CCE PF

14-E
: CCE PR
Code No. : 14-E

: —

Subject : First Language — ENGLISH

( / New Syllabus )
( + / Private Fresh + Private Repeater)

General Instructions :

i) The Question-cum-Answer Booklet consists of objective and subjective

types of questions having 62 questions.

ii) Space has been provided against each objective type question. You
have to choose the correct choice and write the complete answer along
with its letter in the space provided.

iii) For subjective type questions enough space for each question has
been provided. You have to answer the questions in the space.

iv) Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

v) Candidate should not write the answer with pencil. Answers written in
pencil will not be evaluated. ( Except Graphs, Diagrams & Maps )

vi) In case of Multiple Choice, Fill in the blanks and Matching questions,
scratching / rewriting / marking is not permitted, thereby rendering
to disqualification for evaluation.

vii) Candidates have extra 15 minutes for reading the question paper.

viii) Do not write anything in the space provided in the right side margin.

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14-E 2 CCE PF+PR

Instructions :

i) This question paper contains three parts.

ii) Part-A — Prose, Poetry and Non-detail ( Supplementary Reading )

iii) Part-B — Grammar and Vocabulary

iv) Part-C — Composition and Comprehension.

PART - A
( Prose, Poetry and Supplementary Reading )

I. Answer the following questions in a sentence each : 41=4

1. What is the „cheering sight‟ mentioned by Sir C. V. Raman ?

2. What thrills the present day Indian shoppers ?

3. What did the hunter do with the dead male sarus crane ?

4. Why did the female sarus crane sit on the blood stained feathers ?
II. Answer the following questions in two sentences each : 18  2 = 36

5. What are the subsidiary purposes served by controlling the movement

of water and by its conservation ?

6. Where did Otto Frank and the others hide themselves in, when the
Nazis invaded Netherlands ?

7. Why does the writer call the catchy phrase „shop till you drop‟ apt and
ironic ?

8. Why did Jean lie to Pierre and send him to fetch the tart ?

9. What did Ellen do to express her love towards Lochinvar ?

10. What justification did Drona give for his unfair demand ?
11. How did Parashurama realise that Karna was not a Brahmana ?
12. Why did Ulysses not attack the Cyclop with his sword ?
13. The elders of the workers‟ paradise became worried. Why ?
14. Why should we call Pasteur an „all round‟ scientist ?
15. Saint Theresa wished to have a torch in her right hand and a vessel of
water in her left. Why ?

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CCE PF+PR 3 14-E

16. How did Marion identify Pierre as Gaultier‟s messenger ?

17. How was the majestic neck humbled by the hunter ?
18. Briefly describe the journey of Lochinvar to Netherby Hall.
19. How are the results of suppressing anger different from expressing it ?
20. The poet says his boat moved on with troubled pleasure. Why does he
use the word „troubled‟ ?
21. Captain Smollet had his own reasons to be unhappy. What were
they ?
22. How did Duryodhana restore Karna‟s glory ?
III. Answer the following questions in four to five sentences each : 5  3 = 15
23. What changes were noticed in the movement and attitude of the girl of
the silent torrent after the man gave her the painted pitcher ?
24. Why does the narrator say that October is the best time in
Mussoorie ? Being blind, how could he describe it ?

25. Explain the ideas of spirituality emerging from the study of the
vachana — „The temple and the body‟.

26. Why does the poet identify himself with the images of „autumn‟ and
„evening‟ in the poem „That Time of Year‟ ?

27. How did Jim come to know about Long John Silver‟s treacherous
plan ?
IV. Explain with reference to the context : 5  3 = 15
28. “I‟m me without my hair, ain‟t I ?”

29. “If you can cure animals, you can cure my son.”
30. “Stay where you are until our backs are turned.”
31. What have I done to keep in mind
My debt to her and womankind ?
32. “No one accuses us as Germans. We accuse ourselves.”
V. Answer the following questions in six to eight sentences each : 4  4 = 16
33. What illustrations does Gandhiji give to justify that all good actions
need not be moral acts ?

OR
How is the precious soil eroded and how can this be prevented ?

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34. Narrate the humorous situation in the running between the wickets
for a run when the blacksmith hit the ball straight up in the air.

OR

Narrate the events where we see the glimpses of Nazi cruelty in the
write-up of Louis De Jong.

