Test Date CST-06

06-04-2020 Code-A

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

COMPLETE SYLLABUS TEST - 06

INSTRUCTIONS :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.
(vii) Answers to be marked on OMR sheet only

PHYSICS

1. In a new system of unit, unit of time is 10 s, unit of 4. A light rod of length  has point masses m1 and m2
mass is 5 kg and unit of length is 20 m. In this system attached to its 2 ends. The moment of inertia of the
unit of energy is equal to system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and
(1) 20 J passing through its centre of mass is
m1m2 2
1 (1) 
(2) J m1  m2
20
m1  m2 2
(3) 4 J (2) 
m1m2
(4) 16 J
2. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. m1m2 2
(3) 
It crosses a point at the height of 25 m twice at an m1  m2
interval of 4 s. The ball was thrown with the velocity
of 2
(4)  m1  m2 
2
(1) 20 m/s (2) 25 m/s
5. A uniform rod of mass m and length l is hinged at its
(3) 30 m/s (4) 35 m/s one end so that it can rotate freely in a vertical plane.
3. A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower If it is released from horizontal position, then
40 m high. The ball strikes the ground at a point acceleration of centre of mass of rod just after release
80 m from the bottom of the tower. Find the angle of rod equals to
that the velocity vector makes with the horizontal 3g 3g
just before the ball hits the ground. (1) (2)
4 2
(1) 45° (2) 90° 3g
(3) 3 g (4)
(3) 37° (4) 53° 5

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Complete Syllabus Test-06

6. A solid sphere of mass m and radius r is placed on 10. Three rods of identical cross-sectional area and made
top of the incline and it undergoes pure rolling, then from same metal from the sides of an isosceles
its speed at the bottom of the incline equals to triangle ABC right angles at B. The points A and B
are maintained at temperatures T and 2T
respectively, in the steady state. Assuming that only
h heat conduction takes place, temperature at point C

fixed is
A


10gh gh
(1) (2)
7 7
B C
5gh 4gh 3T T
(3) (4) (1) (2)
7 7 2 1 2 1
7. A cylindrical tube, open at both ends has fundamental T
(3) 3( 2  1) (4) T (2 2  1)
frequency ‘f’ in air. The tube is dipped vertically in
water so that half of it is in water. The fundamental
11. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A  B 
frequency of the air column is now
C  A as shown in the figure. If the net heat supplied
f 3f to the gas in the cycle is 5 J, the work done by the
(1) (2) gas in the process C  A is
2 4
3
(3) f (4) 2f v(m )
8. A sound wave of 40 cm wavelength enters the tube 2 C B
as shown. What must be the smallest radius r such
that a minimum will be produced at the detector?
1 A

P 10 (N/m2)
r (1) –5 J (2) –10 J
Source Detector
(3) –15 J (4) –20 J
(1) 15.5 cm (2) 16.5 cm 12. A gas is found to obey the law P2V = Constant. The
(3) 17.5 cm (4) 18.5 cm initial temperature and volume are T0 and V0. If the
gas expands to a volume 2V0, its final temperature
9. The spectra of a black body at temperatures 327°C
becomes
and 627°C are shown in the figure. If A1 and A2 be
the areas under the two curves respectively, the value T0
(1) 2T0 (2)
A2 2
of is
A1 T0
(3) 2T0 (4)
2
E
13. The charge per unit length of the four quadrant of the
ring of radius R is 2, –2, and – respectively. The
electric field at the centre is
627°C
Y
327°C
T
2 2

81 9
(1) (2) X
16 4 + C
+
+
27 16 +
(3) (4) ++
++
8 81
 
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 Complete Syllabus Test-06

    K1 K1  K2
(1)  i (2) i (1) x (2) x
20R 20R m 2m

2   j
K1  K2 K1  K2
(3)  i (4)  (3) x (4) x
4R 20R 4m m

14. In the circuit, the batteries have emf E1 = E2 = 1V, 18. A uniform chain of length l and mass m overhangs a
E3 = 2.5 V and the resistance R1 = 10 , R2 = 20 , smooth table with its two-third part lying on the table.
capacitance C = 10 F. The charge on the left plate Find the kinetic energy of the chain as it completely
of the capacitor C is slips off the table.
R1
4 2
E1 (1) mgl (2) mgl
9 9

1 5
E2 C (3) mgl (4) mgl
9 9
19. A heavy stone is thrown from a cliff of height h with a
E3 R2 speed v. The stone will hit the ground with maximum
(1) 2 C (2) –4 C speed if it is thrown
(3) –5 C (4) 12 C (1) Vertically downward
15. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged by a battery (2) Vertically upward
of emf . If polarity of battery is reversed then find the (3) Horizontally
heat dissipated in the circuit.
(4) The speed does not depend on the initial direction
C
20. A simple pendulum is oscillating with an angular
amplitude 90°. For what value of , the acceleration
of bob will be directed horizontally?



(1) C2 (2) 2C2
(3) 3C2 (4) 4C2 (1) 30° (2) 45°
16. In the circuit shown, the galvanometer shows zero  1 
current. The value of resistance R is (3) 60° (4) cos–1  
 3
12 V
G 21. The potential energy U versus position x curve of
5 spring mass system executing SHM is shown. If
2V
spring constant K = 2 × 104 N/m and mass of the
R object m = 2 kg, then which of the following is
incorrect?

U(J)
(1) 1 (2) 2
200
(3) 4 (4) 9
17. A block of mass m is attached to two unstretched 100
springs of spring constants K1 and K2 as shown in
figure. The block is displaced towards right through x(m)
a distance x and is released. Find the speed of the
block as it passes through the mean position shown. (1) Kmax = 200 J

K1 K2 (2) Amplitude = 10 cm
m (3) Maximum velocity = 10 m/s
(4) Maximum acceleration = 103 m/s2

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Complete Syllabus Test-06

22. At what temperature RMS velocity of O2 molecule d

will be one-third of H2 molecule at –3°C? (3) d  behind the mirror

(1) 90 K (2) –3°C d h
(4) d   behind the mirror
(3) 1167°C (4) 207°C  2
23. A body is projected from surface of earth with a 28. There is a small air bubble inside a glass sphere
velocity 2Ve where Ve is the escape velocity. The (= 1.5) of radius 10 cm. The bubble is 4.0 cm below
velocity of object when it escapes from gravitational the surface and is viewed normally from outside. Find
field of earth is the apparent depth of the bubble.
(1) 2Ve (2) 3 Ve (1) 3.1 cm from the surface
(2) 2 cm from the surface
(3) 7 Ve (4) 11Ve
(3) 4 cm from the surface
24. If a planet is revolving around the sun in circular orbit
(4) 1 cm from the surface
with force F –5/2 where  is radius, then square of
period is propotional to 29. What is the value of X for which image of point
object O coincides with itself?
(1) 7/4 (2) 7/2
(3) –7/2 (4) 3/2 X
25. If weight of container along with water is W1, then
reading of weighing machine will be

O
f = 10 cm
W2 15 cm f = 12 cm

(1) 3 cm (2) 4 cm
(3) 5 cm (4) 6 cm
(1) W1 + W2 (2) W1 – W2
30. A thin lens is made with a material having refractive
(3) <W1 + W2 (4) >W1 + W2 index = 1.5. Both the sides are convex. It is dipped
26. A cubical container is completely filled with water in water (= 1.33). It will behave like
with its top face open to atmosphere. If container is (1) A convergent lens (2) A divergent lens
accelerated horizontally with 5 m/s2, then find the
volume of water spills out (edge length of container (3) A rectangular slab (4) A prism
is 5 m) 31. The magnetic field at the origin due to a current
 
(1) 125 m3 (2) 100 m3 element Id  placed at a position r is
(3) 10 m3 (4) 31.25 m3    
0  dl  r 0  r  dl
27. A plane mirror is fixed at a height h above the bottom (1) (2)
4 r 3 4 r 3
of a beaker containing water (refractive index ) upto
a height d. Find the position of the image of the    
0  r  dl 0  dl  r
bottom formed by the mirror. (3) (4)
4 r 2 4 r 3
32. A square coil of edge length l having n turns carries
a current I. It is kept on a smooth horizontal plane. A
uniform magnetic field B exists in a direction parallel
h to an edge. The total mass of coil is m. What should
d be the minimum value of B for which the coil will
start toppling?

d mg mg
(1) h  d  behind the mirror (1) (2)
 n l 2 n l
d 2mg 4mg
(2) h  d  behind the mirror (3) (4)
 n l n l

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 Complete Syllabus Test-06

33. A compass needle which is allowed to move in a 39. A zener diode having Zener voltage equal to 15 V is
horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It used in voltage regulator circuit as shown. The current
(1) will stay in North-South direction only through the Zener diode is

