QUESTION

1. Under this, crimes are triable in that country unless they merely affect things within the vessel or they refer to the internal management thereof.
2. It refers to inaction, by which a person may be considered criminally liable when the law requires the performance of a certain act, e.g. failure to assist one’s own
3. It indicates a deficiency in action
4. It refers to a deficiency in perception
5. For an act to be considered to be done with malice or dolo, which among the following must be present?
6. Refers to that cause which is in natural is a continuous sequence, unbroken by any efficient superseding ground, produce the injury and without which the result w
7. It is the portion of the acts constituting the felony, starting from the point where the offender begins the commission of the crime to the point where he has control
8. Generally they are punishable only when they have been consummated, with the exemption of those crimes committed against persons or property.
9. Self-defense or one’s natural instinct to repel, protect and save his person or right from impending peril or danger is an example of what circumstances which affe
10. A inflicted slight physical injuries to B without intention to inflict other injuries, B then attacked A is an example of?
11. The basis of this circumstances affecting criminal liability is the complete absence of freedom of action, intelligence, intent or intelligence on the part of the accu
12. under our laws, what is the age of full responsibility?
13. Age of absolute irresponsibility?
14. Which among the following may be considered as alternative circumstances?
15. X and Y stabbed, injuring the Z in the process, X and y are considered as;
16. Boyting forcibly took Beauty to a vacant lot allowed his friends Lander and Tonyo to rape Beauty, Boyting is liable as;
17. It refers to those penalties expressly imposed by the court in the judgment of conviction.
18. In the crime of theft, the culprit is duty bound to return the stolen property.
19. Crime punishable by correctional penalties, except those punishable by arresto mayor shall prescribe in how many years?
20. It includes river. Creek, bays, gulfs, lakes, straits, and coves lying wholly within the three mile limit of any nation
21. It makes criminal act an act done before the passage of law which was innocent when done, and punishes it.
22. Refers to one of the three equal portions, called minimum, medium and maximum of a divisible penalty
23. Which among the following is considered as the primary source of criminal law?
24. Those punishable by arresto mayor penalties shall prescribe in how many years?
25. It is the forfeiture of the right of the state to prosecute after a certain lapse of time.
26. It is the branch or division of law which defines crimes, treats of their nature, and provide for their punishment.
27. Refers to a sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period define by law subject to termination by the parole board at any time after service of the sentence.
28. Refers to the purpose to use a particular means to affect such result.
29. Sab commences with the execution of a felony but fails to perform all the acts which should produce it, the development or stage refers to;
30. Any bodily movement that tends to produce an effect in the external world.
31. Libel and other similar means shall prescribe in how many years?
32. An entire penalty enumerated in the graduated scale of penalties.
33. Refers generally to acts made criminal by special laws;
34. Under RA 7659, the Death Penalty may be suspended when the accused is among the following except;
35. Which among the following is not requisite of Dolo?
36. Refers to the loss or forfeiture of the state to execute final sentence after a certain lapse of time.
37. Things which are wrongful in their nature.
38. Felonies punishable by death, reclusion perpertua and reclusion temporal shall prescribe in;
39. Acts and omission punishable by law
40. Joven intending to kill Greg to avenged lost honor stabbed the latter three times in the chest, however due to prompt medical attention Greg was able to survive t
41. When all the elements of execution necessary for the execution and accomplishment of a felony are present it said to be:
42. It is physical activity or deed, indicating the intention to commit particular crime.
43. Aberratio Ictus refers to;
44. What must be considered in determining whether the crime committed is only attempted, frustrated or consummated?
45. Refers to crime consummated in one instant or by a single acts
46. Refers to the obligation or suffering the consequences of crime.
47. A quality in which an act maybe ascribed to a person as the author or owner.
48. Refers to felonies which the law imposes penalties which are correctional in nature.
49. When the law attaches capital punishment or afflictive penalties the felony said to be?
50. Infractions to the law by arresto menor or a fine not exceeding 200 pesos or both;
51. light felonies are made punishable only when they are:
52. Exemption to the general rule in cases of light felonies;
53. It exists when two or more person come to an agreement to commit a felony.
54. What occurs when a person who has decided to commit a felony recommends its execution to some other person?

55. Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with the law, so that such person is deemed not have transgressed that law is free from both criminal and civi
56. Equivalent to assault or at least threatened assault of an immediate nature.
57. The following are the requisites for self-defense, except.
58. What crimes exists when single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave felonies?
59. Who among the following are not exempted from criminal liability?
60. Refers to desired acts of a person to commit a crime.
61. Those circumstances which if attendant to the commission of the crime would serve to lower the penalty to a lesser degree.
62. An aggravating circumstances which may generally apply to all crimes such as dwelling, nighttime or recidivism.
63. Refers to occurrences which happen beyond the sway of man’s will.
64. Boy a policeman persuades Alex to commit a felony, he arrested the latter after its execution is committing;
65. Refers to circumstances which if attendant in the commission of a crime serve to increase the penalty, without however exceeding the maximum of the penalty p
66. They are aggravating circumstances which change the nature of the crime, e.g. homicide to murder in case of treachery.
67. Refers to aggravating circumstances which applies only to particular crimes
68. An aggravating circumstances which come in the commission of the crimes.
69. Refers to a building or structure exclusively used for rest or comfort.
70. Whenever more than three armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of an offense it is deemed to have been committed by;
71. Refers to person who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of

72. A person who has been a period of ten years from the date of release or last conviction is said to have been found guilty of the same offense particularly those of
73. Any person who shall commit a felony while serving his sentence with a previous conviction classified as a;
74. Which among the following is not among the requisites of evident premeditation?
75. It involves trickery and cunning on the part of the offender.
76. Gloria lends Noynoy a bolo which was used in the murder of Joseph is liable as an;
77. Person who aide the felons to hide away evidences or profit from the fruits of the crime are said to be;
78. The following are exempt from criminal liability as accessories in cases that the principal should be the foregoing relatives except;
79. Capital punishment or maximum penalty imposed by law.
80. Refers to alevosia, or means and methods employed to insure its execution.
81. It pertains to moral order, adding disgrace to the material injury caused by the crime.

82. The following circumstances are always mitigated in terms of alternative circumstances, except:
83. Xander stabbing army is considered as a:
84. Emil persuades Jude to steal from his boss is a principal by:
85. Which in the following enumeration is an example of an afflictive penalty?
86. What would be the nature of action for a person over nine years of age and under fifteen to incur criminal liability?
87. It shall serve to deprive the offender rights of parental authority or guardianship.
88. Personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no property to meet the fine.
89. A form of protection rather than a penalty in cases of art 247 of the RPC.
90. the moving power which impels one to action for a definite result.
91. It refers to an act committed or omitted in violation of public law forbidding or commanding it.
92. In cases wherein the commission of an offense is necessary in the commission of another it is said that the crime is.
93. When did Act No. 3815 take effect?
94. Ignorantia Facti Excusat means:
95. Under this, crimes are not triable in the courts of that country, unless their commission affects the peace and security of the territory and the safety of the state is
96. An Outward movement tending to produce an effect in outside world
97. Light offenses prescribe in:
98. The foregoing are persons exempt from the operation of criminal law by virtue of the principles of public international law, except;
99. It is a characteristic of criminal law stating that the law is binding on all persons who live and sojourn in Philippine territory.
100. It refers to a legislative act which inflicts punishment without a trial.
ANS A
a. French rule
a. act
a. negligence
a. negligence
a. freedom
a. proximate cause
a. objective phase
a. light felonies
a. justifying
a. self- defense
a. justifying
a. 9 years old and below infancy
a. 9 years old and below infancy
a. relationship
a. principal by direct participation
a. principal by direct participation
a. principals penalties
a. restitution
a. 20 years
a. maritime zone
a. ex post facto law
a. degree
a. act no. 3815
a. 20 years
a. Prescription of the crime
a. civil law
a. suspension
a. intent
a. consummated
a. act
a. 15 years
a. degree
a. felony
a. a woman while pregnant
a. intelligence
a. prescription of crime
a. evil
a. 20 years
a. dolo
a. physical injuries
a. consummated
a. act
a. mistake of the facts
a. nature of the offense
a. formal crimes
a. imputability
a. imputability
a. grave
a. grave
a. grave
a. consummated
a. when committed against persons
a. plan
a. conspiracy

