04/05/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 1 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Answer Key
1. (3) 37. (3) 73. (4) 109. (3) 145. (3)
2. (3) 38. (4) 74. (2) 110. (4) 146. (4)
3. (4) 39. (2) 75. (4) 111. (3) 147. (3)
4. (1) 40. (3) 76. (2) 112. (2) 148. (3)
5. (3) 41. (2) 77. (3) 113. (4) 149. (3)
6. (3) 42. (2) 78. (2) 114. (3) 150. (1)
7. (2) 43. (3) 79. (3) 115. (2) 151. (2)
8. (3) 44. (1) 80. (2) 116. (3) 152. (4)
9. (2) 45. (1) 81. (1) 117. (1) 153. (3)
10. (2) 46. (4) 82. (2) 118. (4) 154. (4)
11. (4) 47. (2) 83. (1) 119. (1) 155. (3)
12. (1) 48. (4) 84. (2) 120. (4) 156. (3)
13. (2) 49. (2) 85. (3) 121. (1) 157. (4)
14. (4) 50. (2) 86. (4) 122. (1) 158. (3)
15. (1) 51. (4) 87. (1) 123. (1) 159. (2)
16. (3) 52. (2) 88. (4) 124. (4) 160. (2)
17. (2) 53. (4) 89. (4) 125. (3) 161. (4)
18. (1) 54. (3) 90. (3) 126. (4) 162. (3)
19. (4) 55. (1) 91. (2) 127. (3) 163. (4)
20. (3) 56. (3) 92. (3) 128. (1) 164. (4)
21. (3) 57. (4) 93. (4) 129. (2) 165. (4)
22. (1) 58. (1) 94. (3) 130. (4) 166. (1)
23. (2) 59. (1) 95. (4) 131. (2) 167. (1)
24. (2) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (3) 168. (3)
25. (2) 61. (3) 97. (4) 133. (3) 169. (4)
26. (4) 62. (3) 98. (2) 134. (2) 170. (3)
27. (3) 63. (3) 99. (1) 135. (4) 171. (2)
28. (1) 64. (2) 100. (1) 136. (4) 172. (2)
29. (4) 65. (4) 101. (3) 137. (2) 173. (2)
30. (4) 66. (4) 102. (4) 138. (3) 174. (4)
31. (4) 67. (4) 103. (4) 139. (3) 175. (3)
32. (2) 68. (2) 104. (1) 140. (2) 176. (4)
33. (3) 69. (2) 105. (3) 141. (3) 177. (1)
34. (2) 70. (4) 106. (1) 142. (3) 178. (3)
35. (1) 71. (3) 107. (3) 143. (3) 179. (1)
36. (4) 72. (3) 108. (4) 144. (4) 180. (4)

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Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

04/05/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 1 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS
1. Answer (3) 2Ct = M0L0T0
v = 3 + 2t CT1 = M0L0T0
dx = vdt C = M0L0T–1
dx = (3 + 2t)dt dv
and = BC
∫=
dx ∫ (3 + 2t )dt v 3/2
[L1T −1 ]

3 = B[M0L0T–1]
2t  2
[L1T −1 ]3/2
xf − xi = 3t + 
 2 0
1 3
−
s = (3 × 3 + 32) – 0 B = [L 2 T 2 ]
s = 18 m 5. Answer (3)
2. Answer (3) Argument of trigonometric ratio is dimensionless
T = t1 + t2 = 17 s therefore βt2 = M0L0T0 ⇒ β =[M0L0 T −2 ]
t1 = 6 s
V0
1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th 7th 8th and F =
8.5
β
17th 16th 15th 14th 13th 12th 11th 10th V0
M1L1T–2 = 0 0 −2
t2 = 11 s MLT
Here acceleration is constant and body returns, V0 = M L T M0L0 T −2
1 1 −2

therefore initial velocity and acceleration must be

in opposite direction as shown above. Therefore = [M1L1T–4]
particle returns after 17 seconds. 6. Answer (3)
3. Answer (4) Current density
Slope of velocity-time graph is acceleration 7. Answer (2)
y
OP → slope negative
v
PQ → slope positive (5, 5)
QR → slope positive ac
x
RS → slope negative (0, 0)
4. Answer (1)
Power of exponential is dimensionless,

