Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Syllabus For BSNL TTA Exam
Syllabus For BSNL TTA Exam
BSNL recently published the advertisement regarding the recruitment of Telecom Technical Assistant. This is job of great responsibility.
BSNL TTA Exam Pattern : In order to clear the exam, you must know the exam pattern so that you can prepare accordingly. The selection
procedure is based on written test. Those who qualifies this will have to undergo medical test to be appointed. There are 3 papers in written
exam which are as follows :
1. Paper I : This is the General Ability Test. The test will be of 100 marks. The candidates have to attempt it in 2 hrs.
2. Paper II : The questions will be on Basic Engineering. The whole paper will be of 500 marks which has to be solved in 3 hrs.
3. Paper III : This is Specialization paper carrying 500 marks. So the time allotted will be 3 hrs.BSNL alsorecruits junior Accounts
Officer. you can look for the notification if interested.
Part I:
The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested thorough simple exercises such as
provision of antonyms and synonyms, fill in the blanks and multiple choice exercise etc. This shall also include questions
on current events & General knowledge and such matters of everyday observation and experience as may be expected of
Diploma holder.
Part II:
Applied Mathematics:
* Co-ordinate Geometry
* Vector Algebra
* Matrix and Determinates
* Deferential Calculus
* Integral Calculus
* Differential equation of second order
* Fourier Series
* Laplace Transform
* Complex Number
* Partial Differentiation.
Applied Physics:
* Electrostatics
* Coulomb’s law
* Electric field
* Gauss’s theorem
* Concept of potential differences
* Concept of capacitance an capacitors
* Ohm’s law
* Power and energy
* Kirchoffs voltage
* current laws and their applications in simple DC circuits
* Basic Magnetism
* Electro Magnetism
* Electromagnetic induction
* Concept of alternating voltage & current Cells and Batteries
* Voltage and Current Sources
* Thevenin’s theorem, Norton’s theorem and their applications.
Digital Techniques:
Part III:
1 . Electrical:
* 3 Phase VS
* Single-phase supply
* Star Delta connections
* Relation between phase & line voltage power factor and their measurements
* Construction and principles of working of various types of electrical measuring instruments. All types of motor and
generator AC & DC transformers
* starters
* rectifiers
* inverters battery charges
* batteries
* servo and stepper motors
* contactor control circuits
* switchgear
* relays
* protection devices and schemes
* substation
* protective relaying
* circuit breaker
* generator protection transformer protection feeder and lightening protection
* feeder & bus bar protection
* lightening arrestor
* earthing
* voltage stabilizer & regulators
* power control devices & circuits
* phase controlled rectifiers
* inverters
* choppers dual converters
* cycloconverters
* power electronics application in control of drivers
* refrigeration & air-conditioning.
2. Communication:
* Specifications of instruments-accuracy
* Precision
* Sensitivity
* Resolution range
* Errors in measurement and loading effect
* Principles of voltage current and resistance measurements
* Transducers
* measurement of displacement & strain
* forces & torque measuring devices
* pressure measuring devices
* flow measuring devices
* power control devices & circuits.
* Types of AC mili voltmeters.
* Amplifier rectifier and rectifier amplifier. Block diagram explanation of a basic CRO and a triggered sweep oscilloscope
* Front panel controls
* Impedance Bridges and Q - Meters.
* Principles of working and specifications of logic probes. Signature analyzer and logic analyzer
* signal generator
* distortion factor meter
* spectrum analyzer.