a. justifying circumstances
a. intent
a. unlawful aggression
a. complex
a. children under 9 years of age
a. motive
a. justifying
a. generic
a. nature
a. instigation
a. justifying
a. generic
a. generic
a. generic
a. house
a. group
a. delinquent

a. recidivist
a. recidivist
a. sufficient lapse of time
a. craft
a. principal
a. principals
a. spouse
a. reclusion temporal
a. craft
a. craft

a. low degree of education

a. principal
a. direct participation
a. fine
a. act with discernment
a. subsidiary penalty
a. subsidiary penalty
a. subsidiary penalty
a. intent
a. dolo
a. formal crime
a. January 1, 1931
a. Ignorance of the law
a. French rule
a. behavior
a. 12 months
a. heads of states
a. general
a. ex post facto law
ANS B
b. English rule
b. intent
b. imprudence
b. imprudence
b. intelligence
b. intervening cause
b. subjective phase
b. less grave felonies
b. exempting
b. intervening cause
b. exempting
b. between 9 and 15 years old
b. between 9 and 15 years old
b. intoxication
b. principal by induction
b. principal by induction
b. accessory penalties
b. reparation
b. 15 years
b. interior waters
b. bill of attainder
b. period
b. special penal laws
b. 5 years
b. prescription of the penalty
b. criminal law
b. indeterminate sentence
b. motive
b. attempted
b. omission
b. 10 years
b. period
b. mala inse
b. persons over 70 years old
b. freedom
b. prescription of the penalty
b. mala ince
b. 15 years
b. culpa
b. attempted homicide
b. attempted
b. omission
b. mistake in the identity
b. elements constituting the felony
b. informal crimes
b. culpability
b. culpability
b. less grave
b. less grave
b. less grave
b. attempted
b. when committed against chastity
b. conspiracy
b. piracy

b. mitigating circumstances
b. culpa
b. reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it
b. continuing
b. insane persons
b. intent
b. mitigating
b. specific
b. accidents
b. entrapment
b. exempting
b. specific
b. specific
b. specific
b. home
b. brigands
b. habitual delinquent

b. delinquent
b. delinquent
b. time when the offender decided to commit a felony
b. deceit
b. accessory
b. accessories
b. ascendant
b. reclusion temporal
b. deceit
b. treachery

b. intoxication wherein the drunk person j=has not intended it or not a habitual drunkard
b. accessory
b. induction
b. arresto mayor
b. show malice
b. penalty
b. distierro
b. distierro
b. motive
b. culpa
b. informal crime
b. January 1, 1932
b. mistake of facts
b. American rule
b. conduct
b. 6 months
b. ambassadors
b. territorial
b. bill of attainder
ANS C
c. law preferential application
c. fraud
c. lack of skill
c. lack of skill
c. intent
c. overt acts
c. overt acts
c. grave felonies
c. aggravating
c. retaliation
c. aggravating
c. 18 to 70 years of age (adolescence to maturity)
c. 18 to 70 years of age (adolescence to maturity)
c. degree of instruction and education of the offender
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
c. subsidiary penalties
b. indemnification for consequential damages
c. 10 years
c. low watermark
c. law on preferential ap[plication
c. prescription
c. penal Presidential Decrees
c. 10 years
c. degree of penalty
c. procedural law
c. prescription
c. deceit
c. frustrated
c. dolo
c. 5 years
c. prescription
c. mala ince
c. woman within one years after delivery
c. intent
c. degree of penalty
c. mala inse
c. 10 years
c. felonies
c. frustrated homicide
c. frustrated
c. fault
c. mistake in the blow
c. manner of commission
c. rational crimes
c. liability
c. liability
c. light
c. light
c. light
c. frustrated
c. when committed against honor
c. piracy
c. proposal

c. exempting circumstances
c. dolo
c. lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person defending himself
c. composite
c. children over 9 but under 15 years of age acting with discernment
c. mitigating
c. exempting
c. qualifying
c. events
c. conspiracy
c. mitigating
c. qualifying
c. qualifying
c. qualifying
c. dwelling
c. band
c. recidivist

c. habitual delinquent
c. habitual delinquent
c. act indicating the he has clung to his determination
c. fault
c. accomplice
c. accomplices
c. descendant
c. arresto mayor
c. intent
c. ignominy

c. relationship in crimes against property

c. accomplice
c. indispensable cooperation
c. distierro
c. show criminal intent
c. suspension
c. suspension
c. suspension
c. deceit
c. felony
c. compound crime
c. January 1, 1933
c. mistake of the blow
c. Spanish rule
c. physical act
c. 4 months
c. consul
c. retrospective
c. law on preferential application
ANS D
d. Spanish rule
d. omission
d. lack of foresight
d. lack of foresight
d. all of these
d. active force
d. attempted felony
d. all of these
d. mitigating
d. proximate cause
d. mitigating
d. over 9 under 15 acting with discernment, 15 or over but less than 18, over 70 years of age
d. over 9 under 15 acting with discernment, 15 or over but less than 18, over 70 years of age
d. all of these
d. co- principals
d. co- principals
d. fine
d. civil liability
d. 5 years
d. high seas
d. self-repealing laws
d. duration
d. constitution
d. 15 years
d. period of penalty
d. substantive law
d. period of penalty
d. fault
d. negligence
d. culpa
d. 1 years
d. duration
d. mala prohibita
d. Persons over 18 but under 21 years of age
d. deceit
d. period of penalty
d. mala prohibita
d. 5 years
d. crime
d. frustrated murder
d. negligence
d. overt acts
d. ignorance of the law
d. all of these
d. irrational crimes
d. responsibility
d. responsibility
d. serious
d. slight
d. slight
d. intended
d. when committed against liberty
d. proposal
d. none of these

d. aggravating circumstances
d. unlawful aggression
d. lack of intent on the part of the person defending himself
d. compound
d. imbecile persons
d. aggravating
d. aggravating
d. inherent
d. phenomenon
d. proposal
d. aggravating
d. inherent
d. inherent
d. inherent
d. all of these
d. team
d. offender

d. quasi- recidivist
d. quasi- recidivist
d. deliberate intent
d. intent
d. conspirator
d. conspirators
d. cousins
d. death by lethal injection
d. treachery
d. evident premeditation

d. relationship in crimes persons

d. instigating
d. instigation
d. prision mayor
d. act negligently
d. civil interdiction
d. civil interdiction
d. civil interdiction
d. fault
d. crime
d. complex crime
d. January 1, 1934
d. mistake in identity
d. English rules
d. act
d. 2 months
d. charge d’ affairs
d. universal
d. self- repealing laws
CORRECT ANS
B
D
B
A
D
A
B
A
A
C
B
C
D
D
D
C
A
A
C
B
A
B
A
B
A
B
B
A
B
A
D
A
D
D
D
B
C
A
C
D
A
D
C
D
A
D
A
B
A
C
A
A
B
C
A
D
D
D
C
B
B
A
B
A
D
C
B
D
C
C
C
C
D
D
A
C
B
D
D
D
C
D
A
B
D
A
D
A
B
B
D
B
B
B
A
D
D
C
A
B
QUESTION
1. SPO3 Tomes inflicted physical injuries on a detainee to obtain relevant information in the commission of the crime, he may be liable for:
2. Refers to physical ugliness or permanent and definite abnormality.
3. Andy punched James on the eye which produced a contusion, what crime was committed?
4. It is a building or structure devoted for comfort or rest.
5. Robert hunted and shot down a wild boar while inside a private farm owned by Mr. Antonio, the former may be liable for;
6. Jeffrey agreed to sell Jet first class rice and received from the latter the purchased price thereof, but Jose delivered poor quality rice, he may be liable for;
7. Delfin gave Edwin 3, 500 pesos for payment of a Ralph Blue perfumes, however Edwin did not gave Delfin the perfume and instead absconded, what crime was c
8. Jovel pawned his car to Randy, later pretending to have money for redeeming the car Jovel asked for it and rode away without paying the loan, Jovel is liable for:
9. Refers to a home of the husband and his wife
10. Chito who was very fond of Neri, kissed and embraced the latter and touching the girl’s breast as a mere incident of the embraced is liable for;
11. It requires the concurrence of two things, that there being an actual assembly of men and for such purpose of executing a treasonable design by force.
12. What crime is committed against mankind, whose jurisdiction consequently recognizes no territorial limits?
13. A person execute a false affidavit may held liable for;
14. Jobert threatened to kill Jayson if the latter will not give him 2, 000 pesos. What crime has been committed by Jobert?
15. The degree of proof required to convict a person accused of treason.
16. PO2 Ranulfo detains Ms. Jona for being ugly is liable for;
17. It is committed by a person, who being under oath is required to testify as to the truth of a certain matter at a hearing before a competent authority, shall deny the

