April2018-CCE PF REVISED-merged

SL. No.
: EE
57 ] CCE PF [ 8
Total No. of Questions : 57 ] REVISED [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 8

: 33-K Code No. : 33-K
—
Subject : Second Language — KANNADA
/ New Syllabus
/ Private Fresh
28. 03. 2018 ] [ Date : 28. 03. 2018

9-30 12-15 ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-15 P.M.
TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

100 ] [ Max. Marks : 100
1. 57
2.
3.
4.
5. 15
Tear here
PF - 5006 [ Turn over

33-K 2 CCE PF
14 × 1 = 14
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
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14.
15 × 2 = 30
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21.
PF - 5006
CCE PF 3 33-K
22.
23.
24.
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26.
27.
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29.
30. 1 ×3=3
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/
2 ×3=6
31.
32.
4 × 3 = 12
33.
34.
35.
36.

33-K 4 CCE PF
2 ×4=8
37.
38.
4 ×1=4
39.
40.
41.
42.
PF - 5006
CCE PF 5 33-K
12 × 1 = 12
43. —
44.
45.
46. —
47.
48.

33-K 6 CCE PF
49.
50.
51. —
52.
53.
54.
55.
1 ×3=3
PF - 5006
CCE PF 7 33-K
56.
1 ×4=4
57. 1 ×4=4

33-K 8 CCE PF
PF - 5006
SL. No. : FF
: 58 ]
CCE PF [ :8
Total No. of Questions : 58 ] [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 8
REVISED
: 61-H Code No. : 61-H
—
Subject : Third Language — HINDI
( / New Syllabus )
( / Private Fresh )
: 04. 04. 2018 ] [ Date : 04. 04. 2018

: 9-30 12-15 ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-15 P.M.
: 100 ] [ Max. Marks : 100

1. 58
2.
3.
4.
5.
15
Tear here
PF-5007 [ Turn over

61-H 2 CCE PF
I. 9×1=9
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
II. 10. 5×1=5
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
v)
vi)
vii)
viii)
PF-5007
CCE PF 3 61-H
III. 5×1=5
11.
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15.
IV. 14 × 2 = 28
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29.
PF-5007 [ Turn over

61-H 4 CCE PF
V. 5 × 3 = 15
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
VI. 1×4=4
35.
36. 4
PF-5007
CCE PF 5 61-H
VII.
10 × 1 = 10
37. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
38. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
39. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41.
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
42.
–
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
43. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PF-5007 [ Turn over

61-H 6 CCE PF
44. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
46. –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
VIII. 5×1=5
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
PF-5007
CCE PF 7 61-H
IX. 5×1=5
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
X. 57.
1×5=5
2,000
XI. 58. 15 - 20
1×5=5
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PF-5007 [ Turn over

61-H 8 CCE PF
PF-5007
SL. No. : G
CCE PF
BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 50 ] [ Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 12
] [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 12
Total No. of Questions : 50
CCE PR
—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 81-E Code No. : 81-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : V⁄{}⁄
Subject : MATHEMATICS
(
BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )
( ‘Ê‡—⁄ Æ⁄p⁄¿O⁄√»⁄fl / New Syllabus )
(S¤—⁄W @∫⁄¥¿£% & Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ S¤—⁄W @∫⁄¥¿£%/ Private Fresh & Private Repeater)
¶´¤MO⁄ : 26. 03. 2018 ] [ Date : 26. 03. 2018

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑ÊÿVÊX 9-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-12-45 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-45 P.M.
Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 100 ] [ Max. Marks : 100
General Instructions to the Candidate :
1. This Question Paper consists of 50 objective and subjective types of

