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 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS
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UPSC IAS PRELIMS EXAM 2020
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Solved aper
Paperss-I
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(Exam held on 4th October 2020)
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1: What are the advantages of fertigation in (b) 2 only

agriculture ? (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2 Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other Answer: (d)
phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
4. With reference to chemical fertilizers in India,

a
3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible. consider the following statements :
4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is

i
1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is
possible. market-driven and not administered by the Govern-
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

d
ment.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only natural gas. 3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (c)

I n
Solution : https://www.developindiagroup.co.in/
CurrentAffairs.php?actiion=English&id=933#933
phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refin-
eries. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only

p
(b) 2 and 3 only

p
2. Consider the following minerals: (c) 2 only
1. Bentonite (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Chromite
3. Kyanite

lo u 5:
Answer: (b)
With reference to India's Desert National Park,

o
4. Sillimanite which of the following statements are correct?

e
In India, which of the above is/are officially designated 1. It is spread over two districts.
as major minerals?

(b) 4 only
v
(a) 1 and 2 only
r 2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard.

e G
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) 1 and 3 only below:
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only

D
Answer: (b) (b) 2 and 3 only
3. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), (c) 1 and 3 only
which of the following statements is/are correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm Answer: c
which is 129 meters in the south-western Indian 6. Siachen Glacier is situated to the
Ocean during January - March (a) East of Aksai Chin
2. OMT collected during January - March can be used in (b) East of Leh
assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon (c) North of Gilgit
will be less or more than a certain long-term mean. (d) North of Nubra Valley
Select the correct answer using the code given be- Answer: d
low:
(a) 1 only

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Notes for IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS
 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS
7: With reference to the history of India, consider the 11: If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule
following pairs : VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the
Famous Place Present State implication ?
1. Bhilsa - Madhya Pradesh (a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant.
2. Dwarasamudra - Maharashtra (b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circum-
3. Girinagar - Gujarat stances.
4. Sthanesvara - Uttar Pradesh (c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ? (d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosys-
(a) 1 and 3 only tem.
(b) 1 and 4 only Answer : b
(c) 2 and 3 only 12: With reference to the period of Gupta dynasty in
(d) 2 and 4 only ancient India, the towns Ghantasala, Kadura and
Answer: a Chaul were well known as
8:

ia
Consider the following statements :
1. 36% of India 36% of India's districts are classified as
"overexploited" or "critical" by the Central Ground
(a) ports handling foreign trade
(b) capitals of powerful kingdoms
(c) places of exquisite stone art and architecture

d
Water Authority (CGWA). (d) important Buddhist pilgrimage centres
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protec- Answer: a

n
tion) Act. 13: What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero
tillage in agriculture ?

I
3. India has the largest area under groundwater irriga-
tion in the world. 1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the resi-
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? due of previous crop.
(a) 1 only 2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct

p
planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.

p
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only 3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible. Select the

o
correct answer using the code given below:

u
(d) 1 and 3 only

l
Answer: b (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

o
9: Consider the following statements :

e
(c) 3 only
1. Jetstreams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.

r
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.

v
Answer: d
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly
10°C lesser than that of the surroundings. 14: According to India's National Policy on Biofuels,

e G
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? which of the following can be used as raw materials
for the production of biofuels ?
(a) 1 only
1. Cassava
(b) 2 and 3 only

D
2. Damaged wheat grains
(c) 2 only
3. Groundnut seeds
(d) 1 and 3 only
4. Horse gram
Answer : c
5.Rotten potatoes
10: Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has 6. Sugar beet
the largest area under "Critical Tiger Habitat" ?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Corbett
(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
(b) Ranthambore
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
(c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) Sunderbans
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer : c
Answer : a

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Notes for IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS
 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS
15: Which one of the following statements best (a) 1 only
describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon' ? It is a (b) 2 only
measure, in monetary value of the (e) Both 1 and 2
(a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emissions (d) Neither 1 nor 2
in a given year. Answer : b
(b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide
goods and services to its citizens, based on the burn- 19. With reference to the current trends in the cultivation
ing of those fuels. of sugarcane in India, consider the following state-
(c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in ments :
a new place. 1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when 'bud
(d) contribution of an individual person to the carbon chip settlings' are raised in a nursery and transplanted
footprint on the planet Earth. in the main field.
Answer: (a)

a
2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination
16. With reference to pulse production in India, percentage is better with single-budded setts as com-

crop.

d i
consider the following statements :
1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi

2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse

pared to setts with many buds.
3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are di-
rectly planted, single-budded setts have better sur-
vival as compared to large setts.

