Juris Answer Report - 747

JURIS ACADEMY
Q.N Answer sheet of "Constitutional Law I" held on 04/01/2021
Q.1 The President of India nominates two Anglo Indians members to:
a) Union Executive
b) Council of states
c) Legislative Assembly
d) House of people
Incorrect Correct Answer : d Your Answer : b
Q.2 Which officer of govt. of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament of India even through he is not a member?
a) Vice- President
b) Attorney-General of India
c) Comptroller and Auditor-General
d) Election Commissioner
Incorrect Correct Answer : b Your Answer : a
Q.3 It is the duty of the State to safeguard forests and wildlife under:
a) Articles 48 of Constitution of India
b) Articles 48A of Constitution of India

c) Articles 49 Constitution of India
d) Articles 50 of Constitution of India
Correct Correct Answer : b Your Answer : b
Q.4 Who among the following does not hold his/her office at the pleasure of the President of India?
a) Cabinet Minister
b) Attorney-general for India
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
d) Governor of a State
Incorrect Correct Answer : c Your Answer : b
Q.5 The concept of Public interest Litigation which became popular in India originated in:
a) UK
b) Australia
c) Canada
d) USA
Correct Correct Answer : d Your Answer : d
Q.6 Total number of ministers including Prime Minister shall not exceed……..% of the total number of members of Lok Sabha
a) 10%
b) 14%
c) 15%
d) 18%
Incorrect Correct Answer : c Your Answer : d
Q.7 Which state of India has a civil Code which is Common for all?
a) Jammu and Kashmir
b) Goa
c) Mizoram
d) Nagaland
Q.8 When the offices of both the President, Vice-President, Chief Justice of India are vacant, then the functions of acting President shall be
discharged by
a) Prime Minister
b) Home Minister
c) Chief Justice of India
d) Senior most judge of Supreme Court
Q.9 A Lok Adalat is different from other courts:

a) Because its decisions cannot be challenged in any court of law
b) Because the system is developed by the judges
c) Because the Parliamentry Act guides it
d) None of the above
Incorrect Correct Answer : a Your Answer : d
Q.10 Under the Contempt of Courts Acts, 1971 the accused may be discharged or punishment may be remitted on:
a) Apology made to the satisfaction of court
b) Apology has no place in the Act
c) Apology that reduces punishment
d) None of above
Correct Correct Answer : a Your Answer : a
Q.11 For which among the following posts there is no provision in Constitution of India?
a) Deputy Speaker
b) Prime Minister
c) Deputy prime Minister
d) Vice-President
Correct Correct Answer : c Your Answer : c
Q.12 Income Tax in India is

1) Indirect tax 3) Progressive tax
2) Direct tax 4) Proportional tax
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 2 and 4
Incorrect Correct Answer : c Your Answer : a
Q.13 Who among the following became the first Indian member of the British Parliament?
a) C. Rajagopalachari
b) Vijaylaxmi Pandit
c) Dadabhai Naroji
d) Maulana Azad
Q.14 Both the President and the Governors in India have power to promulgate Ordinances. The statement is
a) True
b) False
c) True only if the concerned Parliament and legislature is not in session
d) Depends on circumstances
Q.15 The first lady in India who became the Chief Minister of a State
a) Nandini Satpathy
b) Sheela Dikshit
c) Sucheta Kripalani
d) J. Jayalalitha
Q.16 Parliament can legislate on any subject in the State List

a) For the implementation of international treaties or arguments
b) If the Rajya Saba declares by two-third majority resolution that it is expedient to do so in national interest
c) If the legislature of two or more States request it to do so for them
d) In all the above cases
Q.17 In India, the “Right to free education” in Constitution emanates from

a) Article 29 and 30
b) Articles 14
c) Article 21 A
d) Article 19
Q.18 Planning Commission has been scrapped and replaced by a new think tank called:
a) National Institution for Transforming India Ayog
b) National Rural Development Commission
c) National Commission for progress and Development
d) National research and Development Commission
Q.19 Gram Nyayalaya Act, 2008 refers to

a) Access to justice to citizens at door steps
b) Informal settlement of disputes
c) Free legal services

d) All the above
Q.20 Which among the following has been added as a fundamental right in the Constitution of India by 86th Amendment?
a) Right to information
b) Right to employment
c) Right to food security
d) Right to education
Incorrect Correct Answer : d Your Answer : a
Q.21 Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court is available from the decision of
a) Any court or tribunal
b) Any court, tribunal or administrative authority
c) Any court or tribunal relating to armed forces