5. Control Systems:
6. Microprocessors:
7. Computers:
4. Duality is a
(a) Transformation in which current and voltages are interchanged
(b) Active sources become passive sources
(c) Passive sources become active sources
(d) Both (b) and (c)
5. Combined inductance of two inductors L1 and L2 connected and voltages are interchanged
(a) L1 + L2
(b) (L1 + L2)/ L1
(c) (L1 + L2) / (L1 X L2)
(d) (L1 X L2) / (L1 + L2)
7. Two voltage sources can be connected in parallel when they are equal in
(a) Magnitude
(b) Frequency
(c) Phase
(d) All the above
10. When two systems obey equations of the same form the systems are said to be
(a) Similar system
(b) Identical system
(c) Analogous system
(d) Digital system
15. When two port networks are connected in parallel the resultant
(a) Z parameters are the some of individual parameters
(b) Y- parameters are the some of individual parameters
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
17. A cascade connection of low pass filter and high pass filter is called
(a) Band pass filter
(b) Band elimination filter
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
20. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is called
(a) Universal circuit
(b) Reversible circuit
(c) Unilateral circuit
(d) Bilateral circuit
24. The voltage or current from the receiving end towards the sending end, decreasing in amplitude with increasing
distance from the load is called
(a) incident wave
(b) medium wave
(c) reflected wave
(d) none of above
31. In an network
(a) the number of tree branches is equal to the number of links
(b) the number of tree branches cannot be equal to the number of links
(c) the number of tree branches has no relation with the number of links branches
(d) none of these
34. The velocity factor for small widely spaced conductors such as open wire line in air is very nearly
(a) 0.66
(b) 0.98
(c) 0.82
(d) 0.76
35. Transmission of power to a load over a transmission line achieves optimum value when standing wave ratio (SWR)
becomes
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 10
36. The VSWR in a short circuited loss less transmission line equals
(a) infinity
(b) unity
(c) zero
(d) none of above
44. When a source is delivering maximum power to load, the efficiency of the circuit is always
(a) 50%
(b) 75%
(c) 100%
(d) None of above
45. In a linear network, when the ac input is doubled, the ac output becomes
(a) two times
(b) four times
(c) half
(d) one forth
47. Two resistances are connected in parallel and each dissipates 50 waits. The total power supplied by the source is
(a) 25 watts
(b) 50 watts
(c) 100 watts
(d) 200 watts
48. Three bulbs of 60 watts each are connected is parallel across 220v, 50 Hz supply. If one bulb burns out
(a) only remaining two will operate
(b) remaining two will not operate
(c) all of three will operate
(d) there will be heavy current from the supply
49. The amplitude of an audio signal is 10 and that of carrier wave is 50. Percentage modulation is:
(a) 0.2
(b) 20
(c) 5
(d) 60
• Co-ordinate Geometry
• Vector Algebra
• Deferential Calculus
• Integral Calculus
• Fourier Series
• Laplace Transform
• Complex Number
• Partial Differentiation.
Applied Physics:
• Waves
• Acoustics
• Ultrasonic
• Light
Basic Electricity:
• Electrostatics
• Coulomb's law
• Electric field
• Gauss's theorem
• Ohm's law
• Kirchoffs voltage
• Basic Magnetism
• Electro Magnetism
• Electromagnetic induction
• Electrical properties
• Magnetic materials
• Switches and connectors conventional representation of electric and electronic circuit elements.
• Semiconductor Diode
• Feedback in Amplifier
• Sinusoidal Oscillators
• Operational amplifier
• Motivation Circuit
Digital Techniques:
• Logic Gates
• Logic Simplification
• Counters
• Shift Register
• Memories
• 3 Phase VS
• Single-phase supply
• Construction and principles of working of various types of electrical measuring instruments. All types of motor and generator AC
& DC transformers
• starters
• rectifiers
• batteries
• switchgear
• relays
• substation
• protective relaying
• circuit breaker
• lightening arrestor
• earthing
• inverters
• cycloconverters
2. Communication:
• UART, USART
• Modem
• Microwave Engineering
• Microwave Devices
• Wave guides
• Microwave Components
• Microwave Antennas
• Microwave Communication Systems - Block diagram & Working principles of microwave communication link.
• Attenuations
• Filters
• Specifications of instruments-accuracy
• Precision
• Sensitivity
• Resolution range
• Transducers
• Amplifier rectifier and rectifier amplifier. Block diagram explanation of a basic CRO and a triggered sweep oscilloscope
• Principles of working and specifications of logic probes. Signature analyzer and logic analyzer
• signal generator
• spectrum analyzer.