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

x2 + y 2 = r2 12. Answer (1)

Fcosθ
⇒ r = 50 = 5 2 N

( 10 )
θ
2
 u2 F
=
ac = = 2
r 5 2
θ Fsinθ
Resolve it into components to get in
θ
mgcosθ
 gs µN mg
m
a =−iˆ − jˆ
c
θ

8. Answer (3) Block begins to slide when

4 Fcosθ = mgsinθ + µN
If R = nH then tan θ =
n
Fcosθ = mgsinθ + µ(mgcosθ + Fsinθ)
tan θ1 4 2 1
So = × =
tan θ2 4 4 2 F(cosθ – µsinθ) = mg(sinθ + µcosθ)
9. Answer (2) mg (sin θ + µ cos θ)
F=
In case (I), acceleration of block in horizontal (cos θ − µ sin θ)
direction
13. Answer (2)
aI = (gsin30°) cos30° ...(1)
kxm
In case (II), acceleration of block in horizontal N
direction is acceleration of wedge.
aII = gtan30° ...(2) 10 kg

 aI  3
Ratio = 2
 a  cos= 30° 100 N
 II  4
Normal contact force is minimum when spring
10. Answer (2)
force is maximum.
F1 − F2 30
Acceleration =
a = = 5 m/s2 1 2
M 6 4 × 10 × xmax = kxm [∆K = 0]
2
Mass of 10 cm part of uniform rod.
6 kxm = 80 N
m= × 10 = 1.2 kg
50 Nmin = 100 – 80 = 20 N
Now,
14. Answer (4)
a

F2 T

10 cm
T – F2 = ma 2T
T = F2 + ma
= 10 + 1.2 × 5 = 16 N 2T T T
11. Answer (4) a1 a2
m1 m2
2
mω 2
=Tx (L − x 2 ) (2T + T) a1 = Ta2
2L
1 15. Answer (1)
T(x = =
0) mω2 L
2
From energy conservation U(x) = 16 J
T ( x = 0) L2 4
= = dU
T ( x = x ) (L − x 2 ) 1
2
and = 16 J/m
dx
⇒ 4L2 – 4x2 = L2 ⇒ 4x2 = 3L2
Hence U = 16x ⇒ 16 = 16x
3L
⇒ x= x=1m
2
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Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

16. Answer (3) =

vB u 2 − 4g 
Line of impact

θ − u 2 − 4g iˆ
Velocity v B = ...(2)
90 - θ
θ v Change in velocity
θ
ucosθ u θ
  
∆v =v B − v A =− u 2 − 4g i − uiˆ
Let particle strikes with speed u and moves
horizontally with speed v after the collision. 
∆v = u + u 2 − 4g 
Momentum is conserved along the plane.
20. Answer (3)
So vcosθ = usinθ ...(1) Fs = kx
and vcos(90 – θ) = eucosθ
or, vsinθ = eucosθ ...(2)
Dividing equation (2) by equation (1)
2 1
tan
= θ e cot θ ⇒=
e tan= θ tan2 30
= ° mg
3
17. Answer (2) From work-energy theorem.
After collision velocity of heavy block remains the 1 2
mgx = kx
same. 2
v1 2mg
8 m/s
x= ...(1)
k
Now,
Spring force at this instant
Relative velocity of separation = Relative velocity
of approach Fs = kx = 2mg ↑
⇒ 8 – v1 = (10 – 8) Fs − mg 2mg − mg
=a = = g upward
v1 = +6 m/s (in positive x direction) m m
21. Answer (3)
18. Answer (1)
vx = ux = 3 m/s
At the highest point, speed
v = 100 cos60° = 50 m/s horizontally 3
vy = euy = ×4 =3 m/s
Conservation of linear momentum. 4