n
production. 4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared
3. In the last three decades, while the production of

I
from tissue culture.
kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
pulses has decreased. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) 3 only

p p
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

o
(c) 2 only

u
Answer : c

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(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer : a 20. In the context of India, which of the following is/are

e ro
17. "The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is
injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days
considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agricul-
ture ?

v
and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. 1. Crop diversification
A light well-drained soil capable of retaining 2. Legume intensification

e G
moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the
3. Tensiometer use
crop." Which one of the following is that crop ?
4. Vertical farming
(a) Cotton
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

D
(b) Jute
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Sugarcane
(b) 3 only
(d) Tea
(c) 4 only
Answer : a
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
18. With reference to solar water pumps, consider the Answer: d
following statements : 1. Solar power can be used
for running
21 : With reference to the cultural history of India, con-
surface pumps and not for submersible
sider the following pairs :
pumps. 2. Solar power can be used for running
1. Parivrajaka - Renunciant and Wanderer
centrifugal pumps and not the ones with
2. Shramana - Priest with a high status
piston Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
3. Upasaka- Lay follower of Buddhism
rect?

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Notes for IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS
 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ? known for the conservation of a sub-species of the
(a) 1 and 2 only Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on
(b) 1 and 3 only hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous ?
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) Kanha National Park
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Manas National Park
Answer: b (c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary
22. With reference to Indian elephants, consider the fol- Answer : a
lowing statements :
1. The leader of an elephant group is a female. 26. Steel slag can be the material for which of the follow-
2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months. ing ?
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 1. Construction of base road

a
years only. 2. Improvement of agricultural soil
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant popu- 3. Production of cement

(a) 1 and 2 only

d i
lation is in Kerala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: a
I n (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer : d

27. Which of the following are the most likely places to

find the musk deer in its natural habitat?

p
Cauvery basin ?

o p
23. Which of the following Protected Areas are located in 1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Gangotri National Park

u
1. Nagarhole National Park 3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary

l
2. Papikonda National Park 4. Manas National Park Select the correct answer using
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve the code given below:

e ro
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer
using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

v
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only

e G
(c) 1,3 and 4 only Answer : a
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer : c 28. In rural road construction, the use of which of the

D
24. With reference to India's biodiversity, Ceylon
frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned
minivet and White-throated redstart are
(a) Birds
following is preferred for ensuring environmental
sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint ?
1. Copper slag
2. Cold mix asphalt technology
3. Geotextiles
(b) Primates 4. Hot mix asphalt technology
(c) Reptiles 5. Portland cement
(d) Amphibians Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer : a (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
25. Which one of the following protected areas is well- (c) 4 and 5 only

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Notes for IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS
 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(d) 1 and 5 only (c) 2, 3 and 6 only

Answer : a
29: Consider the following statements :
1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and ox-
ides of nitrogen into the
environment.
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer : d
32. What is the importance of the term "Interest Cover-
age Ratio" of a firm in India ?
1. It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that
a bank is going to give loan to.
2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a
bank is going to give loan to.
3. The higher a borrowing firm's level of Interest Cover-
age Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt.

a
(c) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given be-
(d) 1, 2 and 3 low:
Answer : d

d i
30. What is the use of biochar in farming ?
1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

I n
vertical farming.
2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it pro-
motes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it en-
ables the growing medium to retain water for longer
Answer : c

33. Which of the following factors/policies were affecting

the price of rice in India in the recent past?
1. Minimum Support Price
time.

p p
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

o
2. Government's trading
3. Government's stockpiling

u
(a) 1 and 2 only 4. Consumer subsidies

l
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer : d

e
(d) 1, 2 and 3

ro (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

v
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. In India, which of the following can be considered as Answer : d

e G
public investment in agriculture ?
1. Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce 34. Consider the following statements:
of all crops 1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently in-

ies
D
2. Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societ-

3. Social Capital development

4. Free electricity supply to farmers
Answer
creased in the last decade.
2. "Textile and textile articles" constitute an important
item of trade between India and Bangladesh.
3. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading
partner of India in
5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Set- South Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are
ting up of cold storage facilities by correct?
the governments Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 and 2 only
given below: (b) 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only (c) 3 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Notes for IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS
 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

Answer : a 2. Thames - Irish Sea

3. Volga - Caspian Sea
35. In which one of the following groups are all the four 4. Zambezi - Indian Ocean
countries members of G20 ? Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
(a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia New Zealand and (b) 3 only
(c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam (c) 3 and 4 only
(d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer : a Answer : c

36. Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term credit 39. Consider the following statements :
support is given to farmers for which of the following 1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the pro-

a
purposes ? curement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is unlim-
1. Working capital for maintenance of farm assets har- ited in any State/UT of India.
vesters,

ments of farm

d i
2. Purchase of combine tractors and mini trucks require-

3. Consumption households
2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any
State/UT at a level to which the market price will
never rise. Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
Post-harvest expenses

I n
Construction of family house and setting up of village cold
storage facility
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : d

p
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2,3,4 and 5 only

o p 40. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the

u
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 following statements :

l
Answer : b Commercial Paper is a short-term unsecured promissory
note. 'Certificate of Deposit is a long-term of India to

e ro
37. Consider the following statements :
1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is
a corporation. 'Call Money' is a short-term finance
used for interbank transactions. "Zero-Coupon Bonds'

v
higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI). are the interest bearing short-term bonds issued by
2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of ser- the Scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations.

e G
vices, which CPI does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key (a) 1 and 2 only
measure of inflation and to decide on changing the (b) 4 only

D
key policy rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer : c

41: With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India,

(d) 1, 2 and 3 which one of the following is considered its major
Answer : a characteristic?
(a) It is the investment through capital instruments essen-
38. Consider the following pairs : tially in a listed company.
River - Flows into (b) It is a largely non-debt creating capital flow.
1. Mekong- Andaman Sea (c) It is the investment which involves debt-servicing

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Notes for IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS
 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(d) It is the investment made by foreign institutional inves-
tors in the Government securities.
Answer : b
42. With reference to the international trade of India at
present, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. India's merchandise exports are less than its merchan-
dise imports.
2. India's imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers
and machinery have decreased in recent years.
3. India's exports of services are more than its imports of
(c) Some are operated by foreign enterprises and others
are operated by domestic enterprises
(d) Some are State-owned and others are privately-owned
Answer : b
46. With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures
(TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign inves-
tors are prohibited.
2. They apply to investment measures related to trade in
both goods and services.

a
services. 3. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign
4. India suffers from an overall trade/current account defi- investment.
cit.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only
d i
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c). 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer : d

I n
43. The term 'West Texas Intermediate, sometimes found
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer : b

47. If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary

policy, which of the following would it not do?

(a) Crude oil

op p
in news, refers to a grade of 1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate

u
(b) Bullion 3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate Select the correct

l
(c) Rare earth elements answer using the code given below:
(d) Uranium (a) 1 and 2 only
Answer : a

e ro (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only

v
44: In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial (d) 1, 2 and 3
debt includes which of the following ? 1. Housing loans Answer : b

e G
owed by households 2. Amounts outstanding on credit
cards 3. Treasury bills Select the correct answer us- 48. With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991
ing the code given below : economic liberalization, consider the following state-
(a) 1 only

(c) 3 onlyD
(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer : d
45. In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under
"IAEA Safeguards" while others are not?
(a) Some use uranium and others use thorium
(b) Some use imported uranium and others use domestic
supplies
ments :
1. Worker productivity (Rs per worker at 2004-05 prices)
increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural
areas.
2. The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce
steadily increased.
3. In rural areas, the growth in non-farm economy in-
creased.
4. The growth rate in rural employment decreased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only

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Notes for IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS
 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(b) 3 and 4 only 4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. Which of the

(c) 3 only statements given above are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only
Answer : b (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
49. Consider the following statements: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture Answer : d
sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs)
deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Com- 52. Consider the following activities:
mercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks. 1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field
2. One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to 2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes
provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Soci- 3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA

a
eties. Which of the statements given above is/are analysis
correct? At the present level of technology, which of the above
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
d i activities can be successfully carried out by using
drones?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Answer : b

I n
50. In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which
of the following benefits are generally covered, in
addition to payment for the loss of funds and other
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer : d

53. "The experiment will employ a trio spacecraft flying in

benefits ?

p p
1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of

o
formation in the shape of of an equilateral triangle
that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers

u
malware disrupting access to one's computer shining between the craft. The experiment in refers

l
2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully dam- to
ages it, if proved so (a) Voyager-2

e ro
3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the
loss in case of cyber extortion
(b) New Horizons
(c) LISA Pathfinder

v
4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party (d) Evolved LISA
files a suit Select the correct answer using the code Answer : d

e G
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only 54. Consider the following statements:
(b) 1.3 and 4 only 1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that