18. A detained prisoner was allowed to eat and drink in a nearby restaurant on several occasions; he was at all times duly guarded. Assuming that it was done with th
19. Refers to the omission of some acts which ought to be performed.
20. Consists of acts which are offensive to decency and good customs, which have been committed publicly, have given rise to public scandal to persons who have w
21. A person arrested for the commission of an offense punishable by afflictive penalties must be delivered to the proper judicial authority within how many hours?
22. It is the unauthorized act of a public officer who compels a person to change his residence.
23. A person having knowledge of the plans to commit treason and fails to disclose such information to the governor, fiscal or mayor is guilty of what crime?
24. It is a felony which in its general sense is raising of commotions or disturbances in the state outside of the legal method.
25. A police officer who arrested a member of congress while going to attend a senate session for a traffic violation is liable for:
26. Exemption to violation of parliamentary immunity, when a member of congress while in a regular session:
27. Refers to persons having no apparent menas of subsistence but has the physical ability to work and neglects to apply himself or herself to lawful calling.
28. This crime is committed by raising publicly and taking arms against government to completely overthrow and supersede said existing government.
29. The nature of the crime of treason and espionage.
30. A swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation, stealth, directed against duly constituted authorities, public utilities, military camps and instillation with o
31. Groups which are organized for the purpose of committing any crime against the RPC or for other purposes contrary to the public morals.
32. When gathering of persons is held with the presence or armed men and the purpose of the meeting is to commit any crime punishable under the RPC, what crime
33. Implies anything which includes offensive or antagonistic movement or action of any kind.
34. Mass uprising has been undertaken by supporters of Mae Concepcion wherein they resort to violence to stop the holding the forthcoming elections, what crime w
35. Michael a CPIC student assisted SPO1 Romeo who was being assaulted by Mr. Tapel while resisting arrest; Mr. Tapel then kicked Michael. What was the crime
36. Jayson, a college student punched his gay teacher while discordant noises designed to annoy and insult.
37. Includes medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant noises designed to annoy and insult.
38. Mr. K fired his pistol towards the sky during the celebration of his birthday is liable for:
39. Julie who frequently introduces himself as an NBI agent under false pretense may be held liable for:
40. Harold having been convicted of estafa escaped from BJMP personnel, what felony was committed?
41. To settle his debt, Lucas imitated 500 peso, he is liable for:
42. Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes allegiance to it.
43. Any other name of person which publicly applies to himself without authority of the law.
44. To avoid of being charged with delay in the delivery of persons to proper judicial authorities, a person caught in the act of committing a felony punishable by pe
45. Refers to the gathering, transmitting or losing information relative to national defense with intent to be used to the injury of the Republic of the Philippines.
46. PO2 Masagca, forcibly entered the dwelling of Jovel who is a suspected drug pusher, what crime was committed by the public officer?
47. Refers to the resistance to a superior officer, and or raising of commotions and disturbance on board a ship against the authority of the commander.

48. The following are legal grounds for detention, except:

49. It means intent to betray a person’s country of origin.
50. To expedite the processing of benefit claims from the GSIS a clerk accepted 1,000 pesos from Mr. Greg, the clerk is liable for:
51. John Paul wanted to kill Bryan, he then executed his plan by ramming over the latter with his automobile killing Bryan instantly, what was the crime committed?
52. Anne killed her husband Carlo by means of poison, she is liable for.
53. Kempee due to his addiction killed his child less than 3 days old, he is guilty of what crime?
54. It is the violent expulsion of a human fetus from the maternal womb of birth which results in death?
55. Takes place whenever a person is killed during a confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not constituting a group and the perpetuators cannot be
56. A public officer who refrains from arresting a person who has committed a crime punishable by reclusion perpetua in exchange for money.
57. It is embezzlement by means of appropriating funds or taking and misappropriating the same.
58. A person who shall kill his father, mother or child shall be guilty of what felony?
59. The unlawful killing of a child less than 3 years old.
60. A person fired his pistol while paramour of his father was walking further away from killing the latter instantly is guilty of?
61. Romeo having carnal knowledge with a prostitute less than 12 years old is liable for:
62. A private individual who detains another for the purpose of depriving the latter of his liberty for more than 3 days is guilty of?
63. Ariel who got into dispute with Jeff, assaulted the latter for the purpose of delivering his victim to the jailer is guilty of what crime?
64. Refers to crime committed by any person who threatens another with the infliction upon the person, honor, or property of the latter or of his family of any wrong
65. When a warning to commit a wrong not constituting a crime is made by another, what crime is committed?
66. A husband punched his pregnant wife due to constant nagging, caused the death of their unborn child is guilty of:
67. A formal and regular combat previously concerted between two parties in the presence of two or more seconds of lawful age on each side, who make the selectio
68. A woman cutting the penis of a male lover to deprive the latter of its use, is committing what crime?
69. What crime was committed by Mike who bit off the ear of his opponent while in a boxing match?
70. what crime committed by a person who assaulted another, causing the latter to be absent from work for two weeks?
71. It is a felony wherein a person compels another by means of force, violence or intimidation to do so something against his will, whether right or wrong.
72. Any person who, by means of violence shall seize anything belonging to his debtor for the purpose of applying the same to the payment of a debt is committing:
73. It includes human conduct which, although not productive of some physical or material harm would annoy an innocent person.
74. Issuing a check without sufficient fund constitute what offense?
75. What crime was committed when a person burned of his dead victim to hide the body of the crime?
76. PO3 Diokno was stabbed while walking along a dark alley, he died on the spot and the perpetrator took his service pistol?
77. It is a willful damaging of another’s property for the sake of causing damage due to hate, revenge or other evil motive.
78. What crime was committed by Tess a married period having sexual intercourse with Ody who is not her husband?
79. Boy, a married man who allowed his paramour to live in their conjugal dwelling is liable for what crime?
80. Lewd acts committed upon persons of either sex not amounting to rape by using force or intimidation.
81. A person who ripped the dress of a woman and rubbed his penis over the woman’s genital without taking off the panty is liable for what?
82. Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his girlfriend by promising the latter with marriage, what crime was committed
83. Is the taking of personal property belonging to another, with intent to gain, by means of violence against, or intimidation upon things of any person, or using forc
84. Allan took several jewelry from a room in which he entered through the window committed what crime?
85. A genuine key stolen from the owner is considered as a:
86. James stole a rolex watch from a locker by means of the key of the owner, what crime was committed?
87. A crime committed by more than three armed malefactors who form a band for a purpose of committing robbery in the highway or kidnapping persons for the pu
88. Committed by any person who, with intent to gain but without violence or intimidation of persons nor force things, shall take personal property of another witho
89. Jolina a house maid who was caught in the act of carting away the furniture of her employer would be charged of what crime?
90. Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure that the property would be larger when surveyed is a crime of:
91. It is the estafa or defarauding another by abuse of confidence, false pretenses or any other similar means.
92. A college professor having sexual intercourse with his student is guilty of what crime?
93. Joe recruited several barrio mates to engage on the sex trade, what crime was committed?
94. A person who forced his girlfriend to elope with him is guilty of what crime?
95. Dinggoy was able to have carnal knowledge with Maria his girlfriend while the latter was drunk, what crime was committed?
96. Having carnal knowledge with a 16 year old girl with the use of deceit constitute what crime?
97. A public and malicious imputation of a crime, vice or defect.
98. Police officers to ensure conviction of the suspects were caught planting evidence, may held liable for what offense?
99. Unlawful extortion of money by threats of accusation or exposure.
100. Voluntary but without malice failing to do an act for which material damage results by reason of inexcusable lack of precaution on the part of the person perfor
ANS A
a. physical injuries
a. injury
a. slight physical injuries
a. house
a. Malicious Mischief
a. theft
a. estafa
a. estafa
a. conjugal dwelling
a. attempted rape
a. aid or comfort
a. mutiny
a. forgery
a. grave threat
a. dangerous tendency rule
a. illegal detention
a. forgery

