a calculator is permitted. All numbers used are real numbers.
2. Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not
drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
r
Reference Information
r h
h c 2x 60 x s 45 √2 s
w h b
w 30 45
b a s
A = πr 2 A= w √3 x
C = 2πr A = 1 bh V = wh V = πr 2h c2 = a2 + b2
2 Special Right Triangles
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.
3 3 B C
1. If = , what is the value of x ?
9 x + 2
5 A D
(A) −
9
x x
7 x
(B) x x
3
P
(C) 3
2. In the figure above, point P is on line . What is the
(D) 7 value of x ?
25 (A) 15
(E) (B) 26
3 (C) 30
(D) 35
(E) 36
15. The pie chart above shows the three sources for Lana’s
1 2
19. If ( x + 2)n ( x − 2) = ( x + 2) 冸 x − 4 冹 for all values
college tuition. If of the total amount was from
4
1 of x, what is the value of n ?
scholarships and was from student loans, what is
3 (A) 1
the value of x ? (B) 2
(C) 3
(A) 120 (D) 4
(B) 130 (E) It cannot be determined from the information
(C) 140 given.
(D) 150
(E) 160
STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
SECTION 2
Time — 30 minutes
35 Questions
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
oval on the answer sheet.
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank 5. Company employees were quite pleased with their
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the efficient new work area because it provided an ideal
sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through climate ------- increased productivity.
E. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in
(A) inimical to (B) conducive to
the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a
(C) shadowed by (D) stifled by
whole.
(E) precipitated by
Example:
6. Crumbling masonry is ------- of the ------- that long
Medieval kingdoms did not become constitutional
republics overnight; on the contrary, the change exposure to the elements causes to architecture.
was -------. (A) refutation . . damage
(A) unpopular (B) unexpected (B) reflective . . uniformity
(C) advantageous (D) sufficient (C) indicative . . amelioration
(D) denial . . weathering
(E) gradual A B C D E
(E) evidence . . havoc
1. The critics reacted to the new book with enthusiasm: 7. At bedtime the security blanket served the child as
not one of their reviews was -------. ------- with seemingly magical powers to ward off
frightening phantasms.
(A) derogatory (B) professional (C) episodic
(D) didactic (E) unsolicited (A) an arsenal (B) an incentive (C) a talisman
(D) a trademark (E) a harbinger
2. Marie Curie’s more ------- achievements often -------
the contributions of her daughter, Irène Joliet-Curie, 8. Military victories brought tributes to the Aztec empire
even though each woman won a Nobel Prize for and, concomitantly, made it -------, for Aztecs increas-
Chemistry. ingly lived off the vanquished.
Each question below consists of a related pair of words 17. REPUGNANCE : DISTASTE ::
or phrases, followed by five pairs of words or phrases (A) confidence : insecurity
labeled A through E. Select the pair that best expresses a (B) horror : fear
relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair. (C) anger : forgiveness
(D) misfortune : pity
Example:
(E) trauma : recovery
CRUMB : BREAD ::
(A) ounce : unit 18. MOLT : SKIN ::
(B) splinter : wood (A) shear : wool
(C) water : bucket (B) shed : hair
(D) twine : rope (C) stimulate : nerve
(E) cream : butter A C D E (D) fracture : bone
(E) prune : tree
The two passages below are followed by questions based on their content and on the relationship between the two passages.
Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory material that may be
provided.
Questions 24-35 are based on the following passages. fairly honest. It is always a matter of who writes the stuff,
and what the individual has to write it with. As for litera-
The two passages below discuss the detective story. 45 ture of expression and literature of escape, this is critics’
Passage 1 was written by Dorothy Sayers (1893-1957), jargon, a use of abstract words as if they had absolute
a British literary critic and writer of detective stories. meanings. Everything written with vitality expresses that
Passage 2 was written by Raymond Chandler (1888-1959), vitality; there are no dull subjects, only dull minds. All
an American writer of detective stories. people who read escape from something else into what lies
50 behind the printed page; the quality of the dream may be
Passage 1 argued, but its release has become a functional necessity.
All people must escape at times from the deadly rhythm of
As the detective ceases to be impenetrable and infallible their private thoughts. It is part of the process of life among
and becomes a person touched with feeling for our infirmi- thinking beings. It is one of the things that distinguish them
ties, so the rigid technique of the art necessarily expands a 55 from the three-toed sloth. I hold no particular brief for the
Line little. In its severest form, the detective story is a pure and detective story as the ideal escape. I merely say that all
5 analytical exercise and, as such, may be a highly finished reading for pleasure is escape, whether it be Greek or The
work of art, within its highly artificial limits. There is one Diary of the Forgotten Man. To say otherwise is to be an
respect, at least, in which the detective story has an advan- intellectual snob, and a juvenile at the art of living.
tage over every other kind of novel. It possesses an Aristo- 60 I think that what was really gnawing at Dorothy Sayers’
telian perfection of beginning, middle, and end. A definite mind was the realization that her kind of detective story
10 and single problem is set, worked out, and solved; its was an arid formula that could not even satisfy its own
conclusion is not arbitrarily conditioned by marriage or implications. It was second-rate literature because it was
death. It has the rounded (though limited) perfection of a not about the things that could make first-rate literature.
