22/04/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 10

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of XI & XII

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. A physical quantity x depends on quantities y and 4. The famous Big Ben clock tower in London has
z as x = Ay + B sin (C z), where A, B, and C are hour hand of approximate length 10 feet.
constants. Calculate the magnitude of change in velocity of
Which of the following have same dimensions? hour hand of Big Ben in six hours (1 feet = 0.305
(1) x and Ay (2) x and B m)
(3) C and z-1 (4) All of the above (1) 0.4189 m/s (2) 0.06912 m/s
2. Acceleration versus time graph for a particle is as (3) 0.341 m/s (4) 0.887 mm/s
shown in the figure. If the particle starts its motion 5. A particle revolving in a circular path completes
from rest, then the maximum speed of the particle first one third of circumference in 3 s, while next
is one third in 2 s. The average angular velocity of
the particle is
3π π
(1) rad/s (2) rad/s
5 15
2π 4π
(3) rad/s (4) rad/s
15 15
6. A rope of length 10 m and linear mass density
1 4 kg/m is lying lengthwise on a horizontal smooth
(1) 4 m/s (2) m/s table. One end of the rope is pulled horizontally
2
by a force of 40 N. The tension in the rope at a
(3) 1 m/s (4) 2 m/s point 4 m from point of application of force will be
3. A body is dropped under gravity. The ratio of (1) 40 N
distances covered by the body in first and sixth
second of motion is (2) 24 N
(1) 1 : 11 (2) 1 : 6 (3) 49 N
(3) 1 : 5 (4) 5 : 12 (4) 15 N
(1)
Test-10 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

7. A position dependent force= F ( y 2 x iˆ + x 2 y ˆj ) N (1) (i) – (b), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (a)
acts on a particle and displace it from x = 1 m, (2) (i) – (c), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (b)
y = 2m to x = 2m, y = 1m. The work done by the (3) (i) – (d), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (a)
force is (4) (i) – (b), (ii) – (d), (iii) – (c)
10 11. Five resistors of resistances as indicated in the
(1) J (2) 10 J
3 figure are connected together. If a current of
18 A enters into the resistance network at A, then
(3) 20 J (4) Zero
the potential difference across 5Ω resistor will be
8. A bat used in sports of cricket is cut at the
location of its centre of mass as shown in the
figure.

(1) 90 V (2) 25 V
(3) 45 V (4) 20 V
12. A capacitor of capacitance 2 µF is charged to
I II 40 V and another capacitor of capacitance 4 µF is
charged to 20 V. If the capacitors are connected
(1) The masses of both the pieces will be same
together in same polarity, then the energy lost in
(2) Mass of part II would be larger reorganisation of charge will be
(3) Mass of part I would be larger (1) 316.2 µJ (2) 266.67 µJ
(4) Mass of part I would be thrice the mass of (3) 402 µJ (4) 191.6 µJ
part II
13. In space two point masses of mass 10 kg each
9. A solid sphere, under the influence of a horizontal are fixed. The masses are separated by a
force F undergoes pure rolling on a smooth distance 10 m. Another point mass of mass
horizontal surface as shown in the figure. The 1 kg is to be projected from the point at midpoint
value of height h of point of application of force of line joining the fixed masses such that it
from centre is (Radius of sphere is R) escapes to infinity. The minimum speed of the
projection is
(1) G m/s (2) 2G m/s
(3) 8G m/s (4) 6G m/s
(1) 0.4 R (2) 0.8 R 14. A container of height h is completely filled with
(3) 0.6 R (4) R water. The container is placed on a frictional
10. Three gaussian surfaces S1, S2 and S3 are as surface with coefficient of friction µ and a small
shown in the figure. Match the Gaussian surface h
hole is punctured at a depth on container wall.
with their correct associated magnitude of electric 2
flux. If area of hole is a and area of base of container
is A (a << A), then the value of µ for which the
container remains stationary is (g = 10 m/s2)

Gaussian Surface Electric flux

(i) S1 (a) 3 Q/ε0
a 2a
(ii) S2 (b) 2 Q/ε0 (1) (2)
A A
(iii) S3 (c) Q/ε0
3a
(d) 4 Q/ε0 (3) (4) All of the above
A