d) Administrative tribunals only
Incorrect Correct Answer : a Your Answer : b
Q.22 Who was the chairperson of the Committee on Review of the Working of the Constitution?
a) Subhash C. Kashyap
b) Justice Venkatachaliah
c) L.K. Advani
d) Justice B.N. Kirpal
Q.23 Under which provision of the Constitution, the Supreme court reviews its own judgments?
a) Article 132
b) Article 137
c) Article 139
d) Article 141
Q.24 What does the phrase “lex est norma recti” mean?
a) Law is a rule of right
b) Law rules the right

c) Law is a Rule of state
d) Law follows equity
Incorrect Correct Answer : a Your Answer : c
Q.25 Sachar Committee Report refers to

a) Reservation for minorities
b) Backwardness among the Muslim community
c) Judicial reform
d) Election reform
Incorrect Correct Answer : b Your Answer : c
Q.26 Press control of India is

a) Statutory body
b) Constitutional body
c) Self-regulatory body
d) Private Association
Q.27 Who said that democracy is a “government of the people, by the people and for the people”?
a) Abraham Lincoln
b) Woodlow Wilson
c) Aristotle
d) Plato
Q.28 The supreme court being the highest court of appeal, is the most superior judiciary, but the various High Courts exercise a jurisdiction
even wider than that of the Supreme Court under
a) Article 32 of the Constitution
b) Article 141 of the constitution
c) Article 164 of the constitution

d) Article 226 and 227 of the constitution.
Incorrect Correct Answer : d Your Answer : c
Q.29 Schedule X of the Constitution deals with

a) Law protection from judicial review of the courts
b) Disqualification on ground of defection

c) Union and its territory
d) Union, state and concurrent lists
Incorrect Correct Answer : b Your Answer : d
Q.30 Who amongst the following can attend the Session of the Parliament but has no right to vote?
a) Attorney-General for India
b) Comptroller-General of India

d) Chief of the Indian Army
Q.31 In India, right to vote is

a) Fundamental right
b) Statutory right
c) Constitutional right
d) Moral right
Q.32 Which of the following was merged with the Union of India on 16 May, 1975 to become 22nd State?
a) Sikkim
b) Goa
c) Pondicherry
d) Daman and Diu
Q.33 Who headed the First Backward Classes Commission, 1955

a) B.P. Mandal
b) Kaka Saheb Kalekar
c) M.H. Mandal
d) S.P. Mandal
Q.34 Who prepares National income estimates?

a) Central Statistical Organisation
b) National Sample Survey Organisation
c) Indian Statistical Institute
d) Planning Commission
Q.35 Who called Directive Principles as a “cheque on bank payable at the convenience of the bank”?
a) B.R. Ambedkar
b) H.M. Seervai
c) K.T. Shah
d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Q.36 The uniform Civil Code discussed at length in the case of

a) Golak Nath case
b) Keshvanand Bharti case

c) Shah Bano case
d) Indira Sawhney case
Q.37 What is the minimum age to be appointed as a governor of a State in India?

a) 25 yr
b) 35 yr
c) 21 yr
d) 18 yr
Q.38 What is the name of the first chief Justice of India?

a) B.N. Mukherjee
b) H.J. Kania
c) B.R. Ambedkar
d) Aslam Khan
Q.39 The Parliament has power to amend all parts of the Constitution except
a) Fundamental rights and duties
b) Emergency provisions
c) Provision regarding the Supreme Court
d) The basic Structure
Q.40 Guidelines issued by the Supreme Court are law and binding on all courts in India by virtue of
a) Article 141 of the constitution
b) Article 146 of the constitution

c) Article 147 of the Constitution
d) Article 144 of the constitution
Q.41 The right of minorities conferred in Article 30(1) of the constitution is with respect to the establishment of
a) Educational institution of their choice
b) Charitable hospitals and dispensaries

c) Place of worship to practice their religion
d) Rest houses
Q.42 The phrase ‘bona fide’ means

