CRSP Sample Examination Questions

 2014 Board of Canadian Registered Safety Professionals
Sample examination questions are provided for the use by individual CRSP Examination applicants and/or
candidates only. This document is not intended for reproduction or distribution.
Case Study Questions
THE NEXT THREE (3) QUESTIONS REFER TO THE FOLLOWING CASE.
Two workers are working inside a pressure vessel applying a new type of corrosion‐resistant paint. After one hour
of work, both painters exit the pressure vessel and advise their supervisor that they are experiencing headaches
and nausea.
The investigation reveals that:
‐ the workers were wearing half‐face respirators with organic vapour cartridges;
‐ ventilation was provided by an electric supply fan;
‐ portable lighting was installed;
‐ measurements revealed 46% Lower Explosive Limit (LEL);
‐ the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) for the paint indicated that a major constituent of the product was
toluene.

1. Upon arrival at the scene, what immediate action should the safety professional take?
A. Ensure the emergency response plan is active.
B. Take out on‐site rescue equipment.
C. Assess the air quality with a gas detector instrument.
D. Ensure that lockout‐tagout has been completed properly.

2. At what percentage of the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL) is a gas explosive?
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 50%
D. 100%

3. What effect would increasing the concentration of solvent vapours have on oxygen levels in a confined
space?
A. It would increase the oxygen levels within the space.
B. It would decrease the oxygen levels within the space.
C. It would have no effect on the oxygen levels within the space.
D. It could increase or decrease the oxygen levels within the space.

DISCLAIMER: The Board of Canadian Registered Safety Professionals (BCRSP) cannot warrant that the use of these Practice
Examination Questions will result in ‘CRSP’ certification. While the questions have been chosen as representative of the CRSP
Examination Blueprint, the successful completion of the BCRSP examination (CRSPEX) is dependent upon a combination of the
applicant’s academic background, OHS experience and individual preparation for the examination.

THE NEXT FOUR (4) QUESTIONS REFER TO THE FOLLOWING CASE.
ABC Company places a high value on health and safety performance. Consequently, the company has set an
aggressive goal as part of its commitment to health and safety. The company believes that all injuries, whether
experienced by permanent or contract employees, can be avoided, and health and safety is everyone's job.
4. ABC Company has a 5‐year plan to reduce the total worksite lost time injury to a frequency rate of 0.1. If
ABC Company has 2,000 full‐time employees, how many lost time injuries would occur 5 years from now?
A. 2
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

5. What would an auditor look at first to assess that effective systems are in place to prevent injuries?
A. Company health and safety policy.
B. Joint health and safety committee meeting frequency.
C. Tangible senior management commitment and participation.
D. Workplace inspection records.

6. The CEO of ABC Company wants to be known as a great leader. What is an essential component of
effective leadership?
A. Vision.
B. Self‐confidence.
C. Intelligence.
D. Mission.

7. What leadership style involves employees in decision‐making to achieve the health and safety goals?
A. Directive.
B. Supportive.
C. Achievement‐oriented.
D. Participative.


THE NEXT THREE (3) QUESTIONS REFER TO THE FOLLOWING CASE:
The ABC Cardboard Manufacturing Plant encourages employee reporting of health and safety concerns. All
workers have received Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System (WHMIS) training. Some workers
report the presence of a strong chemical odour emanating from a glue tank, and having headaches and general
discomfort. A work stoppage occurs. The safety professional is asked to investigate.
8. What does the following symbol displayed on the side of the glue tank represent?
A. Poisonous Substance.
B. Other Toxic Effects.
C. Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health.
D. Threshold Limit Value.

9. The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identifies that the glue's main component has an Occupational
Exposure Limit (OEL) of 100 ppm. Air sampling determines that the actual airborne concentration is 10
ppm. What is the safety professional's next step?
A. Inform the supervisor that it is safe for workers to return to work.
B. Schedule WHMIS training for the affected employees.
C. Issue respirators to all persons in the affected work area.
D. Interview the workers and gather more information.