D
(e) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer : b

51. With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the fol-

produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
2. A person's genome can be edited before birth at the
early embryonic stage.
3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected
into the embryo of a pig. Which of the statements
lowing statements : given above is/are correct?
1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in (a) 1 only
the human body. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an (c) 2 only
injured part of human body. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. They can be used in biochemical sensors. Answer : d

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 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

rect answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2 and

55. What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conju- 3 only
gate Vaccines in India ? (b) 2 and 4 only
1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
as meningitis and sepsis. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against Answer : d
drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced.
3. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no aller- 59. If another global financial crisis happens in the near
gic reactions. future, which of the following actions/policies are
Select the correct answer using the code given below: most likely to give some immunity to India ?
(a) Car 1 only 1. Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings
(b) 1 and 2 only 2. Opening up to more foreign banks 3. Maintaining full

a
(c) 3 only capital account convertibility Select the correct an-
(d) 1.2 and 3 swer using the code given below :
Answer : b

the context of
d i
56. In India, the term "Public Key Infrastructure" is used in
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

I n
(a) Digital security infrastructure
(b) Food security infrastructure
(c) Health care and education infrastructure
(d) Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure
Answer : a
Answer : a

60. If you withdraw 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand

Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate effect
on aggregate money supply in the economy will be

p p
57. Which of the following statements are correct regard-

o
(a) to reduce it by 1,00,000
(b) to increase it by 1,00,000

u
ing the general difference between plant and animal (e) to increase it by more than 1,00,000

l
cells? (d) to leave it unchanged
1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do Answer : c
not.

e ro
2. Plant cells do not have plasma membrane unlike animal 61. With reference to the cultural history of India, which

v
cells which do. one of the following is the correct description of the
3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole vacuoles. term 'paramitas'?

e G
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) The earliest Dharmashastra texts written in aphoristic
(a) 1 and 2 only (sutra) style
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Philosophical schools that did not accept the authority

Answer : cD
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

58. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for ex-

of Vedas
(c) Förfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva
path
(d) Powerful merchant guilds of early medieval South In-
dia
posure to benzene pollution ? Answer : c
1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke 62. In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case of
3. Wood burning 1884 revolved around
4. Using varnished wooden furniture 1. women's right to gain education
5. Using products made of polyurethane Select the cor- 2. age of consent

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 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

3. restitution of conjugal rights (a) 1 and 2 only

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only Answer : c
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer : b 67. In the context of recent advances in human reproduc-
tive technology, "Pronuclear Transfer" is used for
63. Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of (a) fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm
the 20th century because of (b) genetic modification of sperm producing cells
(a) peasant resistance to the oppressive conduct of plant- (c) development of stem cells into functional embryos
ers (d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring

a
(b) its unprofitability in the world market because of new Answer : d
inventions

Answer b

d i
(c) national leaders' opposition to the cultivation of indigo
(d) Government control over the planters
68. With the present state of development, Artificial In-
telligence can effectively do which of the following?
1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units
2. Create meaningful short stories and songs

I
Calcutta because
n
64. Wellesley established the Fort William College at

(a) he was asked by the Board of Directors at London to do

so
(b) he wanted to revive interest in oriental learning in
3. Disease diagnosis
4. Text-to-Speech Conversion
5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1,2,3 and 5 only
India

p p
(c) he wanted to provide William Carey and his associates

o
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only

u
with employment (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

l
(d) he wanted to train British civilians for administrative Answer : d
purpose in India
Answer : d

e ro 69. With reference to Visible Light Communication (VLC)

technology, which of the following statements are

v
65. With reference to the history of India, "Ulgulan" or correct?
the Great Tumult is the description of which of the 1. VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375

e G
following events ? to 780 nm.
(a) The Revolt of 1857 2. VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communi-
(b) The Mappila Rebellion of 1921 cation.

Answer : dD
(c) The Indigo Revolt of 1859 - 60
(d) Birsa Munda's Revolt of 1899-1900

66. With reference to the scholars/litterateurs of ancient

3. VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than
Bluetooth,
4. VLC has no electromagnetic interference.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
India, consider the following statements: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
1. Panini is associated with Pushyamitra Shunga. (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. Amarasimha is associated with Harshavardhana. (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Kalidasa is associated with Chandra Answer : c
Gupta - II. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 70. With reference to "Blockchain Technology". consider