1
triolet. The farther it escapes from pure analysis, the more 65 If it started out to be about real people (and she could
difficulty it has in achieving artistic unity. write about them—her minor characters show that), they
15 It does not, and by hypothesis never can, attain the loft- must very soon do unreal things in order to conform to
iest level of literary achievement. Though it deals with the the artificial pattern required by the plot. When they did
most desperate effects of rage, jealousy, and revenge, it unreal things, they ceased to be real themselves. They
rarely touches the heights and depths of human passion. 70 became puppets and cardboard lovers and papier-mâché
2
It presents us only with a fait accompli, and looks upon villains and detectives of exquisite and impossible gentility.
20 death with a dispassionate eye. It does not show us the The only kind of writer who could be happy with these
inner workings of the murderer’s mind—it must not, for properties was the one who did not know what reality was.
the identity of the criminal is hidden until the end of the Dorothy Sayers’ own stories show that she was annoyed by
book. The victim is shown as a subject for analysis rather 75 this triteness: the weakest element in them is the part that
than as a husband and father. A too-violent emotion flung makes them detective stories, the strongest the part that
25 into the glittering mechanism of the detective story jars the could be removed without touching the “problem of logic
movement by disturbing its delicate balance. The most and deduction.” Yet she could not or would not give her
successful writers are those who contrive to keep the story characters their heads and let them make their own mystery.
running from beginning to end upon the same emotional
1
level, and it is better to err in the direction of too little A poetic stanza form
2
30 feeling than too much. Accomplished fact
Passage 2
24. In Passage 1, a necessary limitation that Sayers finds in
In her introduction to the first Omnibus of Crime, the detective story is its
Dorothy Sayers wrote that the detective story “does not,
and by hypothesis never can, attain the loftiest level of (A) exclusive concern with the criminal
literary achievement.” And she suggested somewhere else (B) use of illogical plot developments
35 that this is because it is a “literature of escape” and not “a (C) emphasis on violent behavior
literature of expression.” I do not know what the loftiest (D) careless use of language
level of literary achievement is; neither did Aeschylus or (E) failure to explore emotions and motivations
Shakespeare; neither did Miss Sayers. Other things being
equal, which they never are, books with a more powerful
40 theme will provoke a more powerful performance. Yet
some very dull books have been written about God, and
some very fine ones about how to make a living and stay
25. In the first paragraph of Passage 1, Sayers praises the 30. In context, “properties” (line 73) most nearly means
detective story for
(A) special capabilities
(A) the suspense it provides (B) pieces of real estate
(B) its adherence to a well-defined pattern (C) articles used on stage
(C) its lack of artificiality (D) characteristics
(D) the complexity of its situations and characters (E) titles
(E) its uniquely straightforward style
31. The primary implication of Chandler’s final sentence
26. Sayers says that “it is better to err in the direction of (lines 78-79) is that
too little feeling than too much” (lines 29-30) because
(A) Sayers’ characters are far more interesting than
she believes that
Sayers herself
(A) the story should focus on the solution of a problem (B) the mystery in Sayers’ novels owes too much to
(B) real emotions appear contrived in a detective story her concern with character development
(C) a complex plot can provide enough emotional (C) too little prior planning went into the writing of
satisfaction to readers Sayers’ novels
(D) the expression of too much emotion implies that (D) authors who are themselves mysterious are able to
the feelings are false write good detective stories
(E) violent passion is not really the cause of most (E) plot evolves from character in a well-written
crimes detective story
27. According to Sayers, as the characters in a detective 32. What positive element in a good detective story does
story are made more real, the story becomes each passage emphasize?
(A) more obviously factual (A) Passage 1 emphasizes artistic unity; Passage 2
(B) more likely to meet with critical approval emphasizes a concern for realism.
(C) more open to varying interpretations (B) Passage 1 emphasizes tragic potential; Passage 2
(D) less emotionally satisfying emphasizes literary greatness.
(E) less viable as a detective story (C) Passage 1 emphasizes emotional impact; Passage 2
emphasizes formal precision.
28. In the first paragraph of Passage 2, Chandler regards (D) Passage 1 emphasizes originality of plot; Passage 2
the distinction between “literature of escape” and emphasizes ornate style.
“literature of expression” as (E) Passage 1 emphasizes character development;
Passage 2 emphasizes escape from reality.
(A) more useful for beginning writers than for
experienced ones 33. Passage 2 suggests that Chandler would most likely
(B) helpful in establishing the true place of the view the writers described by Sayers in lines 26-30
detective story within the realm of literature with
(C) a concept that is less appropriate for critics than
for creative writers (A) awe
(D) an example of literary criticism that means less (B) envy
than it appears to (C) disapproval
(E) an example of the separation of a story’s structure (D) amusement
from its content (E) tolerance
34. Which of the following is a primary difference 35. The two passages differ in that the tone of Passage 1 is
between the two passages?