10. During the investigation, it was determined that the ventilation system was temporarily shut off to change
a worn belt. No one was notified of the maintenance. What measure should be taken to prevent a
recurrence?
A. Discipline the maintenance worker.
B. Issue a memo informing the maintenance department not to repeat the maintenance.
C. Implement a procedure to ensure that affected personnel are notified.
D. Replace fan belts on a monthly basis.


THE NEXT FIVE (5) QUESTIONS REFER TO THE FOLLOWING CASE:
A worksite inspection of a chemical processing plant identified a number of deficiencies with respect to work
procedures, equipment guarding and evacuation planning.
11. What is the main consideration when developing a lockout procedure?
A. All sources of energy are controlled.
B. All employees are notified when equipment is locked out.
C. Stored or residual energy is controlled.
D. Appropriate lockout tag devices are used.

12. What is a common source of static electricity in a laboratory?
A. Selecting improper switches.
B. Using ergonomic mats.
C. Not using Ground Fault Circuit Interrupters (GFCI).
D. Decanting organic liquids in metal containers.

13. What is the preferred material for guarding equipment?
A. Metal.
B. Plastic.
C. Wood.
D. Shatter‐resistant glass.

14. What are two items typically shown in an evacuation plan diagram?
A. Gathering points and fire hydrants.
B. Gathering points and emergency telephones.
C. Evacuation routes and electrical shutoffs.
D. Evacuation routes and gathering points.

15. What type of sprinkler system should be used in the unattended and unheated warehouse?
A. Wet pipe system.
B. Dry pipe system.
C. Deluge system.
D. Pre‐action system.


INDEPENDENT QUESTIONS
QUESTIONS 16 TO 100 DO NOT REFER TO A CASE.
Accident Theory (AT)
16. In addition to giving performance feedback, what are two basic steps that can assist in changing safety‐
related behaviours in the workplace?
A. Identifying critical behaviours and conducting measurement through observation.
B. Identifying critical behaviours and monitoring worker morale.
C. Completing job safety analysis and conducting measurement through observation.
D. Completing job safety analysis and monitoring worker morale.

17. What is a factor in Heinrich's Domino Theory of Accident Causation?
A. Injury.
B. Work environment.
C. Equipment.
D. Policy.

18. What is the focus of Heinrich's Domino Model?
A. Lack of control by management.
B. Unsafe acts and conditions.
C. Danger build‐up/release.
D. High‐energy sources.

19. A worker is reporting that the floor is slippery and that several workers have fallen over the past year.
After ensuring that the area is secured, what should the safety professional do next?
A. Recommend a work refusal.
B. Ask if the worker has reported the hazard to the supervisor.
C. Conduct a workplace inspection.
D. Review the health and safety committee minutes.
HSE Auditing (AUD)
20. What is a correct statement regarding audits?
A. They are conducted quickly and without prejudice.
B. They are systemic reviews of equipment operation.
C. They require a close examination of procedures and practices.
D.They are conducted by internal staff in specific areas.


21. What key activities form part of a Health and Safety audit?
A. Adjust the scope of the audit periodically, conduct daily progress meetings, produce the final audit
report and conduct the final audit closeout meeting.
B. Make initial contact and discuss audit request, plan and conduct audit presentation, revise pre‐
existing internal audit report and produce final audit report.
C. Organize pre‐audit activities, conduct document review, participate in familiarization/observation
tours and conduct employee interviews.
D. Conduct daily progress meetings, conduct final audit closeout meeting, tailor audit findings to satisfy
client specifications, and plan and conduct audit presentation.

22. What should be considered prior to conducting an audit?
A. The data collection methods to be used.
B. The purpose of the audit.
C. The person(s) involved in the audit.
D. The audit tool to be used.