questions.
2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on
the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.
3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.
5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question
paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
Tear here
PF & PR-7008 [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE PF & PR
I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct
alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet.
8×1=8
1. In the given Venn diagram n ( A ) is
(A) 3 (B) 1
(C) 5 (D) 2
2. Sum of all the first ‘n’ terms of even natural number is
(A) n(n+1) (B) n(n+2)
(C) n2 (D) 2n 2
3. A boy has 3 shirts and 2 coats. How many different pairs, a shirt and a
coat can he dress up with ?
(A) 3 (B) 18
(C) 6 (D) 5
4. In a random experiment, if the occurrence of one event prevents the
occurrence of other event is
(A) a complementary event (B) a certain event
(C) not mutually exclusive (D) mutually exclusive event
PF & PR-7008
CCE PF & PR 3 81-E
5. The polynomial p ( x ) = x 2 – x + 1 is divided by ( x – 2 ) then the
remainder is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 0 (D) 1
6. The distance between the co-ordinates of a point ( p, q ) from the origin is
(A) p2 − q 2 (B) p2 − q 2
(C) p2 + q 2 (D) q 2 − p2
7. The equation of a line having slope 3 and y-intercept 5 is
(A) 3y = 5x + 3 (B) 5y = 3x + 5
(C) y = 3x – 5 (D) y = 3x + 5
8. The surface area of a sphere of radius 7 cm is
(A) 88 cm 2 (B) 616 cm 2
(C) 661 cm 2 (D) 308 cm 2
II. Answer the following : 6×1=6
9. Find the HCF of 14 and 21.
10. The average runs scored by a batsman in 15 cricket matches is 60 and
standard deviation of the runs is 15. Find the coefficient of variation of the
runs scored by him.
11. Write the degree of the polynomial f ( x ) = x 2 – 3 x 3 + 2.

81-E 4 CCE PF & PR
12. What are congruent circles ?

5
13. If sin θ = then write the value of cosec θ.
13
14. Write the formula used to find the total surface area of a right circular
cylinder.
III. 15. If U = { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 } and A = { 1, 4 }, B = { 1, 3 } show that
( A U B )l = Al I B l . 2
16. Find the sum of the series 3 + 7 + 11 + .......... to 10 terms. 2
17. At constant pressure certain quantity of water at 24°C is heated. It was
observed that the rise of temperature was found to be 4°C per minute.
Calculate the time required to rise the temperature of water to 100°C at sea
level by using formula. 2
18. Prove that 2 + 5 is an irrational number. 2
19. If n P4 = 20 ( n P2 ) then find the value of n. 2
20. A die numbered 1 to 6 on its faces is rolled once. Find the probability of
getting either an even number or multiple of ‘3’ on its top face. 2
21. What are like surds and unlike surds ? 2
22. Rationalise the denominator and simplify : 2

5+ 3
.
5− 3
PF & PR-7008
CCE PF & PR 5 81-E
23. Find the quotient and the remainder when f ( x ) = 2x 3 − 3x 2 + 5x − 7
is divided by g ( x ) = ( x – 3 ) using synthetic division. 2
OR
Find the zeros of the polynomial p ( x ) = x 2 − 15x + 50 .
24. Solve the equation x 2 − 12x + 27 = 0 by using formula. 2
25. Draw a chord of length 6 cm in a circle of radius 5 cm. Measure and write
the distance of the chord from the centre of the circle. 2
26. In ABC ABC = 90°, BD ⊥ AC. If BD = 8 cm, AD = 4 cm, find CD
and AB. 2
OR
1
In Δ ABC, XY || BC and XY = BC . If the area of Δ AXY = 10 cm 2 , find
2
the area of trapezium XYCB.

81-E 6 CCE PF & PR
27. Show that, cot θ . cos θ + sin θ = cosec θ. 2
28. A student while conducting an experiment on Ohm’s law, plotted the graph
according to the given data. Find the slope of the line obtained. 2
X-axis I 1 2 3 4
Y-axis V 2 4 6 8
29. Draw the plan for the information given below : 2
( Scale 20 m = 1 cm )
Metre To C
140
To D 50 100
60 40 to B
To E 30 40
From A
PF & PR-7008
CCE PF & PR 7 81-E
30. Out of 8 different bicycle companies, a student likes to choose bicycle from
three companies. Find out in how many ways he can choose the companies
to buy bicycle. 2
31. If A and B are two non-disjoint sets, draw Venn diagram to represent
A \ B. 2
32. What is an Arithmetic progression ? Write its general form. 2
33. There are 10 points in a plane such that no three of them are collinear.
Find out how many triangles can be formed by joining these points. 2
34. A student reads the books according to the given data. Draw a pie chart to
represent it.
Name of the books Novels Short stories Magazines Journals
No. of books 10 60 20 30
35. Simplify : 75 + 108 − 192 . 2
36. A polynomial p ( x ) = x 2 + 4x + 2 is divided by g ( x ) = ( x + 2 ). Find
the quotient by using division algorithm. 2
37. If v 2 = u 2 + 2as , solve for v and find the value of v, if u = 0, a = 2 and
s = 100. 2