(2)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-10 (Code-A)

1
15. A kg block moving with 5 m/s strikes a spring
2
of force constant 1000 N/m attached to another (1) (2)
1
kg block at rest. Kept on a smooth floor. The
2
time for which the rear moving block remain in
contact with the spring will be (Assume π = 10 ) .
(3) (4)

20. At temperature T1, the magnetic susceptibility of a

1 1 diamagnetic material is χ1 and at temperature T2,
(1) s (2) s
10 20 it is χ2. Then
1 1 (1) χ1 T1 = χ2 T2 (2) χ1 T2 = χ2 T1
(3) s (4) s
30 40
(3) χ1 T1 = χ2 T2 (4) None of the above
16. For a given material, Young’s modulus is 3 times
the rigidity modulus. The poisson’s ratio of the 21. An ideal diatomic gas undergoes a
thermodynamic process where pressure (P) as a
material is 3V0

(1) 0.5 (2) 0.3 function of volume (V) is given by P = P0 e V .

(3) 0.1 (4) 0.02 The average rotational kinetic energy of the gas
V
17. Consider the following two statements molecules at volume V = 0 is
2
(a) Celsius is the smallest unit of temperature
P0V0 6
(b) The absorbance of a perfect black body is (1) e (2) P0V0
2
unity
3P0V0 6 5
The correct statement(s) is (3) e (4) P0V0 e 6
4 4
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only 22. Each side of regular polygon of n sides has a
(3) (a) and (b) both (4) Neither (a) nor (b) resistance R. The equivalent resistance between
any two adjacent vertices is
18. By what percent the impedance in an series LCR,
AC circuit should be increased so that the power R
(1) nR (2)
factor changes from ( 12) to ( 14 ) (assume
(n − 1)R n
n

resistance R remains constant) (3) (4) R

n n −1
(1) 200 % (2) 100 % 23. When a lens of power P (in air) made of material
(3) 50 % (4) 400 % of refractive index 3 is dipped in a liquid of
refractive index 4, the new power of lens is
19. There are two frictionless conducting rails placed
4P P
in a transverse uniform magnetic field B as (1) − (2)
shown in the figure. The rails are connected by a 3 8
fixed capacitive arm AB and a movable 3P P
(3) (4) −
conducting rod PQ is also placed as shown. If the 4 8
rod PQ is given a rightward initial velocity u then 24. A point source of electromagnetic radiation has
the graph that best represents variation of speed an average power output of 800 W.
of rod as a function of time The maximum value of electric field at a distance
3.5 m from source will be
V V
(1) 12 (2) 40
m m
V V
(3) 31.3 (4) 62.6
m m

(3)
Test-10 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

25. Two plates (area : a each) given charges + q1 30. Snapshot of a transverse disturbance on a
and + q2 (q2 < q1) are brought closer to form a stretched string is shown in the following figure.
capacitor of capacitance C. The potential The wave is travelling is along positive
difference across the plates is x-direction. The particles for which velocity is
directed along negative y - direction is
q1 − q2 q1 − q2
(1) (2)
2C C

q1 − q2 2 ( q1 − q2 )
(3) (4)
4C C
26. Binding energy per nucleon verses mass number
curve for nuclei is indicated in the following figure.
A, B, C and D are four nuclei indicated on the
curve. Among the following, the process that (1) A (2) B
would yield maximum energy is (3) C (4) D
31. In the figure shown, V0 is barrier potential across
a p-n junction, when no battery is connected
across the junction.