(A) explanatory, whereas the tone of Passage 2 is
(A) Sayers is writing about escapist literature, whereas confrontational
Chandler is writing about serious literature. (B) reflective, whereas the tone of Passage 2 is
(B) Sayers assumes an obligation to the reader, defensive
whereas Chandler does not. (C) tentative, whereas the tone of Passage 2 is
(C) Sayers offers an analysis of a form, whereas assertive
Chandler criticizes a particular writer. (D) scholarly, whereas the tone of Passage 2 is
(D) Sayers regards the detective story more highly amusing
than does Chandler. (E) apologetic, whereas the tone of Passage 2 is
(E) Sayers criticizes a literary form that Chandler detached
defends.
STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
SECTION 3
Time — 30 minutes
25 Questions
Directions: This section contains two types of questions. You have 30 minutes to complete both types. You may use
any available space for scratchwork.
Notes:
1. The use of a calculator is permitted. All numbers used are real numbers.
2. Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not
drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
r
Reference Information
r h
h
h c 2x 60° x s 45° √2 s
w b
w 30° 45°
b a s
A = πr 2 A= w √3 x
C = 2πr A = 1– bh V = wh V = πr 2h c2 = a2 + b2
2 Special Right Triangles
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.
1. x y +3 5. 3 + x 8
BC = 8
2. The length of
32
segment AD
6. x w+ y
0 < x < 1
14. 2 4
x x
4 2
x x
11. n +1 −n + 1
Each of the remaining 10 questions requires you to solve the problem and enter your answer by marking the ovals
in the special grid, as shown in the examples below.
7 Answer: 201
Answer: 12 or 7 12 Answer: 2.5 Either position is correct.
Write answer
in boxes.
Fraction
• • • • line • • • • Decimal • • • • • • • •
0 0 0 0 0 0 point 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
Grid in 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
result.
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
Note: You may start your answers
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
in any column, space permitting.
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Columns not needed should be left
blank.
• Mark no more than one oval in any column. • Decimal Accuracy: If you obtain a decimal
answer, enter the most accurate value the grid
• Because the answer sheet will be machine- will accommodate. For example, if you obtain
scored, you will receive credit only if the ovals an answer such as 0.6666 . . . , you should
are filled in correctly. record the result as .666 or .667. Less accurate
values such as .66 or .67 are not acceptable.
• Although not required, it is suggested that you
write your answer in the boxes at the top of the 2
Acceptable ways to grid = .6666 . . .
columns to help you fill in the ovals accurately. 3
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
2.5 or 5 2. (If is gridded, it will be 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
21
interpreted as , not 2 1 .) 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
2 2
16. If 2 x + 1 = 8, what is the value of 4 x + 1 ? 17. If the ratio of x to 900 is equal to the ratio of 2 to 3,
and if the ratio of 900 to g is equal to the ratio of
3 to 5, what is the value of x + g ?
row minus the lesser number in the bottom row. What Built-in Yes 3
Bookcases No 5
is the value of ? Totals 19 30
24. In the figure above, the seven small circles, which have
equal radii, and the large circle share only those points
on the circles that are marked. Point P is the center of
the large circle and PA and PB are radii. The area of
the shaded portion is how many times the area of one
of the small circles?
STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
SECTION 5
Time — 30 minutes
30 Questions
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
oval on the answer sheet.
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank 5. To her great relief, Jennifer found that wearing
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sunglasses in bright sunlight helped to ------- her
sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through headaches.
E. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in (A) ascertain (B) dislocate (C) mitigate
the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a (D) extend (E) propagate
whole.
Example: 6. The cellist Yo-Yo Ma performs both classical and
contemporary works; he is honored both as an active
Medieval kingdoms did not become constitutional ------- of the new and as ------- interpreter of the old.
republics overnight; on the contrary, the change
was -------. (A) excluder . . a disciplined
(B) reviler . . an unparalleled
(A) unpopular (B) unexpected (C) disparager . . a pathetic
(C) advantageous (D) sufficient (D) champion . . an inadequate
(E) gradual A B C D E
(E) proponent . . an incomparable
1. With scant rainfall and a history of -------, the country 7. The ------- of the program charged with developing
is one of the world’s most arid. a revolutionary reactor based on nuclear fusion confi-
(A) monsoons (B) farming (C) drought dently predicted that there would soon be proof of the
(D) manufacturing (E) conservation reactor’s ------- .
(A) directors . . redundancy
2. The three designers ------- the new project, ------- their (B) adversaries . . profitability
individual talents and many years of experience. (C) originators . . futility
(D) critics . . efficiency
(A) boycotted . . brandishing
(E) advocates . . feasibility
(B) commended . . belittling
(C) agonized over . . compensating
(D) quarreled over . . combining 8. Despite his frequent shifting of allegiance, Johnson is
(E) collaborated on . . pooling not a flagrant -------, but he is nonetheless a striking
specimen of moral -------.