5. Control Systems:
• Time lag
• Hysterisis
• Linearity concepts
• Relative stability
• Power plot
6. Microprocessors:
• Architecture of a Microprocessor
• concept of interrupt
• Data transfer techniques - sync data transfer, interrupt driven data transfer
• DMA
7. Computers:
• Types of computers
• Number system
• Data representation
• Memory organization
• Microprocessors-microprocessor architectures
• Network principles
• OSI model
• Database Management System-basic concepts entity relationship model relational model DBMS based on relational model.
A B X
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
(b)
A B X
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
(c)
A B X
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 0
1 1 1
(d) None of these
24. IC chip is usually made of
(a) Lead
(b) Silicon
(c) Chromium.
(d) None of these.
25. Below given network is connected to a 16 V battery with internal resistance of 1 O. What will be current drawn from the battery?
<image>
(a) 2 A
(b) 3 A
(c) 12/7 A
(d) 7/12 A
26.Determine the equivalent resistance of the following network:
<image>
(a) 6 O
(b) 12 O
(c) 3 O
(d) 9 O.
27. A Zener diode is
(a) Forward biased heavily doped silicon p-n junction
(b) Reversed biased heavily doped silicon p-n junction
(c) Forward biased diode operating at breakdown point
(d) Is used as rectifying device
28. Crystal oscillator is used when frequency required is
(a) High
(b) Low
(c) Constant
(d) Varying.
29. What is the energy in a quantum of radiation having a wave length of 5000 A?
(a) 3.98 x 10-19 J
(b) 3.98 x 10-9 J
(c) 2.9 x 10-19 J
(d) 7.9 x 10-19 J.
30. Which of these cannot store energy?
(a) Capacitor
(b) Inductor
(c) Resistance
(d) LC circuit.
31. A short bar of magnet placed with its axis at 300 with a uniform external magnetic field of 0.16 T experiences a torque of magnitude
0.032 J. What is the magnetic moment of the magnet?
(a) 0.40 JT-1
(b) 4.0 JT-1
(c) 0.04 JT-1
(d) 0.2 JT-1
32. The total force on a charge 'q' with velocity "V" in an electric field 'E' and magnetic field 'B' will be
(a) q (E + V x B)
(b) q(E + V.B)
(c) qE + VxB
(d) q(B + V x E)
33. The magnetic field B at the centre of a circular current loop of radius 'a' is given by
(a) B =µ0 I/2a
(b) B = µ0 I/a
(c) B = 2µ0 I/a
(d)B = µ0 a/2I
34. If f = x2 + 4xy + y2 + 9, then which of the following is not true:
(a) ?f/?x = 2x + 4y
(b) ?f/?y = 4x + 2y
(c) ?2f/?x2 = 2
(d) ?2f/?x?y = 4
35. A hollow metal ball 8 cm in diameter is given a charge of - 4 x 10-8 C. The potential on the surface of the ball is
(a) - 9000 V
(b) - 900 V
(c) - 90 V
(d) Zero.
36. The effective capacitance between X and Y is
<image>
(a) 8/3 µF
(b) 7/6 µF
(c) 5/6 µF
(d) 2 µF.
37. The amount of work done is joules in carrying a charge + Q alongwith path ABCD and back to A between two oppositely charged plates
is:
<image>
(a) Q
(b) 4Q
(c)Q/2
(d) Zero.
38. How many electrons are contained in 1C?
(a) 6.25 x 1018
(b) 6.25 x 1019
(c) 6.25 x 1020
(d) 6.25 x 1021
39. The phase angle between voltage and current in an a. c. circuit through a pure capacitance is
(a) 180°
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 0°
40. The permeability of a material is 0.998. It is:
(a) Diamagnetic
(b) Paramagnetic
(c) Ferromagnetic
(d) Anti ferromagnetic.