81-E 8 CCE PF & PR
38. A vertical building casts a shadow of length 12 m. If the distance between
the top of the building to the tip of the shadow at a particular time of the
day is 13 m. Find the height of the building. 2
39. Show that ( sin θ + cos θ ) 2 = 1 + 2 sin θ cos θ. 2
40. Find the co-ordinates of the mid-point of the line segment joining the
points ( 14, 12 ) and ( 8, 6 ). 2
IV. 41. In a Geometric progression the sum of first three terms is 14 and the sum
of next three terms of it is 112. Find the Geometric progression. 3
OR
If ‘a’ is the Arithmetic mean of b and c, ‘b’ is the Geometric mean of c and
a, then prove that ‘c’ is the Harmonic mean of a and b.
42. Marks scored by 30 students of 10th standard in a unit test of
mathematics is given below. Find the variance of the scores : 3
Marks ( x ) 4 8 10 12 16
No. of students ( f ) 13 6 4 3 4
PF & PR-7008
CCE PF & PR 9 81-E
43. If p and q are the roots of the equation x 2 − 3x + 2 = 0 , find the value of
1 1
− . 3
p q
OR
A dealer sells an article for Rs. 16 and loses as much per cent as the cost
price of the article. Find the cost price of the article.
44. Prove that, “If two circles touch each other externally, their centres and the
point of contact are collinear.” 3
45. If 7 sin 2 θ + 3 cos 2 θ = 4 and ‘θ’ is acute then show that cot θ = 3. 3
OR
The angle of elevation of an aircraft from a point on horizontal ground is
found to be 30°. The angle of elevation of same aircraft after 24 seconds
which is moving horizontally to the ground is found to be 60°. If the height
of the aircraft from the ground is 3600 3 metre. Find the velocity of the
aircraft.

81-E 10 CCE PF & PR
46. A solid is in the form of a cone mounted on a right circular cylinder, both
having same radii as shown in the figure. The radius of the base and
height of the cone are 7 cm and 9 cm respectively. If the total height of the
solid is 30 cm, find the volume of the solid. 3
OR
The slant height of the frustum of a cone is 4 cm and the perimeters of its
circular bases are 18 cm and 6 cm respectively. Find the curved surface
area of the frustum.
V. 47. Solve the equation x 2 − x − 2 = 0 graphically. 4
48. Construct a direct common tangent to two circles of radii 4 cm and 2 cm
whose centres are 9 cm apart. Measure and write the length of the
tangent. 4
49. State and prove Basic Proportionality ( Thale’s ) Theorem. 4
PF & PR-7008
CCE PF & PR 11 81-E
50. A vertical tree is broken by the wind at a height of 6 metre from its foot and
its top touches the ground at a distance of 8 metre from the foot of the
tree. Calculate the distance between the top of the tree before breaking and
the point at which tip of the tree touches the ground, after it breaks. 4
OR
In Δ ABC, AD is drawn perpendicular to BC. If BD : CD = 3 : 1, then prove
that BC 2 = 2 ( AB 2 − AC 2 ) .

