14-E 2 RR+PR

: 14-E
Code No. : 14-E
: —

Subject : First Language — ENGLISH

( / Old Syllabus )
( + / Regular Repeater + Private Repeater)

General Instructions :

i) The Question-cum-Answer Booklet consists of objective and subjective

types of questions having 63 questions.

ii) Space has been provided against each objective type question. You
have to choose the correct choice and write the complete answer along
with its letter in the space provided.

iii) For subjective type questions enough space for each question has
been provided. You have to answer the questions in the space.

iv) Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

v) Candidate should not write the answer with pencil. Answers written in
pencil will not be evaluated. ( Except Graphs, Diagrams & Maps )

vi) In case of Multiple Choice, Fill in the blanks and Matching questions,
scratching / rewriting / marking is not permitted, thereby rendering
to disqualification for evaluation.

vii) Candidates have extra 15 minutes for reading the question paper.

viii) Do not write anything in the space provided in the right side margin.

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I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the
correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter in
the space provided against each question. 15  1 = 15
1. Which of the following does the author not consider as beautiful
things ?
(A) Raphael‟s pictures (B) Caliph‟s palaces
(C) Beethoven‟s music (D) Shakespeare‟s plays.
2. Which of the following is not true regarding the dark boy in the lesson
„Jamaican Fragment‟ ?
(A) He was a strong little Jamaican
(B) He had a mat of coarse hair.
(C) He wore blue shirt and khaki pants.
(D) He had hazel eyes.
3. Palk straits can only be attempted during a brief period of about thirty
days from early March because
(A) travel between India and Ceylon is rigidly controlled
(B) the sea is rough throughout the year
(C) of the prevalence of the South-west and the North-east monsoons
(D) of the presence of deadly marine hazards.
4. Total time taken by Mihir Sen for swimming the Palk Straits is
(A) 36 hours 25 minutes (B) 26 hours 36 minutes
(C) 35 hours 26 minutes (D) 25 hours 36 minutes.
5. Who is Dr. Follicle ?
(A) A consulting hairologist
(B) A specialist in cutting hour around the ears
(C) Secretary of Dr. Scrape
(D) An expert in removal of full beard.
6. „A lasting monument of words‟ refers to
(A) the cry of the dog
(B) the mists that spread the flying shroud
(C) the craggy mountain
(D) the poem in praise of the dog.
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7. In the poem „Because I could not stop for Death‟, what did the
carriage carry ?
(A) Death
(B) Death and Immortality
(C) Immortality and the Poetess
(D) The Poetess, Death and Immortality.
8. The bosom friend of the Autumn season is
(A) mellow fruitfulness (B) maturing sun
(C) cottage trees (D) the vines.
9. The gift that God withheld was
(A) rest (B) beauty
(C) wisdom (D) pleasure.
10. He is a graduate from ....................... University of Mysore.
The suitable article to be filled in the blank is
(A) a (B) an
(C) the (D) one.
11. The girl played chess, ................. ?
The suitable question tag for the above is
(A) does she (B) did she
(C) doesn‟t she (D) didn‟t she.
12. India won the cricket match.
The figure of speech used here is
(A) Simile (B) Metaphor
(C) Synecdoche (D) Personification.
13. I got .................. a railway carriage ................... a country station.
The suitable prepositions to be filled in the blanks are
(A) in, at (B) into, at
(C) in, on (D) on, at.
14. The word that does not take the prefix „dis‟ to make its antonym is
(A) comfortable (B) comfort
(C) integration (D) pleasure.

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15. “An apparatus with interior heating tube to boil water.”

Give one word for the above.
(A) Sarovar (B) Samovar

(C) Kettle (D) Bowl.

II. 16. Match the phrases in Column-A with their meanings in Column-B.
Write the correct answer in the space provided : 51=5
Column-A Column-B
(a) give up (i) search for
(b) give in (ii) make short visit
(c) look in (iii) renounce hope
(d) look after (iv) assume control
(e) take over (v) lay aside for future
(vi) acknowledging defeat
(vii) take charge of

III. Complete the following sentences with a word or a group of words :

51=5
17. The author came to the conclusion that the two boys were of equal
class and playmates because
18. Sudha Chandran has produced a Kannada film based on the life of
19. Aksionov could not prove his innocence when the police officer
arrested him because
20. In the poem „Fidelity‟ the only cheer in the tarn was
21. The poetess put away her labour because of the ................... of death.

IV. Quote from memory : 4

22. And he took ...............................................................

.................................................................................

.................................................................................

........................................................ in the fireplace.

OR

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So strength .............................................................

...............................................................................

...............................................................................

...............................................................................

.............................................................. bottom lay.

V. Answer the following questions in three to four sentences each : 10  2 = 20

23. Why does the author consider scientists to be civilized ?

24. How can the liberties of all be preserved ?

25. Why was Mihir Sen compelled to postpone the swim ?

26. Why did Aksionov‟s wife plead with him not to go to the Nizhny fair ?

27. Why did the work around the ear require another specialist ?

28. Why did Krishna admire his brother Balarama ?

29. Why do you think Martha and her children were anxious at the

beginning ?

30. How is „love sublime‟ characterised in the last four lines of the poem

„Fidelity‟ ?

31. How did the sheep dog deal with the confident tigers ?

32. Why according to the physician was the narrator lame ?

VI. Explain with reference to the context : 5  3 = 15

33. “I know all about the game.”

34. “Congratulations. You have done it !”

35. “When the time comes she will fight in real earnest.”

36. “We were coming to see you as friends.”

37. We passed the school where children played.

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VII. Answer the following questions in five to six sentences each : 5  3 = 15

38. What are certain pre-requisites required for a person to think freely
and why ?
39. Describe the experience of the author in the railway carriage.

40. Describe Aksionov‟s 26 years of life in prison.

41. How has the poet personified Autumn throughout the poem ?

42. Sum up the poet‟s view on the ultimate goal of human life.
VIII. Answer the following questions in seven to eight sentences each : 3  4 = 12
43. Describe how Sudha was able to overcome her disability and give a
public performance.
OR
How did king Kukudmin bring up his daughter ?
44. What were the problems faced by Mihir Sen in his endeavour ?

OR
Almost every character undergoes a change in the course of the play
“The Hour of Truth”. Illustrate the change in any two characters.
45. How did the dying boy try to console his despairing father ?
OR

Describe the incident that led the poet to read an important message
in the mailbox. What was the message ?
IX. Rewrite as directed :

46. Change into the other degrees of comparison : 2

The Hirakud is the longest dam in India.

a) Positive :

b) Comparative :

47. Change into Simple and Complex sentences : 2

He is poor but honest.

a) Simple :

b) Complex :

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48. Use the following word in sentences of your own first as a noun and
then as verb : 2

„Struggle‟

a) ( As a noun ) :

b) ( As a verb ) :

49. Change into reported speech : 2

“What is the price of your dress ?” said Manjula.

50. Combine the sentences using ‘too ... to’ and „so ... that ... not’ : 2

This news is very good. It cannot be true.

51. Change the voice : 1

The messenger has delivered the parcel.

52. Combine the sentences using neither ... nor : 1

He does not use his camera. He does not give it to others to use.

53. Rewrite the sentence using „No sooner ... than’ : 1

As soon as the guard shows the green signal, the train starts.

54. Frame a question to get the italicized words as answer : 1

He went to Delhi to meet the Prime Minister.