a. infidelity
a. misfeasance
a. immoral doctrines
a. 12
a. violation of domicile
a. treason
a. treason
a. crime against popular representation
a. committed a crime punishable by Revised Penal code
a. Bum
a. treason
a. war crime
a. treason
a. illegal assembly
a. illegal assembly
a. overt acts
a. illegal assembly
a. direct assault
a. direct assault
a. outcry
a. illegal possession of firearms
a. usurpation of authority
a. delivering prisoners form jail
a. falsification of document
a. treason
a. mistake of facts
a. 12
a. treason
a. violation of domicile
a. mutiny

a. commission of a crime
a. aid or comfort
a. bribery
a. parricide
a. parricide
a. parricide
a. infanticide
a. homicide
a. bribery
a. malversation
a. parricide
a. parricide
a. parricide
a. rape
a. illegal exaction
a. illegal exaction
a. grave threat
a. grave threat
a. parricide
a. riot
a. physical injury
a. mutilation
a. mutilation
a. grave threat
a. grave threat
a. light threat
a. swindling
a. complex crime
a. murder
a. swindling
a. Adultery
a. adultery
a. adultery
a. rape
a. seduction
a. robbery
a. robbery
a. false key
a. theft
a. robbery
a. robbery
a. theft
a. estafa
a. swindling
a. seduction
a. prostitution
a. forcible abduction
a. acts of lasciviousness
a. seduction
a. libel
a. libel
a. slander
a. negligence
ANS B
b. maltreatment of prisoners
b. scar
b. less serious physical injuries
b. residence
b. robbery
b. robbery
b. theft
b. theft
b. residence
b. acts of lasciviousness
b. levying war
b. espionage
b. perjury
b. grave coercion
b. two witness rule
b. arbitrary detention
b. falsification

b. negligence of duty
b. malfeasance
b. slander
b. 18
b. arbitrary detention
b. espionage
b. rebellion
b. acts tending to prevent the meeting of the National Assembly
b. committed a crime punishable by Prision mayor
b. Vagrant
b. rebellion
b. crimes against national security and the law of nations
b. rebellion
b. illegal association
b. illegal association
b. employ force
b. violation of parliamentary immunity
b. indirect assault
b. indirect assault
b. tumultuous
b. illegal discharge
b. estafa
b. evasion of service of sentence
b. intercalation
b. espionage
b. mistake in the identity
b. 18
b. espionage
b. arbitrary detention
b. espionage

b. violent instantly
b. levying war
b. indirect bribery
b. murder
b. murder
b. murder
b. abortion
b. murder
b. qualified bribery
b. misfeasance
b. murder
b. murder
b. murder
b. acts of lasciviousness
b. arbitrary detention
b. illegal arrest
b. light threat
b. light threat
b. abortion
b. duel
b. tumultuous affray
b. serious physical injury
b. serious physical injury
b. light threat
b. light threat
b. light coercion
b. estafa
b. murder
b. robbery
b. destruction of property
b. concubinage
b. concubinage
b. concubinage
b. seduction
b. abduction
b. brigandage
b. theft
b. hot item
b. robbery
b. kidnapping
b. kidnapping
b. robbery
b. chattel mortgage
b. brigandage
b. abduction
b. white slave trade
b. seduction
b. rape
b. abduction
b. slander
b. slander by deed
b. coercion
b. reckless imprudence
ANS C
c. misfeasance
c. deformity
c. serious physical injuries
c. dwelling place
c. trespass
c. abuse of confidence
c. robbery
c. robbery
c. dwelling place
c. unjust vexation
c. adherence to the enemy
c. piracy
c. falsification
c. kidnapping for ransom
c. proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. kidnapping
c. perjury

c. laxity
c. nonfeasance
c. grave scandal
c. 36
c. trespass to dwelling
c. conspiracy to commit treason
c. coup d’ etat
c. violation of parliamentary immunity
c. committed a crime punishable by a penalty higher than prision mayor
c. Prostitute
c. coup d’ etat
c. crimes against public order
c. coup d’ etat
c. sedition
c. sedition
c. attack
c. rebellion
c. resistance
c. resistance
c. assault
c. alarm and scandal
c. disobedience
c. resistance
c. forgery
c. adherence to the enemy
c. mistake in the blow
c. 36
c. conspiracy to commit treason
c. trespass to dwelling
c. piracy

c. ailment requiring
c. adherence to the enemy
c. qualified bribery
c. homicide
c. homicide
c. homicide
c. murder
c. death caused by tumultuous affray
c. indirect bribery
c. malfeasance
c. homicide
c. homicide
c. homicide
c. seduction
c. serious illegal detention
c. unlawful arrest
c. grave coercion
c. grave coercion
c. intentional abortion
c. tumultuous affray
c. mutilation
c. less serious physical injury
c. less serious physical injury
c. grave coercion
c. grave coercion
c. unjust vexation
c. violation of BP 22
c. arson w/ homicide
c. homicide and robbery
c. malicious mischief
c. acts of lasciviousness
c. acts of lasciviousness
c. acts of lasciviousness
c. acts of lasciviousness
c. acts of lasciviousness
c. theft
c. brigandage
c. stolen item
c. possession of pick lock
c. brigandage
c. brigandage
c. qualified theft
c. altering bounderies /landmarks
c. usurpation
c. qualified seduction
c. qualified seduction
c. consented abduction
c. qualified seduction
c. acts of lasciviousness
c. incriminatory machination
c. incriminatory machination
c. libel
c. imprudence
ANS D CORRECT ANS
d. malfeasance B
d. all of these C
d. maltreatment A
d. abode C
d. qualified theft A
d. estafa D
d. malversation A
d. malversation A
d. abode A
d. lewd conduct B
d. all of these B
d. sedition C
d. false testimony B
d. attempted murder B
d. substantial evidence B
d. expulsion B
d. false testimony D
C
d. dereliction of duty
d. dereliction of duty C
d. libel C
d. 48 C
d. expulsion D
d. misprision of treason D
d. sedition D
d. all of the above C
d. none of the above D
d. Destitute B
d. sedition B
d. crimes against the state B
d. sedition C
d. rebellion B
d. rebellion A
d. stealth A
d. sedition D
d. disobedience B
d. subversion A
d. charivari D
d. all of the foregoing C
d. resistance A
d. disobedience B
d. rubric C
d. levying war A
d. fictitious Name D
 B
d. 48
d. misprision of treason B
d. expulsion A
d. sedition A
D
d. suspected of committing a felony under the Revised Penal code
d. all of these D
d. direct bribery D
d. infanticide B
d. infanticide A
d. infanticide D
d. parricide B
d. riots C
d. direct bribery B
d. nonfeasance A
d. infanticide A
d. infanticide B
d. infanticide B
d. abduction A
d. slight illegal detention C
d. physical injuries C
d. light coercion A
d. light coercion B
d. unintentional abortion D
d. mutilation B
d. duel C
d. slight physical injury B
d. slight physical injury C
c. light coercion C
d. light coercion D
d. none of these C
d. all of these C
d. homicide and arson D
d. homicide and robbery D
d. chattel mortgage C
d. seduction A
d. seduction B
d. seduction C
d. forcible abduction C
d. none of these A
d. estafa A
d. estafa A
d. pick lock A
d. possession of false keys A
 C
d. theft
d. theft D
d. estafa C
d. usurpation C
d. all of these A
d. none of these C
d. slavery B
d. qualified seduction A
d. none of these B
d. rape A
d. slander by deed A
d. slander C
d. blackmail D
d. reckless negligence B
QUESTION
1. It means any waters on the sea coast which are outside boundaries of any country
2. They refer to courts of justice or judge of said court vested with power to order the temporary detention or confinement of any person charged with committing an
3. In trying to use self- defense in a homicidal case, who has the burden of proof?
4. Any form by which a person signifies that he is bound that he is bound in conscience to perform an act truthfully or faithfully.
5. A sworn statement in writing
6. Viva voce evidence is also known as:
7. Leading questions may be allowed in the following instances, except:
8. In the crime of rape, this usually the most common form of evidence to prove charge.
9. After raping Sakura, Sasuke went on to marry the former, however a sudden turn of events urged Sakura to file a criminal case of rape against her husband, what e
10. Home of husband and wife;
11. It consist of any reprehensible deed or word offends public conscience.
12. What is needed to be proven that scandalous circumstance is an element in the crime of concubinage?
13. It means dwelling together as husband and wife
14. The rule that the rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act, declaration or omission of another is called:
15. To appreciate this evidence, it is always a question of logic and experience.
16. Evidences whose admission is prohibited by law.
17. Which of the following is not a subject of mandatory judicial notice?
18. When it prompts the witness to give an answer the examiner wants to hear it is said to be:
19. What did you observe after they got married is an example of a
20. A question which is made up of two or more queries connected by conjunctions and or
21. The following are criteria used to determine whether or not a child regardless of age may be considered as component witness, except:
22. What must be established, in addition to sexual intercourse in cases of rape?
23. When may evidences be considered as admissible in court?
24. Refers to the statement made by the litigants in the judicial proceedings.
25. Those evidences which results in the greatest certainty of the fact in question
26. Refers to evidence which indicates that a better kind of evidence exists.
27. It forbids the addition or contradiction in terms of a written instrument by testimony purporting to show that the other of different terms were orally agreed upon
28. Marital disqualification may apply, except:
29. Refers to matters which are learned in confidence