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 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

the following statements :
1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which
no single user controls.
2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all
the data in it are about cryptocurrency only.
3. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain
can be developed without anybody's permission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(c) Railway lines were laid in many parts of the country.
(d) Heavy duties were imposed on the imports of British
manufactures.
Answer : a
74. Consider the following events in the history of India :
1. Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja
2. Establishment of Pallava power under
Mahendravarman - I
3. Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka - I
4. Pala dynasty founded by Gopala
What is the correct chronological order of the above

a
Answer : a events, starting from the earliest time?
(a) 2-1-4-3

following pairs:

d i
71. With reference to the history of India, consider the

1. Aurang - In-charge of treasury of the State

2. Banian Indian agent of the East India Company
(b) 3-1-4-2
(c) 2-4-1-3
(d) 3-4-1-2
Answer : c

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only I n
3. Mirasidar - Designated revenue payer to the State
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ? 75. Which of the following phrases defines the nature of
the 'Hundi' generally referred to in the sources of the
post-Harsha period ?
(a) An advisory issued by the king to his subordinates
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer : b

op p
(b) A diary to be maintained for daily accounts
(c) A bill of exchange

u
(d) An order from the feudal lord to his subordinates

l
72. With reference to the religious history of India, con- Answer : c
sider the following statements :

e ro
1. Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism.
2. Lokottaravadin sect was an off shoot of Mahasanghika
76. With reference to the book "Desher Katha" written by
Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom

v
sect of Buddhism struggle, consider the following statements :
3. The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas fostered 1. It warned against the Colonial State's hypnotic con-

e G
the Mahayana Buddhism. quest of the mind.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. It inspired the performance of swadeshi street plays
(a) 1 and 2 only and folk songs.

(c) 3 only
D
(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer : b
3. The use of 'desh' by Deuskar was in the specific context
of the region of Bengal. Which of the statements given
above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
73. Which of the following statements correctly explains (c) 1 and 3 only
the impact of Industrial Revolution on India during (d) 1, 2 and 3
the first half of the nineteenth century ? Answer : d
(a) Indian handicrafts were ruined.
(b) Machines were introduced in the Indian textile indus- 77. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the follow-
try in large numbers. ing?

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 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

1. Invitation to Congress to participate in the Round Table
Conference Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated
in connection with the Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Acceptance of Gandhiji's suggestion for enquiry into
police excesses
4. Release of only those prisoners who were not charged
with violence
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and
can be removed by it
(c) the Government is elected by the people and can be
removed by them
(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but can-
not be removed by it before completion of a fixed
term
Answer : b
82. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the
ideal of Welfare State ?
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy

a
Answer : a (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble

published by

d
(a) Gopal Baba Walangkar
i
78. The Vital-Vidhvansak, the first monthly journal to have
the untouchable people as its target audience was
(d) Seventh Schedule
Answer: a

83. Consider the following statements :

(b) Jyotiba Phule

I n
(c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
(d) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
Answer : a
1. The Constitution of India defines its basic structure in
terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights
and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for Judicial review' to
safeguard the citizens' liberties and to preserve the

p p
79. With reference to the history of India, the terms
"kulyavapa" and "dronavapa" denote

o
ideals on which the Constitution is based.

u
(a) measurement of land Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

l
(b) coins of different monetary value (a) 1 only
(c) classification of urban land (b) 2 only

Answer : a

e ro
(d) religious rituals (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

v
Answer : b
80. Who among the following rulers advised his subjects

e G
through this inscription ? 84. One common agreement between Gandhism and
"Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects Marxism is
out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the (a) the final goal of a stateless society

D
view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his
own sect very severely."
(a) Ashoka
(b) Samudragupta
(c) Harshavardhana
(b) class struggle
(c) abolition of private property
(d) economic determinism
Answer: a

(a) Krishnadeva Raya 85. In the context of India, which one of the following is
Answer : a the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary
81. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which democracy
(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented (b) the An agency for strengthening structure of federal-
in the Government ism

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 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(c) political An agency for facilitating stability and eco-
nomic growth
(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy
Answer : d
86. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
(a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect
either
(c) a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect
as any other part
(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect inde-
kept in citation while framing laws and policies. These
provisions, contained in Part IV (Article 36–51) of the
Constitution of India, are not enforceable by any
court, but the principles laid down there in are con-
sidered in the governance of the country, making it
the duty of the State to apply these principles in mak-
ing laws to establish a just society in the country.
89. Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is
eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for
six months even if he/she is not a member of the

a
pendently of other parts Legislature of that State.
Answer : c 2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a

d i
87. "Gold Tranche" (Reserve Tranche) refers to
(a) a loan system of the World Bank
(b) one of the operations of a Central Bank
person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced
to imprisonment for five years is permanently dis-
qualified from contesting an election even after his
release from prison.