X. 55. Develop the following out line into a readable story : 4

A shepherd boy — takes sheep for grazing everyday — tired and bored
— plans to play mischief — cries „Wolf, wolf‟ — villagers come running
with sticks — laughs heartily — another day — cries again — villagers
come again — laughs again — one day — really a wolf comes —
shepherd cries — nobody comes — wolf destroys the herd.

XI. 56. Write an essay ( about 15-20 sentences ) on any one of the following
topics : 5

a) National symbols

b) Air pollution

c) Computers.

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XII. 57. Imagine you are Varun or Varuni of Sarojini High School, Bagalkot. 5
Write a letter to your father about your preparations for the
examinations.

OR
Write a letter to the Municipal Commissioner about the non-clearance
of garbage in your locality.
XIII. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :
61=6
We must be polite. We should talk politely to everyone. When we speak
politely to other, we show our respect to them. We all admire a polite
person because, we are pleased with his way of talking.
A polite person is a well mannered person. He impresses all persons with
whom he comes in contact. He can win over any person with his politeness.
When we are very polite with an angry person, even he too cools down.
A rude person is not liked by others. No one likes the company of a rude
person. Such persons do not respect the feelings of others. They shout at
others and create a scene. Rude persons are ill-mannered. So people laugh
at them and do not help them whenever they are in trouble.
Children who are well brought up are polite. Politeness should be taught to
a child when he is very young. Once he has grown up and has rude
behaviour, it is very difficult to change him. It is highly necessary for happy
living to be polite.
Questions :
58. What is shown when we speak politely to others ?
59. Why do we admire a polite person ?
60. What happens when we are very polite with an angry person ?
61. Why don‟t we like the company of rude persons ?
62. Why do people laugh at rude persons ?
63. Why should a child be taught about politeness when he is very
young ?

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: 33-K —
Code No. : 33-K Subject : Second Language — KANNADA
( / Old Syllabus )
( + / Regular Repeater + Private Repeater )

i)

54

ii)

iii)

iv)

v)

vi)

/ /

vii) 15

viii)

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15 × 1 = 15
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

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8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

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16.

5 ×1=5

i)

ii)

iii)

iv)

v)

5 ×1=5

17. ……………………

18. ........ .

19. ………………… .

20. …………………

21. …………………

8 ×1=8

22.

23.

24.

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25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

12 × 2 = 24

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

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40.

41.

42. 1 ×2=2

2 ×2=4
43.

44.

4 × 3 = 12

45.

46.

47.

48.

49. & 50

2 ×4=8
—

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51.
1 ×4=4
—

52. 1 ×3=3
—

53. 10
/
1 ×5=5

10
/

54.
1 ×5=5
—

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‚¢xËΔ ‚¢zW : 61-H ê·ÂŒÈ : ΔÂÎãËŒÈ ü˘Ê· — õ¢å

Code No. : 61-H Subject : Third Language — HINDI
( „› …¬˙ÂW∑XÆÂÈ / Old Syllabus )

( …Âϻ¬ÊÕÂã¸Δ •ü˘ÂWå˘˚¸ + …Âϻ¬ÊÕÂã¸Δ zÊ‚ÂÇ •ü˘ÂWå˘˚¸ /Regular Repeater + Private Repeater )

¬⁄UˡÊÊÁÕ¸ÿÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ‚ÍøŸÊ∞° —

i) ÿ„U ¬˝‡Ÿ-‚„U-©UûÊ⁄U ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê „ÒU –

ii) ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-‚„U-©UûÊ⁄U ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ flSÃÈÁŸcΔU ÃÕÊ Áfl·ÿÁŸcΔU ∑ȧ‹ zy ¬˝‡Ÿ „Ò¥U –

iii) ‚÷Ë ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ©UûÊ⁄U ŒŸÊ •ÁŸflÊÿ¸ „Ò –

iv) ¬˝àÿ∑§ flSÃÈÁŸcΔU ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ „UÃÈ ¡ª„U ∑§Ê ¬˝’¢œ „ÒU – •Ê¬∑§Ê ‚„UË Áfl∑§À¬ ∑§Ê øÿŸ
∑§⁄U ©UûÊ⁄U ∑§Ê ¬Íáʸ M§¬ ‚ •ˇÊ⁄U ∑§ ‚ÊÕ Á‹πŸÊ „ÒU –

v) Áfl·ÿÁŸcΔU ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ „UÃÈ ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ ŸËø ¬ÿʸåà ¡ª„U ∑§Ê ¬˝’¢œ „ÒU – •Ê¬∑§Ê ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§
©UûÊ⁄U ©U‚Ë ¡ª„U ◊¥ ŒŸÊ „ÒU –

vi) flSÃÈÁŸcΔU ∞fl¢ Áfl·ÿÁŸcΔU ŒÊŸÊ¥ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŒÿ ªÿ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬Ê‹Ÿ ∑§⁄¥U –

vii) ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ©UûÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬¥Á‚‹ ‚ Ÿ Á‹π¥ – ∞‚Ê ∑§⁄UŸ ¬⁄U ©UŸ ©UûÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ◊ÍÀÿÊ¢∑§Ÿ Ÿ„UË¥
Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ ( Á‚flÊÿ ª˝Ê»§, «UÊÿª˝Ê◊ ÃÕÊ ◊ÊŸÁøòÊ ) –

viii) ÁŒÿ ªÿ Áfl∑§À¬, •ŸÈM§¬ÃÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ¡Ê«∏U∑§⁄U Á‹Áπ∞ ¡Ò‚ ©UûÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ∑§Ê≈U-¿UÊ°≈U ∑§⁄UŸÊ,
ŒÊ’Ê⁄UÊ Á‹πŸÊ ∞fl¢ ÁøqÔU ‹ªÊŸÊ ◊ŸÊ „ÒU – ∞‚Ê ∑§⁄UŸ ¬⁄U ©UŸ ©UûÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ◊ÍÀÿÊ¢∑§Ÿ Ÿ„UË¥
Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ –

ix) ¬˝‡Ÿ¬òÊ ¬…∏UŸ „UÃÈ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ∑§Ê vz Á◊Ÿ≈U ∑§Ê •ÁÃÁ⁄UQ§ ‚◊ÿ ÁŒÿÊ ªÿÊ „ÒU –

x) ŒÊÁ„UŸË Ã⁄U»§ „UÊÁ‡ÊÿÊ ◊¥ ¡Ê ¡ª„U ¿UÊ«∏UÊ ªÿÊ „ÒU ©U‚◊¥ ∑ȧ¿U ◊à Á‹Áπ∞ –
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I. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ øÊ⁄U-øÊ⁄U Áfl∑§À¬ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥U, Á¡Ÿ◊¥ ∞∑§ ◊ÊòÊ ‚„UË ©UûÊ⁄U „ÒU – ‚„UË
©UûÊ⁄U øÈŸ∑§⁄U ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ Á⁄UÄà SÕÊŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ©U‚∑§ ‚¢∑§ÃÊˇÊ⁄U ‚Á„Uà ©UûÊ⁄U ¬Íáʸ M§¬ ‚
Á‹Áπ∞ — 15 × 1 = 15