81-E 12 CCE PF & PR
PF & PR-7008
SL. No. : H
BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 52 ]
Total No. of Questions : 52 ]
CCE PF [ Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 12
[ Total No. of Printed Pages : 12
CCE PR
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : …e¤k´⁄
Subject : SCIENCE
(
∫Ë}⁄À¤—⁄°, ¡⁄—¤æ⁄fl´⁄À¤—⁄° »⁄fl}⁄fl° ffi»⁄À¤—⁄° / Physics, Chemistry & Biology )
( BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )
(S¤—⁄W @∫⁄¥¿£% & Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ S¤—⁄W @∫⁄¥¿£%/ Private Fresh & Private Repeater)

¶´¤MO⁄ : 02. 04. 2018 ] [ Date : 02. 04. 2018


questions.
types of questions.
questions.
Tear here

83-E 2 CCE PF & PR
Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
10 × 1 = 10
1. “Coal is a non-renewable source of energy.” Because,
(A) coal is replenished soon in the nature
(B) coal is abundant in nature
(C) the reserves of coal are depleting at a fast rate and it is difficult to
replenish
(D) coal leaves residue when burnt.
2. The living component of xylem tissue is
(A) xylem vessel (B) xylem parenchyma
(C) xylem tracheid (D) xylem fibre.
3. Identify a property of amorphous silicon in the following.
(A) Does not burn in the air
(B) Has dark grey colour
(C) Oxidizes at the surface level when heated in the air
(D) Less reactive.
4. A man who is standing at a distance of 850 m from a sound reflecting surface
claps loudly. If the velocity of the sound in air is 340 ms − 1 , then the time taken
by the echo to reach him is
(A) 5s (B) 4s
(C) 2·5 s (D) 3 s.
PF & PR-7017
CCE PF & PR 3 83-E
5. If the stages of human evolution is written in the descending order according to

their cranial capacity, then the correct order obtained is
(A) Homo habilis, Homo erectus, Homo sapiens, Australopithecus
(B) Australopithecus, Homo habilis, Homo erectus, Homo sapiens
(C) Homo sapiens, Homo erectus, Australopithecus, Homo habilis
(D) Homo sapiens, Homo erectus, Homo habilis, Australopithecus.
6. Steam engine cannot be started instantaneously because,
(A) the efficiency of the engine is low
(B) steam should be produced by heating water
(C) the engine is bulky
(D) there is no spark plug.
7. The principle of working of a motor is
(A) there is a magnetic field around a current carrying conductor
(B) when a magnetic field linked with a conductor changes, an induced emf is
generated in the conductor
(C) the change of current in one coil, induces emf in a neighbouring coil
(D) a conductor carrying electrical current experiences mechanical force if kept

in a magnetic field.
8. Antheridium of pteridophytes can be compared to
(A) Stamen of angiosperms (B) Megasporophyll of gymnosperms
(C) Carpel of angiosperms (D) Archegonium of bryophytes.
9. The gas released when the sunlight breaks down chlorofluorocarbons is
(A) carbon dioxide (B) fluorine
(C) carbon monoxide (D) chlorine.
10. The group of compounds which dissociate partially in aqueous solution is
(A) Hydrochloric acid, Nitric acid (B) Carbonic acid, Phosphoric acid
(C) Sodium chloride, Acetic acid (D) Copper sulphate, Sugar solution.

83-E 4 CCE PF & PR
11. The processes related to organic compounds are given in Column-A and their
procedures are given in Column-B. Match them and write the answer along with
its letters : 4×1=4
Column - A Column - B
(A) Preparation of Methane gas (i) Production of salts of fatty acids
starting from oils or fats
(B) Substitution reaction (ii) Conversion of liquid oils into solid

saturated fats
(C) Hydrogenation (iii) Heating fused sodium acetate with

sodalime
(D) Saponification (iv) Heating an aqueous solution of

ammonium cyanate
(v) Burning of methane in air
(vi) Heating ethanol in the presence of