23. When a company is developing a Health & Safety Management System, what are the most relevant
factors that must be included in the company’s health and safety policy?
A. The policy must be appropriate to the company's risks, contain a commitment to injury prevention,
comply with legal requirements, and be communicated to all employees.
B. The policy must be appropriate to the company's risks, contain a commitment to injury prevention,
be communicated to all individuals accessing the company property as well as all employees, and
reviewed annually.
C. The policy must contain a commitment to the public, be reviewed annually to comply with health and
safety requirements, and include a process to determine how it will fulfill these requirements.
D. The policy must be appropriate to the company's risks, contain a commitment to injury prevention,
be posted and distributed.

24. Which of the following is a key outcome of the interview process during an audit?
A. Confirming the validity of documentation and observations.
B. Assessing the evidence of system impacts on production.
C. Identifying the cultural barriers within an organization.
D. Allowing the interviewee to speak frankly about the system.

25. What is one of the desired outcomes of an audit interview?
A. Summary of what the interviewee said.
B. Locations of fixed and mobile equipment.
C. Evidence of system impact on employees.
D. Paraphrasing to confirm understanding.


26. What should the safety professional ensure when evaluating an audit instrument?
A. The audit instrument includes validation methods.
B. Guidelines are developed for the audit instrument.
C. The audit instrument is used extensively in the industry.
D. The audit instrument is based on a set of standards.
Environmental Protection
27. On site, what is the first step when responding to a chemical release on a public road?
A. Secure the scene.
B. Assess the situation.
C. Obtain help.
D. Approach cautiously.

28. What is a correct statement regarding chemical management in an environmental management system?
A. It is important to identify chemicals, recognize their hazards and ultimately protect the environment.
B. Chemical identification and hazard recognition represent two critical steps in chemical management.
C. It is important to recognize chemicals used in various processes, understand the hazardous
characteristics of the chemicals and be aware that all chemicals are of equal concern.
D. Waste products are not considered to be hazardous.
Ergonomics (ERG)
29. Which signs and symptoms are commonly associated with a musculoskeletal injury?
A. Shortness of breath, discolouration and dizziness.
B. Difficulty breathing, rapid pulse and dilated pupils.
C. Bruising, aching joints and cramping.
D. Swelling and poor circulation.

30. In which of the following scenarios is a worker at greatest risk of developing a sprain injury?
A. Working in an office, typing on a computer and not taking periodic breaks.
B. Slipping on a wet floor and falling on an outstretched wrist.
C. Bending the neck during lengthy telephone calls.
D. Sitting at an assembly line station screwing in small parts.

31. What type of gauge is best for ease of reading, detection of change and maintaining a high level of
process control?
A. A fixed marker gauge with a moving scale.
B. A digital indicator gauge with a whole number scale.
C. A counter gauge with a numerical scale.
D. A moving pointer gauge with a fixed scale.



32. Which of the following is associated with applying ergonomic principles with respect to human
characteristics such as size and proportions?
A. Ergonomics.
B. Variability.
C. Anthropometrics.
D. Physical demands analysis.

33. What is the legislative clause that requires employers to correct any undue hazards or risks to workers?
A. Criminal clause.
B. Privative clause.
C. Prevention clause.
D. General duty clause.

34. What step would promote successful implementation of an ergonomics program?
A. Identification and mitigation of risks.
B. Analysis of absenteeism and first aid records.
C. Involvement of workers and management.
D. Implementation of small scale change.
Fire Prevention and Protection (FPP)
35. What is the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) best known for?
A. Standards.
B. Guidelines.
C. Codes.
D. Regulations.

36. Which fire control system should be used in an electrical room?
A. Deluge.
B. Carbon dioxide.
C. Wet pipe.
D. Pre‐action.

37. What is the most common type of fire control system found in buildings constructed in Canada?
A. Carbon dioxide systems.
B. Sprinkler systems.
C. Smoke detectors.
D. Heat detection systems.