30. The following are requisites for the disqualification based on attorney- client privilege except:
31. When may descendant be compelled to witness against his parents or grandparents?
32. An agreement made of between two or more parties as a settlement of matters in question
33. In admission by third party, the rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act, declaration or omission of another, except:
34. Admissions by agents shall be allowed when:

35. A dying declaration may be admissible as evidence in cases, except:

36. Refers to inferences which the law makes so pre-emptory that it will not allow them to be overturned by any contrary proof.

37. a witness of the adverse party may be impeached, except:

38. Refers to an official entry of the proceedings in the court of justice
39. When may circumstantial evidence be sufficient to obtain conviction
40. Which among the following are not elements of a corpus delicti?
41. Which among the following may be used as evidence in a judicial proceeding?
42. In PD 1612, the possession of the stolen goods is:
43. Which of the following matters may not be subject of discretionary judicial notice?
44. Evidence of this kind is those acceptable of perception
45. A priest may not be able to testify on pertinent matters to the case if said conversation or facts relates to that told in the confession made by the:
46. Who among the following are automatically disqualified to take the witness stand?
47. An evidence which shows that best evidence existed as to the proof of the fact in question
48. Legal fitness of a witness to be heard on the trial
49. Means sanctioned by the rules of court to ascertain the truth respecting a matter of fact
50. A duplicate receipt signed and carbon copied at the same time is in terms of its evidentiary vale is defined as:
51. Exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of impending death

52. When children deemed not competent to qualify as a witness?

53. That degree of proof which produces in the mind of as unprejudiced person, that moral conviction that the accused did not commit the offense charged
54. Circumstantial facts and declaration incidental to the main fact; mean things done
55. A person who gives testimonial evidence to a judiciary tribunal.
56. In this sort of action, a person merely acknowledges certain facts but does not admit his guilt
57. When a categorical statement of guilt was made before a competent tribunal we classify it as;
58. Any evidence whether oral or documentary wherein the probative value is not based on personal knowledge of the witness but that from another.
59. Refers to the family history or descent
60. Obligations imposed upon a party to establish their alleged fact by proof are termed as “burden of proof”, what is its Latin translation?
61. The probative value given by the court to particular evidence.
62. What kind of admission does not require proof in court?
63. The body of a crime

64. Which among the foregoing is not part of the judicial rule for sufficiency of circumstantial evidence to convict an accused?
65. Minimum number of witness required in rape cases to secure a conviction
66. Presumption which the law makes so pre-emptory that it will not allow them to be reversed by any contrary evidence.
67. Logical necessity which rests upon a party at any particular time during the trial to create a prima facie case in his own favour or to overthrow one created agains
68. It is a bar which precludes a person from denying or asserting anything to the contrary of established truth
69. These question suggest to the witness the answers to which an examining party requires
70. A written or record of acts of a sovereign authority or private writing acknowledge before a notary public.
71. Which among the following may disqualify a witness?
72. What would overturn an alibi and denial in a hearing?
73. Prescribes the governing rules on evidence?
74. Factum probans means:
75. Evidence which has some relation to what is sought to be proved
76. It affects an issue in an important or substantial matter
77. Those evidences which are admissible in court are held to be:
78. Refers to an evidence of the same kind adduced to prove the same fact
79. Additional evidence of a different kind but tending to prove the same fact
80. Oral testimony given to open court
81. An evidence delivered in open court wherein the witness states that he does not know whether a fact did or did not occur
82. An evidence which is sufficient to prove an issue unless overcome or rebutted by other evidences
83. Given by a person of specialized knowledge in some particular field
84. That kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome
85. Legal basis of inadmissibility of evidences obtained thru torture, threat, violence or intimidation
86. Cognizance of certain facts which judges may properly take as fact because they are already known to them
87. One which assumes as true a fact not yet testified to by the witness, or contrary to that which he has previously stated
88. In case of falsification of document what would be the best evidence?
89. When a witness affirms that a fact did or did not occur, such testimony is said to be
90. Which among the following may not be a means to impeach a judicial record?

91. Which of the following matters need to be proven by the parties to an action?

92. Which of the following is not a requisite for admissibility of a dying declaration?

93. Is a carbon copy of a document regarded as original document under Best Evidence Rule?

94. Objection to evidence offered orally:

95. For pedigree evidence to be admissible:
96. Evidence beyond reasonable doubt is:

97. In case for alleged drug- pushing evidence of:

98. What is not a requisite in order for a Dead Man’s Statute to be applicable?
99. Real evidence is address to:
100. When is evidence admissible?
ANS A
a. territorial waters
a. judiciary
a. prosecution
a. affidavit
a. affidavit
a. documentary evidence
a. On preliminary matters
a. medico legal testimony
a. marriage settlement
a. house
a. scandal
a. if the man is legally married
a. cohabit
a. res gestae
a. real evidence
a. incompetent evidence
a. political history of the Philippines
a. leading question
a. compound question
a. compound question
a. capacity of observation
a. use of force or intimidation by the offender
a. when it is relevant to the issue
a. judicial notice
a. primary or best evidence
a. primary or best evidence
a. best evidence rule
a. the spouses was legally married
a. private communication

a. existence of an attorney client relation

a. a crime against him
a. compromise
a. admission by a co- partner/ joint or debtor
a. the agency is proved by evidence other the admission itself

a. imminent death but the declarant is conscious of facts

a. presumption

a. contradictory evidence
a. judicial route
a. there is more than one circumstances
a. the accused need not necessarily be the doer of the act
a. privileged conversation
a. evidenced against the accused
a. those of public knowledge
a. testimonial
a. penitent
a. sick person
a. real evidence
a. admissibility
a. proof
a. duplicate
a. parol evidence

a. they understand the obligation of the oath

a. ultimate fact
a. factum probans
a. witness
a. testimony
a. confession
a. testimonial evidence
a. pedigree
a. factum probandum
a. preponderance of evidence
a. judicial admission
a. corpus delicti

a. there is more than one circumstance

a. 1
a. presumption
a. res gestae
a. res gestae
a. leading
a. public document
a. capacity of observation
a. testimony
a. revised penal code
a. evidentiary fact
a. relevant
a. relevant
a. relevant
a. real
a. real
a. real evidence
a. positive
a. primary
a. primary
a. primary
a. sec. 2 bill of rights
a. cognizance
a. leading
a. authentic document
a. relevant evidence
a. want of jurisdiction in the court of judicial officer

a. facts which are admitted or which are not denied in the answer provided they have been insufficiently alleged

a. the declaration relates to the facts or circumstances pertaining to the fatal injury or death

a. Yes. When an entry is repeated in a regular course of business, one being copied from another at or near time of
the transaction, all the entries are likewise equally regarded as originals.