1) ““◊Ê‹Ê”” ‡ÊéŒ ∑§Ê ’„ÈUfløŸ ‡ÊéŒ „ÒU

(A) ◊Ê‹ (B) ◊Ê‹Ê
(C) ◊Ê‹Ê∞° (D) ◊Ê‹ÊÿÊ° –
2) ““’Ê‹∑§U”” ‡ÊéŒ ∑§Ê •ãÿ Á‹¢ª „ÒU
(A) ’ÊÁ‹∑§Ê (B) ’ÊÁ‹∑§
(C) ’Ê‹Ê∑§ (D) ’‹∑§ –
3) ““•Ê‚◊ÊŸ”” ‡ÊéŒ ∑§Ê ‚◊ÊŸÊÕ¸∑§ ‡ÊéŒ „ÒU
(A) ©U¬Êÿ (B) ‚◊ÊŸ
(C) ’ÊŒ‹ (D) •Ê∑§Ê‡Ê –
4) ““Ÿ¡ŒË∑§”” ‡ÊéŒ ∑§Ê Áfl‹Ê◊ ‡ÊéŒ „ÒU
(A) ¬Ê‚ (B) Ÿ¡⁄U
(C) ŒÍ⁄U (D) ÃÁŸ∑§ –
5) ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ‡ÊéŒÊ¥ ◊¥ Áfl¡ÊÃËÿ ‡ÊéŒ „ÒU
(A) •ŸÊ⁄U (B) •Ê◊
(C) ‚¢Ã⁄UÊ (D) ߸π –
6) ““¬⁄U◊ÊÒ·œ”” ‡ÊéŒ Á∑§‚ ‚¢Áœ ∑§Ê ©UŒÊ„U⁄UáÊ „ÒU ?
(A) ŒËÉʸ (B) ªÈáÊ
(C) flÎÁh (D) •ÿÊŒË –
7) ““’Ȥʟʔ” ‡ÊéŒ ∑§Ê ¬˝Õ◊ ¬˝⁄UáÊÊÕ¸∑§ ‡ÊéŒ „ÒU
(A) ’È¤ÊŸÊ (B) ’ȤÊÊŸÊ
(C) ’ȤÊflÊŸÊ (D) ’ͤÊÊŸÊ –
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8) ““¬Ê‹ πÈ‹ŸÊ”” ◊È„UÊfl⁄U ∑§Ê •Õ¸ „ÒU
(A) ‚àÿ ¬˝∑§≈U „UÊŸÊ (B) Œ⁄UflÊ¡Ê πÈ‹ŸÊ
(C) •‚àÿ ¬˝∑§≈UU „UÊŸÊ (D) SÃéœ „UÊ ¡ÊŸÊ –
9) Sflª¸ .................. ŒflÃÊ Œπ ⁄U„U „Ò¥U – Á⁄UÄà SÕÊŸ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ∑§Ê⁄U∑§
•ÊÃÊ „ÒU ?
(A) ◊¥ (B) ‚
(C) ∑§Ë (D) ¬⁄U –
10) fl„U ◊È„U⁄¸U◊ ...................... ¡È‹Í‚ ÕÊ – Á⁄UÄà SÕÊŸ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ∑§Ê⁄U∑§
•ÊÃÊ „ÒU ?
(A) ∑§ (B) ∑§Ë
(C) ∑§Ê (D) ∑§Ê –
11) SòÊË ∑§Ë ‚¢∑§ËáʸÃÊ ∑§Ê ß‹Ê¡ Á∑§‚∑§ ¬Ê‚ „ÒU ?
(A) ¬ÈL§· (B) ¬ÁÃ
(C) ¬˝∑§Î Áà (D) ◊Ê°-’ʬ –
12) „U◊Ê⁄U ¬Ífl¸¡Ê¥ Ÿ Á∑§‚◊¥ ŒÒflË-‡ÊÁÄà ∑§Ê flÊ‚ ◊ÊŸÊ „ÒU ?
(A) ÃÈ‹‚Ë (B) ŸË◊
(C) ¬Ë¬‹ (D) •Ê◊ –
13) ‹ˇ◊Ë’Ê߸ •¬Ÿ ‚ÒÁŸ∑§Ê¥ ◊¥ ¡Ê‡Ê Á∑§‚ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ÷⁄UÃË „Ò¥ ?
(A) ‚Ê„UÁ‚∑§ ’ÊÃÊ¥ ‚ (B) flË⁄UÃÊ ‚
(C) ŒflÃÊ ÁŒπÊ∑§⁄U (D) ŸÊ⁄U ‹ªÊ∑§⁄U –
14) “ÁøòÊ∑ͧ≈U” ∑§ÁflÃÊ ◊¥ ∑§Áfl Á∑§‚ ‚¢’ÊÁœÃ ∑§⁄UÃ „Ò¥U ?
(A) ‡ÊÁ‡Ê (B) ¬˝∑§Î ÁÃ
(C) ’ìÊÊ¥ (D) ªÊÒ⁄Ufl-ÁªÁ⁄U –
15) ’‹Í⁄U ◊¥ ◊¢ÁŒ⁄U „ÒU
(A) ªáÊ‡Ê (B) øÛÊ∑§‡Êfl
(C) ÁflcáÊÈ (D) ‹ˇ◊Ë –
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II. 16) SÃê÷ - ∑§ ∑§ flÊÄÿÊ¢‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§ ‚ÊÕ SÃê÷ - π ∑§ ‚„UË flÊÄÿÊ¢‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¡Ê«∏U∑§⁄U Á‹Áπ∞ —

5 ×1=5

SÃê÷ “∑§” SÃê÷ “π”

A) „U◊Ê⁄UÊ ¬ÿʸfl⁄UáÊ ¬˝ŒÍ·áÊ M§¬Ë i) ∑§Ê◊ ÷Ë ∑§⁄UŸ ‹ª „Ò¥U

B) ‚ÊÁflòÊË ∑§Ë •Ê°πÊ¥ ◊¥ ii) ŒÍ‚⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ◊È°„U ÃÊ∑§ŸÊ

C) ∑§êåÿÍ≈U⁄U ‚È⁄U ‚¡ÊŸ ∑§Ê iii) ªÈŸªÈŸÊ ⁄U„UË ÕË

D) ¬˝ªÁà ∑§ Á‹∞ iv) ⁄UÊ¡⁄UÊª ‚ ª˝Sà „UÊ ⁄U„UÊ „ÒU

E) ©UŒÊ‚ ⁄U„UË v) ©U¬ÿÊª „UÊ ⁄U„UÊ „ÒU

vi) ŒÍ‚⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ◊È°„U Ÿ„UË¥ ÃÊ∑§ŸÊ

vii) ¬˝◊ÊüÊÈ ¿U‹∑§ ©UΔU

viii) øÄ∑§Ë –

III. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà Á⁄UÄà SÕÊŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ©UÁøà ‡ÊéŒ ÷Á⁄U∞ — 5 ×1=5

17) ‹ˇ◊Ë’Ê߸ ∑§Ê ŒûÊ∑§ ¬ÈòÊ ...................................................... ÕÊ –

18) S∑§Ê©U≈U Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ‚ ÁfllÊÕ˸ªáÊ ...................................................... ∑§Ë ¬Á⁄U¬Ê≈UË ‚ËπÃ

„Ò¥U –
19) ◊Êß∑˝§Ê¬Ê˝ ‚
 ‚
 ⁄U ∑§Ê •ÊÁflc∑§Ê⁄U ...................................................... ߸0 ◊¥ „ÈU•Ê –

20) ∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ¬Ë¿U ŒÊÒ«U∏Ÿfl Ê‹ ...................................................... Õ –

21) “•∑§Ê‹ •ÊÒ⁄U ©U‚∑§ ’ÊŒ” ∑§ÁflÃÊ ∑§ ∑§Áfl ...................................................... „Ò¥ –

IV. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ ©UûÊ⁄U ¬˝àÿ∑§ ∞∑§-∞∑§ ¬Íáʸ flÊÄÿ ◊¥ Á‹Áπ∞ — 8 ×1=8

22) ÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ¬Á⁄UflÊ⁄U ∑§ ÉÊ⁄U-•Ê°ªŸ ∑§Ë ‡ÊÊ÷Ê Á∑§‚‚ ’…∏UÃË „ÒU ?