38. What is one of the key elements when developing an effective emergency preparedness/response plan?
A. To explain the differences between natural and man‐made disasters to facilitate effective and proper
procedures.
B. To implement an accountability framework at the start of the emergency action plan to ensure that
everyone performs assigned duties.
C. To assign specific emergency responsibilities to employees relative to their competencies and normal
work functions.
D. To ensure business continuity through the use of distinct alarms that are recognized by all employees
and responders.

39. The term “means of egress” refers to which of the following?
A. A fire lane for fire department use.
B. An emergency exit door that is clearly marked.
C. An emergency escape ladder.
D. A clear path used by building occupants as an escape route.

40. How do dry chemical extinguishing agents extinguish class B fires?
A. They wet the combustible material in the fire.
B. They block oxygen from reaching the fire.
C. They interrupt the chemical chain reactions.
D. They prevent additional fire ignition sources.

41. What items best describe the fire chemistry?
A. The chemical chain reaction and the fire triangle.
B. The fire tetrahedron and the rapid oxidation process.
C. The rapid oxidation of fuel and the chemical chain reaction.
D. The fire tetrahedron and the production of light and heat.

42. What is the generally accepted maximum depth that a trench can be before shoring is required?
A. 0.95 metres (3 feet)
B. 1.2 metres (4 feet)
C. 1.5 metres (5 feet)
D. 1.8 metres (6 feet)


Health and Wellness (HW)
43. Which stress management program is the least frequently implemented despite potentially having the
greatest impact?
A. An organizational/environmental change program.
B. An assessment‐focused program.
C. A therapeutic/counselling program.
D. An education/awareness building program.

44. What is the main focus of health protection?
A. Preventing a specific condition by avoiding the occurrence of pathogenic insults to health and well‐
being.
B. Achieving the balance of physical, emotional, social, spiritual and intellectual health.
C. Ensuring that employees maintain an adequate work/life balance.
D. Increasing the level of well‐being and actualizing the health potential of individuals, families,
communities and society.

45. Under what level of health protection does emphasis on early diagnosis and treatment for health
conditions fall?
A. Advanced analysis.
B. Secondary.
C. Primary.
D. Tertiary.

46. What is the most important consideration of an Employee Assistance Program (EAP)?
A. Budget.
B. Confidentiality.
C. Availability.
D. Participation.

47. What aspect of a disability management process would have the greatest impact on returning an injured
employee to work?
A. Compensating the injured employee for all lost time.
B. Enhancing employee health‐related fitness.
C. Notifying the injured employee of applicable disciplinary measures.
D. Intervening early with the injured employee.


Law and Ethics (LE)
48. Because of more severe penalties associated with strict liability offences, a defendant has the opportunity
to make which of the following?
A. A plea bargain.
B. Defence with claim of right.
C. A due diligence defence.
D. A mea culpa bargain.

49. What is the origin of the Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System (WHMIS)?
A. A result of consumer interest and applied to the workplace.
B. Developed by labour and industry (bipartite process).
C. Developed through negotiations between all governments, labour and industry.
D. Developed to meet World Trade Organization requirements.

50. What best describes the Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System (WHMIS)?
A. An information system to inform and educate workers.
B. An alternative to the Transportation of Dangerous Goods system.
C. A regulation made pursuant to the Hazardous Products Acts.
D. A control system required by the Controlled Products Regulations.

51. Workers at a hydro‐generating facility have identified that the sling on a log lifter has not been certified.
The workers contact their supervisor and state that they will not operate the log lifter. Which legal right
are the employees invoking?
A. The right to know.
B. The right to participate.
C. The right to refuse unsafe work.
D. The right to report safety concerns.

52. Under the External Responsibility System (ERS), what is the main body charged with administering
occupational health and safety legislation and enforcing standards?
A. Workplace safety associations.
B. Federal and provincial courts.
C. Government agency in a particular jurisdiction.
D. Industry consultants.