41. The ratio of the specific charge of an electron to that of a positron is
(a) 1:1
(b) 1:2
(c) 2:1
(d) 4:1.
42. With increase in temperature, the electrical conductivity of intrinsic semiconductor
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) First increases then decreases
(d) First decreases then increases.
43. In a common collector circuit, input resistance is:
(a) Very high
(b) Very low
(c) Zero
(d) Moderate.
44. A electron jumps from the 4th orbit to the 2nd orbit of hydrogen atom. If R = 107/m, the frequency of emitted radiations will be
(a) 3/16 x 105 Hz
(b) 3/16 x 1015 Hz
(c) 9/16 x 1015 Hz
(d) 3/4 x 1015 Hz.
45. I amu. equals
(a) 1.67 x 10-27 g
(b) 1.67 x 10-28 g
(c) 1.67 x 10-29 g
(d) 1.67 x 10-27 kg
46. A tuning fork produces 4 beats/sec both with 50 and 40 cms of a stretched wire of a sonometer. The frequency of the tuning fork is
(a) 36 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 90Hz
(d) 110 Hz
47. A particle is executing SHM with an amplitude 4 cm. At what displacement its energy is half kinetic and half potential
(a) 2v2cm
(b) v2 cm
(c) 2 cm
(d) 1 cm.
48. An electron moves with a constant velocity V parallel to the direction of uniform magnetic field 'B'. The force experienced by the electron
is
(a) BeV
(b) eV/B
(c)B/eV
(d) Zero.
49.A charged particle is moving along the axis of X. If an electric field is applied along the axis of Y, the motion of the particle in Y-Y plane
will be
(a) Elliptical
(b) Parabolic
(c) Circular
(d) Linear
50. An electric or magnetic field cannot accelerate
(a) Electrons
(b) Protons
(c) Neutrons
(d) Alpha particles
1. What is the name of the software that allows us to browse through web pages?
(a) Browser
(d) Messenger
(b) SYSID
(c) Process ID
(d) IP Address
(b) LIST???.
(c) RECOVER A:
(d) RENAME A:SAMPLE.TXT C:TEST.DOC
(a) CONTROL.INI
(b) MAIN.INI
(c) SYSTEM.INI
(d) SETTING.INI
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 16
(d) 32
(a) Printer
(b) Scanner
9. Which layer of OSI model is responsible for routing and flow control:
(a) Presentation
(b) Transport
(c) Network
(a) value
(b) reference
12. A data structure in which elements are added and removed from only one end, is known as:
(a) Array
(b) Stack
(c) Queue
(a) Entity
(b) Relationship
(c) Attribute
14. The principle means of identifying entities within an entity set is:
(b) Record
(c) Attribute
(d) Tuple
(a) Modulator
(b) Modulation
(c) Demodulator
(a) DOS
(b) Windows
(c) Unix
(a):1
(b) 0
(c) 1
20. Which type of commands in DOS needs additional files for their execution?
(c) When a table is read frequently and the data seldom changes
24. A company whishes to connect two sites in different parts of the country together. It is decided to use the telephone
(a) Router
(b) Modem
(c) Switch
(d) Hub
(c) A computer that stores files that are created by network users
(a) IPX/SPX
(b) NetBIOS/NetBEUI
(c) CDMA/CA
(d) TCP/IP
27. Which one of the following is not a Normal Forms (Normalization) rule with regards to the Relational Model?
(a) All fields within a table must relate to or directly describe the Primary Key.
(b) Repeating Groups must be eliminated from tables.
(c) Fields that can contain non-numeric data are to be removed and placed within their own tables with an associated
Primary Key.
(d) Redundant data is to be eliminated by placing the offending fields in another table.
28. Choose the answer which best describes the term Primary Key:
(a) The Primary Key is a field that contains data that can be duplicated.
(b) The Primary Key is a field that contains data that is unique.
(c) The Primary Key is a field that is never associated with any field in other tables.
(d) The Primary Key field is a concept used only in Microsoft Access.