Answer : d

I n
(c) a credit system granted by WTO to its members
(d) a credit system granted by IMF to its members

Solution : Reserve tranche is the component of a member

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

p p
country's quota with the IMF that is in the form of
gold or foreign currency. For any member country,

o
Answer : a

u
out of the total quota, 25% should be paid in the form Solution : The RPA, 1951 lays down certain rules for dis-

l
of foreign currency or gold. Hence this is called as qualification of MPs and MLAs.
reserve tranche or gold tranche.

e ro
88. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV
Section 8 (3) of the Act states that if an MP or MLA is
convicted for any other crime and is sent to jail for 2

v
of the Constitution of India, which of the following years or more, he/ she will be disqualified for 6 years
statements is/are correct? from the time of release.

e G
1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court. Even if a person is on bail after the conviction and his ap-
3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the peal is pending for disposal, he is disqualified from

(b) 2 only
D
making of laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

contesting an election.

Section 8(4) allowed convicted MPs, MLAs and MLCs to

continue in their posts, provided they appealed
against their conviction/sentence in higher courts
(d) 2 and 3 only within 3 months of the date of judgment by the trial
Answer : d court.
The Supreme Court in July 2013 struck down section 8(4)
Solution : The Directive Principles of State Policy of India of the RPA, 1951 and declared it ultra vires and held
(DPSP) are the guidelines or 15 principles given to the that the disqualification takes place from the date of
federal institutes governing the State of India, to be conviction.

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 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.

Supreme Court of India, in its judgement dated 10 July 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of
2013 while disposing the Lily Thomas v. Union of India the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to
case (along with Lok Prahari v. Union of India), ruled conduct all three sessions.
that any Member of Parliament (MP), Member of 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parlia-
the Legislative Assembly (MLA) or Member of a Leg- ment is required to meet in a year.
islative Council (MLC) who is convicted of a crime and Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
given a minimum of two years' imprisonment, loses (a) 1 only
membership of the House with immediate effect. This (b) 2 only
is in contrast to the earlier position, wherein con- (c) 1 and 3 only
victed members held on to their seats until they ex- (d) 2 and 3 only
hausted all judicial remedy in lower, state and su- Answer : a

a
preme court of India. Further, Section 8(4) of the
Representation of the People Act, which allowed Solution : Article 85(1) of the Constitution empowers the

Mukhopadhaya.
d i
elected representatives three months to appeal their
conviction, was declared unconstitutional by the
bench of Justice A. K. Patnaik and Justice S. J.
President to summon each House of Parliament to
meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six
months shall not intervene between its last sitting in
one Session and the date appointed for its first sitting

I n
In an attempt to overturn this decision, the Representa-
tion of the People (Second Amendment and Valida-
tion) Bill, 2013, was introduced into the Rajya Sabha
on 30 August by Law Minister Kapil Sibal; by the pro-
in the next Session.

The Constitution that came into force in 1950 required

Parliament to be summoned twice in a year, with a
gap of no more than six months between its sessions.

p p
posed amendment, representatives would not be dis-
qualified immediately after conviction. The Indian

o
91. Consider the following statements :

u
government also filed a review petition, which the 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than

l
Supreme Court dismissed. On 24 September, a few three months.
days before the fodder scam verdict, the government 2. State cannot enter into any contract with private cor-

e ro
tried to bring the bill into effect as an ordinance.
However, Rahul Gandhi, Vice-President of the Indian
porations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance prod-

v
National Congress, made his opinion of the ordinance ucts.
clear in a press meeting: "It's complete nonsense. It 4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out

e G
should be torn up and thrown away." Members of of the Consolidated Fund of India.
opposition parties claimed that Gandhi's comments Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
indicated total confusion within the government, and (a) 1 and 4 only

D
called for the resignation of Prime Minister
Manmohan Singh. Within 5 days, both the ordinance
and the bill were withdrawn on 2 October.

On 1 October 2013, Rasheed Masood became the first

(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer : c

MP to lose his membership of parliament under the
new guidelines, when he was sentenced to four years'
imprisonment for cheating, forgery and corruption.
90. Consider the following statements:
1. The President of India can summon a session of the
Solution : The Supreme Court upheld the Constitutional
validity of Aadhaar, however the majority judgment
on Aadhaar has said the metadata cannot be stored
for more than six months. The Aadhaar Act had a
provision to store allowed storage of such data for a
period of five years.