(2) will stay in East-West direction only

(3) will become rigid showing no movement 20 V
(4) will stay in any position
34. In a series LCR sinusoidal AC circuit the source 5

voltage is measured as V = 200sin(100t + ) and (1) 20 mA (2) 5 mA
3
(3) 1 A (4) 15 mA
current in the circuit is measured as I = 10 sin(100t).
The rms value of wattless component of current is 40. A common emitter amplifier is designed with n–p–n
transistor (= 0.99). The base resistance is 1 k 
10 10
(1) (2) and load is 10 k. The voltage gain will be
2 2
(1) 9900 (2) 99
3 3 (3) 9.9 (4) 990
(3) (4) 5
2 2
41. Two radioactive sample decay constant are 15x and
35. The virtual current of 10 A and 100 Hz flows in an AC 3x. If they have same number of nuclei initially, the
circuit containing a coil. The power consumed in the 1
coil is 1000 watt. If the virtual voltage across the coil ratio of number of nuclei after a time is
6x
is 200 V, then its resistance will be
1 e
1 (1) (2)
(1)  (2) 10 e 2
5
(3) 10  (4) 5  1 1
(3) 4 (4)
e e2
36. In YDSE, the two slits are separated by 0.1 mm and
they are at 0.5 m distance from the screen. The 42. For a given transistor, = 100, VBE = 0.7 V. Find VCE
wavelength of light used is 5000 Å. The distance
between 7th maxima and 11th minima the screen 18V
(1) 8.75 mm (2) 4 mm 100 
(3) 6.32 mm (4) 5.8 mm
8.6 k C
37. Half life of a radioactive substance is 20 min. The B
time taken between 20% decay and 80% decay will
be
(1) 20 min (2) 40 min E
(3) 30 min (4) 25 min 5V
38. Find the readings of ideal ammeters A1 and A2,
shown in the figure (1) 13 V (2) 5 V
(3) 10 V (4) 8 V
10 
A1 43. The combination of the gates shown produces

A
2V
A2 Y
10 
(1) Zero, 0.2 A B
(2) 0.2 A, Zero
(3) Zero, Zero (1) NOR Gate (2) OR Gate
(4) 0.2 A, 0.2 A (3) AND Gate (4) NAND Gate
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Complete Syllabus Test-06

44. A bar of mass m and length  falls freely to slide 45. Electromagnetic radiations are incident on a surface,
over two ideal parallel conducting rails under gravity
such that only 50% of the incident radiation is
in the presence of uniform horizontal magnetic field.
The terminal velocity of the rod is absorbed. Radiation pressure due to EM wave is
R
I
X X X B (1)
C

X X X 2I
(2)
C

X  X X 3I
(3)
mgR 2mgR 2C
(1) (2)
B 22 B 2 2
mgR 4mgR 2I
(3) (4) (4)
2B 22 B 22 3C

CHEMISTRY

46. A compound used in making nylon, contains 51. Consider the reaction at 300K,
43.8% oxygen. There are four oxygen atoms per 15
C6H6 ( )  O2 (g)  6CO2 (g)  3H2 O( ); H  3271 kJ mol1
molecule. The molecule mass of the compound is 2
(1) 36 (2) 116 The U for the combustion of 1.5 mole of benzene
at 27°C is
(3) 292 (4) 146
(1) –3267.25 kJ (2) –4900.88 kJ
47. The correct order of total number of nodes of the
given atomic orbitals is: (3) –2394.77 kJ (4) –85.28 kJ

(1) 4f > 6s > 5d (2) 6s > 5d > 4f 


52. For the reaction CO(g) + Cl2(g) 
 COCl2(g),

(3) 4f > 5d > 6s (4) 5d > 4f > 6s Kc

the value of is equal to:
48. Xml of H 2 gas ef fuses through a hole in a Kp
container in 5 seconds. The time taken for the
effusion of the same volume of gas specified below (1) RT (2) RT
under identical condition is 1
(3) (4) (RT)2
(1) 10 sec : He (2) 20 sec : O2 RT
(3) 25 sec : CO (4) 55 sec : CO2 53. At a certain temperature, consider the following
reactions:
49. 5 mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally and


S(s) + O2(g) 
 SO2(g); Kc = 5  1052
irreversibly from 10 atm to 1 atm against a
constant external pressure of 1 atm. The work


2S(s) + 3O2(g) 
 2SO3(g); Kc = 1029
done at 300K is
(1) –15.921 kJ (2) –11.224 kJ The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction at the
same temperature is
(3) –110.83 kJ (4) –8.3 kJ


2SO2(g) + O2(g) 
 2SO3(g)
50. Which of the following conditions regarding a
chemical process ensures its spontaneity at all (1) 2.5 × 1076 (2) 4 × 1023
temperatures? (3) 4 × 10–77 (4) 6 × 10–23
(1) H > 0, G < 0 54. The Ka of C 6H 5OH is 10 –10. The pH of 0.1M
(2) H < 0, S > 0 C6H5ONa solution will be
(3) H < 0, S < 0 (1) 10.51 (2) 11.04

(4) H > 0, S < 0 (3) 11.50 (4) 12

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 Complete Syllabus Test-06

55. At what pH, Mg(OH)2 can be precipitated from 64. Xe and F2 (taken in 1 : 5 by mole) reacts at 873 K
0.01 M Mg(NO3)2(aq) solution at 25°C? temp. and 7bar pressure to give compound A. The
shape of A is:
(ksp for Mg(OH)2 = 4 × 10–10)
(1) Square Planar (2) Linear
(1) 4.3 (2) 9.2
(3) Distorted Octahedral (4) T–Shape
(3) 12 (4) 10.7
65. 4HCl + O2  2Cl2 + 2H2O. The above reaction is
56. 4 mole of a mixture of Mohr’s salt and Fe2(SO4)3 catalysed by
requires 500ml of 1M K 2Cr 2O 7 for complete (1) Cuprous Chloride (2) Vanadium Pentoxide
oxidation in acidic medium. The mole % of the (3) Nitric Oxide (4) Cupric Chloride
Mohr’s salt in the mixture is:
66. When borax is heated in a Bunsen burner flame with
(1) 25 (2) 50 CoO on a loop of platinum wire, a compound A is
(3) 60 (4) 75 formed. The colour and formula of the compound A
is
57. When anion leaves the normal lattice site and
electron occupies interstitial sites in its crystal (1) Green and Co(BO2)2 (2) Red and CoB2O3
lattice, it is called (3) Pink and Co(BO3)2 (4) Blue and Co(BO2)2
(1) Schottky defect (2) Frenkel defect 67. The IUPAC name of K3[AI(C2O4)3] is
(1) Potassium trioxalatoaluminium (III)
(3) Metal excess defect (4) Stoichiometric defect
(2) Tripotassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)
58. Two liquids A and B have PA0 and PB0 in the ratio (3) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)
1 : 3 and the ratio of number of moles of A and B (4) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (II)
in the liquid phase is 1 : 3, then mole fraction of
68. How many ions are produced from the complex
‘A’ in vapour phase will be
[Co(NH3)6]Cl2 in solution?
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 (1) 6 (2) 4
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.7 (3) 2 (4) 3
59. One gram of M 3+ ion was discharged by the 69. Among the following ions which one has highest
passage of 1.81 × 1023 electrons. What is the magnetic moment value?
atomic mass of metal? (1) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(1) 33.35 (2) 133.4 (3) [Zn(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Fe(CN)6]4–
(3) 66.7 (4) 10.03 70. Which of the following species does not exist?

60. The E0Au+ Au is 1.69V and E0Au3+ Au

is 1.40V, then (1) He+2 (2) Li2
E0Au+ Au3+
will be (3) Be2 (4) F2(–)
(1) 0.19 V (2) –2.945 V 71. During the process C2 C2– the electron has been
(3) –1.255 V (4) 1.255 V added to which of the following molecular orbital?
61. The rate constant for a chemical reaction takes (1)  (2) *
place at 500 K is expressed as K = Ae–1000. The (3)  (4) *
activation energy of the reaction is:
72. In which of the following all bond lengths are not
(1) 100 cal mol–1 (2) 1000 k cal mol–1 equal?
(3) 104 k cal mol–1 (4) 106 k cal mol–1 (1) XeF2 (2) XeF4
62. A first order reaction is 75% completed in 100 (3) SF4 (4) SF6
minutes. How long will take for 87.5% completion 73. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
of reaction? H2O2?
(1) 125 min (2) 150 min (1) It has a non-planar structure
(3) 175 min (4) 200 min (2) Dihedral angle in gas phase is more than that in
solid phase
63. Which of the following have highest coagulating
power for Fe(OH)3 colloid? (3) O–H bond length in gas phase is more than that
in solid phase
(1) PO3–
4 (2) SO2–
4 (4) O–O bond length in gas phase is more than that
(3) Ca 2+
(4) AI 3+ in solid phase

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Complete Syllabus Test-06

74. Which of the following hydrogen carbonates does (1) P > Q > R > S
not exist as a solid? (2) Q > P > R > S
(1) Ba(HCO3)2 (2) NaHCO3 (3) P > R > Q > S
(3) LiHCO3 (4) Mg(HCO3)2 (4) R > P > Q > S
75. The endothermic process among the following is 82. Which of the following species is heterocyclic and
(1) P + e(–)P(–) (2) O + 2e(–)  O2– aromatic?
(3) Na + e–  Na– (4) F + e(–)  F(–)

76. The maximum limit of Nitrate ion in drinking water
is (1) (2)
(1) 50 ppb (2) 50 ppm N

(3) 500 ppb (4) 500 ppm

77. The cationic detergent among the following is (3) (4)
O
(1) Sodium laurylsulphate
83. Cl2/h
(2) Detergent formed by reaction of stearic acid Products
with polyethyleneglycol
The number of monochlorinated products (including
(3) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide stereoisomers) which are possible in the above
(4) Sodium dodecylbenzenesulphonate reaction is
78. On treating Na2S with sodium nitroprusside, a violet (1) 5 (2) 4
coloured compound is formed. The formula of (3) 2 (4) 3
compound is:
(1) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] (2) Na4[Fe(H2O)5(NOS)] COOH
(3) Na2[Fe(H2O)5(NOS)] (4) Na2[Fe(CN)5(NOS)] Na, NH3(l)
84. O Major product
79. The correct IUPAC name of the f ollowing EtOH
compound is
OCH3 COOH COOH
Cl
(1) (2)