a) bad intention
b) All the facts and figures
c) without intention to deceive

d) For all practical purpose
Q.43 The supreme court has held that hoisting the national flag atop the private buildings is a fundamental right of every citizen under:
a) Article 14 of the Constitution
b) Article 19 (1) (a) of the Constitution
c) Article 21 of the Constitution
d) Article 25 of the Constitution
Q.44 Which one of the following statements is correct? Parliament can make a law with respect to a matter in the State list in the national
interest if
a) The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority
b) Parliament passes a resolution
c) On request of Governor of state
d) The president of India gives permission
Q.45 The procedure for amendment of the Indian constitution was borrowed from the
a) Constitution of USA
b) Constitution of USSR
c) Constitution of Germany
d) Constitution of South Africa
Q.46 The Writ of Prohibition can be issued to

a) Constitutional Authority
b) Statutory Authority
c) Non-Statutory Authority
d) All of the above
Q.47 The President is bound to summon Parliament

a) Within 6 months from the last sitting of former session
b) Within 3 months from the last sitting of former session
c) Within 4 months from the last sitting of former session
d) Within 12 months from the last sitting of former session
Q.48 When does Supreme Court gives advice to the President on a matter of law or facts?
a) Only when the president seeks such advise
b) On its own
c) Only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of India
d) Only if the matter relates to the violation of fundamental rights of the citizens
Q.49 The intelligence Bureau (IB) enjoys-

a) Constitutional status
b) Statutory status
c) Autonomous body under Parliament
Q.50 Which of the following is a correct pair?

a) United Nation organization 1946
b) Universal Declaration of Human Rights 1948

c) Constitutional of India 1951
d) World trade organization 1996
Q.51 What is the term used for the principles laid down in a judgment?
a) Obiter dicta
b) Ratio decidendi
c) Jus cogens
d) Interpretation
Q.52 Interpreting Articles 72 and 161 of the Constitution of India in relation to a criminal statute, a Bench of the Supreme Court of India,
headed by the Chief Justice of India, has, in a judgment dated 22.03.2010 held that:
a) The clemency power of the Executive is absolute, remains unfettered and cannot be restricted by the provisions of a Statute
b) Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, in so far as it criminalizes consensual sexual acts of adults in private is violative of the
Constitution of India
c) Once possession is established, the person who claims that it was not a conscious possession has to establish it
d) Both (a) and (c)
Q.53 Which High Court exercised jurisdiction over Delhi, prior to the establishment of the High Court of Delhi?
a) High Court of Gujarat
b) High Court of Punjab
c) High Court of Allahabad
d) High Court of Himachal Pradesh
Q.54 Which of the following bodies was instrumental in setting-up permanent and continuous Lok Adalat in Delhi, to resolve disputes
pertaining to bodies such as the M.C.D., N.D.M.C., B.S.E.S., N.D.P.L., M.T.N.L. etc.?
a) Delhi Legal Services Authority
b) Bar Council of India
c) Bar Association of Delhi
d) Indian Council of Arbitration

Q.55 Any proceedings for removal of a judge of any High Court in India may be initiated only by:
a) An order of the President of India
b) A notice of motion for presenting an address to the President, praying for the removal of a Judge,signed by requisite number of
members of the Parliament address by each house of the Parliament, supported by the requisite
c) Number of Members of Parliament
d) Constitution of a Committee for the purpose of making an investigation into the grounds on which the removal of the Judge is
prayed for
Q.56 In a Civil Writ Petition, a ‘stay’ may refer to:

a) A court order restraining an action until a future event occurs, or the order is lifted
b) A court order directing an individual to remain present during the court proceedings

c) A court order to compel the presence of a witness at a specified place, if the Court has a reason to believe that the person has
absconded
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.57 To provide affordable access to justice to the citizens of India at the grass roots level, at their doorsteps, a body was established by an
Act of the Parliament that came into force on 2nd October 2009. What this statutory body is called?
a) Nyaya Panchayat
b) Gram Nyayalaya
c) Gram Panchayat
d) Lok Adalat
Q.58 In case of death of both the President and Vice President of India, who shall act as the President of India?
a) Attorney General of India
b) Prime Minister

d) The Parliament will nominate from among its Members
Q.59 Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly in framing the Indian Constitution?
a) Sir B.N. Rao
b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Q.60 Parliament of India consists of:

a) Council of States
b) President, House of the People and Council of States

c) House of the People and Council of States
d) House of the People
Q.61 Power to summon the Houses of the Parliament is vested with:

a) President
b) Vice President
c) Prime Minister
d) Speaker and Vice President
Q.62 Under the Constitution of India the official language of the Union is:
a) Hindi in Devanagari Script
b) English and Hindi
c) Hindi
d) English
Q.63 Under the Constitution of India 'Right to Pollution Free Environment' has emerged as a fundamental right from the right to
a) Freedom of movement under Article 19
b) Equality under Article 14
c) Life and personal liberty under Article 21
d) Conserve culture under Article 29
Q.64 Under the Constitution of India restriction on freedom of religion cannot be placed on the ground of Question
a) Morality
b) Social justice
c) Health
d) Public order
Q.65 Which among the following was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the "heart and soul of the Constitution of India"?
a) Freedom of Religion
b) Right to Constitutional Remedies
c) Right to equality
d) Right to move throughout the territory of India
Q.66 Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV of the Constitution of India
a) Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
b) Organisation of village panchayats
c) Promotion of adult education
d) Promotion of International peace and security
Q.67 The object of which one of the following writs is to prevent a person to hold public office which he is not legally entitled to hold?
a) Mandamus
b) Quo warranto
c) Certiorari
d) Prohibition
Q.68 Which Indian State has prescribed minimum educational qualification for candidates contesting panchayat polls?
a) Gujarat
b) Kerala
c) Haryana
d) Punjab
Q.69 Which among the following does not belong to the 'right to freedom of religion'?
a) Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion
b) Freedom from attending religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions
c) Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion

d) Freedom of speech and expression
Q.70 ASSERTION: Every person should have the freedom of speech and expression.
Reason: If a person is stopped from speaking then mankind will lose the truth
OPTIONS:
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false bur R is true
Q.71 ASSERTION: In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.
REASON: The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.
OPTIONS:
d) A is false but R is true
Q.72 ASSERTION: The Council of Ministers at the centre is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
REASON: The members of both Lak Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to be ministers of the Union Government.
OPTIONS:
Q.73 ASSERTION: The reservation of thirty- three percent of seats for women in parliament and State Legislature does not require
Constitutional Amendment.
REASON: Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty- three percent of seat of seats they contest to women candidates
without any constitutional Amendment.
OPTIONS:

Q.74 ASSERTION: We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into India into a Democratic Republic.
REASON: A republic will ensure we have a head of state that is democratically elected and accountable to voters. As result the head of
state will be a more effective constitutional safeguard.
OPTIONS
Q.75 ASSERTION: Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January every year in the country.
REASON: The Constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950.
OPTIONS:
Q.76 The NDA led Government notified the ………………….and the National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, thus ending the over two-
decade-old…………………of appointing judge of Supreme Court and high courts. Under the new law, a six-member panel headed
by……………………………………….will select judges of the apex court and state high courts. But the 99th amendment has been Struck down
by Supreme Court of India as unconstitutional.
a) 99th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegiums system, the Chief Justice of India
b) 121st Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegiums system, the Union Law Minister
c) 121st Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegiums system, the Prime Minister
d) 99th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegiums system, the Prime Minister
Q.77 Choose the best option for the following statement:

No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since:
1. It will be violative of the right to freedom of speech and expression.
2. It will be violative of the right to freedom of conscience and practice & propagation of religion.
3. There is no legal provision obligation anyone to sing the National Anthem
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1,2 and 3 are correct
d) None is correct
Q.78 One can become judge of Supreme Court of India if he has been for five years ________________.
a) a member of Bar Council of India
b) a judge of any High Court in India
c) an advocate of High Court or District judge

d) An advocate of Supreme Court of India
Q.79 As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
a) Deputy Prime Minister
b) Former President
c) Governor of a state within his state
d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Explanation :
TABLE OF PRECEDENCE: REPUBLIC OF INDIA

1 President
2 Vice-President
3 Prime Minister
4 Governors of States within their respective States
5 Former Presidents
5A Deputy Prime Minister
Chief Justice of India

6
Speaker of Lok Sabha
Cabinet Ministers of the Union

Chief Ministers of States within their respective States
7 Deputy Chairman Planning commission (NITI Aayog)
Former Prime Ministers
Leaders of Opposition in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
7A Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
Ambassadors Extraordinary and Plenipotentiary and High Commissioners of Commonwealth

countries accredited to India
8
Chief Ministers of States (outside their respective States
Governors of States (outside their respective States)
9 Judges of Supreme Court
Chairperson of Union Public Service Commission