2 × 50iˆ = 1× 100 ˆj + 1× v 2
Speed v = v x2 + v y2 = 3 2 m/s

⇒= v 2 100iˆ − 100 jˆ 22. Answer (1)
 ∂U
v 2 = 100 2 m/s Fx =
− −3
=
∂x
So kinetic energy of this part.
F
1 ⇒ ax = −3 m/s2
− x =
× 1× (100 2 ) = 104 J
2
= m
2
∂U
19. Answer (4) Fy =
− −4
=
B
∂y
− u 2 − 4g  i
⇒ ay = –4 m/s2
vx = axt = –3t; vy = ayt = –4t

v= v x2 + v y2 = 5t
uiˆ
A At t = 2 s, v = 5 × 2 = 10 m/s
Velocity at point A. 23. Answer (2)
= uiˆ ...(1) W = Pt = (∆m)gh
Speed at the highest point. 8000 × 60
2 2
⇒ =
( ∆m ) = 3200 kg
v= u − 4g 
B 10 × 15

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

24. Answer (2) 34. Answer (2)

Angle of repose θR = 45°
1 2
So block does not slide
3
fs = mgsin37° = 10 × = 6N m0 m1
5
25. Answer (2) m01 = m12 ...(i)
mg g
mg − = ma ⇒ a = ↓
2 2 1 2
26. Answer (4)
 
At the highest point F ⊥ v m2 m0
 
So P = F ⋅ v = 0
m21 = m02 ...(ii)
27. Answer (3)
  Dividing (i) by (ii)
Moment of force = r × F
= [L] × [MLT–2] ⇒ m02 = m1m2
= [M1L2T–2] ⇒ m0 = m1m2 = 4 × 9 = 6 kg
28. Answer (1)
Apply right hand thumb rule, thumb points the 35. Answer (1)
direction of angular velocity and the remaining Total initial angular momentum
fingers point the direction of rotation. = Total final angular momentum
29. Answer (4) 2I[+3ω] + I[–ω] = [2I + I]ωc
Moment of inertia does not depend upon the
5ω
speed of rotation. ∴ Common angular velocity, ωc =
3
30. Answer (4)
τ = rFsinθ 36. Answer (4)
For torque to be maximum, r should be more Mass of remaining portion
and θ = 90° 360° − 30° 11
= ×M = M
31. Answer (4) 360° 12
  
∫= ∫
2
τ= r ×F =I dmR R 2 dm
⇒ +kˆ =[ −iˆ] × [Fˆ ]
2  11  11 2
= R=  12 M  12 MR
∴ Fˆ = − jˆ
So, force is in the negative y-direction. 37. Answer (3)
32. Answer (2) y x
ωf − ωi 300 rev/min − 0
=α =
t 10 s
300 × 2π radian/60 s z
=
10 s Ma 2
IZ =
=π radian/s2 6
= 3.14 rad/s2 By symmetry
33. Answer (3)
Ix = Iy = I
Given θ = 2t3 – 3t2 – 4t – 5
Ix = Iy = Iz
dθ
=
ω = 6t 2 − 6t − 4
dt Ma 2
2I =
dω 6
=
α = 12t − 6
dt
Ma2
Now, α|t=1s = 12(1) – 6 = 6 rad/s2 I=
12
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Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

38. Answer (4) When separation becomes r by using energy

I = Icm + MR2 conservation
2 5 GMM 1 1
MK 2 = MR 2 + MR 2 = MR 2 − + Mv 2 + Mv 2 =
0
3 3 r 2 2
K2 5 5 GMM
⇒ =
⇒K = R Mv 2 =
R 2 3 3 r
39. Answer (2) GM
v=
ωf − ωi 22 − [ −18] r
=t =
α 2 44. Answer (1)
40 KE = |–total energy|
= = 20 s
2
1 2 2E
40. Answer (3) =
mv E ∴=
v
From energy conservation 2 m
-GMm 1 ∴ Angular momentum
( )−GMm
2
+ m gR = +K
R 2 3R L = mvr
2 2E 2
41. Answer (2) =m r
m
R
For maximum gravitational force x = ± = 2Emr 2
2
42. Answer (2) 45. Answer (1)
Gravitational potential energy
G 2M GM GM  2 
VP =− − =−  + + 1 U = + m0⋅potential at origin
3R R R  3 
5 GM  GM 
= − =+m0 ⋅  − 
3 R  R 
43. Answer (3) GMm0
Mv1 – Mv2 = 0 ∴ v1 = v2 = v U= −
R