(a) Compression
(b) Decompression
(c) Encryption
(d) Decryption
(a) 1 MB
(b) 2 MB
(c) 4 MB
(d) 8 MB
(a) 1000100
(b) 1100100
(c) 1000010
(d) 1000001
(a) One-to-One
(b) One-to-Many
(c) Many-to-One
(d) Many-to-Many
(a) 12 bits
(b) 24 bits
(c) 32 bits
(d) 48 bits
main ()
int sum=1;
for(;sum<=9;)
printf(%d\n, ++sum);
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
37. If c is a variable initialized to 1, how many times the following loop be executed:
c++;
(a) 59
(b) 60
(c) 61
38. The declaration void fun(int) indicates the fun is a function which:
(a) Bus
(b) Star
(c) Circle
(d) Tree
40. The overall logical structure of a database can be expressed graphically by:
(a) OR gate
(a) SROM
(b) DROM
(c) SRAM
(d) DRAM
43. The minimum number of bits required to represent numbers in the range:28 to +31 is-
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
(b) Registers
(c) ALU
(d) CPU
(d) 10 megabytes
47. The minimum number of bits required to store the hexadecimal number FF is:
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
48. Cache memory enhances:
49. A UPS:
50. An RDBMS is a:
• Sample Paper
1. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -
a) It is dimensionless
d)) None
3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel
4. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
a) C a V1/3
b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2
5. A superconductor is a-
a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
6. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of ?2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-
a) Thermistor
d) FET
d) None
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
a) Channel resistance
11. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -
a) 1010
b) 105
c) 10-4
d) 10-6
12. When biased correctly, a zener diode ?
d) never overheats
a) IC/IE
b) IC/IB
c) IB/IC
d) IB/IC
d) none
a) ohmic
b) bilateral
c) unilateral
d) both a and b
a) Pair of SCRs
b) Pair of four layer SCRs
d) Triac width
17. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ? 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in
a) 106/cm3
b) 103/ cm3
c) 1010/ cm3
d) 1012/ cm3
18. The statement ‘In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused
to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero? represents -
a) Kirchhoff’s law
b) Norton’s theorem
c) Thevenin’s theorem
d) Superposition theorem
19. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
a) z11z22 ? z12z21 = 1
b) h11h22 ? h12h21 = 1
c) AD ? BC = 1
d) y11y22 ? y12y21 = 1
21. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
a) balun
c) double stub
22. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the
a) by an LC network
23. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements ?
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C
24. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to ?
a) B
b) Z12
d) h12
25. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.
d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental
c) 90 ? 105 MHz
d) 30-70 MHz
27. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -
a) Inductive loading
b) Resistive loading
c) Capacitive loading
d) Shielding
28. The charachteristic impendance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -
a) 49 W
b) 60 W
c) 70 W
d) 140 W
30. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input
impedance will be ?
a) 25W
b) 50W
c) 100W
d) 150W
31. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ?f? in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-
32. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will
be -
a) 0.4456 0
b) 1.44560
c) 2.44560
d) 3.44560
a) Polystyrene
c) Paraboloid surfaces
b) PMMC
c) Electrostatic
d) Moving iron
35. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ?
c) bandwidth is large
d) none of these
a) causal
b) not causal
c) nothing can be said
d) none
a) time variant
b) active device
c) time invariant
a) pure metals
b) pure insulators
d) pure semiconductor
b) high pressures
d) fluid flow
42. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion ?
a) AC voltage controllers
b) Cyclo converters
d) Inverters
43. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from ?
c) on state to on state
44. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -
47. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding
a) Vs, P
b) Vs/2, P
c) 2Vs, 2P
d) 2Vs, P
c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages
d)an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages
b) remains constant
d) RC coupled stages
51. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because
a) Increase in ICEO
53. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then
a) 13. 3 KHz
b) 30KHz
c) 10KHz
d) 40KHz
a) is distortion free
a) greater speed
b) slower speed
c) average speed
a) Dt = N ? Fc
b) Dt = N ? 1/Fc
c) Dt = 1/N ? Fc
d) Dt = N ? 1/Fc
59. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be ?