CH3 NH3

(1) 3–chloro–1–methylanisole
COOH COOH
(2) 3–chloro–4–methylanisole
(3) 4–methyl–3–chloroanisole
(3) (4)
(4) 2–chloro–4–methylanisole
80. In the compound CH2=CH–CH2–CH2–C  C–H, the 85. The correct order of reactivity towards SN2 reaction is?
pair of hybridised orbitals involved in the formation
of C2–C3 bond is:- Br Br Br Br
(1) sp–sp2 (2) sp–sp3 O O O O
(3) sp2–sp3 (4) sp3–sp3
OCH3 CH3 NO2
81. The acidic strength order of the f ollowing (P) (Q) (R) (S)
compounds is:
OH OH OH OH (1) Q > R > P > S
NO2
O O O O (2) R > Q > S > P
NO2 (3) P > Q > R > S
NO2
(P) (Q) (S) (4) S > P > R > Q
(R)
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 Complete Syllabus Test-06

OH 88. The isocyanide test is given by:

CHCl3 + aq.NaOH (i) NaOH (1) CH3–CH2–NH–CH3
86. O X +
Salicylaldehyde,
(ii) H NHCH 3
(2) O
intermediate X is:
ONa ONa CH2 NH2
CHO (3) O
(1) O (2) O
CHCl2 CH3
ONa ONa
CH2 –N–CH 3
CHCl2 (4) O
(3) O (4) O
CHO
89. The essential amino acid among the following is:
87. An organic compound A having molecular formula
C8H16O2 was hydrolysed with sulfuric acid to give (1) Glutamic acid (2) Aspartic acid
a carboxylic acid (B) and an alcohol (C). Oxidation (3) Valine (4) Proline
of (C) with chromic acid produced (B). (C) on
90. The monomers of Buna–N polymer is
dehydration gives but–1–ene. Select the incorrect
statement (1) CH2=CH–CH=CH2 and CH2=CH2
O (2) CH2= CH and CH2=CH–CH=CH2
(1) A is CH3–CH2–CH2–C–O–CH2–CH–CH3
CN
CH3
(2) B is CH3CH2CH2COOH (3) CH2= CH and CH2=CH– C =CH2

(3) C is CH3CH2CH2CH2OH CN Cl
(4) B evolves CO2 gas on reaction with NaHCO3 (4) CH2=CH–CH=CH2 and CH2=CH–C6H5

BOTANY

91. Select the number of correct statements given below 95. Read the statements given below and select the
(a) Cell wall in all prokaryotes is made up of correct ones w.r.t cyanobacteria
peptidoglycan a. They have chlorophyll a
(b) Bacteria as a group show the most extensive b. Heterocyst lacks PS I activities therefore CO2
metabolic activity fixation takes place in it
(c) Gas vacuoles are present in all bacteria and c. Heterocyst lacks PS II acivities therefore,
cyanobacteria nitrogen fixation takes place in it
(d) Cyanobacteria may form symbiotic association
d. They lack sexual reproduction
(1) 4 (2) 3
e. Red tide is caused by a cyanobacterium
(3) 2 (4) 1
(1) a, b, c, e (2) a, b, d, e
92. The cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan in
(3) a, c, d, e (4) a, c, d
(1) Bacteria (2) Cyanobacteria
96. Match the Column-I with Column-II and select the
(3) Archaebacteria (4) Both (1) and (2) correct option
93. Porin protein is absent in
Column-II Column-II
(1) Mitochondria
(a) Retting of fibres (i) Clostridium
(2) Plastids botulinum
(3) Outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria (b) Petroleum pollution (ii) Clostridium
(4) Mycoplasma control perfringens
94. The term ‘mesosome’ is associated with (c) Free living N2-fixing (iii) Klebsiella
(1) Yeast (2) Algae bacteria
(3) Bacteria (4) Diatom (d) Food poisoning (iv) Pseudomonas putida

(9)
Complete Syllabus Test-06

(1) (a)(iv), (b)(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(i) 104. Tyloses are/make

(2) (a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(iii), (d)(i) a. Tracheal plugs
(3) (a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(i), (d)(iii) b. Present in heart wood
(4) (a)(i), (b)(iv), (c)(iii), (d)(ii) c. Balloon-like swelling of xylem parenchyma
97. Select the correct statement w.r.t conidia d. Present in the lumen of tracheids
formation e. Wood nonfunctional for water conduction
a. Exogenous and arranged in acropetal (1) a, b, c, d, e (2) a, b, c, e
succession
(3) b, c, d, e (4) b, c, d
b. Exogenous and arranged in basipetal
105. How many properties are associated with active
succession
transport?
c. Endogenous and arranged in basipetal
a. Requires special membrane proteins
succession
b. Highly selective in nature
d. Common in Ascomycetes members
c. Transport saturates
e. Common in Deuteromycetes members
d. Requires ATP as source of energy
(1) a, b, e (2) b, d, e
e. Responds to protein inhibitors
(3) a, d, e (4) c, d, e
(1) a, b, c, d only (2) b, c, d, e only
98. The dikaryotic condition is represented as
(3) a, c, d, e only (4) All a, b, c, d, e
(1) 2n (2) 3n
106. At atmospheric temperature and pressure, water
(3) n (4) n + n
potential of pure water is
99. Prions include
(1) Can not be positive (2) Always negative
(1) ssRNA and proteins
(3) Lower than s (4) Zero
(2) Capsid and RNA
107. Epithem includes
(3) Wrongly folded proteins
(1) Loosely arranged epidermal cell layer in leaves
(4) dsRNA and carbohydrates
(2) Loosely arranged parenchyma cell inside the
100. W hich among the following plant has these lenticels in bark
characteristics-actinomorphic flower, hypogynous,
(3) Compactly arranged parenchyma cells below
syncarpous and parietal placentation?
the hydathodes
(1) China rose (2) Marigold (4) Loosely arranged parenchyma cells below the
(3) Brinjal (4) Mustard hydathodes
101. In Nepenthes, the coiled tendril like structure is the 108. During daytime, the opening of stomata involves?
modification of a. Influx of K+ions inside the guard cells
(1) Leaf base (2) Petiole b. Efflux of H+ions from the guard cells
(3) Lamina (4) Leaf apex c. Increase in the concentration of malic acid in
102. Seeds are edible parts in guard cells
(1) Mango (2) Banana d. Influx of Cl–ions inside the guard cells
(3) Apple (4) Coconut e. Efflux of Cl–ions outside the guard cells
103. In dicot stem, the oldest layer of primary xylem is (1) a, b, c and d (2) a, b, c and e
situated (3) a, c and d (4) a, b and d
(1) Close to the pith 109. The reduction of one molecule of atmospheric
(2) Outside the secondary xylem nitrogen (N2) into two molecules of ammonia by
nitrogenase enzyme requires
(3) Outside the cambium ring
(1) 4e–, 4h+, and 8ATP (2) 4e–, 4H+ and 16ATP
(4) Inside the primary phloem
(3) 8e–, 8H+ and 8ATP (4) 8e–, 8H+ and 16ATP

(10)
 Complete Syllabus Test-06

110. The f irst electron acceptor in cyclic (1) a & b only

photophosphorylation is
(2) a, b & c only
(1) PQ (2) PS-I
(3) a, b & d only
(3) NADPH+ (4) FeS
(4) b & d only
111. Formation of one molecule of sucrose by C3 cycle
will require 118. W hich plant growth regulator is involved in
(1) 12CO2, 12NADPH + H+ and 18ATP phototropic curvature?

(2) 12CO2, 24NADPH + H+ and 36ATP (1) Ethylene (2) Gibberellin

(3) 12CO2, 24NADPH + H+ and 24ATP (3) Cytokinin (4) Auxin
(4) 12CO2, 12NADPH + H+ and 24 ATP 119. Select the correct statement
112. In C4 plants, PEP carboxylase and RuBisCO (1) Apical dominance is inhibited by cytokinins
enzymes are present respectively in
(2) Gibberellin promotes seed dormancy
(1) Stroma and Grana
(3) Cytokinin induces -amylase activity
(2) Thylakoid and Stroma
(4) Auxins are involved in increasing shelf life of
(3) Cytosol and Stroma fruits and vegetables
(4) Stroma and Cytosol
120. In Penicillium, the chain of conidia is borne in/on
113. Which among the following is rarely a limiting factor
in photosynthesis? (1) Conidiophore, exogenously