35. „Teach him to listen to all men ...

but teach him also to filter all he hears

on a screen of truth.‟

Bring out the different ideas conveyed in these lines.

OR

How does the poet bring out the feelings of the female crane on the
death of its male partner ?

36. Describe the effect that the spectacle of the peak had on the poet‟s
mind.

OR

Explain why Buttoo severed his right hand thumb.

VI. Quote from memory : 4

37. And into ..........................................................................

........................................................................................

........................................................................................

............................................................... beneath the tree.

OR

Then spoke ......................................................................

........................................................................................

........................................................................................

....................................................... young Lord Lochinvar ?”

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CCE PF+PR 5 14-E

PART - B
( Grammar and Vocabulary )

VII. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the
correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter in

the space provided against each question. 10  1 = 10

38. A few students participated in the marathon, ................... .

The suitable question tag to be filled in the blank is

(A) isn‟t it ? (B) didn‟t they ?

(C) didn‟t it ? (D) did they ?

39. ................. universal meet is being planned to discuss the measures

to control carbon emission.

The appropriate article to be filled in is

(A) A (B) An

(C) The (D) Zero article.

40. Let him do that work.

The passive form of the above sentence is

(A) Tell him to do that work.

(B) Let him to do that work.

(C) Let that work be done by him.

(D) Let that work do him.

41. February is more pleasant than most other months of the year.

The superlative degree of the above sentence is

(A) February is the most pleasant month of the year.

(B) Very few months of the year are as pleasant as February.

(C) February is the pleasantest month of the year.

(D) February is one of the most pleasant months of the year.

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42. I took up this profession to please my father.

The appropriate interrogative sentence to get the underlined words as
answer is
(A) Why have you taken up this profession ?
(B) What did you do to please your father ?
(C) What did you take up ?
(D) Why did you take up this profession ?
43. The Don arrived at the airport. He was immediately arrested.
The complex sentence when we combine these two sentences is
(A) On his arrival at the airport, the Don was immediately arrested.
(B) The Don was immediately arrested after he arrived at the airport.
(C) On arriving at the airport, the Don was immediately arrested.
(D) The Don arrived at the airport and he was immediately arrested.
44. I ....................... a dictionary to find out the meanings of difficult
words.
The suitable phrasal verb to be filled in the blank is
(A) look up (B) look in
(C) look after (D) look down.
45. „And I sunned it with smiles.‟
The figure of speech used here is
(A) Alliteration (B) Simile
(C) Personification (D) Synecdoche.
46. The boy jumped ................... the wall ................... the garden.
The appropriate prepositions to be filled in the blanks are
(A) up, in (B) above, in
(C) over, into (D) upon, to.
47. Your boss would have sanctioned your leave if you ................ ( give ) a
genuine reason.
The appropriate form of the verb given in the brackets to be used in
the blank is
(A) give (B) had given
(C) gave (D) have given.

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CCE PF+PR 7 14-E

VIII. Observe the relationship in the first pair of words and complete the second
pair accordingly in the following : 41=4

48. Nose : Knows ; Check : ..................... .

49. Bachelor : Spinster ; Sculptor : ........................

50. Deep : Shallow ; Courage : ........................ .

51. Plentiful : Abundant ; Cascade : .......................... .

IX. Rewrite as directed :

52. Write in reported speech : 2

“Did you attend the classes yesterday ?” said Shyam.

53. Punctuate the sentence using capitals wherever necessary : 2

the teacher said where is ravis book satish

54. Rewrite the sentence using „No sooner‟ : 1

As soon as he is fit, he must resume his duties.

55. Combine the sentences using „too .... to‟ : 1

The cost of living in a city is very high. I cannot afford to stay there.

PART - C
( Composition and Comprehension )
X. 56. Write an essay ( in about 15-20 sentences ) on any one of the following
topics : 15=5
a) Organ donation — A step towards serving humanity
b) Environmental awareness
c) Importance of active and responsible mass media in our country.
XI. 57. Imagine that you are Swati/ Suraj of Government High School,
Gulbarga.
Write a letter to the Editor of a newspaper expressing the
inconveniences faced by commuters due to traffic jams in
Metropolitan cities. 5
OR
Write a letter to your friend explaining to him the different options
before him to take up as a career after completing his / her tenth
standard.