9A Chief Election Commissioner
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Deputy Chief Ministers of States
Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
10
Members of the Planning Commission
Ministers of State of the Union
National Security Advisor
Attorney General of India

Cabinet Secretary
11
Lieutenant Governors within their respective Union Territories
Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister
12 Chiefs of Staff holding the rank of full General or equivalent rank

● General of the Indian Army
● Air Chief Marshal of the Indian Air Force
● Admiral of the Indian navy
Q.80 Who administers oath of office to the Governor of a state?

a) President of India
b) Chief Justice of High Court of the respective state
d) Speaker of State Assembly
Incorrect Correct Answer : b Your Answer : d
Q.81 Governor of a state can make Laws during recess of State legislative Assembly through…………
a) Act
b) Bills
c) Notification
d) Ordinance
Q.82 Who called Indian Constitution as Quasi-Federal?

a) Austin
b) K.C. Wheare
c) H.M. Serai
d) Jennings
Q.83 President of India exercise his powers……………….

a) Either directly or through officers subordinate to him
b) Through ministers
c) Through Prime Minister

d) Through Cabinet
Q.84 Vote on accounts is meant for………………..

a) Vote on the report of CAG
b) To meet unforseen expenditure
c) Appropriating funds pending passing of budget
d) Budget
Q.85
PRINCIPLE: Caveat emptor, i.e., ‘let the buyer beware’ stands for the practical skill and judgment of the buyer in his choice of goods for
purchase. It is the business of the buyer to judge for himself that what he buys has its use and worth for him. Once bought, if the product
is not up to his expectations, then he alone is to blame and no one else.
FACTS: For the purpose of making uniform for the employees. ‘A’ bought dark blue coloured cloth from ‘B’, but did not disclose to the
seller (‘B’) the specific purpose of the said purchase. When uniforms were prepared and used by the employees, the cloth was found tp ne
unfit for uniforms. However, the cloth was fit for a variety of other purposes (such as, making caps, boots and carriage lining, etc.).
Applying the afore-stated principle, which of the following derivations is correct as regards remedy available to ‘A’ in the given situation?
a) ‘A’ (the buyer) would succeed in getting some remedy from ‘B’ (the seller)
b) ‘A’ (the buyer) would not succeed in getting any remedy from ‘B’ (the seller)
c) ‘A’ (the buyer) would succeed in getting refund from ‘B’ (the seller)
d) ‘A’ (the buyer) would succeed in getting a different variety of cloth from ‘B’ (the seller), but not the refund
Q.86 PRINCIPLE: The constitution of India guarantees the ‘right to life’, which means ‘right to live with human dignity’. The right to life under the
constitution, however, does not include the right to die.
FACTS: ‘M’ , who is 90, lives all alone as he has no family or children or grandchildren. He suffers from physical and mental distress, as
there is no one to look after him. He has little means to foot his medical expenses. Under these circumstances, he should be granted the
right to die with dignity because he does want to be a burden on the society. Further, as it is his life, he has a right to put an end to
it. Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
a) The prayer can be granted, as suicide is not an offence in India
b) The prayer can be granted, as the right to life under the Constitution includes the right to die
c) The prayer can be granted, as person cannot be forced to enjoy right to life to his detriment, disadvantage and disliking
d) The prayer cannot be granted, as the right to life under the constitution does not include the right to die
Q.87 PRINCIPLE: No communication made in good faith is an offence by reason of any harm to the person to whom it is made, if it is made for
the benefits of that person.
FACTS: ‘A’, a surgeon, in good faith, communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live. The patient dies in consequence of the
shock.
a) ‘A’ has committed the offence of causing death of his patient
b) ‘A’ has not committed the offence of causing death of his patient
c) ‘A’ has only partially committed the offence of causing death of his patient
Q.88 PRINCIPLE: whoever, being legally bound to furnish information on any subject to any public servant, as such, furnishes, as true,
information on the subject which he knows or has reason to believe to be false, has committed a punishable offence of furnishing false
information.
FACTS: Sawant, a landholder, knowing of the commission of a murder within the limits of his estate, willfully misinforms the Magistrate of
the district that the death has occurred by accident in consequence of the bite of a snake.
a) Sawant is not guilty of the offence of furnishing false information to the Magistrate
b) Sawant is guilty of the offence of furnishing false information to the Magistrate
c) Sawant is not legally bound to furbish true information to the Magistrate,
d) Sawant is guilty as the murder was committed within the limits of his estate.
Q.89 Proceedings for the violation of Fundamental right conferred in part III of the Constitution in Article 32 guarantees the right to move to
the
a) Supreme court
b) High court
c) District court
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.90 Under Article 226 of the Constitution, the jurisdiction is conferred