3. Scratching, though a useful self-remedy for an (A) novice . . excellence
occasional itch, can ------- a problem by damaging the (B) malefactor . . earnestness
skin if performed too -------. (C) idealist . . ignorance
(D) opportunist . . equivocation
(A) exacerbate . . vigorously
(E) paragon . . immaturity
(B) cure . . carefully
(C) worsen . . refreshingly
(D) clarify . . abrasively 9. Through a series of -------, Professor Juárez presented
(E) exonerate . . violently a dramatic narrative that portrayed life in the ancient
Mayan city.
4. Climate models do not yield ------- forecasts of what (A) conundrums (B) vignettes (C) dynamics
the future will bring; such models serve only as a (D) factors (E) tangents
clouded crystal ball in which a range of -------
possibilities can be glimpsed.
(A) meteorological . . discarded
(B) definitive . . plausible
(C) practical . . impeccable
(D) temporal . . scientific
(E) conventional . . forgotten
Each question below consists of a related pair of words Each passage below is followed by questions based on its
or phrases, followed by five pairs of words or phrases content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated
labeled A through E. Select the pair that best expresses a or implied in each passage and in any introductory material
relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair. that may be provided.
Example:
Questions 16-24 are based on the following passage.
CRUMB : BREAD ::
(A) ounce : unit In this excerpt from a 1994 article, a biologist discusses his
(B) splinter : wood research expedition to Indonesia.
(C) water : bucket Over the course of millions of years, humans throughout
(D) twine : rope the world have built up a knowledge of their local natural
(E) cream : butter A C D E environment so extensive that not even professional biol-
Line ogists can hope to capture more than a small fraction of it,
5 and other members of urban and industrialized societies can
scarcely imagine it. At the end of the twenty-four days that
10. BATON : CONDUCTOR :: I spent with the Ketengban people of New Guinea, I felt like
(A) brush : painter a narrow-minded boor because I had so often nudged the
(B) rhythm : dancer subject back to birds when they began to talk of anything
(C) desk : clerk 10 else. Even for very rare bird species, such as New Guinea’s
(D) book : author leaden honey-eater and garnet robin, the Ketengbans rattled
(E) costume : actor off the altitudes at which the birds lived, the other species
with which they associated, the height above the ground at
11. SCENT : SKUNK :: which they foraged, their diet, adult call, juvenile call, sea-
(A) tail : ferret 15 sonal movements, and so on. Only by cutting short the
(B) mane : horse Ketengbans’ attempts to share with me their equally
(C) lungs : dolphin detailed knowledge of local plant, rat, and frog species
(D) plumage : cardinal could I record even fragments of their knowledge of birds
(E) quills : porcupine in twenty-four days.
20 Traditionally, the Ketengbans acquired this knowledge
12. PRECINCT : CITY :: by spending much of their time in the forest, from child-
(A) area : perimeter hood on. When I asked my guide, Robert Uropka, how,
(B) department : company lacking binoculars and the sight of one eye, he had come
(C) cubbyhole : belongings to know so much about a tiny, dull-plumed warbler species
(D) neighborhood : residents 25 that lives in the treetops, he told me that as children he and
(E) library : repository his playmates used to climb trees, build blinds* in the can-
opy, and observe and hunt up there. But all that is changing,
13. SOMNOLENT : WAKEFUL :: he explained, as he pointed to his eight-year-old son. Child-
(A) envious : fortunate ren go to school now, and only at vacation times can they
(B) benevolent : kind 30 live in the forest. The results, as I have seen elsewhere in
(C) adamant : rigid New Guinea, are adult New Guineans who know scarcely
(D) graceful : clumsy more about birds than do most American city dwellers.
(E) defiant : autocratic Compounding this problem, education throughout
Indonesian New Guinea is in the Indonesian national
14. SYMMETRY : EYE :: 35 language, not in Ketengban and the 300 other indigenous
(A) melody : voice languages. Radio, TV, newspapers, commerce, and govern-
(B) choreography : feet ment also use the Indonesian national language. While the
(C) applause : hands reasoning behind such decisions is, of course, understand-
(D) pungency : tongue able, the outcome is that all but 200 of the modern world’s
(E) harmony : ear 40 6,000 languages are likely to be extinct or moribund by the
end of the next century. As humanity’s linguistic heritage
15. QUACK : DOCTOR :: disintegrates, much of our traditional, mostly unrecorded
(A) charlatan : impostor knowledge base vanishes with it.
(B) pretender : monarch The analogy that occurs to me is the final destruction,
(C) defendant : prosecutor 45 in 391 A.D., of the largest library of the ancient world, at
(D) arbitrator : judge Alexandria. The library housed all the literature of Greece,
(E) professional : amateur plus much literature of other cultures, most of which, as a
result of that library’s burning, was lost to later generations.