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 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

IRDAI said Aadhaar and PAN/Form 60 are mandatory for Select the correct answer using the code given below:
obtaining financial services including insuranc. Insur- (a) 1 and 2 only
ance policies will have to be linked mandatorily with (b) 3 and 4 only
Aadhaar. While Aadhaar is already compulsory for (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
many essential tasks, you will now be required to link (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
insurance policies with Aadhaar card. Answer : a

92. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in Solution : On 23rd December 1993 Prime Minister an-
(a) the matter of creating new All India Services nounced in the Parliament the Members of Parlia-
(b) amending the Constitution ment Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS).
(c) the removal of the government Initially the MPLADS was under the control of the

a
(d) making cut motions Ministry of Rural Development.
Answer : b

d i
Solution : Rajya Sabha enjoys equal powers with Lok Sabha
in matters like the impeachment of the President,
removal of the vice-president, constitutional amend-
1. The objective of the scheme is to enable MPs to recom-
mend works of developmental nature with emphasis
on the creation of durable community assets based
on the locally felt needs to be taken up in their con-

I n
ments, and removal of the judges of the Supreme
Court and the High Courts.

SPECIAL POWERS OF RAJYA SABHA

stituencies. By the Scheme, durable assets of national
priorities viz.drinking water, primary education, Public
health, sanitation and roads, etc. are being created.

2. Development of Areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste

p p
Due to its federal character, the Rajya Sabha has been
given two exclusive or special powers that are not

o
and Schduled Tribe: Out of an amount of Rs.5 crores,
a M.P.shall recommend for areas inhabited by S.C.

u
enjoyed by the Lok Sabha: population, Rs.75 lacs and Rs.37.50 lacs for areas of

l
inhabited by S.T.Population. The additional amount
1. It can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a of Rs.25 lakh to be spent in the tribal areas only.

e o
subject enumerated in the State List (Article 249).

r
3. The MPLADS is a Plan Scheme fully funded by Govern-

v
2. It can authorise the Parliament to create new All-India ment of India. The annual MPLADS fund entitlement
Services common to both the Centre and states (Ar- per MP constituency, is Rs. 2 crore.

e G
ticle 312).
4. The District Authorities report the status of MPLADS
93. With reference to the funds under Members of Parlia- implementation to the Government of India and State

D
ment Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS),
which of the following statements are correct?
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets
like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP's fund must benefit SC/
Nodal Department. The District Authority gets the
MPLADS implemented through Local Self Govern-
ments or through Government agencies. In some
cases, the District Authority engages reputed Non
Government Organizations (NGOs) for execution of
ST populations. MPLADS works.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the
unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next 94. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental
year. Rights incorporates protection against untouchabil-
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all ity as a form of discrimination ?
works under implementation every year. (a) Right against Exploitation

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 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

(b) Right to Freedom out that there are insufficient officers at that level.
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies His statement is supported by the Annual Report of
(d) Right to Equality 2005-2006 of Ministry of Home Affairs. Of the total
Answer : d posts sanctioned by the government under Indian
Police Service more than 15 percent of the posts are
Solution : Part III of the constitution deals with Funda- vacant. This basically means that there is one IPS of-
mental Rights to which every citizen is entitled. ficer for 77,000 SC/STs.

Some of these rights are as follows: In Dr. Ram Krishna Balothia v. Union of India,
The Madhya Pradesh High Court held that the entire
EQUALITY RIGHTS (ARTICLES 14 – 18) scheme of the SC/ST Act is to provide protection to
the members of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled

a
Article 14 :The State shall not deny to any person equality Tribes and to provide for Special Court and speedy
before the law or equal protection of law within the trail of the offences. The Act contains affirmative
territory of India.

d i
Article 15 : The state shall not discriminate against any
citizen on ground only of religion, race, caste, sex or
measures to weed out the root cause of attrocities,
which had denied SCs and STs basic civil rights. the
Act has addressed the problem regarding the dispen-
sation of justice, but what this failed to deal with is

I n
place of birth or any of them.

Article 21 : states that, no person shall be deprived of his

life or personal liberty except according to the proce-
dure established by law.
the problem of rehabilitation. According to the re-
port submitted by the National Commission for Re-
view and Working of the Constitution, victims of
atrocities and their families should be provided with
full financial and any other support to make them

p p
Article 23 : forbids forced labour.

o
economically self-reliant without their having to seek
wage employment from their very oppressors.

u
Article 17 reads as follows:

l
Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is In State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan,
forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising The court held that reservations in educational institu-

e ro
out of Untouchability• shall be an offence punish-
able in accordance with law•.
tions were in violation of Article 29(2) which prohib-
ited educational institutions from denying admission

v
to applicants based on religion, race, caste, or lan-
Article 46 of the Indian Constitution : The State shall pro- guage. The court maintained that special quotas on

e G
mote with special care the educational and economic the basis of caste were violative of the prohibition
interests of the weaker section of the people, and in against caste discrimination. Shortly thereafter, Ar-
particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Sched- ticle 15(4) was passed which effectively overruled

D
uled Tribes, and shall protect them from social injus-
tice and all forms of exploitationâ••.