53. What best describes one of the responsibilities of a Canadian Registered Safety Professional (CRSP) as
clearly identified in the BCRSP Code of Ethics?
A. To provide complete, accurate and timely information on the hazards and risks associated with an
occupation.
B. To provide opportunities for professional development for those working under the supervision of a
CRSP.
C. To protect and promote the safety and health of people, property and the environment above any
consideration of self‐interest.
D. To protect and promote the safety and health of industry standards and engineering best practices.

54. What is a requirement of professional practice?
A. To be objective in the interpretation of findings.
B. To never use the certification in a misleading manner.
C. To recognize professional limitations and level of competence.
D. To keep apprised of the law as it relates to professional practice.

55. Which of the following is a responsibility of a Canadian Registered Safety Professional (CRSP)?
A. To continue professional development throughout career.
B. To be subjective in the interpretation of findings.
C. To never disclose confidential information.
D. To advise relevant parties of any conflicts of interest when requested.

56. A company CEO stated that everyone will be held accountable for Health & Safety Management System
implementation. Which of the following most closely describes the CEO's statement?
A. Top‐down management.
B. Internal Responsibility System (IRS).
C. Right to know.
D. Participative management.

57. Based on the Canada Labour Code Part II, a workplace health & safety committee is required when the
number of employees reaches what figure?
A. 300
B. 100
C. 20
D. 10


OHS&E Management Systems (OES)
58. What type of organizational structure best describes an organization with no clear reporting structure and
no line of command or authority?
A. Flat.
B. Functional.
C. Adhocracy.
D. Matrix.

59. Through which sense does the average adult learn best?
A. Hearing.
B. Touch.
C. Smell.
D. Sight.

60. What was the main premise for the development of the ISO 9000 standard series?
A. Public safety is paramount and should always be upheld.
B. Competition can be assisted by efficiently organizing the manufacturing of quality products.
C. Quality principles should be applied to all aspects of operations, and to meeting customer needs.
D. Quality comes from defect prevention, not defect correction.

61. What are the four absolutes of total quality control?
A. High‐quality goods provision, customer service, short waiting times and flexibility to individual needs.
B. Conformance to standards, defect prevention, defect‐free work, and quality saves money.
C. Innovation maximization, task management, continuous communication and self‐management.
D. Preliminary controls, concurrent controls, internal control and external control.

62. What is an important component that determines the effectiveness of Locke’s goal‐setting theory?
A. Perceived trustworthiness of performance management.
B. Active and visible participation by senior management.
C. Consistency between stated and demonstrated performance.
D. Employees’ participation in setting the goals to be achieved.

63. Who developed the yardstick for identifying performance problems whereby managers may create self‐
fulfilling prophecies based on their own assumptions?
A. Elton Mayo.
B. Abraham Zaleznick.
C. Douglas McGregor.
D. Frederick Taylor.



64. What are the four basic functions in the management process?
A. Organizing, structuring, leading and controlling.
B. Leading, planning, organizing and staffing.
C. Planning, controlling, organizing and staffing.
D. Planning, organizing, leading and controlling.

65. What conflict management style will result in a lose/lose situation?
A. Authoritative.
B. Accommodation.
C. Compromise.
D. Collaboration.

66. In order to change a safety culture, which individuals have the ultimate responsibility to focus on safety as
a goal?
A. Line workers.
B. Safety advisors.
C. Managers.
D. Supervisors.
Occupational Hygiene (OH)
67. Noise‐induced hearing loss is caused by impairment to what part of the ear?
A. Anvil.
B. Hammer.
C. Cochlea.
D. Stirrup.

68. A worker with a full beard is required to wear a half‐mask respirator. What should the safety professional
do?
A. Have the worker apply cream/lubricant to his facial hair.
B. Provide the worker with a large dust mask that does not seal.
C. Ask the worker to shave where the respirator will seal with the face.
D. Conduct quantitative fit‐testing that does not require the worker to shave.