The ongoing loss today that draws most public attention 20. The analogy mentioned in lines 44-48 primarily sup-
50 is the loss of biodiversity; that is, the loss of variety in nature. ports the author’s argument by
In that loss, nature is viewed as the victim, humans as the
villains. But there is also a parallel loss in which humans (A) linking the glory of past cultures with the achieve-
are both victims and unwitting villains. Not only are species ments of modern technology
going extinct, but so is much of our information about (B) contrasting the effect of a catastrophic event with
55 those species that survive. In the future, no children will
the deliberate destruction of large forests
grow up in the forest, where they could receive or redis- (C) connecting two historical movements that serve as
cover that knowledge. Certainly, professional biologists dramatic illustrations
don’t have the necessary time—I count myself lucky if I (D) comparing the scale of an ancient disaster to the
can spend one month every year or two in New Guinea. It projected impact of a current trend
60 is as if we are burning most of our books, while the lan-
(E) presenting two contradictory views of an eternal
guages of those books that remain become as lost to us as human impulse
the texts written 3,000 years ago in ancient Crete in what 21. According to the author, as indigenous languages dis-
is the still-undecipherable ancient Greek script. appear, which of the following is most likely to occur?
* A blind is an enclosure for observing wildlife. (A) Natural environments will be less effectively
managed.
(B) The popularity of electronic and print media will
16. In line 4, “capture” most nearly means
increase.
(A) control (C) Linguists and biologists will begin to share their
(B) grab findings.
(C) acquire (D) Human beings will become estranged from their
(D) win natural environment.
(E) attract (E) Libraries will become repositories for the litera-
ture of extinct languages.
17. The author mentions “New Guinea’s leaden honey-eater
and garnet robin” (lines 10-11) primarily in order to 22. The “unwitting villains” (line 53) will eventually
illustrate cause the
(A) critical information affecting the Ketengbans’ (A) neglect of plant and animal life
daily lives (B) restriction of free speech in certain societies
(B) the number of bird species now in danger of (C) shift from intuition to hard science
becoming extinct (D) eradication of crucial oral traditions
(C) the difficulty biologists encounter in finding and (E) destruction of texts produced by indigenous
observing rare bird species cultures
(D) the Ketengbans’ ability to observe and recollect
details about their environment 23. According to the author, which of the following would
(E) the Ketengbans’ exclusive interest in rare species best advance the kind of work he has done with the
of birds Ketengbans?
(A) Increasing the literacy rate among indigenous
18. In recounting his conversation with Robert Uropka
peoples
(lines 22-32), the author suggests that
(B) Improving the economic conditions of rural
(A) the Ketengbans lead simple lives far from Indonesians
civilization (C) Overcoming the Ketengbans’ suspicions about
(B) the Ketengbans’ natural environment is rapidly the motives of researchers
being destroyed (D) Achieving greater access to the Ketengbans in
(C) only through sustained intimacy with nature can their natural habitat
one really know it (E) Extending the time that researchers spend inter-
(D) children are usually more interested in nature than viewing indigenous peoples
are adults because they study biology in school
(E) New Guineans without formal education will
remain oblivious to issues of biodiversity
24. The primary purpose of the passage is to which means were subordinate to ends. It was a world
35 revolving around family, religion, and the good and
(A) warn readers about the consequences of urban moral life.
living For those who remembered this world, what a hero
(B) convey the sense of adventure associated with Lindbergh was! He was homespun to the core. He was
research solicitous about mothers, children, animals. He did not
(C) reveal how certain detailed knowledge may 40 drink or smoke or even dance. He rejected all the mone-
disappear tary and material rewards and temptations that were dan-
(D) elicit sympathy for the Ketengban children gled before him: not only free clothes and meals, but
(E) credit its author for his appreciation of Ketengban houses and enormous sums of money offered for appear-
culture ances in film, on stage, on radio, or in advertisements.
45 Lindbergh was interpreted as a model for the old order in
meeting and overcoming the challenges of the modern age.
Europeans adored him for his restraint, and they adopted
this heroic individual from small-town, midwestern America
Questions 25-30 are based on the following passage. as one of their own.
In 1927 Charles Lindbergh, a pilot from the United States, 25. The author’s primary purpose in the passage is to
became the first person to fly solo across the Atlantic Ocean.
When he landed in France, he was hailed as a hero of the (A) suggest why Lindbergh’s feat appealed to
age. In this passage, a historian considers the reaction to Europeans
Lindbergh’s achievement. (B) suggest that Lindbergh’s fame was not deserved
(C) suggest that the press created Lindbergh’s
Was Lindbergh in any sense a creation of the press? The celebrity
press was at its apogee in the 1920’s. Never before or since (D) question other historians’ accounts of Lindbergh’s
have there been as many newspapers or as many readers of flight
Line the printed word. The press was the source of news, infor- (E) question Lindbergh’s motivation for making the
5 mation, and entertainment. Every European capital had flight
dozens of newspapers. Many editors, moreover, did judge
the Lindbergh flight to be the biggest news story since the 26. Which answer best summarizes the author’s response
First World War. to the opening question in line 1 ?