23) ∑§◊‹ ∑§Ê ∑§ÊÒŸ ÉÊ⁄U ‹ •ÊÿÊ ?

24) ‹ˇ◊Ë’Ê߸ ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ‚ÒÁŸ∑§Ê¥ ∑§Ê ‹ˇÿ ÄÿÊ „ÒU ?

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61-H 6 RR + PR
25) ¬˝àÿ∑§ S∑§Ê©U≈U ∑§ ¬Ê‚ ÄÿÊ-ÄÿÊ „UÊÃË „Ò¥U ?
26) ’‹Í⁄U ÷ÍÁ◊ ¬⁄U ∑§‹Ê ∑§„UÊ° ‚ ©UÃ⁄UË „ÒU ?
27) ∑§ÁflÃÊ ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ∑§ÊÒŸ Á¬¿U‹ÇªÍ Ÿ„UË¥ „ÒU ?
28) ∑§Áfl ⁄UÊ◊‡fl⁄UŒÿÊ‹ ŒÈ’ Ÿ ⁄UÊ¡Ê ∑§Ê Ÿ◊Ÿ ÄÿÊ¥ Á∑§ÿÊ „ÒU ?
29) øÍ„UÊ¥ ∑§Ë „UÊ‹Ã ÄÿÊ¥ Á‡Ê∑§Sà ⁄U„UË ? ∑§ÁflÃÊ ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U Á‹Áπ∞ –
V. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ ©UûÊ⁄U ¬˝àÿ∑§ ŒÊ ÿÊ ÃËŸ flÊÄÿÊ¥ ◊¥ Á‹Áπ∞ — 13 × 2 = 26

30) ⁄UÊ◊∑ΧcáÊ •ƒÿ⁄U Ÿ ∑§‹Ê◊ ∑§Ë Á¬≈UÊ߸ ÄÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë ?

31) ¬ÿʸfl⁄UáÊ-¬˝ŒÍ·áÊ ŒÍ⁄U ∑§⁄UŸ ◊¥ Á∑§Ÿ-Á∑§Ÿ ¬ÊŒ¬Ê¥ ∑§Ê ªÊÒ⁄Ufl •ŸãÿÃ◊ „ÒU ?
32) ÁŸ◊¸‹Ê Ÿ ∑§◊‹ ∑§Ê ÄÿÊ-ÄÿÊ ‹Ê∑§⁄U ÁŒÿÊ ?
33) Áfl∑˝§◊ ‚Ê⁄UÊ÷Ê߸ ∑§ ¬Á⁄UflÊ⁄U ∑§Ê ¬Á⁄Uøÿ ŒËÁ¡∞ –
34) ‚ŸÊŸÊÿ∑§ Ÿ ‹ˇ◊Ë’Ê߸ ‚ ÄÿÊ ÁŸflŒŸ Á∑§ÿÊ ?
35) ‚È⁄U‡Ê mÊ⁄UÊ ÁŒπÊ߸ ªÿË Á⁄U¬Ê≈¸U ’È∑§ ∑Ò§‚Ë ÕË ?
36) S∑§Ê©U≈U Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ◊¥ Á∑§‚ ’Êà ∑§Ë ‡Ê¬Õ ‹Ë ¡ÊÃË „ÒU ?
37) ∑§êåÿÍ≈U⁄U ÁflflÊ„U ‚¢’¢œÊ¥ ∑§Ê ∑Ò§‚ ¡Ê«∏UÃ „Ò¥U ?
38) “•’∑§” ∑§ÁflÃÊ ◊¥ ∑§Áfl •Ê⁄¢U÷ ◊¥ ÷ªflÊŸ ‚ ÄÿÊ ¬˝ÊÕ¸ŸÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „ÒU ?
39) √ÿÁÄà ∑§ ªÈáÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ŒÊ· ∑§’ ¬˝∑§≈U „UÊÃ „Ò¥U ?
40) ‚Íπ ¬ûÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê ÷˝◊ ÄÿÊ „ÒU ?
41) ∑§Áfl Ÿ ÁflÁflœ ©U¬∑§⁄áÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê Ÿ◊Ÿ ÄÿÊ¥ Á∑§ÿÊ „ÒU ?
42) “•∑§Ê‹ •ÊÒ⁄U ©U‚∑§ ’ÊŒ” ∑§ÁflÃÊ ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U •∑§Ê‹ ∑§ ’ÊŒ ∑§Ê ÁøòÊáÊ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ –
VI. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ ©UûÊ⁄ ¬˝àÿ∑§U ÃËŸ ÿÊ øÊ⁄U flÊÄÿÊ¥ ◊¥ Á‹Áπ∞ — 5 × 3 = 15

43) Á‡ÊˇÊ∑§ •ÿÊŒÈ⁄ÒU ‚Ê‹Ê◊Ÿ ∑§ ’Ê⁄U ◊¥ Á‹Áπ∞ –

44) Áfl∑˝§◊ ‚Ê⁄UÊ÷Ê߸ ∑§Ë Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ∑§Ê Áflfl⁄UáÊ ŒËÁ¡∞ –
45) ‚È⁄U‡Ê ∑§ Á¬ÃÊ¡Ë ∑Ò§‚ •ÊŒ◊Ë Õ ? S¬c≈U ∑§ËÁ¡∞ –
46) ∑§Áfl Ÿ∞ ª˝„U ◊¥ Á∑§Ÿ ’ÊÃÊ¥ ∑§Ë •¬ˇÊÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „ÒU •ÊÒ⁄U ÄÿÊ¥ ?
47) fl΢Œ •¬Ÿ ŒÊ„UÊ¥ ◊¥ ÄÿÊ-ÄÿÊ ∑§„UŸÊ øÊ„UÃ „Ò¥U ?

022595 RR+PR-532
 RR + PR 7 61-H
VII. 48) ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©UûÊ⁄U øÊ⁄U - ¬Ê°ø U flÊÄÿÊ¥ ◊¥ Á‹Áπ∞ — 4

„UÃÍ Ÿ Á‡Êc≈UÊøÊ⁄U ∑§Ê ¬Ê‹Ÿ ∑Ò§‚ Á∑§ÿÊ ?