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XII. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :
51=5

Tia Geminiuc, an insurance wholesaler, was making a quick stop at a

chemist when she overheard an elderly woman asking for directions to a
nursing home. Geminiuc tried to explain the route by city bus but it was
clear that the trip would be complicated. So she said to the woman, “If you
wouldn‟t mind, I would like to drive you there”.
Doing so would take her out of her way and make her late for an important
meeting with a client, but Geminiuc believes in reaching out. “The feeling
you get from making someone‟s day is something you can‟t purchase,” she
says.

Heading to the nursing home, the older woman explained that she was
going to see her husband. “Because I gave her a lift, she got to spend an
extra two hours with him,” says Geminiuc. “At that moment, she needed
me more than anyone else did.”
It‟s lovely to think that we do good deeds simply because we like making
someone‟s day, but there must be a deeper motive at play. Human
behaviours have evolved over thousands of generations and do not persist
unless they support our survival. “Natural selection minimizes any
behaviour that supports others but is costly to us — unless there are
compensating benefits,” says a Canadian Psychologist.
Questions :
58. What did Tia Geminiuc overhear ?

59. What did Geminiuc decide to do for the old woman ?

60. What inconvenience would Geminiuc be put to by helping the old
lady ?

61. What extra benefit did the old lady get by the good deed of Geminiuc ?
62. When do human behaviours persist ?

92451 PF+PR-7007
 CCE PF
: 81-E
CCE PR
Code No. : 81-E

Subject : MATHEMATICS
( / English Version )
( / New Syllabus )
( + / Private Fresh+Private Repeater)

General Instructions :
i) The Question-cum-Answer Booklet consists of objective and
subjective types of questions having 50 questions.
ii) Space has been provided against each objective type question. You
have to choose the correct choice and write the complete answer
along with its letter in the space provided.
iii) For subjective type questions enough space for each question has
been provided. You have to answer the questions in the space.
iv) Follow the instructions given against both the objective and
subjective types of questions.
v) Candidates should not write the answer with pencil. Answers written
in pencil will not be evaluated. ( Except Graphs, Diagrams & Maps )
vi) In case of Multiple Choice, Fill in the blanks and Matching questions,
scratching / rewriting / marking is not permitted, thereby rendering
to disqualification for evaluation.
vii) Candidates have extra 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
viii) Space for Rough Work has been printed and provided at the bottom of
each page.
ix) Do not write anything in the space provided in the right side margin.

279930 PF+PR-7022
 CCE PF+PR 3 81-E

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the
correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter in
the space provided against each question. 81=8

1. If Tn  n 2  3 then the value of T3 is

(A) 6 (B) 9
(C) 12 (D) 27.
2. Arithmetic mean of 2 and 8 is

(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 16 (D) 3·2.
3. If the probability of winning a game is 0·3, then what is the
probability of losing it ?
(A) 0·1 (B) 0·3
(C) 0·7 (D) 1·3.

4. The degree of the polynomial 2x 2 – 4x 3 + 3x + 5 is

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 2 (D) 3.
5. The distance between the origin and the point ( 4, – 3 ) is
(A) 1 unit (B) 5 units

(C) 7 units (D) – 12 units.

6. The slope of the straight line whose inclination is 60° is
1
(A) 0 (B)
3

(C) – 3 (D) 3.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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3
7. If sin  = , then the value of cosec  is
5
4 5
(A) (B)
5 3
4 5
(C) (D) .
3 4

8. If the standard deviation of a set of scores is 1·2 and their mean is 10,
then the coefficient of variation of the scores is

(A) 12 (B) 0·12

(C) 20 (D) 120.

II. Answer the following : 61=6

9. If U = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 } and A = { 2, 4, 5 } then find A l .

10. The H.C.F. of 12 and 18 is 6. Find their L.C.M.

11. If f ( x ) = 2x 2 + 3x + 2 then find the value of f ( 2 ).

12. Two circles of diameters 10 cm and 4 cm, touch each other

externally. Find the distance between their centres.

13. State Pythagoras theorem.

14. Write the formula to find the total surface area of a cylinder.

III. 15. Calculate the maximum number of diagonals that can be drawn in an
16. Prove that 2 + 5 is an irrational number. 2

17. There are 500 wrist watches in a box. Out of these 50 wrist watches
are found defective. One watch is drawn randomly from the box. Find
the probability that wrist watch chosen is a defective watch. 2
18. Find the product of 3 and . 2

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CCE PF+PR 5 81-E

19. Rationalise the denominator and simplify : 2

20. Find out the quotient and the remainder when

P ( x ) = x 3  4x 2  5x  6 is divided by g ( x ) = x + 1. 2

OR

Find the polynomial which is to be added to

P ( x )  x 4  2x 3  2x 2  x  1 so that the resulting polynomial is

exactly divisible by x 2  2x  3 .