acidified potassium permanganate
(vii) Exposing the mixture of methane

and chlorine to ultraviolet light.
Answer the following questions. 7×1=7
12. Nowadays bio-diesel is used in transportation vehicles as an alternate to diesel.
Write two advantages of this measure.
13. Write the circuit symbol of p-n-p transistor.
14. Name the family and the order to which man belongs.
15. The schematic diagram indicating the transmission of electricity is given below :
Name the devices to be used in the places indicated as ‘A’ and ‘B’.
PF & PR-7017
CCE PF & PR 5 83-E
16. How is silicon carbide prepared ? Write one of its uses.
17. In the manufacture of sugar, the container of the sugarcane juice is connected to
a vacuum pump. Why ?
18. A person is having the symptoms of thirst and frequent urination for a long time.
The blood capillaries in the retina of this person have ruptured causing blood
entering into the vitreous humour making it opaque. Name the eye disorder
found in this person.
Answer the following questions. 26 × 2 = 52
19. “Manufacture of ethyl alcohol from molassess is a good example for
fermentation.” Give reasons.
20. In animal breeding, write the two differences between outbreeding and
hybridization.
21. What is Doppler effect ? Mention the two applications of Doppler effect.
OR
List the uses of ultrasonic waves due to their high frequency.
22. Draw the diagram of AC dynamo and label the following parts :
(i) Armature
(ii) Brushes.
23. Observe the table in which the sizes of different DNA fragments are given and
answer the questions :
DNA fragments A B C
Size ( in base pairs ) 700 1500 3000
(a) In the process of separating DNA fragments, which fragment moves faster ?
(b) Explain the process of separating the DNA fragments.

83-E 6 CCE PF & PR
24. Draw the diagram of the apparatus used in electroplating and label the following
part :
The substance to be electroplated.
25. What is monohybrid cross ? Write the genotypic ratio and phenotypic ratio of
Mendel’s monohybrid cross.
OR
Carl Correns conducted hybridization experiment using Four O’ Clock plants.

Draw the checker board of F 2 generation for the incomplete dominance
phenomenon, when he crossed a homozygous plant having red flowers ( RR )
with another homozygous plant with white flowers ( WW ). Mention its genotypic
ratio.
26. Draw the diagram of a dicot plant and label the following parts :
(i) Flower
(ii) Root.
27. State Boyle’s law. Write the mathematical form of Boyle’s law. Give an example
for this law.
OR
State Graham’s law of diffusion. Write the mathematical form of Graham’s law of
diffusion. Give an example for this law.
28. Observe the following figure. Which property of diode is indicated here ? Explain
that property.
PF & PR-7017
CCE PF & PR 7 83-E
29. How is greenhouse effect caused ? Explain. Name the greenhouse gases.
30. Draw the diagram of an electrolytic cell used in the purification of copper and
label the electrode having impure copper.
31. Among the following, identify the wrong statements with respect to a whale and
write them correctly.
(i) A pair of lungs are respiratory organs
(ii) They do not have mammary glands
(iii) Heart is four chambered
(iv) They are oviparous.
OR
The organisms, (i) Amphioxus, (ii) Balanoglossus, belong to which sub-phyla of
Chordata and why ?
32. The molecular formula of the first member of a certain group of organic
compounds is CH 2 O ( HCHO ). Determine the name and the molecular formula
of the third member of this group if the members of this group are in homologous
series. What is the general name for this group of organic compounds ?
33. How is safety glass manufactured ? Mention the use of safety glass.
OR
Name the types of paper having the following properties and mention one use of
each.
(i) Porous and semipermeable
(ii) Non-sticking property.

83-E 8 CCE PF & PR
34. The wavelength of a wave is 3 m. If the velocity of the wave is 330 ms − 1 , then
find the frequency of that wave. Calculate the time period if the frequency of that
wave is reduced to half of its value.
35. Mention any four economic importance of Pteridophytes.
36. Write the molecular formula and structural formula of propyne and isobutane.
37. Write the differences between n-type and p-type semiconductors.
38. Draw the diagram showing the structure of a neuron and label the following
parts.
(i) Axon
(ii) Dendrite.
39. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following chemical reactions.
(i) When sodium reacts with water
(ii) When zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid
40. Give scientific reason for the following.
(i) Feldspar is used in the manufacture of ceramics.
(ii) Ceramics are the parts of electrical gadgetry.
41. Draw the diagram showing the expansion stroke of steam engine and label the
following parts.
(i) Boiler
(ii) Inlet valve.
PF & PR-7017
CCE PF & PR 9 83-E
42. Mention the preventive measures of bird flu.
43. What is a galaxy ? Name the types of galaxy.
44. Choose the odd one from the following group. Give reason for your choice.
Abscisic acid, Gibberellin, Cytokinin.
45. Draw the diagram of a nuclear power reactor and label the following parts.
(i) The part that confines neutrons to the core
(ii) Radiation shield.
46. Explain the Haversian system of bone tissue.
OR
Explain the structure of cartilage tissue.
47. Explain intake stroke and compression stroke in the working of a petrol engine.
OR
Explain the working of a diesel engine.
48. Observe this figure and answer the questions given below :
(i) Name the part labelled as ‘1’.
(ii) Name the heredity material of this virus.
(iii) ‘The person infected by this virus is attacked by various diseases.’
Explain.