(1) Light (2) CO2 (2) Sporangium, exogenously

(3) Temperature (4) Water (3) Sporangium, endogenously

114. The respiratory substrate in floating respiration is (4) Conidiophore, endogenously
(1) Carbohydrate and Proteins 121. The entry of pollen tube into the embryosac takes
(2) Proteins and Lipids place due to the chemo-attractant secreted by
(3) Lipids and Carbohydrates (1) Tapetum
(4) Lipid, Protein and Carbohydrate (2) Oosphere
115. In aerobic respiration, which of the following involves (3) Filiform apparatus
substrate level phosphorylation
(4) Antipodal
(1) Glycolysis
122. Mendel could not explain the phenomena of linkage
(2) Glycolysis and link reaction because he probably did not study the following
(3) Glycolysis and Krebs cycle combination of characters
(4) Glycolysis and ETS (1) Pod shape and plant height
116. Cytochrome c-oxidase complex contains (2) Pod colour and flower position
(1) Cytochromes a and a3 with two copper centres (3) Seed shape and seed colour
(2) Cytochromes a and a3 with single copper centre
(4) Plant height and flower colour
(3) Cytochromes b and c1 with two copper centres
123. The total number of pure lines prepared by Mendel
(4) Cytochromes a and a3 with two iron centres for his hybridization experinent in garden pea plant
117. Select the correct statement for seven characters were
(a) When a cell switches over from anaerobic to (1) 7 (2) 14
aerobic respiration, the amount of food
consumption will decrease in yeasts (3) 2 (4) 22

(b) In maturing fatty seeds, carbohydrates are 124. Heterogametes are produced by
converted into fats (1) Human female
(c) In germinating fatty seeds, fats are converted (2) Female grasshopper
into sugar by glycolysis
(3) Female Drosophila
(d) In germinating fatty seeds, fats are converted
into sugar by glyoxylate cycle (4) Female bird

(11)
Complete Syllabus Test-06

125. Translocation of a segment of long arm of 131. The propagation of large number of plants by tissue
chromosome number 22 to the chromosome culture technique is called
number 9 results into
(1) SCP
(1) Sickle cell anaemia
(2) Micropropagation
(2) Thallasemia
(3) Biofortification
(3) Myotonic dystrophy
(4) Selective breeding
(4) Chronic Myelogenous leukemia (CML)
126. In a person suffering from sickle-cell anaemia, the 132. Mass of bacteria associated with fungal filaments
template strand of sickle-cell Hb(s) gene has a which forms mesh like structure in Sewage treatment
specific nitrogenous base sequence that codes for plants (STPs) is called
valine amino acid. The base sequence on template (1) Sludge
strand is
(2) Inoculum
(1) 5’-CAC-3’
(3) Floc
(2) 5’-GAG-3’
(4) Activated sludge
(3) 3’-CAG-5’
133. The transition zone or overlapping zone between two
(4) 3’-CAC-5’ communities is called
127. Which among the following functions is/are incorrect (1) Edge effect
w.r.t DNA function?
(2) Ecoline
(a) Control of metabolism
(3) Ecotone
(b) Produces its replica
(4) Ecotype
(c) Undergoes mutation
134. Insectivorous plants occupy the trophic level
(d) Acts as enzyme
(1) T1
(1) a, c (2) a, d
(2) T4
(3) a, c (4) d
(3) T1 and T3 simultaneously
128. How many types of nucleotides are involved in DNA
replication? (4) T2 only
(1) 4 (2) 5 135. Select the correct option w.r.t relative contribution
of various green house gases to total global warming
(3) 6 (4) 8
in the given pie-chart.
129. In prokaryotes during DNA replication, which enzyme
has exonuclease activity in both 5’  3’ and C
3’  5’ directions? 6%
C
14% A
(1) DNA polymerase I 60%
B
(2) DNA polymerase II 20%
(3) DNA polymerase III
(4) Primase (1) A - Carbon dioxide, B - Methane, C = CFCs, D
= N2O
130. The number of genes present on the human -
‘‘Y’’- chromosome, is (2) A - Methane, B - CFCs, C = Carbon dioxide, D
(1) 321 = N2O

(2) 123 (3) A - Carbon dioxide, B - CFCs, C = Methane, D

= N2O
(3) 312
(4) A - Carbon dioxide, B - N2O, C = CFCs,
(4) 231 D = Methane
(12)
 Complete Syllabus Test-06

ZOOLOGY

136. Sebaceous gland secretion mainly contains 141. Select the incorrect match
(1) Amino acids and glucose (1) Alanine – Non essential amino acid
(2) Sterols and lactic acid (2) Myoglobin – Quaternary structure
(3) NaCl and wax (3) Diosgenin – Antifertility pill
(4) Sterols and hydrocarbons (4) Z-DNA – Left handed coiling
137. Select the correct match 142. Read the following
I II (A) Competitive inhibitor increases Km for a
(i) Loop of Henle (a) 70-80% given substrate
reabsorption (B) Protein portion of enzyme is apoenzyme
(ii) Collecting Duct (b) Conditional (C) Glycine is involved in formation of
reabsorption of Na+ Adrenaline
(iii) PCT (c) Renal medulla (D) Cyanide kills animal by inhibiting
(iv) DCT (d) Allows passage of cytochrome oxidase
urea (E) Nitrogen base in structure of B-DNA is
i ii iii iv perpendicular to backbone

(1) c d a b How many of the above are correct?

(2) d a c b (1) A only (2) A, B, D, E

(3) a b d c (3) A and D only (4) B and C only

(4) b c d a 143. Enamel is secreted by A which

are B in origin. Pick the correct option
138. Choose the correct statement
A B
(1) ADH deficiency leads to diabetes mellitus
(1) Odontoblasts Endodermal
(2) Kidneys produce urine more concentrated
than initial filtrate (2) Odontoblasts Ectodermal

(3) A healthy human produces 5L urine per (3) Ameloblasts Endodermal

day (4) Ameloblasts Ectodermal
(4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is 144. Choose the incorrect match
permeable to water
139. Fill the blank with correct option
______ is an inorganic cofactor present in
cytochrome oxidase. juices

(1) Cu++ (2) Mg++

Aggregations in ileum
(3) Co2+ (4) Ca2+
140. Read the following and choose the correct 145. Identify the statements as true (T) and
option false (F) and choose the correct option
A : Chitin is a homopolysaccharide A. Filiform papillae are the smallest papillae
B : Cellulose consists of -D glucose B. Epiglottis prevents the entry of food into
(1) A is correct B is wrong larynx
(2) A is wrong, B is correct C. Frenulum prevents tongue from falling
(3) Both A and B are correct backward

(4) Both A and B are wrong D. Circumvallate papillae do not contain taste
buds
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Complete Syllabus Test-06

A B C D 153. Oral contraceptives do not work by

(1) T T T F (1) Inhibition of ovulation
(2) F T T F (2) Changing the consistency of cervical
mucus
(3) T T T T
(3) Antagonistic action on gonadotropins
(4) F T T T
(4) Spermicidal action
146. Choose the correct statement
154. Choose the option which is incorrect for Cu
(1) All members of phylum echinodermata are
releasing IUDs
marine and parasitic
(1) Usually Effective for upto 7-8 years
(2) Bioluminescence is well marked in
cnidarians (2) Diffuses ionised copper at rate of
approximately 50 g/day
(3) Ctenophores are stricthy dioecious
(3) Release toxic cytokines
(4) Platyhelminthes possess organ level of
organisation and an incomplete digestive (4) Suppress sperm motility
tract 155. Select the incorrect match regarding
treatment of STI.
147. Vital capacity is
(1) Gonorrhoea – Ceftriaxone
(1) RV + TV + IRV (2) ERV + RV
(2) Genital warts – Tetracycline
(3) TV + ERV + RV (4) ERV + TV + IRV
(3) Trichomoniasis – Metronidazole
148. Chronic cigarette smoking leads to
(4) Genital Herpes – Acyclovir
(1) Pneumonia
156. Double coconut in Seychelles island is an
(2) Emphysema example of
(3) Pleurisy (1) Restricted distribution
(4) More than one option is correct (2) Discontinuous distribution
149.All are functions of Sertoli cells except (3) Adaptive radiation
(1) Formation of blood testis barrier (4) Lamarck’s theory
(2) Secretion of smegma 157. Select the incorrect feature for Neanderthal
(3) Secretes Anti Mullerian Factor man
(1) Slightly prognathous face
(4) Secretes Androgen Binding Protein
(2) True predator
150. Release of sperm from seminiferous tubule is
(3) Adapted to cold environment
(1) Spermiogenesis (2) Spermiation
(4) Knuckle walker
(3) Spermatogenesis (4) Spermiostasis
158. Treatment for allergy include administration of
151. Labia majora is homologous to ____ of males.
(1) Antihistamine, Penicillin, Adrenaline
Choose the option that fills in the blank
(2) Antihistamine, Adrenaline, Cortisol
correctly.
(3) Antihistamine, Penicillin, Steroid
(1) Clitoris (2) Penile urethra
(4) Antihistamine and Tetracycline
(3) Prepuce (4) Scrotum
159. Which is not used in treatment of cancer?
152. Which of the following is true for luteal phase?
(1) -Interferon (2) I 131
(1) FSH stimulates follicular growth
(3) Aflatoxin (4) Vincristine
(2) LH causes cells of ruptured follicle to form
160. The protein coat around the core of HIV is
corpus luteum made of
(3) LH surge induces rupture of Graafian (1) GP41 (2) P17
follicle
(3) P24 (4) GP120
(4) Menstrual flow lasts for 3-4 days.
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 Complete Syllabus Test-06