a) y and 0
b) y and 1
c) 0 and y
d) 1 and y
a) a flip flop
b) a transistor acting as a capacitor
c) a transistor
d) a capacitance
a) 0111
b) 0101
c) 1000
d) 0001
c) a debouncer circuit
d) a-D- latch
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
a) is independent of frequency
65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -
a) ?200 dB/decade
b) ?240 dB/decade
c) ?230 dB/decade
d) ?320 dB/decade
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
67. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides ?
a) 24 hour orbit
b) stationary satellite
c) global communication
d) zero-gravity environs
a) space multiplexing
b) time multiplexing
c) frequency multiplexing
a) AND gates
b) Band pass
c) differentiation
d) Integration
71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-
a) FM generation only
c) PM generation only
74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-
b) a clipper
c) an integrator
d) a sawtooth current
a) Reforction of wave
b) Reflection of wave
c) Pierus through Inosphere
d) None
a) 600
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
a) Partition noise
b) Flicker noise
c) resistance
d) Short noise
a) capacitance
b) Inductance
c) Resistance
d) Is a linear device
a) Nicholas chart
b) Nyquist plot
c) Bode plot
d) Root locus.
83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-
a) ?5, 1
b) ?2.5, 1
c) ?5,0-5
d) ?5, 2
a) zero and 1
b) zero and 10
c) 10 and zero
d) 70 and 80
85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to ?
b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal
b) Antenna size
c) Coverage area
d) Antenna gain
a) horizontal blanking
b) vertical blanking
c) the serrations
88. The son seems to have ——– from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-
a) washed
b) inherited
c) admired
d) attempt
a) a flip flop
c) a transistor
d) a capacitance
a) 0111
b) 0101
c) 1000
d) 0001
c) a debouncer circuit
d) a-D- latch
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
a) is independent of frequency
65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -
a) ?200 dB/decade
b) ?240 dB/decade
c) ?230 dB/decade
d) ?320 dB/decade
66. Considering the conditions-
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
67. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides ?
a) 24 hour orbit
b) stationary satellite
c) global communication
d) zero-gravity environs
a) space multiplexing
b) time multiplexing
c) frequency multiplexing
a) AND gates
b) Band pass
c) differentiation
d) Integration
71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-
a) FM generation only
c) PM generation only
74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-
c) an integrator
d) a sawtooth current
a) Reforction of wave
b) Reflection of wave
d) None
a) 600
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
a) Partition noise
b) Flicker noise
c) resistance
d) Short noise
a) capacitance
b) Inductance
c) Resistance
d) Is a linear device
82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by ?
a) Nicholas chart
b) Nyquist plot
c) Bode plot
d) Root locus.
83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-
a) ?5, 1
b) ?2.5, 1
c) ?5,0-5
d) ?5, 2
a) zero and 1
b) zero and 10
c) 10 and zero
d) 70 and 80
85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to ?
b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal
a) EIRP
b) Antenna size
c) Coverage area
d) Antenna gain
a) horizontal blanking
b) vertical blanking
c) the serrations
88. The son seems to have ——– from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-
a) washed
b) inherited
c) admired
d) attempt
a) water
b) stone
c) air
d) hills
a) bunch
b) flock
c) herd
d) comet
91. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :
a) and
b) nor
c) either
d) neither
a) gentility
b) superiority
c) kindness
d) clarity
b) Ministry of Law
d) None of these
b) Emergency is declared
a) Becquerel
b) Madam Curie
c) Rutherford
d) Jenner
96. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-
a) 1995-2000
b) 1996-2001
c) 1997-2002
d) 1998-2003
97. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?
a) 5,000 MW
b) 10,000 MW
c) 15,000 MW
d) 20,000 MW
a) 1769
b) 1789
c) 1889
d) 1869
99. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?
100. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 9
d) 10