In M.Kathiresan v. State of Tamil Nadu,

The Madras High Court held that investigation conducted
Dorairajan.

95. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is

enjoined by
(a) the Preamble of the Constitution
by an officer other than a DSP is improper and bad in (b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
law and proceedings based on such an investigation (c) the Seventh Schedule
are required to be quashed. The Courts without tak- (d) the conventional practice
ing into consideration the inadequacies of the State, Answer : b
have been punishing SC/STs for the same. Shri Pravin
Rashtrapal, Member of Parliament rightly pointed Solution : Article 50 of Constitution of India is a directive

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Notes for IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS
 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

principle of state policy. It gives a direction to the (b) 2 only

State to keep Judiciary independent of the Execu-
tive, particularly in judicial appointments.
96. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places
other documents before the Parliament which include
"The Macro Economic Framework Statement. The
aforesaid document is presented because this is man-
dated by
(a) Long standing parliamentary convention
(b) Article 112 and Article 110 (1) of the Constitution of
India
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer : d
99. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal
services to which of the following type of citizens ?
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs
2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an an-
nual income of less than Rs 3,00,000

a
(c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India 4. All Senior Citizens
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Man- Select the correct answer using the code given below :
agement Act, 2003
Answer : d

d i
Solution : Budget is not a single document, but consists of
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

I n
many documents like Annual Financial Statement,
Demand for Grants, Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill
etc. Also, there are certain budget documents as per
the requirements of FRBM act 2003.
Answer : d

100. Consider the following pairs :

International agreement / set-up - Subject

p p
97. A constitutional government by definition is a
(a) government by legislature

o
1. Alma-Ata Declaration - Healthcare of the people

u
(b) popular government 2. Hague Convention - Biological and chemical weap-

l
(c) multi-party government ons
(d) limited government 3. Talanoa Dialogue - Global climate change
Answer : d

e ro 4. Under2 Coalition - Child rights

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

v
Solution : Constitutional governments are limited. They (a) 1 and 2 only
have a constitution and operate according to its prin- (b) 4 only

e G
ciples and rules. Governments without constitutions (c) 1 and 3 only
(or with constitutions they do not adhere to) are of- (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
ten authoritarian and deny its citizens basic rights Answer : c (1 and 3 only)

D
and freedoms.

98. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the fol-

lowing parts of the Constitution of India reflect/re-
flects the principles and provisions of the Universal
Declaration of Human Rights (1948) ?
1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using
the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. The Declaration of Alma-Ata was adopted at the Inter-
national Conference on Primary Health Care, Almaty,
Kazakhstan, 6–12 September 1978. It expressed the
need for urgent action by all governments, all health
and development workers, and the world commu-
nity to protect and promote the health of all people.
2. The Hague Convention protects children and their fami-
lies against the risks of illegal, irregular, premature
or ill-prepared adoptions abroad.

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Notes for IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS
 IAS PRELIMS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS

To do this, the Hague Convention puts:

safeguards in place to make sure that all intercountry adop-

tions are in the best interests of the child and re-
spects their human rights,
a system in place of cooperation among countries to guar-
antee that these safeguards are respected, and to
prevent the abduction of, sale of, or traffic in chil-
dren.
For Hague adoptions, the authorities in both countries
must agree to go ahead with the adoption. For non-

a
Hague adoptions, requirements may vary from one
country to another.

d i
The Hague Convention does not allow private adoptions
in the child's home country.

n
Adoption is a handled by the provinces and territories,

I
and they all have and follow laws implementing the
Hague Convention. They can explain the rules you
need to follow under the Hague Convention and for
adoptions from a country that is not a party to the
Convention.

op p
u
3. The Talanoa Dialogue was convened as part of the UN

l
climate talks. The political phase of the Talanoa Dia-
logue ended at 24th Conference of Parties (COP 24)

e o
to the United Nations Framework Convention on Cli-

r
mate Change (UNFCCC) in Katowice, Poland, with a

v
“call to action” issued jointly by Fijian (COP23) and
the Polish Presidency.

e G
4. The Under2 Coalition, a Memorandum of Understand-
ing by subnational governments to reduce their

D
greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions towards net-zero
by 2050.

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