a. must be made as soon as the grounds therefor become reasonable apparent

a. it is essential that the declarant is deceased or unable to testify
a. the same as preponderance of evidence

a. the bust- bust money is indispensible

a. the witness is a party or an assignor of a party

a. the senses of the court
a. relevant and not excluded by the law or rules
ANS B
b. interior waters
b. bench
b. defense
b. oath
b. oath
b. object evidence
b. asking hypothetical questions to an expert witness
b. testimony of the victim
b. his testimony
b. dwelling place
b. unjust vexation
b. if the mistress is kept outside the conjugal dwelling’
b. marriage
b. res ipsa loquitor
b. object evidence
b. unreal evidence
b. the laws of nature
b. misleading question
b. leading question
b. leading question
b. capacity of recollection
b. resistance on the part of the victim
b. when it is not excluded by the law or the rules of court
b. judicial admissions
b. secondary evidence
b. secondary evidence
b. parol evidence rule
b. the husband is a party to the case
b. privilege communication

b. communication was made in the course of professional employment

b. a criminal case by one the parent against the other
b. stipulation
b. admission by conspirator
b. the admission was made during the existence of the agency

b. the declaration must concern the crime regarding the declarant’s death
b. conclusive presumption
b. by evidence of his general reputation and integrity, and conviction of a crime
involving moral turpitude
b. blotter
b. the facts from which the inference are derived were proven
b. some person is criminally responsible for the act
b. dying declaration
b. means that the accused is not the owner
b. those capable of unquestionable demonstration
b. corroborative
b. patient
b. children
b. best evidence
b. competency
b. intent
b. original
b. ante mortem statement

b. ehave not reached the age of discernment

b. proof beyond reasonable mind
b. factum probandum
b. prosecution
b. admission
b. admission
b. dying declaration
b. tradition
b. factum probans
b. evidentiary fact
b. extrajudicial admission
b. real evidence

b. the facts form which the interference are derived must be proved
b. 2
b. disputable presumption
b. burden of evidence
b. estoppel
b. misleading
b. official document
b. capacity of recollection
b. evidence
b. constitution
b. ultimate fact
b. material
b. material
b. material
b. cumulative
b. cumulative
b. documentary evidence
b. negative
b. secondary
b. best
b. best
b. sec. 3 bill of rights
b. judicial admission
b. misleading
b. holograph document
b. material evidence
b. collusion between parties

b. those which are the subject of an agreed statement of facts between the parties

b. the declarant is dead

b. Yes. When a document is in two or more copies executed or about at or about the
same time, with identical contents, such copies are equally regarded as originals
b. must be made within three (3) days after the notice of the offer unless a different
period is allowed by the court
b. it is not essential that the declarant is deceased
b. the equivalent of substantial evidence in administrative cases

b. the confidant’s testimony who accompanies the poseur- buyer is necessary

b. the action is against an executor or an administrator of an estate

b. the opinion of an expert
b. as sanctioned by the rules
ANS C
c. high seas
c. judicial authorities
c. court
c. testimony
c. testimony
c. testimonial evidence
c. witness is an adverse party
c. testimony of the witnesses
c. testimony of the witnesses
c. home
c. indignity
c. if the mistress is a relative
c. live-in
c. res judicata
c. relevant evidence
c. inadmissible evidence
c. political Constitution of the states
c. compound question
c. misleading question
c. misleading question
c. capacity of communication
c. sterility on the apart of the victim
c. when it is competent
c. judicial confessions
c. competent evidence
c. competent evidence
c. hearsay evidence
c. the wife is a party to the case
c. dying declaration

c. no consent was given by the client to the attorney testifying thereon

c. a criminal case by one grandparent against another
c. plea bargaining
c. admission by agent or privies
c. the admission refers to a matter within the scope of his authority
c. the declaration is a competent witness and the declaration is offered in a criminal case
wherein and the declarant’s death
c. disputable presumption

c. by evidence of other statements made by the witness which are inconsistent

c. blotter
c. When combined proof beyond reasonable doubt may be established
c. that the certain result has been produced
c. filial privilege
c. means that the accused is an accessory to the crime
c. those known to legislators because of their legislative functions
c. real
c. client
c. homosexualsand lesbians
c. secondary evidence
c. qualification
c. motive
c. authentic
c. dead man statute
c. they must have sufficient knowledge to receive just impressions as to the facts on which to
testify
c. preponderance of evidence
c. res gestae
c. defense
c. confession
c. judicial confession
c. res gestae
c. inheritance
c. owe probandi
c. ultimate fact
c. admission by co- conspirator
c. autoptic evidence
c. the combination of all circumstance is such as to produce a conviction beyond reasonable
doubt
c. 3
c. conclusion
c. burden of proof
c. burden of proof
c. estoppel
c. private document
c. capacity of knowledge
c. proof
c. rules on criminal procedure
c. weight of evidence
c. competent
c. competent
c. competent
c. corroborative
c. corroborative
c. testimonial evidence
c. direct
c. prima facie
c. secondary
c. real
c. sec. 12 bill of rights
c. judicial knowledge
c. confusing
c. questioned document
c. positive evidence
c. fraud in the arty offering record

c. facts which are not subject to judicial notice

c. the declaration is made in connection with startling occurrence

c. Yes. When the original document has been lost or destroyed, or cannot be produced in
court

c. must be made immediately after the offer is made

c. it is essential only that the declarant is deceased
c. absolutely certain to convict

c. the drugs subject of the case is indispensable

c. the testimony should refer to any matter of fact which occurred after the death of the
deceased
c. the lawyer propounding the question
c. when it is a direct or collateral proof
ANS D CORRECT ANS
d. maritime zone C
d. persons in authority C
d. psychologists/ psychiatrist B
d. confession B
d. confession A
d. hearsay evidence C
d. on cross- examination B
d. all of the above B
d. marriage contract between them D
d. conjugal dwelling D
d. disgrace A
d. if the mistress is a virgin B
d. joint household A
d. res inter alios acta D
d. material evidence C
d. none of the above C
d. admiralty and maritime courts of the world C
d. d. general question A
d. general question D
d. general question A
d. none of the above D
d. all of the above A
d. all of the above D
d. pleadings B
d. conclusive evidence A
d. conclusive evidence B
d. res gestae rule B
d. it involves civil cases filed by one against the other D
d. confidential communication B

d. none of the above D

d. none of the above D
d. contract A
d. all of the foregoing D
d. all of the foregoing D

d. none of the above D

d. estoppel B

d. none of the above D

d. official record B
d. all of the above D
d. none of the above B
d. parental privilege B
d. prima facie evidence of fencing D
d. all of the above C
d. material C
d. secretary A
d. insane person D
d. res gestae C
d. eligibility B
d. evidence D
d. genuine B
d. mi ultimo adios B

d. they can relate to those facts truly to the court at the time they are offered as witness B
d. substantial evidence B
d. owes probandi C
d. clerk of court A
d. extra-judicial confession B
d. extra- judicial confession C
d. hearsay D
d. heritage A
d. owes probandi D
d. weight of evidence D
d. admission co- partner A
d. physical evidence A

d. it must be of judicial recognizance D

d. none A
d. conclusive presumption D
d. estoppel B
d. burden of evidence B
d. res gestae A
d. official record A
d. capacity of communication D
d. positive identification D
d. rules of court D
d. preponderance of evidence A
d. admissible A
d. direct B
d. direct A
d. circumstantial B
d. circumstantial C
d. admission evidence C
d. circumstantial B
d. best C
d. expert D
d. conclusive D
d. sec. 17 bill of rights C
d. judicial notice D
d. res gestae B
d. genuine document C
d. negative evidence C
d. alterations D

d. those admitted by any party C

d. the declarant would have been competent to testify had he survived C

d. Yes. When the original document is in the custody or under the control of the adverse
party and fails to produce it despite reasonable notice B
d. must be made within three (3) days after the offer is made unless a different period is
allowed by the court C
d. it is essential only that the declarant is unable to testify A
d. morally certain, otherwise the accused is entitled to acquittal D

d. the testimony of the chemist who examined the alleged drugs is indispensable C
d. the subject matter of the action is a claim or demand against the estate of a deceased
person C
d. the clerk or court A
d. material and relevant A
QUESTION
1. Which among the foregoing may not be filed by the accused before arraignment ?
2. Demurrer to evidence may be filed;
3. Arraignment may be suspended in the following situations; except:
4. Which among the following may not be undertaken during the pre-trial?
5. For offenses punishable by prision mayor of higher, a provisional dismissal shall become permanent _____ after the issuance of order without the case having be
6. Refers to the party appealing the case?
7. The rules allows the proceeding in the instant case to be re-opened to avoid miscarriage of justice:

8. The following are valid venue for the application for search warrant, except:
9. Decisions of the regional trial court may be appealed to the court of appeals by:
10. Within how many days after the prosecution has rested its case, may a motion for leave to file demurrer to evidence be filed?
11. Preliminary Investigation is required before the filing of information or complaint where the penalty for the offense is:
12. Which among the foregoing pleadings maybe filed in a criminal case?
13. When may the reservation of the right to institute a separate civil action shall be made?
14. The following except one, are valid venues, where may petition for suspension of criminal action in a civil proceeding;
15. The foregoing shall only be prosecuted upon a complaint of the offended party, her parents or parents except;
16. In designating the offense, which among the following is not included in the complaint or information?

17. Civil action for the recovery of civil damages arising from a criminal offense is deemed instituted with the criminal action. This rule does not apply in the follow

18. Amendment without court permission may be allowed in the following instances, except;
19. In a preliminary investigation, which among the following may not be submitted by the respondent?
20. Where a preliminary investigation has been undertaken, warrant of arrest is not necessary in the following circumstances, except;
21. Refers to the authority of the court to hear and decide case;

22. Summary procedures may be applied in the following cases, except;

23. Court which exercises jurisdiction cases involving RA 3019.
24. In the metropolitan trial courts, the complaint may be filed with;
25. Which among the following is not essential requisite of a complaint or an information?
26. Generally, the following are requisites for an information, except;

27. In crimes involving adultery and concubinage, who may file the complaint?
28. The information complaint should state the following except;

29. When may the offended party be allowed to intervene in criminal cases?

30. When may bail be considered as matter of discretion?

31. When may be bail bon be cancelled?
32. In fixing the amount of bail, which among the following is not essential?
33. If the crime charged is unclear, what motion may be filed before the arraignment?
34. When an accused is discharged as a state witness, it is comparable to;
35. Arraignment may be suspended when the accused appears to be of unsound mental condition or the court fins the existence of a ______.
36. In cases punishable by distierro, how many days or preventive detention is prescribed for by law?
37. Where may the application for bail filed?
38. Ground for demurrer to evidence:
39. Refers to an undertaking constituted as a lien on real property given as a security for the amount of bail.
40. A counsel de officio is generally given how many days to prepare for trial?
41. What determines the jurisdiction in criminal case?
42. This system of criminal justice is conducted either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the offended party and the right to appeal is limited to the defense
43. Defined as a method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons alleged to have committed a crime, and for the punishment in case of convict
44. A system characterized by the right to confrontation, to a public trial and be heard by competent counsel.
45. Refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised.
46. The procedure in witness examination is:
47. In the Philippines, the system of criminal procedure is:
48. A sowrn statement charging a person with an offense subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer or other peace officer charged with the enforcement of
49. Authority to hear and decide a case.
50. Jurisdiction of the court is said to be _____ when the law organizing a court does not expressly enumerate the cause of which it may take recognizance.
51. Which among the following may not be filed before the judgment becomes final?
52. Validity of the warrant of arrest expires:
53. Lifetime of a search warrant:
54. In criminal cases, the people of the Philippines is the:
55. In civil cases the person charged is called:
56. Refers to an accusation in writing charging a person with an offense subscribed by the fiscal and filed with the court.
57. Prescription of the crime commences to run:
58. The duty of the party present evidence to establish his claim is referred to as:
59. The law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC.
60. Which among the following is not covered by the rules on summary procedures?
61. In criminal cases, the person charged is referred to as:
62. The part of trial wherein the civil aspect of the cases may be amicably settled.
63. In administrative cases the person charged is:
64. It is usually referred to as the court of first instance;
65. In rape cases, who among the following may file a complaint?
66. Who among the following may not conduct preliminary investigation?
67. Taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense
68. Refers to a person’s given by law and duty and power to exercise jurisdiction and maintenance of peace and order as well as the protection of life, liberty and pr
69. Refers to a security given for the temporary release of a person in the custody of law
70. Which among the following is non-bailable offense?
71. It is not necessity in filing a complaint or information:
72. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the first instance is regarded as:
73. Judiciary Reorganization Act:
74. In the metropolitan courts, the complaints is filed with the:
75. Cases on appeal on judgment rendered by a Municipal Trial Court shall be elevated where?
76. Decisions rendered by the court of appeals may be further elevated to what courts?
77. A judicial determination of the issues in an action or proceeding, civil or criminal
78. Period provided for by law to post an appeal after receipt of judgment of conviction

79. Order of trial is:

80. A geographic division in which the action allowed to be brought
81. A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants
82. It refers to answer given by the accused to a change of indictment
83. Generally, after plea of not guilty is entered, how many days is given by law for the accused to prepare for his trial
84. Refers to the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or not guilty of the crime charged, and the imposition of proper penalty and civil liability provid
85. Days mandated by law for the perfection of a decision

86. The foregoing property maybe considered as objects of the search warrant, except those which are:
87. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge by an accused is:
88. When can arrest be made?
89. Cases the penalty does not exceed 6 months fall under the rule on:
90. The existence of a prejudicial question may cause the suspension of the:
91. Who among the following is not authorized to conduct preliminary investigation?
92. Upon learning that a complaint or information has been filed without preliminary investigation, within how many days is allowed by the rules for the accused to
93. If the judgment by the trial court changes the nature of the offense from non- bailable to bailable, where can the baill application be resolved?

94. In which the following instances are bail not considered as a matter of right?
95. Which among the following offense where bail may be filed?
96. Refers to the offense under the law existing at the time of the commission and application for admission to bail may be punishable with death:
97. A person may be released on bail on the following forms except:
98. In the following instances the accused is not allowed under the rules to plead guilty:
99. When the accused admitted to bail allowed questioning the legality of his arrest?
100. An accused who pleads guilty offers exculpatory evidence will cause an effect of:
ANS A
a. motion to quash
a. after the prosecution rested its case
a. A petition for review of the resolution of the prosecutor is pending with the Department of Justice
a. marking of evidence
a. six months
a. accused
a. after the promulgation of judgment

a. any regional trial court

a. petition for certiorari
a. 5 days
a. at least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
a. cross claim
a. before the presentation of evidence of the prosecution
a. office of the prosecutor
a. rape
a. name of the offense

a. when the offended party institutes the criminal action

a. amendment as to form
a. motion to dismiss
a. when the penalty for the offense is fine
a. venue

a. violation of rental laws

a. supreme court
a. office of the prosecutor
a. it must be filed in court
a. the offended party

a. the prosecutor
a. name of the accused

a. when he has not waived the civil action

a. in capital offense
a. acquittal of the accused
a. age and health of the accused
a. bill of particulars
a. reprieve
a. valid prejudicial question
a. 5 days
a. office of the prosecutor
a. insufficiency of evidence
a. Surety bond
a. 2 days
a. subject matter
a. fixed
a. criminal justice system
a. fixed
a. venue
a. direct, cross, re-direct, re-cross examination
a. fixed
a. complaint
a. venue
a. limited
a. motion to quash
a. after 10 days
a. 10 days
a. plaintiff
a. accused
a. complaint
a. upon re-appearance of the accused
a. burden of proof
a. RA 7691
a. violation of traffic rules
a. accused
a. plea bargaining
Accused
a. metropolitan trial court
a. offended party
a. city or provincial fiscals and their assistance
a. detention
a. person in authority
a. bond
a. rape
a. name of the court
a. general jurisdiction
a. PD 968
a. office of the Secretary of Justice
a. Metropolitan Trial Court
a. Metropolitan Trial Court
a. plea trial
a. 5 days