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (4) 48. Answer (4)
h
de-Broglie equation, λ = Option (1) violates Aufbau principle as without
mv filling 2s completely, electrons are filled in 2p
v = constant
Option (2) violates Pauli’s exclusion principle as
1 an atomic orbital can accommodate 2 electrons
∴ λ∝
m with opposite spins
Correct order of masses : mα > mn > mp > me Option (3) violates Hund’s rule as spin of all
∴ Correct order of wavelength : λα < λn < λp < λe unpaired electron in 2p must be parallel.
47. Answer (2) Option (4) violates both Pauli’s exclusion principle
As ‘n’ increases the difference in energy between and Hund’s rule as there cannot be electrons of
successive orbits decreases. like spin in an atomic orbital and before filling 1
electron in each 2p AO, pairing cannot take
From n = 1 to n = 2, difference in energy,
place.
∆E = E2 – E1 = 10.2 eV
49. Answer (2)
From n = 1 to n = ∞, ∆E = E∞ – E1 = 0 – (–13.6) =
13.6 eV 1 mole Al2(SO4)3 contains 12 mol oxygen atom
∴ From n = 2 to any higher stationary state, ∆E ≤ ∴ 0.1 mole Al2(SO4)3 contains 1.2 mol oxygen
(13.6 – 10.2 = 3.4 eV).
atom
In option (1) and (4), energy is released.
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

50. Answer (2) 59. Answer (1)

Basicity of oxalic acid is 2 Electron affinity of halogens
Cl > F > Br > I
∴ E.A. of F is lower due to its very small size
60. Answer (4)
51. Answer (4)
In option (4), largest jump between 3rd and 4th IP.
X A 1000 61. Answer (3)
m
= ×
XB MB ‘S’ has more electron affinity than ‘O’.
0.2 1000 62. Answer (3)
m
= × 5π bonds and 19σ bonds
0.8 18
63. Answer (3)
m = 13.88
∆n Kc
52. Answer (2) = K p K c (RT ) ⇒= (RT )– ∆n
Kp
M1V1 = M2V2
100 × 1 = M2 × 500 Kc


1. N2 + O2 
 2NO,=
∆n 0, = 1
M2 = 0.2 M Kp

53. Answer (4) Kc



2. N2 + 3H2 
 2NH3=
, ∆n –2,= (RT )2
A + 2B → 2C Kp
5 8 Kc
1 2


3. PCl5 
 PCl3 + Cl2 , =
∆n 1, = (RT )–1
Kp
∴ B is L.R i.e B is completely consumed and 8
Kc
moles of C are obtained. 

4. 2HI 
 H2 + l2 , =
∆n 0, = 1
Kp
54. Answer (3)
C H 64. Answer (2)
1 1
80% 20% =pH
2
[pK=
a – logc ]
2
( )
– log 4 × 10 –4 – log ( 0.05 ) 

80 20
Moles → 1
12 1 = [ 4 – log 4 – log0.05]
6.66 20 2
= 2.35
6.66 20
Moles ratio → 65. Answer (4)
6.66 6.66 (pNH3 )(pH2S )
1 3 Kp =
1
∴ Empirical Formula ⇒ CH3 NH4HS (s) is not included in expression, so no
55. Answer (1) effect is observed
Urea (NH2 CONH2) 66. Answer (4)
12 NH2COONH4 (s)  2NH3 (g) + CO2 (g)
%C= × 100 =
20%
60 At eq. 2p p
56. Answer (3) Kp = (2p)2(p)
32 = 4p3 ⇒ p = 2
Total pressure, p = 2 × 2 + 2 = 6 atm
67. Answer (4)
 In isothermal process dT = 0 so ∆T = 0
57. Answer (4)  dU = nCvdT = 0 → ∆U = 0
n2  dH = nCpdT = 0 → ∆H = 0
=r 0.529 × Å 68. Answer (2)
Z
∆H – T∆S < 0
58. Answer (1)
∆H 55 × 1000
h T >= = 500 K
Orbital angular momentum = l(l + 1) ∆S 110
2π
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Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