a) In the High Courts
b) In the Supreme Court
c) In the District courts
d) In any court
Q.91 Law passed by a Legislative body is called

a) Bill
b) Statute
c) Statue
d) Draft
Q.92 The oldest high court in India is

a) Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Allahabad
d) Kolkata
Q.93 The legal education in India is controlled by

a) Supreme court
b) Bar council of India
c) Bar federation of India
d) Ministry of Law and justice
Q.94 There are two classes of advocates in India

a) Advocate and Senior Advocate
b) Barristers and Solicitors

c) Lawyers and attorneys
d) Supreme court advocates and high court advocates
Q.95 In law, a person is presumed to be dead if he is not heard of as alive for

a) 5 years
b) 10 years
c) 7 years
d) 8 years
Q.96 A judge of the Supreme Court retires at the age of

a) 65
b) 62
c) 60
d) 68
Q.97 Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

a) Right to freedom
b) Right to equality
c) Right to property
d) Right to Constitutional Remedy
Q.98 Right to information is a

a) Statutory Right
b) Fundamental Right
c) Directive principle
d) Fundamental Duty
Q.99 A retired Judge of the High Court cannot

a) Practice in any Court in India
b) Practice in the High Court from where he has retired
c) Practice in any High Court in India
d) Practice in the Supreme Court
Q.100 In which of the following cases can a Constitutional Amendment be passed by a simple majority in Parliament?
a) Election matter
b) Change in the name of the states
c) Power of president
--- End of Sheet ---

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JURIS ACADEMY

Q.N Answer sheet of "Constitutional Law I" held on 04/01/2021

Incorrect Correct Answer : d Your Answer : b

c) Comptroller and Auditor-General

Incorrect Correct Answer : b Your Answer : a

b) Articles 48A of Constitution of India

d) Articles 50 of Constitution of India

Correct Correct Answer : b Your Answer : b

b) Attorney-general for India

c) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Incorrect Correct Answer : c Your Answer : b

Correct Correct Answer : d Your Answer : d

Incorrect Correct Answer : c Your Answer : d

Correct Correct Answer : b Your Answer : b

c) Chief Justice of India

d) Senior most judge of Supreme Court

Correct Correct Answer : d Your Answer : d

Q.9 A Lok Adalat is different from other courts:

b) Because the system is developed by the judges

c) Because the Parliamentry Act guides it

d) None of the above

Incorrect Correct Answer : a Your Answer : d

c) Apology that reduces punishment

Correct Correct Answer : a Your Answer : a

c) Deputy prime Minister

Correct Correct Answer : c Your Answer : c

Q.12 Income Tax in India is

Incorrect Correct Answer : c Your Answer : a

c) True only if the concerned Parliament and legislature is not in session

Incorrect Correct Answer : c Your Answer : a

Incorrect Correct Answer : c Your Answer : d

Q.16 Parliament can legislate on any subject in the State List

c) If the legislature of two or more States request it to do so for them

d) In all the above cases

Correct Correct Answer : d Your Answer : d

Q.17 In India, the “Right to free education” in Constitution emanates from

Correct Correct Answer : c Your Answer : c

b) National Rural Development Commission

c) National Commission for progress and Development

d) National research and Development Commission

Correct Correct Answer : a Your Answer : a

Q.19 Gram Nyayalaya Act, 2008 refers to

b) Informal settlement of disputes

c) Free legal services

Correct Correct Answer : a Your Answer : a

c) Any court or tribunal relating to armed forces

Incorrect Correct Answer : a Your Answer : b

Incorrect Correct Answer : b Your Answer : a

Incorrect Correct Answer : b Your Answer : a

b) Law rules the right

Incorrect Correct Answer : a Your Answer : c

Q.25 Sachar Committee Report refers to

Incorrect Correct Answer : b Your Answer : c

Q.26 Press control of India is

Incorrect Correct Answer : a Your Answer : b

c) Article 164 of the constitution

Incorrect Correct Answer : d Your Answer : c

Q.29 Schedule X of the Constitution deals with