•ÕflÊ
ŸÊÒ∑§⁄UÊ¥ ∑§ ’Ê⁄U ◊¥ üÊË◊ÃË ∑§Ê ÁfløÊ⁄U ÄÿÊ ÕÊ ?
49) ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ¬lÊ¢‡Ê ¬Íáʸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ — 4

ÁÉÊ⁄U∑§⁄U ...................................................................
..............................................................................
..............................................................................
..............................................................................
.......................................................... ©UìÊ-©UŒÊ⁄U –
•ÕflÊ
⁄UÁ„U◊Ÿ ................................................................... –
................................................................... ∑§¬Ê‹ H
VIII. 50) ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ªlÊ¢‡Ê ¬…∏U∑§⁄U ŸËø ÁŒÿ ªÿ ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ ©UûÊ⁄U Á‹Áπ∞ — 4 ×1=4

¡Ê ∑ȧ¿U ÷Ë •¬ŸË •Ê°πÊ¥ ‚ ŒπÊ, Á’ŸÊ Ÿ◊∑§-Á◊ø¸ ‹ªÊ∞ ’Ê‹ ÁŒÿÊ ó ÿ„UË ÃÊ
‚àÿ „ÒU – ‚àÿ ∑§Ë ◊Á„U◊Ê •¬Ê⁄U „ÒU – ‚àÿ ◊„UÊŸ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬⁄U◊ ‡ÊÁÄÇÊÊ‹Ë „ÒU –
‚àÿflÊÁŒÃÊ ∑§ Á‹∞ ‚Ê»§-‚ÈÕ⁄UÊ ◊Ÿ øÊÁ„U∞ – ∞∑§ ¤ÊÍΔU ‚ÊÁ’à ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞
„UïÊÊ⁄UÊ¥ ¤ÊÍΔU ’Ê‹Ÿ ¬«∏UÃ „Ò¥U •ÊÒ⁄U •¬◊ÊÁŸÃ „UÊŸÊ ¬«∏UÃÊ „ÒU –
‚¢S∑Χà ∑§Ë ‚ÍÁÄà „ÒU ó ““‚àÿ◊fl ¡ÿÃ, ŸÊŸÎÃ◊˜”” •ÕʸØ ‚àÿ ∑§Ë „UË Áfl¡ÿ
„UÊÃË „ÒU, •‚àÿ ∑§Ë Ÿ„UË¥ – ◊„UÊà◊Ê ªÊ°œË Ÿ ‚àÿ ∑§Ë ‡ÊÁÄà ‚ „UË ÁflŒ‡ÊË ‡ÊÊ‚Ÿ ∑§Ê
¤Ê∑§¤ÊÊ⁄U ÁŒÿÊ – ⁄UÊ¡Ê Œ‡Ê⁄UÕ Ÿ ‚àÿfløŸ ÁŸ÷ÊŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ •¬Ÿ ¬˝ÊáÊ àÿʪ ÁŒ∞ – ⁄UÊ¡Ê
„UÁ⁄U‡ø¢º˝ ∑§Ë ‚àÿÁŸcΔUÊ Áfl‡flÁflÅÿÊà „ÒU –
(∑§) ¤ÊÍΔU ∑§Ê ‚ÊÁ’à ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÄÿÊ-ÄÿÊ ∑§⁄UŸÊ ¬«∏UÃÊ „ÒU ?
(π) “‚àÿ” ∑§Ê •Õ¸ ÄÿÊ „ÒU ?
(ª) “‚àÿ◊fl ¡ÿÃ, ŸÊŸÎÃ◊˜” ‚ÍÁÄà ∑§Ê •Õ¸ ÄÿÊ „ÒU ?
(ÉÊ) ⁄UÊ¡Ê Œ‡Ê⁄UÕ Ÿ •¬Ÿ ¬˝ÊáÊ ÄÿÊ¥ àÿʪ ÁŒÿ ?
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IX. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà flÊÄÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê •ŸÈflÊŒ ∑§ÛÊ«U ÿÊ •¢ª˝¡Ë ◊¥ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ — 2 ×2=4

51) «UÊÚ0 ‚Ê⁄UÊ÷Ê߸ Ÿ •¬ŸÊ ‚¢¬Íáʸ ¡ËflŸ ÁflôÊÊŸ ∑§Ë ¬˝ªÁà •ÊÒ⁄U Áfl∑§Ê‚ ∑§ Á‹∞ ‚◊Á¬¸Ã
Á∑§ÿÊ –
52) »§ÊŒ⁄U ≈UË0 ∞Ÿ0 ‚ÄÿÍÁ⁄UÿÊ •¢ª˝¡Ë ¬…∏UÊÃ Õ •ÊÒ⁄U „U◊Ê⁄U „UÊÚS≈U‹ ∑§ flÊ«¸UŸ ÷Ë Õ –
X. 53) ªÊ°fl ◊¥ „UÊŸflÊ‹Ë ◊‹ ∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ ÃËŸ ÁŒŸ ∑§Ë ¿ÈU^ÔUË ◊Ê°ªÃ „ÈU∞ •¬Ÿ ¬˝œÊŸÊäÿʬ∑§ ∑§ ŸÊ◊
¬òÊ Á‹Áπ∞ – 1 ×5=5

•ÕflÊ
•¬ŸË ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ∑§Ë ÃÒÿÊ⁄UË ∑§ ’Ê⁄U ◊¥ ’ÃÊÃ „ÈU∞ •¬Ÿ Á◊òÊ ∑§ ŸÊ◊ ¬òÊ Á‹Áπ∞ –
XI. 54) ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚Ë ∞∑§ Áfl·ÿ ¬⁄U 15 - 20 flÊÄÿÊ¥ ◊¥ ∞∑§ ÁŸ’¢œ Á‹Áπ∞ — 5

∑§) ∑§êåÿÍ≈U⁄U ‚ ‹Ê÷

πU ) ◊⁄U Á¬˝ÿ flÒôÊÊÁŸ∑§
ª) •Ÿ◊Ê‹ ‚◊ÿ –

022595 RR+PR-532
81-E 2 RR+PR

: 81-E
Code No. : 81-E

Subject : MATHEMATICS
( / English Version )
( / Old Syllabus )
( + / Regular Repeater + Private Repeater )

General Instructions :
i) The Question-cum-Answer Booklet consists of objective and
subjective types of questions having 58 questions.
ii) Space has been provided against each objective type question. You
have to choose the correct choice and write the complete answer
along with its letter in the space provided.
iii) For subjective type questions enough space for each question has
been provided. You have to answer the questions in the space.
iv) Follow the instructions given against both the objective and
subjective types of questions.
v) Candidate should not write the answer with pencil. Answers written
in pencil will not be evaluated. ( Except Graphs, Diagrams & Maps )
vi) In case of Multiple Choice, Fill in the blanks and Matching questions,
scratching / rewriting / marking is not permitted, thereby rendering
to disqualification for evaluation.
vii) Candidates have extra 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
viii) Space for Rough Work has been printed and provided at the bottom of
each page.
ix) Do not write anything in the space provided in the right side margin.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 RR+PR-522
RR+PR 3 81-E

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the
correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter in
the space provided against each question. 20  1 = 20

1. If A = { a, b, c } and B = { c, d, e }, then A  B is

(A) { a, b, c, d, e } (B) {c}

(C) { a, b } (D) { d, e } .

2. In a geometric progression, if T 4 = 10 and common ratio is 2 then T 3

is

(A) 5 (B) 20

(C) 8 (D) 12.

3. Which of the following is an identity ( unit ) matrix ?

1 0 0 1
(A)   (B)  
 1 0   1 0 
0 1 1 0
(C)   (D)  .
 0 1   0 1 

4. The value of 5 P 1  3P 0 is

(A) 4 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 0.