69. What are the key components of a workplace respiratory protection program?
A. Medical assessment, fit‐testing, cleaning schedule and evaluation.
B. Respirator selection, medical assessment, training, cleaning and inspection.
C. Procedures, respirator selection, medical assessment and maintenance.
D. Procedure, assessment, respirator selection, training and maintenance.



70. What does ACGIH stand for?
A. Associated Collective of Guardians of Industrial Health.
B. American Congress of Government and Industry Hygienists.
C. American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists.
D. Amalgamated Council of Governmental Industrial Hygienists.

71. What should the safety professional do before and after using suction pump air sampling instruments in
the field?
A. Sanitize the instruments using an accredited protocol.
B. Personally calibrate the instruments before and after use.
C. Calibrate against an instrument of known response and accuracy.
D. Ensure that the instruments are inspected by a qualified operator.

72. Which group of workers are at greatest risk of contracting Lyme disease?
A. Fish plant workers.
B. Pet shop workers.
C. Forestry workers.
D. Office workers.

73. In the context of occupational hygiene, which of the following is a physical agent?
A. Radiation.
B. Mould.
C. Virus.
D. Degreasing agent.

74. What may increase the risk of exposure to a chemical ingestion hazard?
A. Inadequate ventilation.
B. Eating food in the workplace.
C. Wearing the wrong type of gloves.
D. Sharing protective equipment.

75. A worker's fingers have become white and stiff following exposure to prolonged cold and vibration. What
is the most likely explanation?
A. Bell's palsy.
B. Ménière's disease.
C. Corti's condition.
D. Raynaud's syndrome.



76. The organism that causes Legionnaires' disease belongs to which category?
A. Viruses.
B. Fungi.
C. Bacteria.
D. Prions.
Risk Management (RM)
77. What is the best control method for warning workers when heavy equipment is backing up?
A. Installing hazard warning light on the cab.
B. Driver signalling with three horn blasts.
C. Workers wearing high‐visibility clothing.
D. Automatic audible signalling device.

78. When assessing risks at the design stage, which of the following is most important?
A. Severity.
B. Probability.
C. Duration.
D. Frequency.

79. What is the difference between hazard and risk?
A. A hazard is anything with a potential to harm; risk is the chance of harm happening.
B. A hazard is the probability of harm; risk is the potential of harm happening.
C. A hazard is the adverse consequence; risk is the potential to harm.
D. A hazard is the probability of occurrence; risk is the event.

80. What would be an example of a discrete hazard?
A. Silica dust.
B. Electrical shock.
C. Musculoskeletal injury.
D. Carbon monoxide.

81. Which of the following is an accurate list of the key principles of ISO‐type management standards?
A. Auditing, documenting and setting objectives and targets.
B. Planning, doing, checking and acting.
C. Analyzing, reporting, setting targets and taking corrective actions.
D. Communicating, documenting, auditing and enforcement.



82. Which principle is a pragmatic, technology‐based approach to minimizing health risk that seeks to reduce
potentially harmful exposures to the greatest extent possible?
A. Weight‐of‐evidence approach.
B. Sound science approach.
C. As Low As Reasonably Achievable (ALARA) principle.
D. Precautionary principle.

83. What is the risk management principle that best describes taking preventive action to mitigate risk
despite the fact that scientific information is incomplete?
A. The reasonable relationship principle.
B. The weight‐of‐evidence principle.
C. The precautionary principle.
D. The sound science principle.
Safety Techniques and Technology (STT)
84. What is a disadvantage of scheduled workplace inspections?
A. Periodic measurement data do not identify degenerative trends.
B. Workers can prepare for them and it is harder to find deviations.
C. A hazard can become so familiar that no one notices it.
D. The inspection preparation and formal report writing are time‐consuming.