a. prosecution, rebuttal, defense, submission of evidence

a. venue
a. counsel
a. reply
a. 2 days
a. conviction
a. 10 days

a. subject of the offense

a. plea bargaining
a. at any day
a. civil procedure
a. arraignment
a. PNP Chief
a. 5 days
a. appellate court

a. before conviction of the RTC imposing death penalty

a. frustrated murder
a. heinous crime
a. corporate surety
a. at the arraignment
a. before trial
a. he is making a conditional plea
ANS B
b. motion to suspend proceedings
b. after arraignment
b. There exists a prejudicial question
b. examination of witnesses
b. one year
b. appellee
b. before promulgation of judgment
b. any court within whose territorial jurisdiction the crime was
committed
b. petition for review
b. 10 days
b. at least 6 years
b. counterclaim
b. before the prosecution rests
b. the court where the criminal case is pending
b. abduction
b. mitigating circumstances

b. When the offended party waives the civil action

b. amendment that downgrades the nature of the offense

b. counter affidavit
b. when there is probable cause
b. criminal procedure

b. violation of traffic laws, rules and regulations

b. court
b. office of the clerk of court
b. it must be in writing
b. any peace officer

b. any peace officer charged with enforcement of the law violated

b. name of the offended party

b. when ha has waived the civil action

b. in cases involving graft and corrupt practices of government
officials
b. dismissal of the case
b. character and reputation of the accused
b. motion for new trial
b. acquittal
b. motion to quash
b. 15 days
b. office of the ombudsman
b. irrelevant evidence
b. property bond
b. 3 days
b. territory
b. mixed
b. rules of court
b. mixed
b. jurisdiction
b. direct, re-direct, cross, re-cross examination
b. mixed
b. charge sheet
b. jurisdiction
b. general
b. motion for reconsideration
b. after 30 days
b. 30 days
b. complainant
b. suspect
b. charge sheet
b. upon escape of the accused
b. burden of evidence
b. RA 7961
b. violation of rental laws
b. suspect
b. hearing
b. suspect
b. regional trial court
b. peace officer
b. judge of MTC’s
b. restraint
b. judges
b. bail
b. homicide
b. name of the accused
b. original jurisdiction
b. PD 1612
b. office of the Clerk of court
b. Regional Trial Court
b. Regional Trial Court
b. pre- trial
b. 10 days

b. defense, prosecution, rebuttal, submission of evidence

b. jurisdiction
b. attorney on record
b. motion
b. 3 days
b. judgment
b. 15 days

b. stolen or embezzled and other fruits of the offense

b. motion to quash
b. at any time of the day
b. criminal procedure
b. judgment
b. city prosecutors
b. 10 days
b. trial court

b. before conviction of the RTC

b. rape
b. special crime
b. recognizance
b. upon entering his plea
b. before arraignment
b. a plea of not guilty shall be entered for him
ANS C
c. bill of lading
c. after trial
c. The accused has been found to be of unsound mental condition
a. stipulation of facts
c. two years
c. adverse party
c. after finality of the judgment for conviction

c. any court within the judicial region where the crime was committed
c. petition for review on certiorari
c. 15 days
c. exceeding 6 years
c. third party claim
c. before the arraignment
c. the court the civil case is pending
c. seduction
c. acts which constitute an offense

c. When the offended party institutes the civil action before the criminal action

c. amendment as to the substance

c. supporting documents
c. supporting documents
c. jurisdiction

c. violation of city or municipal ordinances

c. regional trial court
c. office of the judge
c. it must be in the name of the People of the Philippines
c. Any public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated

c. the offended spouse

c. name of the court

c. when he has filed the civil action before filing the criminal case

c. in cases punishable by penalties which are not afflictive

c. execution of final judgment of conviction
c. probability that the accused will appear in the trial
c. motion to quash
c. conviction
c. motion to dismiss
c. 30 days
c. court where the case is pending
c. motion to quash
c. recognizance
c. 5 days
c. person accused
c. inquisitorial
c. criminal procedure
c. inquisitorial
c. jurisprudence
c. cross, direct, re-direct, re-cross examination
c. inquisitorial
c. blotter
c. jurisprudence
c. appellate
c. motion for new trial
c. after 365 days
c. 45 days
c. offended party
c. defendant
c. blotter
c. upon discovery of the crime by the offended party
c. bill of particulars
c. RA 7975
c. where the penalty does not exceed 6 months imprisonment
c. defendant
c. preliminary investigation
c. defendant
c. court of appeals
c. public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated
c. National and regional prosecutors
c. arrest
c. policemen
c. surety
c. robbery
c. name of the offended party
c. delegated jurisdiction
c. BP 129
c. Office of the Ombudsman
c. Court of Appeals
c. Court of Appeals
c. plea bargaining
c. 15 days

c. prosecution, defence, rebuttal, submission of evidence

c. jurisprudence
c. attorney at law
c. plea
c. 4 days
c. decision
c. 30 days

c. use or intended to be used as a means of committing an offense

c. motion to dismiss
c. at any time of the night
c. summary procedure
c. trial
c. MTC Judge
c. 15 days
c. RTC

c. before conviction of the MTC

c. parricide
c. capital punishment
c. property bond
c. after arraignment but before trial
c. before preliminary investigation
c. he shall be treated as guilty ad will eventually be convicted
ANS D ANS E CORRECT ANS
d. bill of particulars C
d. after the defense rested its case A
d. There is a probable cause to hold the accused for trial D
a. plea bargaining B
d. three years C
d. appellant B
d. before the finality of judgment of conviction D
A
d. any court within the judicial region where the warrant may be enforceable
d. notice of appeal D
d. 30 days A
d. exceeding 4 years, A
d. counter affidavit D
d. during the pre-trial conference A
d. the court conducting preliminary investigation C
d. acts of lasciviousness A
d. aggravating circumstances B
A
d. When the offended party reserves the right to institute a separate civil action

B
d. amendment that reflects typographical errors
d. witness’ counter affidavit A
d. witnesses’ counter affidavit B
d. jurisprudence C
d. criminal cases where the penalty prescribed by law is imprisonment not D
exceeding six years
d. sandiganbayan D
d. office of the ombudsman A
d. it must be filed with the office of the prosecutor D
d. any fiscal D
C
d. all of the foregoing
d. designation of the offense by statute C
A
d. when he has expressly reserved the right to institute a separate civil action

C
d. in capital offenses when the offenses are not afflictive
d. all of the foregoing D
d. none of the above D
d. motion to dismiss A
d. commutation B
d. bill of particulars A
d. 60 days C
d. all of the foregoing C
d. prejudicial question A
d. bai B
d. 15 days A
d. extent of the penalty D
d. accusatorial D
d. rules of procedure C
d. accusatorial D
d. trial courts A
d. cross, direct, re-cross, re- direct examination A
d. accusatorial B
d. information A
d. hearing B
d. original B
d. notice of appeal A
d. no fixed duration D
d. 60 days A
c. aggrieved party A
d. respondent C
d. information D
d. upon filing of the complaint or information C
d. presentation of evidence A
d. RA 7196 A
d. when the penalty is more than 6 months imprisonment D
d. respondent A
d. pre-trial A
d. pre-trial D
d. supreme court B
d. all of the foregoing D
d. ombudsman B
d. seizure C
d. prosecutors A
d. insurance B
d. libel A
d. designation of the offense A
d. appellate jurisdiction B
d. BP 22 C
d. Office of the Prosecutor D
d. Supreme Court B
d. Supreme Court D
d. trail D
d. 30 days C
C
d. defense, rebuttal, prosecution, submission of evidence
d. territory A
d. counsel de officio D
d. confession C
d. 5 days D
d. conclusion B
d. 45 days B
D
d. property of the accused
d. bill of particulars B
d. at any time of the day or night D
d. special procedure C
d. preliminary investigation A
d. provincial prosecutors A
d. 30 days A
d. MTC A
A
d. before conviction of the RTC of an offense not punishable by death
d. murder A
d. capital offense D
d. performance bond D
d. during trail D
d. before conviction B
d. he will be treated as refusing plea B