(1) C → 2 D (2) A → C + D
(3) A → B + C (4) B → C + D
27. A charged beam consisting of electrons and (1) 1 and 3 both correspond to forward bias of
positrons enter into a region of uniform magnetic junction
field B perpendicular to field, with a speed v. The (2) 1 and 2 both correspond to reverse bias of
maximum separation between an electron and a junction
positron will be (mass of electron = mass of (3) 1 correspond to forward bias and 3
positron = m) correspond to reverse bias of junction
mv 2mv (4) 2 correspond to forward bias of junction
(1) (2)
qB qB 32. A particle of mass M at rest decays into two
particles of masses m1 and m2 having non-zero
4mv mv
(3) (4) velocities. The ratio of the de-Broglie
qB 2qB wavelengths of the particles λ 1 : λ2
28. Which of the following is true for Lyman series in (1) m1 : m2 (2) m2 : m1
hydrogen atom?
(3) 1 : 1 (4) m2 : m1
(1) The series lies in ultra violet region
33. The graph shows logarithmic readings of
(2) It involves jump to or from ground state
pressure and volume for two ideal gases A and B
(3) The largest wavelength in Lyman series is undergoing adiabatic process. It can be
400 nm conduded that (one of the gases A and B is
(4) Both (1) and (2) monoatomic and one is diatomic)
29. In a Young’s double slit
experiment, the
2
separation between the two slits is mm. The
π
distance of the screen from the slits is 50 cm.
o
If the wavelength of light used is 4000 A , then
the angular position of first dark fringe is
(1) 1.21° (1) A is diatomic
(2) 0.018° (2) B is diatomic
(3) 0.16° (3) B is monatomic
(4) 0.3° (4) Both (1) and (3)
(4)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-10 (Code-A)

34. Rate of emission of a black body at 546°C is E. 39. The ratio of time period of three identical springs
Then the rate of emission of radiation of body at if they are first joined in parallel and then in series
0°C will be is (assume same mass is suspended from them)
(1) 81 E (2) 3 E (1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 1
E E (3) 2 : 3 (4) 9 : 1
(3) (4)
3 81 40. An artificial satellite of the earth releases a
35. A body is rolling without slipping on a horizontal package. If air resistance is neglected the
plane. The radius of body is R. If the ratio of package reaches the earth
9 (1) With very high speed
rotational to translational kinetic energy is
25 (2) With almost zero speed
then the radius of gyration of the body is (3) The package never reaches the earth
5R 9R (4) None of the above
(1) (2)
3 25 41. A polariser and an analyser are inclined to each
3R 25R other at 45°. The intensity of polarised light
(3) (4) emerging from the analyser is I. The intensity of
5 9
unpolarized light incident on the polariser is
36. Consider the following two statements
I
(a) Electric field is always conservative in nature. (1) (2) 2 I
4
(b) In electromagnetic waves the phase
(3) 4 I (4) I
difference between oscillating electric and
magnetic field is 90°. 42. Telescopes have larger diameter of objective
The correct statement(s) is/are (1) To improve resolving power
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b) (2) To increase limit of resolution
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b) (3) To decrease chromatic aberrations
37. The springs – blocks system suspended vertically (4) To decrease spherical aberrations
as shown in the figure is in equilibrium. The 43. Arrange the following steps in correct order for
masses of blocks are indicated. The acceleration formation of a secondary rainbow
of block B, immediately after string S is cut, will
be (a) Refraction with dispersion
(b) Internal reflection
(c) Refraction
(1) (a) → (c) → (b) → (c)
(2) (a) → (b) → (b) → (c)
(3) (a) → (b) → (c)
(4) (a) → (c) → (b)
44. A lens of focal length f forms an image of
magnification n. The distance of object from the
lens is terms of f and n is
g
(1) g (2) nf
2 (1) (1 + n ) f (2)
(1 − n )
g
(3) (4) Zero
3 (1 − n )f f
(3) (4)
38. A man can swim in still water with a speed 2 m/s. n n
The minimum time, in which he can cross a river → → →

of width 200 m is 45. A, B,C are three coplanar vectors, then

(1) 100 s → →  → → → →
(1)  A . B  × C =
0 (2)  A × B  . C = 0
(2) 200 s    
(3) 50 s → → → → → →
(3)  A × B  ×C =0 (4)  A . B  . C = 0
(4) 75 s    