85. At what threshold current level will a person have difficulty releasing his/her handgrip on a conductor due
to muscular contraction?
A. 1 to 2 milliamperes
B. 10 to 12 milliamperes
C. 400 to 1,000 milliamperes
D. 2 amperes

86. What type of injury is most commonly associated with manual material handling?
A. Ligament strains.
B. Lower lumbar.
C. Repetitive strains.
D. Muscle compression.

87. What precaution should a worker take while handling ten 7.5 kg (16.5 lb) boxes?
A. Take a 30 second rest break between handling each box.
B. Assess each box carefully.
C. Obtain assistance from a co‐worker.
D. Keep the load as close to the body as possible.



88. Which common hand tool is the source of most injuries?
A. Knife.
B. Pliers.
C. Saw.
D. Hammer.

89. In order to minimize stressors and injuries to a worker, what factors should be considered when selecting
power hand tools?
A. Cost, storage requirements and energy source.
B. Posture, force required to use it and weight and balance of the power tool.
C. Protective equipment required, design features and grounded power cord.
D. Maintenance schedule, ease of repair and replacement time.

90. Which statement about spark‐resistant tools is correct?
A. They are made of non‐ferrous materials.
B. They can safely be used around gasoline and petroleum products.
C. They do not easily conduct electricity.
D. They will not lose their spark‐resistant properties.

91. Siderosis is related to which material?
A. Tin.
B. Aluminum.
C. Carbon.
D. Iron oxide.

92. What is the most important goal of an incident investigation?
A. To assign accountability to the right individual(s) involved.
B. To determine the exact sequence of events.
C. To find the obvious causes for the incident.
D. To prevent this type of incident from reoccurring.

93. What is a requirement each time an entry into a designated confined space is undertaken?
A. Testing the rescue equipment to ensure its performance in case it is required.
B. Obtaining an entry permit before work in a confined space is performed.
C. Advising the legislative authority having jurisdiction of the time and place of entry.
D. Ensuring that the nearest municipal Emergency Services provider is contacted.



94. The entry team tests the oxygen levels prior to entering a confined space. The direct reading gas monitor
is registering an oxygen‐deficient atmosphere. What are the initial physiological warning signs of a
potential exposure?
A. Increased breathing rate and increased pulse rate.
B. Elevated stress levels and signs of cyanosis.
C. Inability to move and a semi‐conscious state.
D. Respiratory depression and a feeling of euphoria.

95. What is an example of a passive fall‐arrest system?
A. Belt.
B. Net.
C. Harness.
D. Lanyard.

96. A sign reading “Be sure to tie off to engineered anchor points” is an example of what type of control?
A. Administrative control.
B. Engineering control.
C. Elimination control.
D. Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) control.

97. In addition to Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System (WHMIS) labelled products, what other
hazards should be assessed in a laboratory environment?
A. Electrical, compressed gas cylinder, biological and affective hazards.
B. Compressed gas cylinder, radiation, biological and exposure hazards.
C. Electrical, equipment, thermal and radiation hazards.
D. Equipment, thermal, exposure and affective hazards.

98. What best characterizes a fault tree analysis?
A. It works forward from specific events, or sequences of events, to pinpoint those that could result in
hazards.
B. It proactively identifies and evaluates hazards in order to eliminate or control.
C. It uses historical data to correlate each system or unit with its potential failure mode.
D. It works backwards from an incident to identify the combination of operational errors that resulted in
the incident.

99. What best describes safety through design?
A. A process to identify potential hazards and risks at the design stage of an operation.
B. A process to conduct a health and safety review at the start‐up of a new piece of equipment.
C. Hazard abatement and risk reduction at the start of the implementation stage of an operation.
D. Hazard evaluation methods to reduce further risk of injury or damage to an acceptable level.


100. What engineering control would provide the best guarding protection on a punch press?
A. STREE guard.
B. Pressure sensing pads.
C. Point of operation fixed guard.
D. Retractable fence.
END OF PRACTICE TEST


CRSP Sample Examination Questions

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

CRSP Sample Examination Questions

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like