69. Answer (2) 78. Answer (2)

Z>1 10 −14
(K b )NH
= 4 OH
= 10 −6
Vreal 10 −8
>1
Videal [NH+4 ] = 0.4 × 2 = 0.8 M
Vreal [NH4OH] = 0.8 M
>1
22.4 [salt]
pOH
= pK b + log
Vreal > 22.4 L. [base]
70. Answer (4) 0.8
− log10−6 + log
pOH = 6
=
In BrF3, hybridisation is sp3d [two lone pair and 0.8
3σ bond] pH = 14 − pOH = 14 − 6 = 8
F 79. Answer (3)
Br 

Ag2 CrO4 (s)  + 2−
 2Ag (aq.) + CrO4 (aq.)
F
F In the saturated solution of Ag2CrO4
⇒ Due to lone pair-bond pair repulsion, no [Ag+] = 1.5 × 10–4 mol/L
F–Br–F bond angle in it is equal to 90°.
2− 1.5 × 10−4
71. Answer (3) [CrO=
4 ] = 0.75 × 10−4 mol/L
2
Bond order ∝ Bond strength.
72. Answer (3) K sp = [Ag+ ]2 [CrO24− ] = (1.5 × 10−4 )2 × 0.75 × 10 −4
Due to presence of 3 lone pairs on Xe in XeF2, = 1.69 × 10–12 mol3/L3
shape is linear. 80. Answer (2)
73. Answer (4) Increase in gaseous moles makes ∆S positive.
81. Answer (1)
1
2C(g)  A(g) + 3B(g) K1 = …(i)
x
A(g) + D(g)  2E(g) K2 =
y …(ii)
74. Answer (2)
Polarising power of cation ∝ charge on cation. 3B(g) + 3D(g)  3F(g) z3 …(iii)
K3 =
75. Answer (4) Adding (i), (ii) and (iii)
Bond order of CO+ = 3.5 (Paramagnetic) yz3
2C(g) + 4D(g)  2E(g) + 3F(g), K=
Bond order of CO = 3 (Diamagnetic) x
Bond order of O2− = 1.5 (Paramagnetic) 82. Answer (2)
∆U = q + w
Bond order of O22− = 1 (Diamagnetic) q = +50 J, W = –Pext ∆V
Bond order of N2 = 3 (Diamagnetic) W = –2 × 0.8 = – 1.6 Litre atm = –162.11 J
Bond order of N2+ = 2.5 (Paramagnetic) ( 1 litre atm = 101.32 J)
76. Answer (2) ∆U = (+50) + (–162.11) = –112.11 J
PM 83. Answer (1)
Density of a gas = ; density ∝ P; density
RT  a 
1 P + 2  ( V − b) = RT
 V 
∝ .
T At low P, V is large
77. Answer (3) V −b ≈ V
pKw = – logKw = –log(6.4 × 10–13) = 12.194  a  a
P + 2  ( V ) =
RT ⇒ PV + =
V
RT
pH = pOH for neutral solution  V 
12.194 a
=pH = 6.097 PV
= RT −
2 V

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

84. Answer (2) 86. Answer (4)

15 W
C6H5 COOH(s) + O2 (g) → 7CO2 (g) + 3H2O(l) PV = RT
2 M
15 1
∆ng =−
7 = − WRT 0.6 × 0.0821× 300
2 2 =M = = 29.6 g/mol
PV 500
∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT 1×
1000
RT 87. Answer (1)
− x =∆E −
2 n1T1 = n2 T2
RT
∆E =− x + 4 3.2
2 × T= × (T + 125)
40 40
2 × 300 × 10 −3
=− x + T = 500 K
2
= –x + 0.3 88. Answer (4)
85. Answer (3) ∆H°c is only for one mole and complete
(i) T1 < T2 < T3 (correct) combustion.
(ii) T3 < T2 < T1 (correct) 89. Answer (4)
K Element : O S Te
(iii) P =
V EN : 3.5 2.5 2.01
logP =
− log V + logK 90. Answer (3)
↓ ↓ ↓ Molar entropy is intensive property, while entropy
y =( −1)x + c is extensive property.