21. In the following figure, DE || AB. If AD = 7 cm, CD = 5 cm and

BC = 18 cm, find CE. 2

22. Given tan  = 1 and  is an acute angle. Find the value of sin 3.

2
23. Find the coordinates of the mid-point of the line segment joining the
points ( 2, 3 ) and ( 4, 7 ). 2
24. The radius of a cone is 7 cm and its slant height is 10 cm. Calculate
the curved surface area of the cone. 2
OR

Calculate the volume of a right circular cylinder whose radius is 7 cm

and height is 10 cm.
( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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25. Solve the quadratic equation x 2 – 4x + 2 = 0 by formula method. 2

26. Construct a tangent at any point P on a circle of radius 3 cm. 2

27. Draw a plan using the information given below : 2

[ Scale : 20 m = 1 cm ]

Metre To D

160

120 60 to C
40 to E 80
40 40 to B

From A

28. In a group of people, 12 people know music, 15 people know drawing

and 7 people know both music and drawing. If people know either
music or drawing then calculate the number of people in the group. 2

29. A solid hemisphere of wax of radius 12 cm is melted and made into a

cylinder of its base radius 6 cm. Calculate the height of the cylinder.

30. Find the sum of first 20 terms of the series 4 + 7 + 10 + ...... . 2

31. If A = { 1, 2, 3, 4 }, B = { 2, 4, 5 } and C = { 1, 3, 5, 6 } then

find A  ( B  C ). 2
1 1 1
32. , , , ... are in a harmonic progression. Find the tenth term of it
2 4 6
using the formula. 2
1 1
33. Find the sum of the geometric series 1 + + + ... up to . 2
3 9
( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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CCE PF+PR 7 81-E

34. Simplify : . 2

35. In tossing a fair coin twice, find the probability of getting exactly one

tail. 2

36. The number of students who are willing to join their favourite sports

are shown in the table. Draw the pie chart to represent the given

data : 2

Name of the sport : Football Tennis Hockey

Number of students : 12 16 8

37. Form the quadratic equation whose roots are 5 and 7. 2

1
38. If k = mv 2 solve for ―v ‖ and then find the value of v, if k = 100
2

and m = 2. 2

39. In the following figure, ABC = 90°, BD  AC, BD = 8 cm,

AD = 4 cm. Find CD. 2

40. Find the total surface area of a sphere of radius 7 cm. 2

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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IV. 41. Prove that ―If two circles touch each other externally then their

centres and the point of contact are collinear‖. 3

42. Calculate the standard deviation for the following data : 3

Class-intervals frequency

1—5 4

6 — 10 3

11 — 15 2

16 — 20 1

N = 10

43. Find how many 4-digit numbers can be formed using the digits

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 without repetition of the digits. Find out how many of

these are less than 5000 ? 3

OR

If 16 . n P 3 = 13 . n  1 P 3 then find n.

44. Prove that

sin ( 90   ) cos 

 = 2 sec  . 3
1  sin  1  cos ( 90   )

OR

If A = 60°, B = 30° then verify that

cos ( A + B ) = cos A . cos B – sin A . sin B.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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CCE PF+PR 9 81-E

45. Pupils of Xth Standard of a school had arranged for a function at a

total cost of Rs. 1,000 which was to be shared equally among them.
Since 10 of them failed to join the function each of them had to pay
Rs. 5 more. Find the number of pupils in the class. 3
OR
If m and n are the roots of the equation x 2 – 5x + 3 = 0, find the
values of
i) ( m + n )2 + ( m – n )2
ii) ( m + n ) 3 + 4 mn.
46. In the right angled triangle ABC, ABC = 90°. AM and CN are the

medians drawn from A and C respectively to BC and AB. Show that

4 ( AM 2 + CN 2 ) = 5 AC 2 . 3

OR
In the rhombus ABCD, show that 4 AB 2  AC 2  BD 2 .