161. Hepatitis A virus has A and B capsid 168. The ions essential for cardiac muscle
A B contraction are
(1) ss RNA non enveloped (1) Na+, Ca++ (2) K+, Cl–
(2) ds RNA non enveloped (3) Mg++, K+ (4) Mg2+, Na+
(3) ss RNA enveloped 169. W hich is not the character of red skeletal
(4) dsDNA enveloped muscle fibres?
162. Select the correct match (1) It has high number of mitochondria
(1) Gravidex Test – Plague (2) It works for short duration
(2) Mantoux Test – Tuberculosis (3) It has high myoglobin content
(3) VDRL – Cholera (4) It carries out aerobic oxidation
(4) WIDAL – Syphilis 170. Genu and splenium are the parts of
163. How does a bactrial cell protect its own DNA
(1) Medulla oblongata (2) Corpus callosum
from restriction enzyme?
(3) Cerebellum (4) Vermis
(1) By adding methyl group to its own DNA
(2) By reinforcing bacterial DNA structure with 171. Free nerve endings of skin receptors in
covalent phosphodiester bonds humans are concerned with sense of
(3) By adding histones to protect the double (1) Pain (2) Balance
stranded DNA (3) Chemicals (4) Pressure
(4) By forming “sticky end” of bacterial DNA to 172. Destruction of ___I___ secreting ___II___ of
prevent the enzyme from attaching.
substantia nigra leads to Parkinson’s disease
164. Choose the odd one out w.r.t method of gene
Column I Column II
transfer
(1) GABA Superior colliculi
(1) DNA microinjection
(2) Dopamine Inferior colliculi
(2) RNA interference
(3) GABA Pars compacta
(3) Retrovirus mediated gene transfer
(4) Dopamine Pars compacta
(4) Gene gun
173.The hormone that is given to induce labour by
165. Which step proved to be the main challenging
obstacle in the production of human insulin by the doctors is
genetic engineering? (1) Prolactin (2) Progestin
(1) Removal of C-peptide from active insulin (3) Pitocin (4) Vasopressin
(2) Getting polypeptides assembled into 174. Which of the following does not occur during
mature form diabetes insipidus?
(3) Addition of C-peptide to pro insulin (1) Volume of urine is increased
(4) Splitting A and B polypeptide chains (2) Glucose level in urine remains normal
166. Bone formed by ossification of tendon is (3) Volume of urine increases along with its
(1) Sesamoid bone glucose content
(2) Replacing bone (4) Extreme thirst and colourless urine
(3) Dermal bone 175. Phase between closure of AV valve and
opening of semilunar valve is
(4) Membranous bone
(1) Isovolumetric contraction
167. Contraction of muscle of shortest duration is
seen in (2) Isovolumetric relaxation
(1) Jaws (2) Eyelids (3) Aneurysm
(3) Heart (4) Intestine (4) Heart murmur

(15)
Complete Syllabus Test-06

176. Match the following and choose the correct 178. Shifting of oxygen-haemoglobin curve towards
option right is due to
A B (1) Low temperature

(a) Somatostatin (i) R e l e a s e s (2) High partial pressure of O2

bicarbonate in (3) Low partial pressure of CO2
pancreatic juice (4) Hight H+ concentration
(b) Enterogastrone (ii) Stimulates crypts of 179. Read the following statements and choose the
lieberkuhn to release correct options
enzymes in Statement A : Salivary glands are stimulated
pancreatic juice to secrete saliva by parasympathetic
(c) Enterocrinin (iii) Slows gastric innervation.
contraction Statement B : K+ is required for activation of
salivary amylase.
(d) Secretin (iv) Suppresses release
of hormones from (1) Only statement A is correct
pancreas (2) Only statement B is correct
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (3) Both statements are correct
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) Both statements are incorrect
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 180. Read the following statements
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (a) Lacteals release absorbed fats into blood
stream
177. Choose the correct sequence during
(b) Thromboplastin converts inactive
expiration
prothrombin into thrombin
(i) Pressure increases in pulmonary cavity
(c) Leucocytes are capable of diapedesis
(ii) Volume of thoracic cavity decreases
(d) RBCs contain carbonic anhydrase which
(iii) Expulsion of air from high pressure to low helps in O2 transport
pressure (e) Tunica media is thin in arteries but thick in
(iv) Decrease in volume of pulmonary cavity veins
(1) i  ii  iii  iv (f) Average pulse pressure is 40 mm Hg

(2) iv  i  iii  ii How many of the above statements are

correct?
(3) ii  iv  i  iii
(1) Two (2) Five
(4) iii  iv  i  ii
(3) Four (4) Three



(16)
 Complete Syllabus Test-06

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

COMPLETE SYLLABUS TEST - 06

ANSWERS

1. (1) 37. (2) 73. (3) 109. (4) 145. (1)

2. (3) 38. (1) 74. (3) 110. (4) 146. (4)
3. (1) 39. (3) 75. (2) 111. (2) 147. (4)
4. (1) 40. (4) 76. (2) 112. (3) 148. (2)
5. (1) 41. (4) 77. (3) 113. (4) 149. (2)
6. (1) 42. (1) 78. (1) 114. (3) 150. (2)
7. (3) 43. (2) 79. (4) 115. (3) 151. (4)
8. (3) 44. (1) 80. (3) 116. (1) 152. (2)
9. (1) 45. (3) 81. (4) 117. (3) 153. (4)
10. (1) 46. (4) 82. (2) 118. (4) 154. (1)
11. (1) 47. (2) 83. (4) 119. (1) 155. (2)
12. (1) 48. (2) 84. (2) 120. (1) 156. (1)
13. (1) 49. (2) 85. (4) 121. (3) 157. (4)
14. (3) 50. (2) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (2)
15. (2) 51. (2) 87. (1) 123. (2) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (2) 88. (3) 124. (4) 160. (3)
17. (4) 53. (3) 89. (3) 125. (4) 161. (1)
18. (1) 54. (3) 90. (2) 126. (4) 162. (2)
19. (4) 55. (4) 91. (3) 127. (4) 163. (1)
20. (4) 56. (4) 92. (4) 128. (1) 164. (2)
21. (1) 57. (3) 93. (4) 129. (1) 165. (2)
22. (4) 58. (1) 94. (3) 130. (4) 166. (1)
23. (2) 59. (4) 95. (4) 131. (2) 167. (2)
24. (2) 60. (3) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (1)
25. (3) 61. (2) 97. (2) 133. (3) 169. (2)
26. (4) 62. (2) 98. (4) 134. (3) 170. (2)
27. (2) 63. (1) 99. (3) 135. (1) 171. (1)
28. (1) 64. (1) 100. (4) 136. (4) 172. (4)
29. (4) 65. (4) 101. (2) 137. (1) 173. (3)
30. (1) 66. (4) 102. (4) 138. (2) 174. (3)
31. (4) 67. (3) 103. (1) 139. (1) 175. (1)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (2) 140. (3) 176. (2)
33. (4) 69. (2) 105. (4) 141. (2) 177. (3)
34. (4) 70. (3) 106. (4) 142. (2) 178. (4)
35. (3) 71. (1) 107. (4) 143. (4) 179. (1)
36. (1) 72. (3) 108. (4) 144. (3) 180. (4)
(17)
Complete Syllabus Test-06

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

COMPLETE SYLLABUS TEST - 06

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. Answer (1) 3. Answer (1)

 Energy = M L2 T–2 = Joule

u
Energy = (5M)(20L)2 (10T)–2Joule vy
40 m h  tan  = u
Energy = 5 × 400.(10)–2.ML2 T–2
R u
Energy = 20 Joule
80 m 
2. Answer (3) vy v

v=0 C
2 2
 v y  uy  2gh
v
t = t1 t = t2 v y2  0  2  10  40
B B
v
u h hmax
t =0 u v y2  800
A A

Vy  20 2 m/s
Considering B  C  B

2v 2h
(Range) R  80m  u  t  u
 If u.  t2  t1   g g

2v 80
4 u
g 8

4g 10 8  u  u  20 2 m/s
v  20 m s
2
vy 20 2
For A  B tan    1
u 20 2
v2 = u2 – 2gh
(20)2 = u2 – 2.10 × 25  = 45°

400 + 500 = u2
u = 30 m/s

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 Complete Syllabus Test-06

4. Answer (1) 6. Answer (1)

f
V = 0 m, r
m1 m2
CM

r1 r2
h
S


m2  r1  r2  m2 l B
 r1  
 m1  m2   1  m2 
m
 mgsin – f = m × aC.M …(i)
m1l
r2  C.M  r  f
 1  m2 
m
IC.M   r  f …(ii)
 IC.M  m1r12  m2 r2 2
aC.M  r  …(iii)

 m2l 2   2 2  Solving – (i), (ii) & (iii)

IC.M  m1  2   m2  m1 l 
2
 m  m    (m  m ) 
2
 1 2   1 2  g sin 
aC.M. 
I
1  C.M
m1m2 l 2  m2  m1  mr 2
IC.M 
 m1  m2 2  For A  B

VB2  u 2  2aC.MS
2
m1m2 l
IC.M 
 m1  m2   h 
VB2  0  2aC.M  
 sin  

5. Answer (1) 2gh

VB2 
Icm
O CM 1
Mr 2
l/2
mg 2gh
VB 
Icm
1
l Mr 2
0  mg
2
2 2
 Icm  Mr
mgl 5
I0  
2
10 gh
mgl  VB 
 7
(I0 = ml2/3)
2  ml 2 / 3
7. Answer (3)
3g Without water

2l
v
 f 
l 3g 2l
a 
2 4 With water

(19)
Complete Syllabus Test-06

v v
f 
4l  l 
4 
KA.  2T  T    KA. T   T 
2 l 2l

v
f f 2T  2T   T   T
2l
8. Answer (3) 3T
T
  = 40 cm 2 1
if path different is x 11. Answer (1)
x = r –2r
3
V(M )
 22 
 r    2  r   2
7  C B
2
8 
x  r   1 A
7 