But though it played an important role in informing
10 the world of Lindbergh’s feat and the acclaim it met, the (A) Yes, because the press publicized Lindbergh’s
press can scarcely be charged with creating the American’s activities in Europe
renown. At most one can say that the printed word and the (B) Yes, because Lindbergh would never have
paucity of pictorial evidence encouraged some people to attempted the flight without the support of the
venture forth to the airfield and into the streets to try to press
15 catch a glimpse of the modern hero. On the whole, the press (C) No, because Lindbergh’s fame was due to film
followed the excitement rather than created it. In fact, before appearances rather than press coverage
Lindbergh’s departure from New York there was scant (D) No, because Lindbergh’s fame developed among
mention in the European press of the impending venture. the people of Europe before extensive press
The sensational story blossomed in people’s minds before coverage began
20 it reached the front pages, while Lindbergh was over the (E) No, because Lindbergh’s fame lasted long after
Atlantic. the press ceased reporting about him
The acclaim, then, has to be put into a broader context if
its dimensions are to be appreciated. Lindbergh, through his
achievements and character, seemed to satisfy the needs of
25 many Europeans who believed that their world was in the
throes of decline. Since the end of the war, eight and a half
years earlier, Europe had slumped into a monumental mel-
ancholy. What was being lost, many felt, was the prewar
world of values, of decorum, of positive accomplishment,
30 of grace. It was a world that had room and ready recogni-
tion for individual achievement based on effort, preparation,
courage, staying power. It was a world in which people
used the machine and technology to conquer nature, in
27. The author characterizes the European press of the 29. The author provides the information in lines 38-44 in
1920’s as order to show that Lindbergh was a
(A) a sensationalistic institution unconcerned with (A) hero with idiosyncratic habits
objectivity and truth (B) typical American of the 1920’s
(B) an inconsequential institution that too often (C) man who enjoyed notoriety
published articles devoid of social commentary (D) man with strongly held principles
(C) a respectable institution that rarely went beyond (E) natural-born actor
covering political and business news
(D) a powerful institution that made huge profits for 30. The author believes that the response in Europe to
its owners Lindbergh’s flight was chiefly a result of
(E) a thriving institution that fulfilled public needs
(A) the flight’s implications for economic progress
(B) a fascination with the technological achievement
28. Lines 22-36 suggest that the author would most likely
(C) the public’s need for a positive role model
agree with which of the following statements?
(D) the public’s awareness of Lindbergh through press
(A) Historical events should be assessed from an coverage
objective rather than a subjective standpoint. (E) the public’s high regard for a military hero from
(B) Historical events should be studied in relation to the First World War
the social context of the times.
(C) Historical interpretations are best understood
when personal accounts augment quantitative
data.
(D) Biographical accounts are usually more expansive
than autobiographical ones.
(E) Biographical accounts should be written by
scholars with a broad knowledge of the subject’s
early years.
STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
SECTION 6
Time — 15 minutes
10 Questions
Directions: In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide
which is the best of the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.
Notes:
1. The use of a calculator is permitted. All numbers used are real numbers.
2. Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not
drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
r
Reference Information
r h
h
h c 2x 60° x s 45° √2 s
w b
w 30° 45°
b a s
A= πr 2 A= w √3 x
C = 2πr A = 1– bh V = wh V= πr 2h c2 = a2 + b2
2 Special Right Triangles
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.
(C) 1 only y
5 √7
(D) only
2
(E) No real numbers
2 √6
x y
8. If 2 x + 3 y = 1, what is + in terms of y ?
2 3
y 10. For positive integers x, let the symbol x rep-
(A)
5
resent the sum of the digits of x. For example,
1 − 3y
(B) 74 = 7 + 4 = 11. If n is a positive integer and
2
n = 33 + 17, which of the following could be
1 − 3y
(C) the value of n ?
4
3y + 4 (A) 14
(D) (B) 34
15
(C) 51
3 − 5y (D) 65
(E)
12 (E) 86
STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
SECTION 7
Time — 15 minutes
13 Questions
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
oval on the answer sheet.
The passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied
in the passage and in any introductory material that may be provided.
Questions 1-13 are based on the following passage. 45 But, I was rudely shaken out of this when I confided
my happy secret to Carrie Roberts, my chum. It was cruel.
This passage comes from the autobiography of a Black She not only scorned my claim, she said that the moon was
woman who grew up in Florida at the end of the nineteenth paying me no mind at all. The moon, my own happy private-
century. playing moon, was out in its play yard to race and play
50 with her.
Grown people know that they do not always know the We disputed the matter with hot jealousy, and nothing
why of things, and even if they think they know, they do not would do but we must run a race to prove which one the
know where and how they got the proof. Hence the irritation moon was loving. First, we both ran a race side by side, but
Line they show when children keep on demanding to know if a that proved nothing because we both contended that the
5 thing is so and how the grown folks got the proof of it. It is 55 moon was going that way on account of us. I just knew that
so troublesome because it is disturbing to the pigeonhole the moon was there to be with me, but Carrie kept on saying
way of life. It is upsetting because until the elders are pushed that it was herself that the moon preferred. So then it came
for an answer, they have never looked to see if it was so, nor to me that we ought to run in opposite directions so that
how they came by what passes for proof to their acceptances Carrie could come to her senses and realize the moon was
10 of certain things as true. So, if telling their questioning 60 mine. So we both stood with our backs to our gate, counted
young to run off and play does not suffice for an answer, a three, and tore out in opposite directions.
good swat on the child’s bottom is held to be proof positive “Look! Look, Carrie!” I cried exultantly. “You see the
for anything from spelling “Constantinople” to why the sea moon is following me!”
is salt. It was told to the old folks and that had been enough “Ah, youse a tale-teller! You know it’s chasing me.”