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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V. 47. Prove that

―If two triangles are equiangular then their corresponding sides are in
proportion.‖ 4

48. Draw two direct common tangents to two circles of radii 4 cm and
2 cm whose centres are 8 cm apart. Measure the length of the
tangents. 4

49. In an arithmetic progression, the sum of first term, third term and
the fifth term is 39 and the sum of second term, fourth term and the
sixth term is 51. Find the tenth term of the sequence. 4

OR

In a geometric progression, the sum of the first 3 terms is 7 and the

sum of the next 3 terms is 56. Find the geometric progression.

50. Solve the equation graphically : 4

x 2 + x – 2 = 0.

graph

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

279930 PF+PR-7022
CCE PF+PR CCE
1 PF 83-E

83-E : CCE PR
Code No. : 83-E

Subject : SCIENCE
( / Physics, Chemistry & Biology )
( / English Version )
( / New Syllabus )
( + / Private Fresh + Private Repeater )

General Instructions :
i) The Question-cum-Answer Booklet consists of objective and
subjective types of questions having 52 questions.
ii) Space has been provided against each objective type question. You
have to choose the correct choice and write the complete answer
along with its letter in the space provided.
iii) For subjective type questions enough space for each question has
been provided. You have to answer the questions in the space.
iv) Candidate should not write the answer with pencil. Answers written
in pencil will not be evaluated. ( Except Graphs, Diagrams & Maps )
v) Answer only one question each for the choice questions.
vi) Follow the instructions given against both the objective and
subjective types of questions.
vii) In case of Multiple Choice, Fill in the blanks and Matching questions,
scratching / rewriting / marking is not permitted, thereby rendering
to disqualification for evaluation.
viii) Space for Rough Work has been printed and provided at the bottom of
each page.
ix) Candidates have extra 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
x) Do not write anything in the space provided in the right side margin.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

110821 PF+PR-7010 [ Turn over

83-E 2 CCE PF+PR

Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the
correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter in
the space provided against each question. 10  1 = 10
1. In Fleming’s right hand rule middle finger indicates the direction of
(A) magnetic field (B) induced electric current
(C) mechanical energy (D) motion of the conductor.

2. Identify one of the uses of solar heater in the following.

(A) Conversion of solar energy into electrical energy

(B) Providing energy for artificial satellites

(C) Desalination of marine water

(D) Using in automatic streetlights.

3. Significant reduction in the platelet count of human blood is the main

symptom of this disease.

(A) Chikungunya (B) Dengue

(C) Bird flu (D) Gonorrhea.

4. Si + C → SiC. This chemical reaction is an example for

(A) exothermic reaction (B) endothermic reaction

(C) dissociation reaction (D) displacement reaction.

5. No image is formed on the blind spot of human eye because,

(A) cones are absent (B) rods are absent

(C) rods and cones are absent (D) optic nerve is absent.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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CCE PF+PR 3 83-E

6. A domestic electrical appliance requires alternating current of 15 V. If

220 V of alternating current is supplied to the house, then the device that
helps in the functioning of that electrical appliance is
(A) induction coil (B) step-up transformer
(C) AC dynamo (D) step-down transformer.
7. While doing the experiment of copper voltameter, in which of the following
cases, more amount of copper gets deposited at cathode ?
(A) 2 amperes of electric current is passed for 30 minutes
(B) 4 amperes of electric current is passed for 20 minutes
(C) 0·5 amperes of electric current is passed for 80 minutes
(D) 1·5 amperes of electric current is passed for 30 minutes.
8. Identify the correct complementary base pairing among the following.
(A) Adenine — Thymine and Guanine — Cytosine
(B) Adenine — Guanine and Thymine — Cytosine
(C) Adenine — Cytosine and Thymine — Guanine
(D) Guanine — Adenine and Cytosine — Adenine.
9. Find out the most efficient engine in the following.
(A) an engine converts 80 KJ of heat energy into 20 KJ of work
(B) an engine converts 50 KJ of heat energy into 15 KJ of work
(C) an engine converts 30 KJ of heat energy into 6 KJ of work
(D) an engine converts 60 KJ of heat energy into 24 KJ of work.
10. Haemoglobin levels in the blood samples of two persons A and B are found
to be 9 gm/dL and 13 gm/dL respectively. Which statement is true with
respect to the amount of oxygen supply in their body ?
(A) More in person B than in person A
(B) More in person A than in person B
(C) Equal in person A and person B
(D) No correlation between oxygen supply and the level of haemoglobin.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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11. The structural formulae of hydrocarbons are given in Column-A and their
uses are given in Column-B. Match them and write the answers along with
its letters in the space provided : 41=4
Column - A Column - B

(A) (i) preparation of moth balls

(ii) solvent for lacquers

(B)
(iii) preparation of soap

(iv) dry cleaning

(v) used as fuel

(C)
(vi) preparation of esters

(vii) preparation of aspirin.