(5)
Test-10 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

CHEMISTRY
46. 18 g of glucose is present in 100 mL of its 54. In which of the following processes, volume is
solution. The concentration of solution in constant?
mol L–1 will be (1) Isochoric process (2) Isobaric process
(1) 2 mol L –1
(2) 0.1 mol L –1
(3) Adiabatic process (4) Isothermal process
(3) 1 mol L–1 (4) 0.2 mol L–1 55. If the solubility of XY3 at a certain temperature is
2 × 10–1 mol L–1 then the solubility product of XY3
47. In which of the following options, the order of
will be
arrangement does not agree with the variation of
property indicated against it? (1) 4.3 × 10–2 (2) 4.8 × 10–3
(1) I < Br < F < Cl (negative electron gain (3) 5.1 × 10–2 (4) 2.1 × 10–4
enthalpy) 56. The species which will not undergoes
– 2– 2+ + disproportionation is
(2) Cl < S < Ca < K (increasing ionic size)
(1) S8 (2) Cl2
(3) B < C < O < N (First ionisation enthalpy) (3) P4 (4) F2
(4) C < N < O < F (electronegativity) 57. The method used to remove temporary hardness
is
48. The total number of nodes in 4p orbital is
(1) Calgon’s method
(1) 1 (2) 2 (2) Clark’s method
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) Ion-exchange method
49. Which of the following has the shortest bond (4) Synthetic Resin method
length? 58. The element which will not impart colour to flame
(1) N2 is
(1) Be (2) Ca
(2) N2+
(3) Sr (4) Ba
–
(3) N2 59. The mixture of gases which is known as producer
gas is
(4) All have same bond length
(1) CO + H2 (2) CO + N2
50. The paramagnetic species among the following is
(3) CO2 + H2 (4) CO2 + N2
(1) N2 (2) O22− 60. The number of σ and π bonds in the compound

(3) O2− (4) C2

51. The density of CO2 gas at 127°C and 2 atm respectively are
pressure is
(1) 1.98 g L–1 (2) 1.68 g L–1 (1) 18, 4 (2) 18, 3
(3) 3.62 g L–1 (4) 2.68 g L–1 (3) 19, 2 (4) 20, 3
52. Extensive property among the following is
(1) Internal energy (2) Temperature
61. The IUPAC name of the compound is
(3) Density (4) Pressure
53. Unit of van der Waals constant a is
(1) atm mol–2
(1) 3-chloro-1-methyl-4-methoxybenzene
(2) atm L2 mol–2 (2) 3-chloro-4-methoxytoluene
(3) atm L–2 mol–2 (3) 2-chloro-4-methylanisole
–1 –1
(4) atm L mol (4) 1-methoxy-2-chloro-4-methylbenzene

(6)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-10 (Code-A)

62. The most stable carbocation among the following 66. In Carius method of estimation of halogen,
is 0.28 g of an organic compound gave 0.2 g of
AgBr. The percentage of bromine in the
compound is
(Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u, Br = 80 u)
(1) (2) (1) 38.2% (2) 36.2%
(3) 30.4% (4) 25.6%
67. The maximum limit of nitrate in drinking water is
(1) 500 ppm (2) 50 ppm
(3) 50 ppb (4) 10 ppm
(3) (4) 68. Atoms of element X forms fcc lattice and those of
1
the element Y occupy rd of the tetrahedral
3
voids. The formula of the compound will be
63. Which among the following molecules can exhibit (1) XY2 (2) XY
tautomerism?
(3) X3Y2 (4) X2Y3

(1) (2) 69. Which of the following substances is

ferrimagnetic in nature?
(1) Fe3O4 (2) MnO
(3) Ni (4) CrO2
70. 5% (w/v) solution of urea is isotonic with
(3) (4) 2% (w/v) solution of a non-electrolyte substance.
The molar mas of the substance is
(1) 180 g/mol (2) 24 g/mol
64. The major product (P) obtained in the reaction is (3) 120 g/mol (4) 30 g/mol
71. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal
aqueous solution is
(1) 0.071 (2) 0.058
(3) 0.0177 (4) 1.72
72. The half life of a first order reaction, if the rate
constant k = 6.93 × 10–6 s–1 is
(1) (2) (1) 1 × 103 s (2) 1 × 105 s
(3) 2.4 × 105 s (4) 2 × 104 s
73. The unit of a rate constant for a second order
(3) (4) reaction is
(1) s–1 (2) Mol L–1 s–1
65. The most stable alkene among the following is
(3) L Mol–1 s–1 (4) Mol–2 L2 s–1
74. Negatively charged sol is
(1)
(1) Ag sol (2) TiO2 sol
(3) Al2O3.xH2O (4) Haemoglobin
(2)
75. The constituent of brass are
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2 (1) Cu, Zn and Ni (2) Cu and Ni