15 for them, or to put it in Black idiom, nobody didn’t tell 65 So Carrie and I parted company, mad as we could be
‘em, but they heard. So there must be something wrong with each other. When the other children found out what
with a child that questions the gods of the pigeonhole. the quarrel was about, they laughed it off. They told me the
I was always asking and making myself a crow in a moon always followed them. The unfaithfulness of the
pigeon’s nest. It was hard on my family and surroundings, moon hurt me deeply. My moon followed Carrie Roberts.
20 and they in turn were hard on me. I did not know then, as 70 My moon followed Matilda Clark and Julia Mosley, and
I know now, that people are prone to build a statue of the Oscar and Teedy Miller. But after a while, I ceased to ache
kind of person that it pleases them to be. And few people over the moon’s many loves. I found comfort in the fact
want to be forced to ask themselves, “What if there is no that though I was not the moon’s exclusive friend, I was
me like my statue?” The thing to do is to grab the broom still among those who showed the moon which way to go.
25 of anger and drive off the beast of fear. 75 That was my earliest conscious hint that the world didn’t
I was full of curiosity like many other children, and like tilt under my footfalls, nor careen over one-sided just to
them I was as unconscious of the sanctity of statuary as a make me glad.
flock of pigeons around a palace. I got few answers from But no matter whether my probings made me happier or
other people, but I kept on asking, because I couldn’t do sadder, I kept on probing to know.
30 anything else with my feelings.
Naturally, I felt like other children in that death,
destruction, and other agonies were never meant to touch 1. In lines 1-17, the narrator’s tone in discussing “grown
me. Things like that happened to other people, and no people” is best described as
wonder. They were not like me and mine. Naturally, the
(A) embarrassed and contrite
35 world and the firmaments careened to one side a little so as
(B) tentative and reasonable
not to inconvenience me. In fact, the universe went further
(C) amused and childlike
than that —it was happy to break a few rules just to show
(D) playfully disapproving
me preferences.
(E) defiantly resentful
For instance, for a long time I gloated over the happy
40 secret that when I played outdoors in the moonlight the
moon followed me, whichever way I ran. The moon was
so happy when I came out to play that it ran shining and
shouting after me like a pretty puppy dog. The other chil-
dren didn’t count.
2. In context, the phrase “pigeonhole way of life” 8. The description of “the world and the firmaments” in
(lines 6-7) refers to a lines 34-35 serves to emphasize the
(A) frustrated longing for more specialized knowledge (A) sense of grandeur some adults enjoy
(B) complacency about a particular way of thinking (B) child’s perception of an adult understanding
(C) compulsive desire to maintain family unity (C) erroneous explanations put forth by adults
(D) recurrent tendency to ask petty questions (D) subjects the author worried about as a child
(E) general tendency to avoid unpleasant truths (E) author’s self-centered confidence as a child
3. According to the narrator, adults often respond to 9. The “rules” mentioned in line 37 are
children’s difficult questions by
(A) parental expectations
(A) rebuffing and punishing the children (B) social customs
(B) changing the topic to more familiar subjects (C) adult delusions
(C) referring the children to traditional oral tales (D) childhood rituals
(D) pretending to be too busy to answer (E) natural laws
(E) challenging the children to discover their own
answers 10. The phrase “happy to break a few rules” (line 37) helps
to develop the narrator’s
4. The discussion of statues in lines 20-25 expresses the
(A) childhood view of the world
narrator’s view that most people
(B) childlike trust in her family and her society
(A) look forward to improving their lives (C) view of the world’s random unpredictability
(B) fear new experiences in the world (D) hope for an adult life happier than that of her
(C) wish to challenge social mores childhood
(D) doubt their childhood fantasies (E) strong identification with other children
(E) cling to self-promoting illusions
11. In line 51, “hot” most nearly means
5. The phrase “a flock of pigeons” (lines 27-28) refers to
(A) lucky (B) spicy (C) ardent
(A) adults who ignore the aesthetic beauty of their (D) extremely warm (E) electrically charged
environment
(B) adults who think and act alike when among their 12. The statement in lines 75-77 (“That was . . . glad”)