(D)

Answer the following questions : 71=7

12. Write any two advantages of bio-energy.
13. What is red shift ?
14. Name the two important non-metallic oxides which cause acid rain.
15. Mention the properties of silica due to which it is used as sand bath in
laboratory.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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CCE PF+PR 5 83-E

16. State the modern periodic law.

17. Draw the circuit symbol of n-p-n transistor.
18. Sclerenchyma fibres are used in coir industries to make gunny bags and
ropes. Give scientific reason.
Answer the following questions : 26 × 2 = 52
19. Draw the diagram of a DC dynamo and label the following parts.
(a) Split rings (b) Armature coil.
20. What is annealing of glass ? Name the colour obtained when (i) Ferric
compounds, (ii) Cobalt compounds are added to the mixture of molten
glass.
OR
What is pulping ? How is an uncoated paper converted into coated paper ?
21. Draw the diagram of the apparatus used in electroplating and label the
following parts.
(i) Electrolyte (ii) Anode.
22. Lymph plays an important role in protecting immune system of the body.
Justify this statement.
OR
(a) How is dermal tissue adapted to prevent excessive transpiration in
plants ?
(b) Why do leaves of lotus plant float on water ?

23. Draw the diagram of blast furnace used in the extraction of iron.

24. Differentiate between Caucasoid man and Mongoloid man based on their
physical features.
25. What is forward biasing and reverse biasing of a diode ?
OR
What are extrinsic semiconductors ? Name the two types of extrinsic
semiconductors.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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26. Sodium ( Na ), Magnesium ( Mg ), Aluminium ( Al ) and Silicon ( Si ) are

arranged in the decreasing order of their atomic size. Which element has
the highest ionisation energy among them ? Justify your answer
scientifically.
27. Draw the diagram showing the structure of HIV.
28. The densities of 4 gases at standard temperature and pressure are given in
the table :

Gas Methane Ammonia Helium Neon

Density 0·72 g/L 0·77 g/L 0·18 g/L 0·90 g/L

Among these gases, which gas diffuses very fast ? State the law that helps
you to take the decision.
29. Hydroponic and aeroponic methods are gaining significance in space
research organisations. Give two reasons for this.
OR
Urban people should be encouraged to take up the practice of roof-top
gardening. Justify.
30. What are ultrasonic waves ? Write any two uses of ultrasonic waves in the
field of medicine.
OR
What is an echo ? Name the two devices which work on the principle of
echo of ultrasonic waves.
31. Hydroelectric power plants are more ecofriendly than thermal power
plants. Justify this statement.
32. The general formula of a group of organic compounds is C n H 2n  1 OH.

Write the molecular formula of first two members of this group. Examine
whether these two compounds are in homologous series, based on their
molecular formula.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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CCE PF+PR 7 83-E

33. The graph of a wave motion is given below. Observe the graph and answer
the following questions :

(a) What type of wave is represented in the graph ?

(b) What do PQ and PR indicate with respect to the wave ?

34. A student catches small aquatic creatures swimming in a pond and keeps
them in his aquarium assuming them to be fishes. After a few days he
observes that four limbs are developed in those creatures. Then,

(i) to which class of vertebrates do you include those aquatic creatures ?

(ii) name the process that has caused development of four limbs in them.

35. Write the two differences between petrol engine and diesel engine.

36. Write the structural formula of normal butane and isobutane.

37. Draw the diagram of a dicot plant.

38. Name the three types of galaxies. What is the name of the galaxy to which
our solar system belongs ?

39. Write the ill-effects of noise pollution on human health.

40. State Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction.

41. How is diabetes mellitus caused ? Mention the two important symptoms of
this disease.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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42. Write the two advantages of hydrogenation of oils.