5. The HCF and LCM of two expressions A and B are H and L

respectively. Then their relation can be written as

(A) AH=BL (B) AB=HL

A B A B
(C)  (D)  .
H L L H

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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6. The LCM of two expressions a 2  2ab  b 2 and a 2  b 2 is

( a – b ) 2 . ( a + b ). Then their HCF is

(A) (a+b) (B) (a–b)

(C) ( a – b )2 (D) ( a 2  b2 ) .
7. The value of  ( a  b ) is
a , b, c

(A) a+b+c (B) 0

(C) a–b–c (D) a – b.

8. The factors of a 3  b 3 are

(A) ( a + b ) ( a 2  ab  b 2 ) (B) ( a + b ) ( a 2  ab  b 2 )

(C) ( a + b ) ( a 2  ab  b 2 ) (D) ( a + b ) ( a 2  ab  b 2 ) .
9. The product of 2 and 3 3 is

6 6
(A) 6 (B) 9
6 6
(C) 72 (D) 27 .

10. Which of the following is a pure quadratic equation ?

1
(A) x(x–2) = 0 (B) x+ =5
x
1
(C) x+ =0 (D) ( x – 2 ) 2 = 0.
x

11. Square of a number is added to three times the same number and
their sum is 28. This statement can be written in the equation form
as

(A) 3a 2  3a  28  0 (B) a 2  3a  28

(C) a 2  3a  28 (D) 3a 2  a  28 .

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 RR+PR-522
RR+PR 5 81-E

12. The product of the roots of the equation x 2  5x  0 is

(A) 0 (B) 5
(C) –5 (D) 1.
13. The nature of the roots of the equation x 2  4x  4  0 is

(A) real and equal (B) real and rational

(C) real and irrational (D) imaginary.
14. Circles having same centre but different radii are called
(A) concentric circles (B) congruent circles
(C) intersecting circles (D) touching circles.
15. ―A straight line drawn parallel to the side of a triangle divides the
other two sides proportionally.‖ This statement was enunciated by
(A) Thales (B) Pythagoras
(C) Baudhayana (D) Appolonius.
16. Angle between radii at the centre of a circle is 120°. Then the angle
between tangents drawn at the ends of the radii is
(A) 60° (B) 120°
(C) 90° (D) 100°.
17. In the figure APB is a tangent at P to the circle with centre O.
If  QPB = 60° then  POQ is

(A) 60° (B) 100°

(C) 120° (D) 150°.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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81-E 6 RR+PR

18. The circumference of the base of a right circular cylinder is 44 cm

and height is 10 cm. Then its lateral surface area is
(A) 44 cm 2 (B) 400 cm 2
(C) 54 cm 2 (D) 440 cm 2 .
19. The formula used to find the total surface area of a cone is
(A) rl (B) r ( r + l )
(C) 2 r h (D) 2 r ( r + h ).
20. The shape of each face of a cube is

(A) square (B) triangular

(C) pentagonal (D) hexagonal.
II. Fill in the blanks with suitable answers : 10  1 = 10
21. If 2, 4 and 8 are in geometric progression then the common ratio
is .................... .
22. If A, G, H are Arithmetic mean, Geometric mean and Harmonic
mean respectively then AH is ....................... .

23. The formula to find coefficient of variation is ......................... .

24. In a right angled triangle, the side opposite to right angle is
called ........................ .
25. A solid obtained by the rotation of a rectangle about one of its fixed
sides is called ......................... .
1 2
26. If A    then A – A l is ....................... .
3 4 

27. If  a  0 then the value of  ( a 3 ) is ....................... .

a , b, c a , b, c

28. If the HCF of ab 2 and a 2b is ab then the product of HCF and LCM
is ....................... .

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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RR+PR 7 81-E

29. In the figure DE || AB. If AD = 7, CD = 5 and BC = 18 then CE

is .................. .

30. Two circles of radii 5 cm and 3 cm touch each other internally. Then
the distance between their centres is ............................ .
III. 31. If A = { 1, 2, 3, 4 } and B = { 3, 4, 5 }, then find A – B and draw Venn
diagram. 2

32. A florist has certain number of garlands. 120 of them have Champak,
60 have Jasmine flowers and 30 garlands have both the flowers. Find
the total number of garlands with him. 2
33. Three terms are in geometric progression. Their product is 8 and
common ratio is 2, then find the first term. 2
1 1 1
34. Find T10 in the harmonic progression , , ........ . 2
2 5 8
1 2  2 0
35. If A    and B    , then find AB. 2
 3 4    1 3 

36. Find the values of

(a) nP (b) 10 P
0 1

100 C 2015 C
(c) 0 (d) 2015 . 2

37. Write 3 5 in its exponential form and mention the rational factor,

order and radicand. 2

38. Rationalise the denominator and simplify :
2
. 2
5 3
( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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81-E 8 RR+PR

39. Express 2x 2 = 5x – 3 in the standard form of quadratic equation

and write the values of a, b and c. 2
40. The product of two consecutive integers is 12. Find the numbers. 2
2
41. Solve x  2x  1  0 by using formula. 2
42. Form a quadratic equation whose roots are 3 and 2. 2
43. Construct Cayley’s table  Z 4 ,  4  under addition modulo 4. 2

44. Construct a tangent to a circle of radius 3 cm at any point P on it. 2

45. Write the formula for
(a) total surface area of cylinder
(b) volume of hemisphere. 2
46. Draw a plan using the information given below : 2
[ Scale : 50 m = 1 cm ]
To D ( in mts )
300
200 150 to C
To E 100 150
50 100 to B
From A

47. Verify Euler’s formula for the graph : 2

48. Draw a graph ( network ) for the matrix : 2

2 1 1
 
1 0 2.
 
1 2 0
( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 RR+PR-522
RR+PR 9 81-E

IV. 49. There are 7 non-collinear points. How many (a) straight lines and
(b) triangles can be drawn by joining these points ? 3
50. Calculate the standard deviation for the given frequency distribution
table : 3
Class intervalsFrequency
1—5 2
6 — 10 3
11 — 15 4
16 — 20 1
51. Find the HCF of 4x 3  3x 2  24x  9 and 8x 3  2x 2  53x  39 .

3
52. Prove that ―tangents drawn to a circle from an external point are
equal‖. 3
1
53. If x 2  3x  1  0 , then find the value of x 2  . 3
x2
3
54. Show that the area of an equilateral triangle is .a2. 3
4
V. 55. Draw direct common tangents to two circles of radii 4 cm and 2 cm
with their centres 9 cm apart and measure their lengths. 4

56. Prove that ―if two triangles are equiangular then their corresponding
sides are proportional‖. 4
57. Find three numbers in Arithmetic Progression, whose sum and
product are 6 and 6 respectively. 4
58. Draw the graphs of y  x 2 and y = 2 – x and hence solve the
equation x 2  x  2  0 . 4

graph

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432105 RR+PR-522 [ Turn over

83-E 2 RR+PR

: 83-E
Code No. : 83-E

Subject : SCIENCE
( / Physics, Chemistry & Biology )
( / English Version )
( / Old Syllabus )
( + / Regular Repeater + Private Repeater)