83-E 10 CCE PF & PR
49. The atomic numbers of five elements A, B, C, D and E are 6, 8, 3, 7 and 9
respectively.
(i) Which is the element having the highest electropositivity among these
elements ? Why ?
(ii) Which is the element having the least metallic character among these
elements ? Why ?
(iii) What is your conclusion about the relationship between metallic character
and electropositivity of an element ?
50. (a) Explain the red giant stage of a star. Which is the factor that decides the
next stage of a star after its red giant stage ?
(b) Define escape velocity with respect to earth. What do R and g indicate in
the mathematical formula of escape velocity ?
OR
(a) Explain the supernova stage of a star. Mention the main feature of a black
hole.
(b) State the law of conservation of momentum. “Propellants are necessary for
the working of rockets.” Why ?
PF & PR-7017
CCE PF & PR 11 83-E
51. (a) Observe the following chemical equations :
(i) Al 2 O 3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO 2 + H 2 O
(ii) Al 2 O 3 + 6HCl → 2AlCl 3 + 3H 2 O.
What is the conclusion that you take about the nature of aluminium oxide
with the help of these equations. Give reason for your conclusion.
(b) Molten cryolite is mixed with molten alumina in the extraction of
aluminium by electrolysis. Why ? Name the substances that are used as
anode and cathode in this method.
52. Draw the diagram showing the internal structure of human ear and label the
following parts.
(i) Malleus
(ii) Auditory nerve.

83-E 12 CCE PF & PR
PF & PR-7017
SL. No. : J
CCE PF
BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 57 ] [ Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 8
Total No. of Questions : 57 ]
CCE PR [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 8

…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : —⁄»⁄·¤d …e¤k´⁄
Subject : SOCIAL SCIENCE
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85-E 2 CCE PF & PR
I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
10 × 1 = 10
1. The Bank Account that is best suitable for businessmen is
(A) Savings Bank Account (B) Current Account
(C) Recurring Deposit Account (D) Term Deposit Account.
2. ‘Prohibition of Dowry Act’ was passed in the year
(A) 1961 (B) 1987
(C) 1988 (D) 1989.
3. Direct tax among the following is
(A) Central Excise Duty (B) Personal Income Tax
(C) Service Tax (D) Foreign Travel Tax.
4. In Group-A list of entrepreneurs and in Group-B enterprises established by
them are given. Identify the group that matches.

Group-A Group-B
(a) Azim Premji (i) Biocon Ltd.
(b) Dr. Pratap Reddy (ii) Jet Airways
(c) Kiran Majumdar Shah (iii) Wipro Technologies
(d) Naresh Goyal (iv) Apollo Hospitals.
a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) ii iii iv i.
PF & PR-7031
CCE PF & PR 3 85-E
5. The type of soil which is largely found in Rajasthan is
(A) Alluvial soil (B) Desert soil
(C) Red soil (D) Laterite soil.
6. The Minto-Morley Reforms of 1909 laid the foundation for the partition of
India because it
(A) abolished the Dual Government
(B) established a Board of Control
(C) nominated Indians to the working committee
(D) formed a separate electoral constituency based on religion.
7. The exact matching of the marked places in the map is
(A) 1 — Amritsar, 2 — Guwahati, 3 — Hyderabad
(B) 1 — Guwahati, 2 — Hyderabad, 3 — Amritsar
(C) 1 — Hyderabad, 2 — Amritsar, 3 — Guwahati
(D) 1 — Allahabad, 2 — Hyderabad, 3 — Amritsar.