43. Name the components of phloem tissue.

44. The atomic number of calcium is 20. Find out to which period and block
calcium belongs in the modern periodic table.

Answer the following questions : 5  3 = 15

45. Draw the diagram of a nuclear power plant and label the following parts.

(a) Control rods (b) Radiation shield.

46. Name the steps in the manufacture of common sugar from sugarcane and
explain the first step.

OR

(a) What is fermentation ? Give one example.

(b) Write the balanced chemical equations of the reactions taking place
in the manufacture of ethyl alcohol from sugar.

47. (a) Bryophytes are used in pots. Why ?

(b) Explain alternation of generations in Bryophytes.

48. (a) Explain the expansion stroke of a petrol engine.

(b) There is no spark plug in diesel engine. Why ?

49. What is bio-technology ? List any two advantages and two limitations of
biotechnology.

OR

(a) Why did Mendel choose pea plants for his experiments ? Give any
four reasons.

(b) State Mendel’s law of independent assortment.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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CCE PF+PR 9 83-E

Answer the following questions : 3  4 = 12

50. (a) Which stage is attained by the star after the steady state ? Explain
that stage.

(b) State Hubble’s law.

(c) A satellite is to be launched from the surface of the earth. Name the
factors on which the escape velocity of the satellite depends.

OR

(a) “Multistage rockets reduce the fuel consumption.” How ? Explain.

(b) Explain how a neutron star is formed.

(c) In which stage of the star, does nuclear fusion reaction begin ?

51. Draw the diagram showing the internal structure of human ear and label
the following parts :

(a) Organ of Corti (b) Auditory nerve.

52. (a) 2Mg + O 2 → 2MgO.

In this reaction, explain the experiment that you conduct to decide

the product as a basic oxide.

(b) Name the method of concentration of Haematite ore and explain the
method.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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CCE PF+PR CCE
1 PF 85-E

85-E
: CCE PR
Code No. : 85-E

Subject : SOCIAL SCIENCE

( / English Version )
( / New Syllabus )
( + / Private Fresh + Private Repeater )

General Instructions :

i) The Question-cum-Answer Booklet consists of objective and subjective

types of questions having 57 questions.

ii) Space has been provided against each objective type question. You

have to choose the correct choice and write the complete answer along

with its letter in the space provided.

iii) For subjective type questions enough space for each question has

been provided. You have to answer the questions in the space.

iv) Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective

types of questions.

v) Candidate should not write the answer with pencil. Answers written in

pencil will not be evaluated. ( Except Graphs, Diagrams & Maps )

vi) In case of Multiple Choice and Matching questions, scratching /

rewriting / marking is not permitted, thereby rendering to

disqualification for evaluation.

vii) Candidates have extra 15 minutes for reading the question paper.

viii) Do not write anything in the space provided in the right side margin.

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I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the

correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter in
the space provided against each question. 10  1 = 10

1. The Government of India Act of 1935 is considered as an important

document, because it

(A) introduced bicameral governments in provinces

(B) appointed Board of control

(C) formed separate electoral constituencies based on religion

(D) led to the creation of a federal structure in the country.

2. In Group-A list of social reformers and in Group-B their works are

given. Identify the group that matches.

Group-A Group-B

(a) Rammohan Roy (i) Ghulamgiri

(b) Dayanand Saraswati (ii) Samvada Kaumudi

(c) Jyotiba Phule (iii) New India

(d) Annie Besant (iv) Satyartha Prakasha.

a b c d

(A) i iii ii iv

(B) ii iv i iii

(C) iii ii iv i

(D) iv i iii ii.

3. The programme implemented by Government of Karnataka for the

development of rural women is

(A) Lok Ayukta (B) Stree Shakti

(C) Sakshara Bharat (D) Family planning programme.

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CCE PF+PR 3 85-E

4. December 10th of 1948 is an important day in the history of UNO,

because on that day

(A) Human Rights were declared

(B) UNO was established

(C) Disarmament was achieved

(D) Racial discrimination was ended.

5. Article 24 of our constitution has a great significance, because it

prohibits

(A) Employing children for work

(B) Untouchability

(C) Dowry

(D) Corruption.

6. The exact matching of the marked River Valley projects is

(A) 1 — Nagarjuna Sagar, 2 — Bhakra Nangal, 3 — Kosi

(B) 1 — Bhakra Nangal, 2 — Kosi, 3 — Nagarjuna Sagar

(C) 1 — Kosi, 2 — Nagarjuna Sagar, 3 — Bhakra Nangal

(D) 1 — Nagarjuna Sagar, 2 — Kosi, 3 — Bhakra Nangal.