 8  10 P

 r .  x  for min inmum 
2 7 2 
 Q = U + W
r  17.5 cm
For cyclic process U = 0
9. Answer (1)
 Q  W  WC  A  WAB  WB C
E is Spectral emissive power
5 = WC  A   2  1  10  0
 ET4
E Area (A) 5 –10 = W C  A
 A T4 –5J = W C  A
4 4
12. Answer (1)
A2 T2   627  273 
     PV = Constant
A1  T1   327  273 
For Polytropic Proucess
4 4 PVN = Constant …(i)
A2  900  3 81
     PV  T
A1  600  2 16
T
10. Answer (1) P …(ii)
V
From equation (i) & (ii)
T
A
TVN – 1 = Constant

Tf Vf N 1  TiViN 1
2l
l
N 1
v 
Tf  Ti  i  …(iii)
2T T  vt 
B l C
In given question P2V = Constant

Heat Current is H PV 1 2 = Constant

 HBC = HCA
1
 N
2

(20)
 Complete Syllabus Test-06

From equation (iii)

2 K  2 
 E …(i)
1
1
R
 Vi  2
Tf  Ti  
Vf 

1 2
V 
Tf  Ti  i 
 Vf 

V 
Tf  T0  0 
 2V0 
E 2
Tf  2 T0
X
13. Answer (1) Enet
E 2
Y

B E
dl  Rd  ENet  2  
R 2
d
A X From equation …(i)
Ex   dq  dl  Rd 
Ey
dE  
 2 K 2  
ENet  2 
 R 
 E x   dE cos , E y   dE sin   2 

kdq kdq 2k 
Ex   cos , Ey   sin  -=
2
R R2 R

K K 
Ex  .R  d  cos , E y  R  d  sin  ENet 
2 2 2 0 R
R R

K 2   ˆ
Ex  cos d 
R o
E i
2 0 R

K 14. Answer (3)

Ex 
R In steady state:

K  2 1V
Similarly, E y  sin d 
R o
10 
C D
I
K 1V C
Ey  B – +
R E
V0
2.5V I
– + 20 
E  E x2  E yZ A F

2 K In a Loop A  B  C  D  E  F
E
R
 2.5  1 1.5 1
I   A
  2 30 30 20

(21)
Complete Syllabus Test-06

 VFA  E  I .r In ABCD

12
1 I
= 2.5   20 5R
20
VAB = 2V
VFA  1.5 V  V0  1 V
I.R = 2
 V0  0.5 V
 12 
 5  R . R  2
 q  CV0  

q = 10 × 0.5 12R  10  2R
q = 5C 10R = 10
On Left Plate q = –5C R = 1
15. Answer (2) 17. Answer (4)
q q q=q
+ – + – i

 (A)



q q = qf
– + k1 2 k2 2
Ei  x  x
2 2
q = C vC (B)

m 2
Ef  V
For (A) to (B) 2

q  qf  qi  2q Ef  Ei

Work by battery WB  q .
 k1  k2 
V x
 2q. m

18. Answer (1)

 2 C   .

WB  2C 2

q2 q2
Ui  & Uf   U  O
2C 2c

 WB  U  H
H  Heat dissipted
m
 2C 2  H  U  0  mass of CB 
3
16. Answer (1)
m l
Ui   g
I=0 3  6 
I 12V
G D
A 5
2V mgl
Ui  
R 18

I mgl
C Uf  
B 2
(22)
 Complete Syllabus Test-06

 1 1 a V2 / l V2
U  Uf  Ui  mgl    tan   c   …(i)
 18 2  at g sin  gl sin 

 8  By conservation of Energy
U  mgl  
 18  EB = EA

4mgl mv 2
U   mgh  mgl cos 
9 2
U  K  0
V 2  2gl cos 
K  U From equation (i)
4 2gl cos 
K  mgl tan  
9 gl sin 
19. Answer (4)
tan2   2
By conservation of energy kinetic energy is
independent of direction of projected velocity. tan   2
m 2 1
 V  mgh  mV02 1
2 2  cos  
3
 V0 is in independint of 
 1 
   cos 1  
V
 3

21. Answer (1)
h

U (J)
Ground
Vo 200

20. Answer (4)

100
X
l A
o
90  Kmax. = E – Umin. …(i)
a h
T h = Icos &
ac B

Umax. = E – Kmin. …(ii)

v at 
g gcos m
 K min   (0)2  0
2
ac Centripetal Occeleration  Umax = E (E is mechanical energy)…(iii)
at  Tangential Occeleration from equation (iii)

V2 E  Umax 
K 2
A  100
 ac     g sin 
2
l

ac K 2
100  A
2


at 200 200
 A2  
K 20  104

(23)
Complete Syllabus Test-06

A2 = 10–2
m mv 2
A= 10–1 m = 10 cm (4Ve2 )  mgR 
2 2
From equation (i) & (iii)
4Ve2 – Ve2 = V2
Kmax. = 200 – 100
3Ve2 = V2
m 2
Vmax  K max  100 J 3Ve  V
2
24. Answer (2)
2 200 200  F  –5/2
V max    100
m 2
 F provides centripetal force
Vmax = 10 m/s
mv 2
  –5/2
K 
 |a|max = A2 = 0.10 ×
m 5
 1
v2   2

2  10 4
|a|max = 0.10 
2 v 2   3/2

|a|max = 103 v   3 /4
22. Answer (4) .2
 v  w 
T
3RT 3RT 
VO2   v
MO2 32
T

3R.270 
VH2  T
2  3/ 4

T  3/4
VH2
 VO2  [T 7/4]
3
[T2 7/2]
VH22 25. Answer (3)
VO22 
9

FS Fth
3RT 3R  270

32 2.9
W2

270  32
T 
18 N Fth

T = 480 K W1

T = 480 – 273 For W 2

T = 207°C FS + Fth = W 2
23. Answer (2) Fth = W 2 – FS …(i)
By conservation of energy For weighing machine
Ei = Ef N = Fth + W 1

m GMm m 2 N = (W 2 – Fs) + W 1
(2Ve )2   V 0
2 R 2 N = (W 2 + W 1) – FS
 N < (W 2 + W 1)
(24)
 Complete Syllabus Test-06

26. Answer (4) 27. Answer (2)

(h – d) (h – d)
h d d aap.
a

 distance of object as bottom of container from

mirror is O = h – d + dapp.
a
d
O  hd 
Vinitial = a.a2 = a3 = (5)3 = 125 m2 

 distance of image
A

 d
a0  I O  hd 
a
B   
C
g a0
behind the mirror.
E D
28. Answer (1)

a0 5 1 2
tan    
g 10 2 u
O R
1
AB C
 tan  
BC

AB = BC tan
 CD = a – AB 1 2
CD = a – BCtan
 2 1   2  1 
CD = a – atan   
v u  R 
1 5
CD = 5 5   m 1.0 1.5 (1  1.5)
2 2  
v 4 10
Vf = (Area of ACDE) × a
1 1.5 0.5
  AE  CD    
Vf    aa v 4 10
 2  
 a 1 3 1
a  2  2  
Vf   a v 8 20
 2 
  1 1 3
 
3a 2 3 3 3 v 20 8
Vf  .a  a   125 m3
4 4 4
1 2  15
 3 
 V  Vi  Vf   1   .125 v 40
 4
1 13
1 
V   125 m3 v 40
4
V = 31.25 m3 40
 v   3.1 cm
This is the volume which will spill out. 13

(25)
Complete Syllabus Test-06

29. Answer (4) 31. Answer (4)

L M
x

O
 
 o I dl  R 
15 cm  dB  …(i)
4 R3
f = 10 cm f = 12 cm

For lens (L) In this expression R is the position vector of point

1 1 1 P from element dl . But in this question position
  
v u f vector of element is r from origin.
 
1 1 1  Rr
 
v 15 10 From equation (i)

1 1 1  
 
v 10 15
  I dl  r 
dB  0
 
4 R3
1 1

v 30  
 0 I dl  r 
v  30 cm dB  
4 R 3
To retrace its path light should incident at the
centre of curvature of mirror (M) 32. Answer (2)
x
I

B
/2

O C
mg
6 cm 24 cm
 B  MB sin   MB sin 90

30 cm
 X = 6 cm B ( nIA )B  nIl 2B

30. Answer (1)

Turque due to weight
In air
l
g  r mg  mg
1 1 1  2
  ( g  1)   
f0 R
 1 R2 
For Toppling
In liquid
B  g
1 1 1
 ( l  g  1)    mgl
fl  R1 R2  nI l 2 B 
2
mg
1  g  l  1 1 B
     2nI l
f0  g   R1 R2 
mg
If g > l  No change in nature of lens.  Bminimum = 2nI l
 It will behave like a convergent lens in liquid.