General Instructions :
i) The Question-cum-Answer Booklet consists of objective and
subjective types of questions having 55 questions.
ii) This question-cum-answer booklet contains two Parts. Part – A
contains the questions of Physics and Chemistry and Part – B
contains Biology questions.
iii) The question-cum-answer booklet has 36 questions in Part – A and
19 questions in Part – B.
iv) Space has been provided against each objective type question. You
have to choose the correct choice and write the complete answer
along with its letter in the space provided.
v) For subjective type questions enough space for each question has
been provided. You have to answer the questions in the space.
vi) Follow the instructions given against both the objective and
subjective types of questions.
vii) Candidate should not write the answer with pencil. Answers written
in pencil will not be evaluated. ( Except Graphs, Diagrams & Maps )
viii) In case of Multiple Choice, Fill in the blanks and Matching questions,
scratching / rewriting / marking is not permitted, thereby rendering
to disqualification for evaluation.
ix) Space for Rough Work has been printed and provided at the bottom of
each page.
x) Candidates have extra 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
xi) Do not write anything in the space provided in the right side margin.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

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RR+PR 3 83-E
PART - A
( Physics & Chemistry )
Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the
correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter in
the space provided against each question. 10  1 = 10

1. Electronic configuration of silicon is

(A) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p 6 , 3s 2 3p 2 (B) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p 6 , 3s 2 3p 3

(C) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p 6 , 3s 2 (D) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p 6 , 3s 2 3p 4 .

2. A cyclist bends towards the centre while going in a circular path to

(A) move the cycle slowly

(B) gain necessary centrifugal force

(C) gain necessary centripetal force

(D) increase the friction.

3. Which of the following is not a form of solar energy ?

(A) Fossil fuel energy (B) Wind energy

(C) Hydro energy (D) Nuclear energy.

4. The alloy that contains copper and zinc as its constituents, is

(A) brass (B) bronze

(C) german silver (D) gunmetal.

5. The measure to reduce energy crisis is

(A) Wastage of water

(B) Using fluorescent tubelights

(C) Luxurious life style

(D) Each individual uses his own vehicle.

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6. The reaction that is considered to be the source of solar energy is

(A) radioactivity

(B) thermonuclear fusion reaction

(C) nuclear fission reaction

(D) chemical reaction.

7. The reducing agent used in the extraction of silicon is

(A) Magnesium (B) Silica

(C) Phosphorus (D) Sulphur.

8. The apparent change in frequency of wave motion due to the relative

motion between the source and the observer is known as

(A) Raman effect (B) Doppler effect

(C) Electromagnetic effect (D) Tyndall effect.

9. An example for a pentavalent dopant is

(A) Boron (B) Antimony

(C) Galium (D) Indium.

10. The alkane among the following is

(A) C2H2 (B) C2 H4

(C) C6H6 (D) C2 H6 .

Fill in the blanks : 31=3

11. The device that converts solar energy into electrical energy is ............. .

12. The lightly doped region of a transistor is ............................. .

13. The device used by the traffic control authorities to detect vehicle crossing
speed limit is ................................... .

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RR+PR 5 83-E

14. Match the names of hydrocarbons given in Column-A with their molecular
formulae given in Column-B. Write the correct answer in the space
provided : 41=4
Column-A Column-B
(a) Benzene (i) C 4 H 10
(b) Propyne (ii) C3 H4
(c) Butene (iii) C 3 H 6
(d) Butane (iv) C 6 H 6
(v) C4H8
(vi) C4H6
(vii) C 2 H 2 .

Answer the following questions : 61=6

15. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following chemical reaction :
Magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
16. What is cracking ?
17. Define half-life period of a radioactive element.
18. What is uniform circular motion ?
19. Write the uses of a diode.

20. Name the system used to represent the brightness of a star.

Answer the following questions : 9  2 = 18
21. What is induced radioactivity ? Explain with an example.
22. Draw the diagram of a D.C. dynamo & label the parts.
23. What are propellants ? How do they work in vacuum ?
24. Write any four methods of conservation of water.
25. Draw the diagram of Helium-Neon laser tube and label the parts.
26. Write the differences between A.C. dynamo and D.C. dynamo.

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27. Draw the diagram of a single stage rocket and label the parts.

28. “Soaps are eco-friendly than detergents.” Justify this statement.

29. Laser is used in eye surgery and industries. State the property of laser
related to these uses.

Answer the following questions : 4  3 = 12

30. What is polymerisation ? Name one example each of the two types of
synthetic polymers.

31. What is Raman effect ? Write the differences between Raman effect and
Rayleigh scattering.

32. Draw the diagram of a nuclear reactor and label the following parts :

(a) Moderator (b) Heat exchanger.

33. (a) State Universal law of gravitation.

(b) The distance between the two bodies is increased by two times.

Explain with the help of mathematical formula of gravitational law,

whether the gravitational force between two bodies increases or
decreases and by how many times.

Answer the following questions : 3  4 = 12

34. (a) What are galaxies ? Name three types of galaxies.

(b) Why do the sun spots appear dark in colour ?

35. Draw the diagram of an electrolytic cell used in the extraction of copper
and label the following parts :

(a) Cathode (b) Anode (c) Copper sulphate solution.

36. (a) Write the formula to calculate the efficiency of a heat engine.

(b) Mention any three advantages of an internal combustion engine.

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RR+PR 7 83-E
PART - B
( Biology )

Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the
correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter in
the space provided against each question. 51=5

37. ................. is commonly called personality hormone.

(A) Adrenaline (B) Thyroxine

(C) Insulin (D) Glucagon.

38. Which of the following vertebrates do not have teeth ?

(A) Amphibia (B) Aves

(C) Mammals (D) Reptiles.

39. The red pigment present in Polysiphonia is

(A) Phycoerythrin (B) Phycocyanin

(C) Chlorophyll (D) Xanthophyll.

40. The number of chambers in the heart of fish are

(A) four (B) three

(C) two (D) one.

41. The processes involved in oxygen cycle are

(A) Nitrification, Respiration

(B) Nitrification, Denitrification

(C) Photosynthesis, Denitrification

(D) Respiration, Photosynthesis.

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42. Match the names of epithelial tissues given in Column-A with their
structure and location given in Column-B. Write the correct answer in the
space provided : 41=4

Column-A Column-B

(a) Squamous epithelium (i) elongated cells, larynx

(b) Columnar epithelium (ii) ciliated cells, small intestine

(c) Ciliated epithelium (iii) elongated cells, sweat gland

(d) Cuboidal epithelium (iv) ciliated cells, sweat gland

(v) flat cells, oesophagus

(vi) cube shaped cells, salivary gland

(vii) flat cells, small intestine

Answer the following in a sentence each : 41=4

43. It is hard to detect the colour of objects during night in dim light. Give
reason.

44. What is food adulteration ?

45. Human pinna is flexible. Why ?

46. Fibres are used to make gunny bags. Why ?

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each : 6  2 = 12

47. Write any two characteristic features of reptiles.

48. What are the observations to be noted while purchasing packed fruit
juice ?

49. Forests help to reduce global warming. Justify.

50. Mention any two disadvantages of using genetically modified foods.

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51. Write any two differences between reservoir pool and exchange pool.

52. A monocot leaf is more vulnerable to wear and tear than a dicot leaf.
Why ?

Answer the following questions : 23=6

53. Explain the functioning of human ear.

54. Draw a diagram showing the structure of HIV and label any two parts.

55. Draw a diagram showing the vertical section of human eyeball and label
the following : 4

(a) Lens (b) Optic nerve.