friends suggests that the narrator
(C) children who often ignore parental directions (A) had yet to learn to determine her own definition
(D) children who unwittingly disturb what is sacred to of “truth”
adults (B) now understood that her actions would have a vast
(E) children who are unable to focus on a single idea impact on her surroundings
for an extended period of time (C) realized that her responsibilities were greater than
she had initially believed
6. In lines 31-38, the narrator portrays children as
(D) had revised her perception of her place in the world
(A) convinced adults do not understand them (E) would probably not accept a more balanced view
(B) unconscious of their own vulnerability of her role in her family
(C) constantly seeking the meaning of life
(D) impatient with adults’ simplistic answers 13. The statement in the last paragraph (lines 78-79)
(E) frightened of the world around them reinforces the narrator’s earlier discussion about
(A) adult idealism
7. In line 32, “touch” most nearly means
(B) childhood friendships
(A) affect (B) rival (C) transfer (C) her persistent curiosity
(D) press (E) tap (D) her strong ego
(E) her disillusionment with life
STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
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Correct Answers and Difficulty Levels
for the SAT Practice Test
VERBAL MATHEMATICAL
Section 2 Section 5 Section 7 Section 1 Section 3 Section 6
Five-choice Five-choice Five-choice Five-choice Four-choice Five-choice
Questions Questions Questions Questions Questions Questions
Correct Difficulty Correct Difficulty Correct Difficulty Correct Difficulty Correct Difficulty Correct Difficulty
Answer Level Answer Level Answer Level Answer Level Answer Level Answer Level
1. A 1 1. C 1 1. D 5 1. D 1 1. A 2 1. C 1
2. B 2 2. E 2 2. B 4 2. E 1 2. B 1 2. C 1
3. B 2 3. A 2 3. A 3 3. E 1 3. A 1 3. B 2
4. E 2 4. B 3 4. E 3 4. A 2 4. C 1 4. D 3
5. B 3 5. C 3 5. D 3 5. A 1 5. D 2 5. D 3
6. E 3 6. E 3 6. B 3 6. B 1 6. C 2 6. E 4
7. C 4 7. E 4 7. A 1 7. D 2 7. B 2 7. A 4
8. C 5 8. D 5 8. E 4 8. D 2 8. A 2 8. E 5
9. C 4 9. B 4 9. E 3 9. A 2 9. A 3 9. A 5
10. E 5 10. A 1 10. A 3 10. C 2 10. D 3 10. E 5
11. D 1 11. E 2 11. C 2 11. A 3 11. D 4
12. C 1 12. B 3 12. D 3 12. B 2 12. A 3
13. B 2 13. D 4 13. C 2 13. B 3 13. D 5
number correct
14. A 3 14. E 3 14. C 3 14. A 3
15. E 1 15. B 5 15. D 3 15. C 5
16. E 3 16. C 1 16. C 3
number correct
17. B 3 17. D 3 17. E 3 number incorrect
18. B 3 18. C 3 18. A 3
number correct
19. C 3 19. B 2 19. B 4
20. A 4 20. D 3 number incorrect 20. C 5
21. A 4 21. D 3 21. C 3
22. B 5 22. D 5 22. C 3 number incorrect
23. B 5 23. E 4 23. E 4
24. E 3 24. C 2 24. B 4
25. B 3 25. A 3 25. D 5
26. A 5 26. D 3
27. E 4 27. E 3
28. D 4 28. B 3 number correct
29. A 3 29. D 2
30. D 2 30. C 3 Section 3
31. E 4 Student-Produced
32. A 4 number incorrect Response Questions
33. C 3
34. C 4 number correct Correct Difficulty
35. A 3 Answer Level
16. 15 1
number incorrect 17. 2100 3
18. 4 3
number correct 19. 3 or 4 2
20. 9 3
21. 2/3, .666 or .667 3
number incorrect 22. 105 3
23. 18 4
24. 7/6, 1.16 or 1.17 4
25. 35/6 or 5.83 5
number correct
(16-25)
NOTE: Difficulty levels are estimates of question difficulty for a reference group of college-bound
seniors. Difficulty levels range from 1 (easiest) to 5 (hardest).
Scores Available
Online/Phone OCT 22 NOV 19 DEC 17 FEB 4 MAR 28 MAY 23 JUNE 20
Mailed OCT 30 DEC 1 DEC 30 FEB 12 APR 8 JUNE 3 JULY 1
• Sunday test dates immediately • You can take either the SAT OR up to three Subject Tests • Scores are available by phone and
follow each Saturday test date. during a given test administration. When you register, at www.collegeboard.com about 2
indicate each Subject Test you intend to take. weeks after the test. Most score
• Deadlines are the same for all
• Register separately for each test administration. reports are mailed about 3 weeks
methods of registration (mail must
after the test. Sometimes scores
be POSTMARKED). • You MUST register by the regular registration deadline if you may take longer to report.
• Register early and avoid the last- want to take a Language Test with Listening, including the ELPT. • The Question-and-Answer Service
minute rush. Late registration is • Listening tests are offered only in November. is only available for the October 9,
available to students in the U.S., You may take ONLY ONE listening test at that time. January 22, and March 12 test
Puerto Rico, and U.S. territories only. ELPT is also offered in January in test centers. dates. The Student Answer Service
is available for all other test dates.