BOTANY
91. Answer (2) 99. Answer (1)
Intercalary meristem and apical meristem are 100. Answer (1)
primary meristems. They appear early in life of Division-Angiospermae
plant and responsible for increasing the length of 101. Answer (3)
plants.
(b) Few similar characters
92. Answer (3)
102. Answer (4)
Collenchyma is a living mechanical tissue, having
Prokaryotic - two
no intercellular spaces.
Eukaryotic - four
93. Answer (4)
103. Answer (4)
Bulliform cells are present in upper epidermis of
104. Answer (1)
monocot leaves.
105. Answer (3)
94. Answer (3)
Methanogens are obligate anaerobe.
All tissues present outside the vascular cambium
constitute bark. 106. Answer (1)
95. Answer (4) F – b, c
Phloem fibres are absent in the primary phloem. P–d
96. Answer (3) A–a
Pith or medulla is small and inconspicuous in 107. Answer (3)
dicot root. Some marine dinoflagellates show
97. Answer (4) bioluminescence.
Mesophyll tissue of dicot leaves is differentiated 108. Answer (4)
as palisade parenchyma and spongy Toadstools - Basidiomycetes
parenchyma. 109. Answer (3)
98. Answer (2) 110. Answer (4)
Mule, sterile worker bee → not reproduce. Saccharomyces – Sac fungus.

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Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

111. Answer (3) 123. Answer (1)

112. Answer (2) Flowering plants + Gymnosperms → Seed
113. Answer (4) bearing plants.
124. Answer (4)
Ascomycetes – Fruiting bodies are seen.
During double fertilisation one male gamete fuses
114. Answer (3)
with diploid secondary nucleus.
115. Answer (2) Synergids and antipodals degenerate after
Non-flagellated male gametes are found in fertilisation.
Spirogyra and flagellated male gametes are 125. Answer (3)
found in Fucus. Brown algae possess the photosynthetic
116. Answer (3) pigments chl-a and chl-c and fucoxanthin.
Generally in algae haplontic life cycle is found but 126. Answer (4)
Fucus shows diplontic life cycle. 127. Answer (3)
117. Answer (1) 128. Answer (1)
Gemmae, haploid asexual bud which helps in Cymose inflorescence may have more than one
asexual reproduction of Marchantia. flower as in jasmine (Biparous cyme)
118. Answer (4) 129. Answer (2)
130. Answer (4)
Gametophytes in gymnosperms are dependent
on sporophytes. 131. Answer (2)
Liliaceae has actinomorphic flowers,
119. Answer (1)
endospermous seeds and cymose inflorescence.
In gymnosperms, endosperm represents female
132. Answer (3)
gametophyte.
Meristematic zone lies distal to elongation zone.
Rhizophore is seen in main plant body of
133. Answer (3)
Selaginella.
Trifolium – Pentamerous (Fabaceae)
120. Answer (4)
134. Answer (2)
Double fertilisation is seen in angiosperms. 135. Answer (4)
121. Answer (1) Phyllode - Australian Acacia
122. Answer (1) Phylloclade - Euphorbia

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (4) 142. Answer (3)
Protonephridia are also called flame cells in Echinus is an echinoderm
flatworms. Laccifer is an arthropod
137. Answer (2) Sepia is an mollusc
Hirudinaria is an ectoparasite. 143. Answer (3)
138. Answer (3) Both are annelids hence excretion occurs
Muscles, nerves, vertebrae in chordates through nephridia.
represent metamerism. (b) Leech is monoecious and shows direct
139. Answer (3) development. It has an open circulatory
Pennatula is sea pen. Chaetopleura is chiton. system whereas (a) Nereis has closed
140. Answer (2) circulatory system. It shows indirect
development through trochophore larva.
Medusae produce polyps asexually and Fasciola
has oral sucker for nutrient absorption. 144. Answer (4)
141. Answer (3) Ornithorhynchus is egg laying mammal.
Deuterostomes exhibit indeterminate, radial Mammary glands are present. Both animals
cleavage. Both protostomes and deuterostomes respire through lungs.
are triploblastic in nature. Macropus/Kangaroo, a marsupial, is viviparous.
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