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85-E 2 RR+PR

: 85-E
Code No. : 85-E

Subject : SOCIAL SCIENCE

( / English Version )
( / Old Syllabus )
( + / Regular Repeater + Private Repeater)

General Instructions :

i) The Question-cum-Answer Booklet consists of objective and subjective

types of questions having 56 questions.

ii) Space has been provided against each objective type question. You
have to choose the correct choice and write the complete answer along
with its letter in the space provided.

iii) For subjective type questions enough space for each question has
been provided. You have to answer the questions in the space.

iv) Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

v) Candidate should not write the answer with pencil. Answers written in
pencil will not be evaluated. ( Except Graphs, Diagrams & Maps )

vi) In case of Multiple Choice, Fill in the blanks and Matching questions,
scratching / rewriting / marking is not permitted, thereby rendering
to disqualification for evaluation.

vii) Candidates have extra 15 minutes for reading the question paper.

viii) Do not write anything in the space provided in the right side margin.

111273 RR+PR-542
 RR+PR 3 85-E

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the

correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter in
the space provided against each question. 15  1 = 15

1. Governor General Dalhousie founded the ‘Public Works Department’

for the development of
(A) transport system (B) education
(C) industries (D) revenue system.
2. The Charter Act of 1853 A.D. is considered to be a milestone in the
history of constitutional development of India because
(A) the Provincial Legislative Council was expanded
(B) it introduced separate communal electorate
(C) it created an effective legislative wing
(D) it introduced competitive examinations for Civil Services.
3. The first lady who fought against the British in Karnataka was
(A) Jhansi Rani Lakshmibai (B) Rani Chennamma
(C) Begum Hazrat Mahal (D) Onake Obavva.
4. In the post-independent history of India Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is
always remembered because he
(A) was the Prime Minister of India
(B) helped the liberation of Pondicherry
(C) merged the princely states with the Indian Union
(D) made the states’ reorganization on linguistic pattern.
5. Due to ‘Leap Forward Policy’ China improved its
(A) society (B) economy
(C) culture (D) military power.
6. If America had not dropped bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki,
(A) the Second World War would not have taken place
(B) Japan would not have surrendered
(C) Japan would not have entered the Second World War
(D) Germany would not have surrendered.

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7. The purpose of organizing ‘Chinnara Angala’ in vacations is to

(A) provide mid-day meal
(B) literate adult population
(C) attract the children to school
(D) educate rural masses.
8. The Government of India enacted ‘COFEPOSA’ to
(A) prevent smuggling of foreign goods and foreign currency
(B) eradicate poverty
(C) eliminate dowry system
(D) remove blind beliefs from the society.
9. The two noteworthy events that motivated for the agitation for Human
Rights were
(A) Chinese Revolution and Russian Revolution
(B) First War of Indian Independence and First World War
(C) Unification of Germany and Unification of Italy
(D) American War of Independence and French Revolution.
10. The South-West Monsoon winds start retreating from Punjab in the
beginning of October due to
(A) increase in temperature and decrease in pressure
(B) decrease in temperature and increase in pressure
(C) decrease in both temperature and pressure
(D) increase in both temperature and pressure.
11. The aim of starting ‘Vanamahotsava’ is
(A) planting thousands of seedlings during July and August
(B) the nationalization of forest operations
(C) creating awareness about pollution
(D) protecting wild animals.
12. Petroleum is called ‘Liquid Gold’ because
(A) it is more valuable than gold
(B) it shines like gold
(C) it is used in all economic activities
(D) it is highly inflammable.

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13. An example for mineral based industry is

(A) Sugar industry (B) Iron and Steel industry

(C) Cotton Textile industry (D) Jute industry.

14. The most ancient export of India is

(A) jute (B) raw cotton

(C) iron ore (D) spices.

15. In the later years of Fourth Five-Year Plan, there was failure in
agricultural development due to

(A) Indo-Pak War (B) Indo-China War

(C) Indo-Afghan War (D) Indo-Bangla War.

II. Fill in the blanks with suitable answers : 51=5

16. In Bengal ‘Dual Government’ was introduced by .......................... .

17. Uganda became free under the leadership of ............................ .

18. Every year we celebrate ‘Children’s Day’ on .............................. .

19. The type of climate that India experiences is ........................... .

20. Pottery is the best example for ..................... industry.

III. 21. Match List-A with List-B. Write the correct answer in the space
provided : 51=5

List-A List-B

(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (i) First Governor General

(b) Warren Hastings (ii) The Brahmo Samaj

(c) Swami Vivekananda (iii) The Arya Samaj

(d) Dr. Atmaram Pandurang (iv) Constitution Drafting Committee

(e) Raja Rammohan Roy (v) First law member

(vi) The Prarthana Samaj

(vii) The Ramakrishna Mission

(viii) The Theosophical Society

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IV. Answer the following questions in a sentence each : 91=9

22. Who introduced ‘Subsidiary Alliance’ ?
23. Who introduced ‘Five-Year Plans’ in Russia ?
24. Why was the U.N.O. established after the ‘Second World War’ ?
25. What is the other name of IBRD ?
26. Who is known as the Gandhi of America ?
27. Where is the headquarters of SAARC located ?
28. Which is the national animal of India ?
29. Which is the biggest natural port of India ?
30. What do you mean by Scientific Farming ?
V. Answer the following questions in two sentences each : 16  2 = 32
31. What were the causes for the Third Anglo-Mysore War ?
32. What were the achievements of Dewan Rangacharlu and Sheshadri
Iyer ?
33. How did the newspapers influence freedom movement ?
34. How was the ‘Quit India Movement in Isur’ quite different ?
35. How did Lal Bahadur Shastri and Ayub Khan try to settle the Kashmir
issue ?
36. How were Serbians and Austrians the cause for First World War ?
37. What changes took place in Russia during the regime of Gorbachev ?
38. Mention any four Rights of Children which were adopted by the
General Assembly of the U.N.O.
39. Why was the Trusteeship Council of UNO established ?
40. Why had India refused to give consent to the Nuclear Non-
Proliferation Treaty ?
41. How is Eastern Coast different from Western Coast ?
42. How do mineral resources play an important role in the Indian
Economy ?
43. Why is the ‘Central Gangetic Plain’ famous for Agro-based industries ?
44. Why is air transport not popular in India ?
45. How does agriculture help in the progress of industries ?
46. Why was industrial development not satisfactory during the Fifth Five-
Year Plan ?
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VI. Answer the following questions in six sentences each : 6  3 = 18

47. What were the causes for the decline of French Power in India ?
48. What were the economic causes for the First War of Indian
Independence ?
49. How is the government trying for the Welfare of Women in India ?
50. What are the measures to be taken to prevent soil erosion ?
51. What are the geographical requirements for the cultivation of coffee
and tea ?
52. How do the retailers render their services to the consumers ?
VII. Write the answer to the following questions in about eight sentences each :
3  4 = 12
53. Explain the role of Subhash Chandra Bose in the freedom movement
of India.
54. Explain the relationship between India and Pakistan.
55. What are the causes of the backwardness of Indian agriculture ?
VIII. 56. Draw an outline map of India and locate the following : 1+3=4
a) The Tropic of Cancer
b) Goa
c) Bhakra-Nangal Project.

Alternative Question for Blind Candidates only : (In lieu of Q. No. 56)
What are the uses of Himalayas on the life of the people of India ? 4

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