(26)
 Complete Syllabus Test-06

33. Answer (4) 37. Answer (2)

Campass needle measure horizontal magnetic Half life T = 20min.
field. But at geomagnetic pole horizontal magnetic For 20% decay
field is zero. So it will stay in any position.
34. Answer (4) t1
 1 T
N  N0  
2

t1
 1 T
80% N0  N0  
 2
t1
 1 T
0.8    …(i)
2
Wattless current is I = Io Sin
For 80% decay
Io sin 
 rms value Irms  t2
2 20  1 T
N0  N0  
100 2
10 sin  / 3
Irms 
2 t2
 1 T
0.2    …(ii)
3  2
Irms 5
2
From equation (i)/(ii)
35. Answer (3) t1t2
Irms = 10 A & f = 100 Hz 0.8  1  T
 
0.2  2 
P = Vr ms Ir ms cos  …(i)
t1t2 
R 2
 Vrms  Irms Z & cos   2 2 T
Z

 From equation (i)  t1  t2 

2
2 T
P I rms R
t2 – t1 = 2T
1000 = (10)2 R
 40 min.
R = 10 
38. Answer (1)
36. Answer (1)
For Bright fringe

nD 7D
Y7  Yn  
d d
For Dark fringe

 2n  1 D  2.11  1 D
Y11  Yn  
2d 2d  Diode D is in riverse Biaging. so no Current
from A1
7D  In loop ABCD
Y  Y11  Y7 
2d
2
Y = 8.75 mm I  0.2 A
10

 Reading of A2 is 0.2 A.

(27)
Complete Syllabus Test-06

39. Answer (3) 42. Answer (1)

VCC = 18 V

100 
IC
C
RB = 8.6 K  B
2
IB IE

E
For 5 VBB =5V C

5
I 1A
5
In a loop 1
40. Answer (4)
–IBRB – VBE + VBB = 0
For C.E amplifier ()
VBB = IB RB + VBE …(i)
For C.B amplifier ()
5 V = IB × 8.6×103 + 0.7 V
 0.99
  
1   1  0.99 4.3
 103  IB
8.6
 = 99

R 0.5 mA = IB
 Voltage gain A v   . 0
Ri
IC
   IC  IB  100  0.5 mA
10.k  IB
= 99.
1k 
IC = 50 mA
Av = 990 In a loop 2
41. Answer (4)
VCC – IC RL – VCE = 0
1t
N1  N0e VCC = IC RL + VCE
18 = 50 × 10–3 ×100 + VCE
N2  N0 e 2t
18 = 5 + VCE
N1
 e 2 1
  t 13 V = VCE
N2
43. Answer (2)

1
N1  3 x 15 x  
e 6x
N2

1
 12 x 
e 6x

N1
 e 2
N2
 Y=A+B
1
N1 OR Gate
 e2
N2
(28)
 Complete Syllabus Test-06

44. Answer (1) 46. Answer (4)

This is concept of minimum molecular mass in
case of macromolecules.
R 43.8 g oxygen is present in = 100 g compound
F = IlB X 100
1 g is present in = g
B 43.8
l
100 64
(4 × 16) g is present in = ×
mg 43.8 1
= 146.1 g
= Molecular Mass
At equilibrum 47. Answer (2)
anet = 0 Total no. of nodes =n–1
Where ‘n’ is principal Quantum number.
Fnet = 0
So, total nodes in 4f = 4 – 1 = 3
F = mg in 5d= 5 – 1 = 4
IIB = mg in 6s= 6 – 1 = 5
48. Answer (2)
e According to Graham’s law of diffusion/effusion
lB  mg
R 1
Rate of effusion 
 e = BVl (Induced Motional emf) Molecular weight
Simply by substituting values :
 BVl  t H2
lB  mg 2
R 
t gas X

So, tgas is 20 sec when X is 32.

B2V l 2
 mg 49. Answer (2)
R
Work done during isothermal and irreversible expansion
= – Pext (V2 – V1)
mgR
V 
B 2l 2  nRT nRT 
=–  P  P 
 2 1 
45. Answer (3)
= –11.2 KJ (1 L atm = 101.3 J)
 Radiation pressure
50. Answer (2)
I A chemical process is always spontaneous when
P [For perfectly absorbed surface]
C H < 0
S > 0
I  I  As under such conditions G < 0 at all
P [For perfectly reflected surface] temperatures. (G = H -TS)
C
51. For 1 mole of benzene, using balanced given
Similarly equation, U will be :
U = H – ngRT

 I  3 8.314 300 
I   = –3271 –    
2  2 1000 1 
P  [For 50% absorbed surface]
C = –3271 + 3.7413
= –3267.3 KJ
3I For 1.5 mole of benzene = – 326.3 × 1.5
P = – 4900.88 KJ
2C

(29)
Complete Syllabus Test-06

52. Answer (2)

kP = kC(RT)n = Me q
n  factor
kC 1 1 3000
 
kP (RT)n (RT)–1 = RT =
1
Millimoles

= 3 moles
 n  nP  nR 
=1–2 3 100
% age of mohr’s salt   = 7.5%
= –1 4 1
53. Answer (3) 57. Answer (3)



eq. (i) S  O2 
 SO2 A+ B– A+ B–


 – + – +
eq. (ii) 2S  3O2 
 2SO2 B A e A

Multiply eq. (i) with 2 and subtract from eq. (ii) and Metal excess defect


we get eq. 2SO2  O2  58. Answer (1)
 2SO3
For vapour phase, PA = PTYA
1 1 Where PA is V.P of A
So, kC  1029  1075
2
25 PT is V.P of mixture
5 10  52
YA is mole freaction A in vapour phase
= 4 × 10–77 P PA0 X A  PB0 XB
T1
54. Answer (3) So, Y  P  Using Raoult's law 
A A PA0 X A
As phenol is weak acid and NaOH is strong base
comparatively. 1 P0 X
 1  B0 B
1 YA PA X A
So, pH  7  pKa  logC
2
3 3
1  1   
pH  7  10  log10 1   1 1
2 
=1+9
1 = 10
 7  10  1
2
1
= 7 + 4.5 = 11.5 YA 
10
55. Answer (4)
= 0.1
For precipitation, Ionic Product > Ksp
59. Answer (4)
2
Ksp Mg(OH)2 = Mg2   OH M3   3e  M
3moles 1mole
2
4 × 10–10 = 10  2
 OH Applying unitary method
1.81 × 1023 electrons discharge = 1 g
2
 OH  4  10 8 1
1 electron  g
1.81 1023
 OH  2  10 4
3 × 6.02 × 1023 electrons = 9.98 g
14 10 g
H   10  H  OH  1014 at 25°C 60. Answer (3)
  2  104
(1) Au+ + e–  Au ... G10
pH  – log H  (2) Au3+ + 3e–  Au ... G02
56. Answer (4) Subtract eq (2) from eq (1), we get:
K2Cr2O7 will oxidise Mohr’s salt only (3) Au+  Au3+ + 2e– ... G03
meq(K Cr O ) = meqMohr’s salt
2 2 7   G03 = G10 – G02
= 500 × 6 = 3000
Millimoles of Mohr’s salt oxidised n3F30  nF10  n2F20  
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 Complete Syllabus Test-06

69. Answer (2)

n330  n110  n202
Magnetic moment = n  n  2  B.M
2  03  1 1.69  3  1.40
Where n is the number of unpaired electrons (H2O
1  1.69  4.20 is weak ligand and CN– is strong ligand)
 03    1.255V
2 Complex No. of unpaired electrons
61. Answer (2) 3
Cr H2O  
Arrhenius equation is K  Ae Ea /RT  6
3d
3

Given, K  Ae –1000 2
Fe H2O  
Comparing the two :  6
3d
6

Ea 2
 1000  Zn H2O  
RT  6
3d
10

1000  2  500  2 1 1  4
Ea   R  1000 Kcal K mol  Fe  CN 
1000    6
3d
6

Highest magnetic moment is shown by

Ea  1000 K cal mol1
2
62. Answer (2) Fe H2O  
 6
Using integrated rate equation for Ist order reaction 70. Answer (3)
2.303 a According to M.O.T, if bond order is Zero, species
i.e., t  log
does not exist.
K ax
where ‘a’ is initial conc. and ‘a –x’ is left conc. B.O of Be2 = 0
after time ‘t’ 71. Answer (1)
According to M.O, diagram, electron will go to 2pz
2.303 100 72. Answer (3)
log
t 75% K 25
 In SF4, hybridisation is sp3d and shape is see-saw
t 87.5% 2.303 100
log
K 12.5 F
F
S :
t 87.5%  150 minutes F
F
63. Answer (1)
For a positive sol, –vely charged It has two different types of bond lengths(ie.,
equatorial and axial)
ion is effective ion having more –ve charge i.e.,
73. Answer (3)
PO34
64. Answer (1)
873K, 7 bar
Xe(g)  2F2 (g)   XeF4 (s) H H
(1 : 5 Ratio) (A )
solid phase
XeF4 is square planar in shape.
65. Answer (4) So, 3rd statement is incorrect.
Deacon’s process 74. Answer (3)
Lithium being less electropositive does not form
CuCl2
4HCl  O2   2Cl2  2H2O solid bicarbonate.
66. Answer (4) 75. Answer (2)
O(g) + e–  O–(g) is exothermic
Blue coloured Co(BO2)2 is formed.
(Heg)1 = – 141 KJ
67. Answer (3)
But O–(g) + e–  O2–(g) is endothermic
68. Answer (4)
(Heg)2 = +780 KJ
 Co NH3  6 
2
is nonionisable 76. Answer (2)
Maximum limit of nitrate ion in drinking water is 50
So, total 3 ions will be formed. ppm.