85-E 4 CCE PF & PR
8. India successfully supported Nelson Mandela because
(A) India called Nelson Mandela as African Gandhi
(B) Indian foreign policy is against Apartheid policy
(C) India is a leading member of the U.N.O.
(D) India follows N.A.M.
9. We observe 10th December as ‘Human Rights Day’ because
(A) Abraham Lincoln abolished slavery on 10th December, 1865
(B) Nelson Mandela was released from prison on 10th December, 1993
(C) U.N.O. declared Universal Human Rights on 10th December, 1948
(D) India declared Fundamental Rights to its citizens.
10. Principles of Swarajya and Swadharma advocated by Dayanand Saraswati

inspired people to
(A) establish classless society
(B) fight against Sati and child marriage
(C) take part in the freedom movement
(D) bring educational reforms.
II. Answer the following questions in a sentence each : 14 × 1 = 14
11. “Writing history of common people has become a challenge to historians.”

Why ?
12. How did Sir Syed Ahmed Khan educate the Muslim Community ?
13. Why did the socialist system collapse in Russia ?
14. Which policy of the British sowed the seed of communalism in India ?
15. What is meant by Colonialism ?
16. Who were the leaders of Chipko Movement ?
17. “Sarva Shiksha Abhiyana” plays an important role in eradication of child

labour. How ?
PF & PR-7031
CCE PF & PR 5 85-E
18. Which soil is also called ‘Regur Soil’ ?
19. Why is ‘National Power Grid’ established ?
20. Why should we grow Mangrove forests along the coasts ?
21. Which states of India are more affected by cyclones ?
22. Who presents the Central Budget in Lok Sabha ?
23. Who stated that the “True development of India is the development of its
villages” ?
24. Why is Reserve Bank of India called ‘Mother of Banks’ ?
III. Answer the following questions in two to four sentences each : 25 × 2 = 50
25. Which were the factors that helped Europeans to discover new sea route to
India ?
OR
What were the results of Battle of Buxar ?
26. Why do we remember Mysore Wodeyars ?
27. “Formation of Andhra Pradesh based on language was essential to Indian

Government.” Why ?
28. “Joseph Stalin moulded Russia into a force capable of challenging America.”
How ?
29. Which are the steps taken by the Indian Government to eradicate illiteracy ?
30. How is Food and Agricultural Organization ( FAO ) working to solve the world
problems ?
31. “In recent days the practice of untouchability in India has started declining.”
Give reasons.
32. Differentiate between Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep

Islands.
33. “Climatic condition of India has a great significance on its economy.” Justify.
34. Classify the following trees under Tropical grasslands and Alpine forests of
Himalayas :
Silver, Babool, Seesum, Laurel.

85-E 6 CCE PF & PR
35. Differentiate between Kharif and Rabi seasons.
36. How is remote sensing technology helpful during natural calamities ?
37. “Growth of population is a cause for innumerable problems.” Justify.
38. How can ‘Inclusive Growth’ of a country be achieved ?
39. “Globalization leads to environmental degradation.” How ?
40. Mention the areas of Hyderabad Karnataka.
41. Mention the prominent social reformers of India.
42. Which are the objectives of Indian Foreign Policy ?
43. Which are the effects of terrorism ?
44. What are the steps taken by the Government to eradicate untouchability ?
45. Which are the four major physical divisions of India ?
46. Mention the types of soil.
47. Mention the four climatic seasons of India.
48. Which are the indicators of Human Development ?
49. What are the services offered by banks ?
IV. Answer the following questions in six sentences each : 6 × 3 = 18
50. Explain how the administrative system and economic policy of the British
became the causes for the First War of Indian Independence.
OR
Explain how the land revenue system of the British affected the Indian
farmers.
51. “The relationship between India and China nowadays is strained.”
Substantiate.
OR
“India is playing a very important role in upholding the Human Rights.”
Substantiate.
PF & PR-7031
CCE PF & PR 7 85-E
52. Explain the remedial measures for unemployment.
OR
Explain the importance of Women’s Self Help Groups.
53. What are the remedial measures to overcome the scarcity of power ?
OR
What are the problems of Road Transport in India ?
54. How did India try to achieve economic development after independence ?
OR
How does Rural Development help to the economic development of the