(4) CH3 – CH = CH2 (3) Cu and Zn (4) Zn and Ni

(7)
Test-10 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

76. The correct order of acidic character is 81. Consider the following reaction,
(1) H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O 2CH3 – Cl+Na dry ether
→ CH3 – CH3 + 2NaCl The
(2) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te above reaction is called
(3) H2Se < H2Te < H2O < H2S (1) Fittig reaction (2) Wurtz reaction

(4) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te (3) Swarts reaction (4) Finkelstein reaction

77. The shape of ClF5 is 82. Consider the following reaction,

(1) Trigonal bipyramidal

(2) Square pyramidal
D is
(3) See - saw
(4) Square bipyramidal
(1) (2)
78. Number of moles of MnO4– required to oxidize
one mole of iodide ion completely in acidic
medium is
(3) CH3CH2CH2Br (4) CH3CH2CH2OH
1 2
(1) mole (2) mole 83. In the reaction,
5 5
1 2
(3) mole (4) mole
3 3
79. The number of ions produced from the complex B is
Fe4 [Fe(CN)6]3 in an aqueous solution is
(1) Aldehyde
(1) 4 (2) 5
(2) Ketone
(3) 6 (4) 7
(3) Carboxylic acid
80. The correct order of melting point among the
following is (4) Ester
84. The most acidic compound among the following
is
(1) (1) CH3COOH
(2) C6H5CH2COOH
(3) HCOOH
(4) C6H5COOH
(2) 85. In the following reaction sequence

C is

(3) (1) But-3-enal

(2) But-2-enal
(3) Butan-2-one
(4) Butanoic acid
86. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?
(4)
(1) Maltose (2) Sucrose
(3) Lactose (4) Glucose

(8)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-10 (Code-A)

87. Scurvy is caused by deficiency of 89. Which of the following is an antihistamines?

(1) Vitamin B12 (1) Seldane (2) Cimetidine

(3) Chlordiazepoxide (4) Salvarsan
(2) Vitamin C
90. Which of the following is most reactive toward
(3) Vitamin D SN1 reaction?

(4) Vitamin A

88. Biodegradable polymer among the following is

(1) (2)
(1) PHBV

(2) Nylon – 2 – Nylon 6

(3) Buna – S

(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) (4) CH3–Cl

BOTANY
91. Select the mismatched pair. 94. How many chromosomes and DNA content will a
cell have in G2 phase if it has 7 chromosomes
‘9 + 0’ arrangement and 7 pg DNA in G1 phase?
(1) Centrioles
of microtubules Chromosomes DNA
(1) 7 7
(2) Ribosome Membraneless (2) 14 14
(3) 14 7
(3) Chloroplast Semi-autonomous
organelle (4) 7 14
95. Find the option in which organism is placed in its
(4) Gas Surrounded wrong taxonomic category.
vacuoles by tonoplast Organism Taxonomic category
(1) Man - Class: Mammalia
92. Which of the following cell organelles take part (2) Mango - Order : Polymoniales
in oxidation of fatty acids and synthesis of lipids (3) Wheat - Family : Poaceae
respectively?
(4) Brinjal - Division : Angiospermae
(1) SER and RER 96. Select the incorrect statement.
(2) Mitochondria and SER (1) Royal Botanical Garden is an ‘ex-situ’
conservation strategy.
(3) RER and mitochondria
(2) A museum has preserved plants and animals
(4) Chloroplast and mitochondria (3) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of
specimens.
93. A bivalent formed in a cell of a diploid organism
has (4) Herbarium houses live and conserved plant
specimens
(1) Two chromatids and two centromeres
97. The bacteria which are found in the gut of
(2) Four chromosomes and two chromatids ruminant animals and are responsible for
production of methane are
(3) Four chromatids and two centromeres (1) Cyanobacteria (2) Methanogens
(4) Four chromatids and four centromeres (3) Dinoflagellates (4) Eubacteria