145. Answer (3) 160. Answer (2)

Torpedo and Trygon are rays and in them Each ovary contains 8 ovarioles.
pectoral fins are not sharply demarcated from the
161. Answer (4)
body.
146. Answer (4) Anal styles are unjointed structures.

Clarias is a bony fish. 162. Answer (3)

147. Answer (3) Titillator is associated with left phallomere.
Spiracles are present on lateral sides of the
Petromyzon/Lamprey belongs to division body.
Agnatha and class cyclostomata which lack jaws.
163. Answer (4)
148. Answer (3)
Hippocampus belongs to osteichthyes. Phospholipids represent lipids whose percentage
Branchiostoma is a cephalochordate lchthyophis composition is 2% in living tissue.
does not have dry, cornified skin. 164. Answer (4)
149. Answer (3) Polynucleotides are macromolecules hence do
Pteropus is a flying mammal and does not have not appear in acid-soluble pool.
air sact to supplement respiration. 165. Answer (4)
150. Answer (1) In glycine, 'R' group is -H.
Neurons show excitability and conductivity. 166. Answer (1)
Extensibility is a feature of muscle fibres.
Three fatty acids get linked with -OH groups of
151. Answer (2)
glycerol by ester bond to form triglyceride by loss
These are characteristics of smooth muscle of 3 water molecules.
fibres.
167. Answer (1)
152. Answer (4)
Proteins are polymers of many different amino
Blood is fluid connective tissue acids which differ by their 'R' groups.
153. Answer (3) 168. Answer (3)
Epithelial tissue is avascular
Fibroin protein has secondary structure of beta-
154. Answer (4) pleated type. Insulin is not a polysaccharide.
Mucus is secreted by unicellular goblet cells 169. Answer (4)
(Exocrine)
Km is not affected in non-completive inhibition.
155. Answer (3)
170. Answer (3)
Gap junctions connect cytoplasm of adjacent
cells. Ligase belongs to class six.
Compound epithelium covers the moist surface 171. Answer (2)
of buccal cavity, pharynx and duct of salivary Zinc is a cofactor of carbonic anhydrase.
glands.
172. Answer (2)
156. Answer (3)
Parietal cells or oxyntic cells secrete intrinsic
Both tendons and ligaments are dense regular
factor which helps in absorption of Vit.B12.
connective tissues. Tendons are predominantly
composed of collagen fibres Salivary glands secrete amylase. Pancreatic
157. Answer (4) acini secrete trypsinogen while chief cells secrete
pepsinogen.
Macrophages are phagocytic in nature and
fibroblasts are fibre secreting cells. 173. Answer (2)
158. Answer (3) Indigestion can occur due to spicy food anxiety
Maxilla & mandible are paired appendages in etc.
cockroach. 174. Answer (4)
159. Answer (2) In oral cavity only 30% starch is digested and
Only a small part of nervous system is present in rest 70% of the starch is digested in small
head of cockroach. intestine.

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Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

175. Answer (3) 178. Answer (3)

Serosa is outermost layer & muscularis is formed Stomach secretes proenzymes / zymogens.
of smooth non-striated muscles. HCl is secreted by parietal cells. Pyloric part of
176. Answer (4) stomach opens into duodenum. Drugs and water
can be absorbed across gastric mucosa.
Nucleases act on nucleic acids. Their action
179. Answer (1)
produces fragments of nucleic acids that can’t be
absorbed. Adult humans have two sets of teeth, hence the
term diphyodont.
177. Answer (1)
180. Answer (4)
Hepatopancreatic duct carries bile juice as well Hepatic lobules and entire liver are covered by
as pancreatic juice. Glisson's capsule

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