country ?
55. What are the advantages of insurance ?
OR
What are the characteristics of an entrepreneur ?
V. Answer the following question in about eight to ten sentences : 4
56. Explain the role of Subhash Chandra Bose in the freedom struggle of India.
VI. 57. Draw an outline map of India and mark the following : 1+3=4
o
a) 23 1 N Latitude
2
b) Nagarjuna Sagar Project
c) Bhadravati.
Alternative Question for Blind Candidates only : (In lieu of Q. No. 57)
What are the uses of Himalayas in the life of the people of India ? 4

85-E 8 CCE PF & PR
PF & PR-7031

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SL. No.

Total No. of Questions : 57 ] REVISED [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 8

28. 03. 2018 ] [ Date : 28. 03. 2018

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: 04. 04. 2018 ] [ Date : 04. 04. 2018

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II. 10. 5×1=5

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¶´¤MO⁄ : 26. 03. 2018 ] [ Date : 26. 03. 2018

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General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 50 objective and subjective types of

PF & PR-7008 [ Turn over

1. In the given Venn diagram n ( A ) is

2. Sum of all the first ‘n’ terms of even natural number is

(A) n(n+1) (B) n(n+2)

coat can he dress up with ?

4. In a random experiment, if the occurrence of one event prevents the

occurrence of other event is

(A) a complementary event (B) a certain event

(C) not mutually exclusive (D) mutually exclusive event

5. The polynomial p ( x ) = x 2 – x + 1 is divided by ( x – 2 ) then the

6. The distance between the co-ordinates of a point ( p, q ) from the origin is

7. The equation of a line having slope 3 and y-intercept 5 is

8. The surface area of a sphere of radius 7 cm is

(A) 88 cm 2 (B) 616 cm 2

(C) 661 cm 2 (D) 308 cm 2

II. Answer the following : 6×1=6

9. Find the HCF of 14 and 21.

10. The average runs scored by a batsman in 15 cricket matches is 60 and

runs scored by him.

11. Write the degree of the polynomial f ( x ) = x 2 – 3 x 3 + 2.

PF & PR-7008 [ Turn over

12. What are congruent circles ?

III. 15. If U = { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 } and A = { 1, 4 }, B = { 1, 3 } show that

16. Find the sum of the series 3 + 7 + 11 + .......... to 10 terms. 2

17. At constant pressure certain quantity of water at 24°C is heated. It was

level by using formula. 2

18. Prove that 2 + 5 is an irrational number. 2

19. If n P4 = 20 ( n P2 ) then find the value of n. 2

getting either an even number or multiple of ‘3’ on its top face. 2

21. What are like surds and unlike surds ? 2

22. Rationalise the denominator and simplify : 2

23. Find the quotient and the remainder when f ( x ) = 2x 3 − 3x 2 + 5x − 7

is divided by g ( x ) = ( x – 3 ) using synthetic division. 2

Find the zeros of the polynomial p ( x ) = x 2 − 15x + 50 .

24. Solve the equation x 2 − 12x + 27 = 0 by using formula. 2

the distance of the chord from the centre of the circle. 2

26. In ABC ABC = 90°, BD ⊥ AC. If BD = 8 cm, AD = 4 cm, find CD

the area of trapezium XYCB.

PF & PR-7008 [ Turn over

27. Show that, cot θ . cos θ + sin θ = cosec θ. 2

29. Draw the plan for the information given below : 2

32. What is an Arithmetic progression ? Write its general form. 2

Name of the books Novels Short stories Magazines Journals

35. Simplify : 75 + 108 − 192 . 2