7. Coastal erosion is more severe along the coast of the state

(A) Kerala (B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Orissa (D) West Bengal.

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8. Father of Economic Planning in India is

(A) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (B) Dr. Norman Borlaug

(C) Sir M. Vishveswaraiah (D) Rammohan Roy.

9. Green Revolution indicates

(A) the increase in the production of foodgrains

(B) the increase in the production of fish

(C) the increase in the production of milk

(D) the increase in the production of meat.

10. The Chairman of Wipro Technologies is

(A) Ekta Kapoor (B) Dhirubhai Ambani

(C) Naresh Goyal (D) Azim Premji.

II. Answer the following questions in a sentence each : 14  1 = 14

11. Indians had given much importance to folk history. Why ?

12. Why did Swami Vivekananda establish Ramakrishna Mission ?

13. Russians rose in rebellion in 1905 against the Tsars. Why ?

14. How does racial discrimination adversely affect world peace and

peaceful co-existence ?

15. Who fought against the racial discrimination in Africa ?

16. Why was the Equal Wages Act passed ?

17. Why was the „Rehabilitation Welfare Fund of Child Labourers‟

launched ?

18. In North India, temperature will be high during summer season.

Why ?

19. How can be fallow land utilized for agriculture ?

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CCE PF+PR 5 85-E

20. Indian farmers sow seeds in the month of June or July and get yields

in October. Why ?

21. What is the cause for landslide in mining area ?

22. Who presents the Central Government budget in the Lok Sabha ?

23. Which bank is called as „Bankers‟ Bank‟ ?

24. Why were the District Industrial Centres established ?

III. Answer the following questions in two sentences each : 25 × 2 = 50

25. “Scientific developments led to sea voyages.” Justify this statement.

26. Which are the areas of „Hyderabad Karnataka‟ ?

27. How was Goa liberated from the Portuguese ?

OR

How did India deal with the problem of refugees ?

28. „Nazi ideology destroyed Germany.‟ Justify.

29. Communalism is harmful to Nation‟s progress. How ?

30. IMF plays an important role in solving the economic problems of the

world. Justify this statement.

31. What is self-help group ?

32. The peninsular plateau of India has a great economic significance.

Justify.

33. How can we prevent soil erosion ?

34. Mention the differences between Evergreen forests and Desert forests.

35. Today, it is essential to reduce the use of conventional sources of

energy. Why ?

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36. Mention the importance of communication.

37. Mention the measures for controlling migration of villagers towards

cities.

38. Per capita income cannot be a true measure of development. Why ?

39. Globalisation has led to environmental degradation. How ?

40. Name few revolutionary leaders of India.

41. What were the problems faced by India along with its independence ?

42. Which were the Indian products exported to Europe ?

43. What were the main problems faced after Second World War ?

44. Mention the reasons for tension between India and Pakistan.

45. What are the effects of unemployment ?

46. What are the important mineral resources available in India ?

47. What are the types of communication ?

48. Mention the factors that enable man to live longer.

49. Mention any two kinds of accounts that can be opened in a bank.
IV. Answer the following questions in six sentences each : 6  3 = 18
50. Explain the political and economic causes for the revolt of 1857.
OR
Mention the reforms brought about by the British in the field of
Education.
51. Mention the factors that influenced the formation of our foreign
policy.
OR
Explain India‟s relationship with Russia.

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CCE PF+PR 7 85-E

52. Explain the constitutional and legal measures undertaken to eradicate

untouchability.

OR

Mention the measures for removal of unemployment.

53. Which are the major ports of India ?

OR

What are the factors influencing the location of an industry ?

54. Explain briefly the significance of rural development.

OR

Mention the aspects of non-tax revenue of the central government.

55. Mention the advantages of opening a bank account.

OR

Explain the importance of life insurance.

V. Answer the following question in about eight sentences : 4

56. Give an account of the contributions of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.

VI. 57. Draw an outline map of India and mark the following : 1+3=4
1 o
a) 82 East longitude
2

b) River Narmada
c) Coromandel Coast.

Alternative Question for Blind Candidates only : (In lieu of Q. No. 57)
What are the uses of Himalayas on the life of the people of India ? 4

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