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Complete Syllabus Test-06

77. Answer (3) 86. Answer (3)

CHCl3 + OH–  : CCl2 + Cl– + H2O

 CH3 
 | 
CH3 (CH2 )15  N  CH3  Br 
 | 
 CH3 
(electrophilic attack)
Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide.
78. Answer (1) 87. Answer (1)

Na2S  Na2 [Fe(CN)5 NO]  Na4 [Fe(CN)5 NOS]

(Sodium Extract) Sodium nitroprusside Violet complex

79. Answer (4)

OCH3
1 Cl 2
2 (B)
3
4
CH3

IUPAC name is 2-chloro-4-methyl anisole

80. Answer (3)
1 2 3 4 5 6
CH2  CH
2
 CH2  CH2  C  C  H
sp sp3 88. Answer (3)
81. Answer (4) Isocyanide test is given by primary amines which
react with alcohlic solution of KOH and chloroform
OH OH OH OH to form RNC with unpleasant smell.
NO2 89. Answer (3)
90. Answer (2)
NO 2 
NO2 n CH 2  CH  CH  CH2  CH 2  CH 
|
(R) (P) (Q) (S) CN
 
(NO2) group increases acidic strength at o– and  
 CH 2  CH  CH  CH 2  C H  CH 2 

p– positions due to –R effect and at m–position 

|
CN


due to –I effect. Buna  N

82. Answer (2) 91. Answer (3)

All prokaryotes do not have peptidoglycanic
has 6 delocalised electrons and obey’s cell wall.
N


Huckel’s Rule. So aromatic but Heterocyclic due to Gas vacuoles are seen in some cyanobacteria
‘N’ in ring. and purple sulphur bacteria.
83. Answer (4)
92. Answer (4)
Total 3 isomers are possible
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 –CH2 – Cl (achiral) Archaebacteria lack peptidoglycan in their cell
wall.
CH3  CH2 – C H  CH3 (chiral)
| 93. Answer (4)
Cl
(exists in two enantiomeric forms) Mycoplasma lack porins.
84. Answer (2)
94. Answer (3)
COOH COOH
95. Answer (4)
Na, NH3(l)
Et OH Heterocysts are not involved in CO2 fixation.
Red tide is caused by a dinoflagellate.
85. Answer (4)
Lesser the hinderance, more the rate of reaction of 96. Answer (2)
substrate. Petroleum pollution control - Pseudomonas
S > P > R >Q putida
Food poisoning- Clostridium
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 Complete Syllabus Test-06

97. Answer (2) 116. Answer (1)

b. Conidia are arranged in basipetal manner Cytochrome C-oxidase complex has
i.e., oldest conidia at top. cytochrome a & a3 with two copper centres.
d & e. Produced by members of asco and 117. Answer (3)
deuteromycetes. In fatty seeds fats are converted into sugar by
glyoxylate cycle.
98. Answer (4)
118. Answer (4)
99. Answer (3)
119. Answer (1)
Prions are proteinaceous particles. Gibberellin inhibits seed dormancy and induces
100. Answer (4) -amylase activity.
Parietal placentation is seen in mustard. 120. Answer (1)
101. Answer (2) 121. Answer (3)
Filiform apparatus guides pollen tube entry in
102. Answer (4)
embryo sac.
103. Answer (1) 122. Answer (1)
In dicot stem correct sequence of tissue are Genes for pod shape and plant height are
Pith  Primary xylem  Secondary xylem  situated on chromosome number 4, so they
Cambium  Secondary phloem may be linked.
104. Answer (2) 123. Answer (2)
Mendel has taken 14 true breeding pea plants.
Tyloses are seen in vesseles only.
124. Answer (4)
105. Answer (4)
Birds show female heterogamity.
106. Answer (4) 125. Answer (4)
107. Answer (4) CML arises due to translocation of
Epithem cells are found in hydathodes. chromosomal segment between chromosomes
22 & 9.
108. Answer (4)
126. Answer (4)
During opening of stomata, potassium malate 3 C A C5
DNA segment of Hbs gene -
is formed in guard cells. 5 GT G3
127. Answer (4)
109. Answer (4)
DNA does not acts as enzyme.
N2 + 8H+ + 8e– + 16 ATP  2NH3 + 16ADP + 16Pi
128. Answer (1)
110. Answer (4) dATP, dCTP, dGTP, dTTP are involved in DNA
FeS is first electron acceptor of cyclic replication.
photophosphorylation. 129. Answer (1)
111. Answer (2) Y-chromosome has 231 genes.
Sucrose being a disaccharide have two 130. Answer (4)
glucose molecules. 131. Answer (2)
For formation of = 6CO2 132. Answer (3)
1 glucose molecule = 12NADPH2 133. Answer (3)
= 18 ATPs are needed 134. Answer (3)
Insectivorous plants occupy T1 level i.e., as
112. Answer (3)
producer as well as T3 level when they feed on
PEPcase is found in cytoplasm. insects. That is why insectivorous plants can
113. Answer (4) not be placed in pyramid.
114. Answer (3) 135. Answer (1)
Increasing sequence of green house gases.
115. Answer (3)
N2O < CFCs < CH 4 < CO 2
6% 14% 20% 60%

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136. Answer (4) 150. Answer (2)
Sebaceous/oil glands secretion is called sebum Differentiation of spermatids to sperms is
which contains fatty acids, hydrocarbons and spermatogenesis; spermiostasis is abnormal
cholesterol and triglycerides etc. accumulation of spermatozoa in reproductive
137. Answer (1) ducts in (upto 25%) sexually rested stallion.
138. Answer (2) 151. Answer (4)
Deficiency of ADH can lead to diabetes insipidus; Penile urethra – Labia minora
A healthy person produce approx. 1.7 liters of Clitoris – Penis
urine per day, which is about 1% of the
Prepuce – Prepuce
glomerular filtrate; ascending limb is permeable
for salt; Osmolarty of urine is approx. 1200 152. Answer (2)
mosm/lt whereas that of filtrate is 300 mosm/lt. All the statements are true but option 2 is specific
139. Answer (1) event related to luteal phase.
140. Answer (3) 153. Answer (4)
Chitin and cellulose both are structural Oral contraceptives are made up of either
homopolysaccharide made up of N- synthetic estrogen and progesterone or only
acetylglucosamine and β-glucose subunits progesterone whereas spermicides are
respectively. cream/jelly/foams having boric acid, lactic acid,
141. Answer (2) citric acid, ZnSO4, KMnO4 etc, which break the
cell membrane of sperm.
Myoglobin is the first protein to be seen in atomic
detail. It has tertiary structure and is a oxygen
storing protein. 154. Answer (1)
142. Answer (2) Cu+2 releasing IUD’s are effective for 3-5 years
Tyrosine is involved in the formation of and their multiload forms even works for 7-10
adrenaline. years.
143. Answer (4) 155. Answer (2)
Enamel is the hardest part of the body and is Antibiotics are not effective for viral infections.
secreted by ameloblast cells of ectodermal origin. 156. Answer (1)
These cells disappear once the tooth erupt from
157. Answer (4)
gums.
144. Answer (3) Neanderthal man was erect, bipedal man.
Goblet cells are mucus secreting cells. 158. Answer (2)
145. Answer (1) Allergy is treated with anti histamine, adrenaline
(anti shocking) and glucocorticoids (life saving).
Circumvallate papillae are largest sized papillae These drugs reduce the symptoms of allergy.
containing maximum number of taste buds.
159. Answer (3)
Aflatoxin causes liver cancer.
146. Answer (4)
160. Answer (3)
Echinoderms are exclusively marine but are not
parasitic; Bioluminescence is well marked in 161. Answer (1)
phylum ctenophora; ctenophores are 162. Answer (2)
hermaphrodite.
Gravindex test – hCG (pregnancy test)
147. Answer (4)
VDRL – Syphilis
148. Answer (2)
Widal – Typhoid
Emphysema is degenerative and potentially fatal
pulmonary disease, occur in chronic cigarette 163. Answer (1)
smokers. In this disease physiological dead Bacteria add methyl group to cytosine of self
space increases tremendously. DNA.
149. Answer (2) 164. Answer (2)
Smegma is a secretion of sebaceous gland RNA interference is the application of transferred
(Tyson gland) present at the rim of foreskin gene.
around glans penis.

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

165. Answer (2) 174. Answer (3)

The most difficult step in the formation of Glucose in urine is one of the symptoms of
Humulin was assemblage of polypeptide chain by diabetes mellitus.
disulphide bonds. 175. Answer (1)
166. Answer (1) Duration between closure of AV valve and
Replacing bones are modified cartilage; opening of semilunar valve is isovolumetric
Dermal/membranous bones are formed by contraction, whereas its reverse is isovolumetric
ossification of dermis/mesenchyme. relaxation; Aneurysm refers to weakening of
arteries that creates of bulge.
167. Answer (2)
176. Answer (2)
168. Answer (1)
177. Answer (3)
169. Answer (2)
Gases always move from higher pressure to
Red muscle fibres are meant for slow sustained lower pressure.
contractions.
178. Answer (4)
170. Answer (2)
High concentration of H+ ions means low pH,
Genu, splenium and fornix are part of corpus shift oxygen-haemoglobin curve towards right
callosum. side. This condition occurs close to tissue.
171. Answer (1) 179. Answer (1)
Free nerve endings are bare dendrites, give Cl– ions are necessary for activation of salivary
sensation of pain. amylase.
172. Answer (4) 180. Answer (4)
Loss of neurons from darkly pigmented nuclei, Thromboplastin in factor III and is either released
the substantia nigra leads to loss of dopamine by traumatised tissue or platelets; Tunica media
173. Answer (3) is thick in arteries and thin in veins; RBC’s
contain carbonic anhydrase for the transport of
Pitocin is synthetic oxytocin. CO2.

  

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