(9)
Test-10 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

98. Read the following statements and select the (1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (b)
correct option. (3) Only (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
Statement A : All fungi possess a purely 106. Choose the feature which is exclusive to vascular
cellulosic cell wall amphibians of plant kingdom among
Statement B : Morels and truffles are non-edible embryophytes.
mushrooms. (1) Jacketed sex organs
(1) Only A is incorrect (2) Presence of archegonia
(2) Only B is incorrect (3) Presence of independent gametophyte as
(3) Both A and B are incorrect well as sporophyte
(4) Both A and B are correct (4) Requirement of water for fertilisation
99. The subviral agents which were discovered by 107. Non flagellated gametes are produced by
T.O. Diener (1) Volvox and Spirogyra
(1) Contain DNA as genetic material (2) Spirogyra and Gelidium
(2) Are infectious proteinaceous particles (3) Gracilaria and Sargassum
(3) Do not cause any disease in plants (4) Ulothrix and Volvox
(4) Are viroids 108. Which of the following is a homosporous
100. Select the incorrect statement. pteridophyte?
(1) Pulvinus is swollen leaf base (1) Sphagnum (2) Dryopteris
(2) Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit (3) Selaginella (4) Marsilea
(3) Alstonia shows whorled phyllotaxy 109. Select the wrong statement about facilitated
diffusion.
(4) In the axil of the every leaflet of compound
leaves there is presence of axillary bud (1) Requires special membrane proteins
101. Find the incorrect match (2) Highly selective in nature
Placentation Plant (3) Requires ATP energy
(1) Marginal – Pea (4) Movement of molecules along the
concentration gradient
(2) Axile – Lemon
110. For a solution at atmospheric pressure
(3) Parietal – China rose
(1) ψp = ψs (2) ψw = zero
(4) Basal – Sunflower
102. Staminode is (3) ψs = zero (4) ψs = ψw
(1) Stamen with two microsporangia only 111. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are called
(2) Sterile stamen autotrophs but they do not use solar energy for
synthesis of food because
(3) Seen only in pistillate flowers
(1) They can fix CO2 of organic substances.
(4) Adhesion of stamens with each other
(2) They can fix N2 along with CO2
103. The living component of xylem is
(3) They use chemical energy liberated during
(1) Xylem fiber (2) Vessel oxidation of inorganic substances
(3) Xylem parenchyma (4) Tracheid (4) They have chlorophyll but they can fullfill their
104. Collenchyma differs from parenchyma in being food requirement from other organisms
(1) Photosynthetic (2) Simple Tissue 112. In legumes, certain portion of root nodules were
found red in colour due to presence of a pigment
(3) Mechanical in nature (4) Thin walled
which acts as O2 scavenger. This pigment also
105. Select the feature(s) which can differentiate dicot
(1) Fixes N2 in the legumes
root from monocot roots.
(2) Provides energy to the nitrogen fixing
(a) Presence of conjunctive tissue
bacteria
(b) Presence of cambium tissue
(3) Protects the nitrogenase from O2
(c) Presence of radial vascular bundles
(4) Transports oxygen to the nitrogen fixing
(d) Presence of hypodermis bacteria
(10)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-10 (Code-A)

113. Which of the following elements helps in 122. There are A chromosomes in meiocyte of
translocation of carbohydrates through phloem. housefly whereas B chromosomes in its
(1) B (2) Mo gamete.
(3) Mn (4) Zn Choose the correct option for A and B.
114. The primary CO2 acceptor in a C4 plant A B
(1) Is phosphoenol pyruvate (1) 12 6
(2) Is RuBP (2) 6 12
(3) has four carbons (3) 8 4
(4) Is found in bundle sheath cells (4) 4 8
115. The common feature of a C3 and a C4 plant is 123. Water is the medium through which male gamete
presence of transfer takes place in all, except in
(1) Photorespiration (1) Algae (2) Angiosperms
(2) Calvin cycle (3) Bryophytes (4) Pteridophytes
(3) Kranz anatomy 124. The ploidy level of the cells of the nucellus, MMC,
(4) Double carboxylation the functional megaspore and female
gametophyte is respectively
116. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t glycolysis
(1) 2n, n, n, 2n (2) 2n, ,2n, n, n
(1) Glycolysis takes place in cytoplasm
(3) n, 2n, n, 2n (4) n, n, 2n, 2n
(2) It occurs both in aerobes and anaerobes
125. A male child has blood group AB and his sister
(3) There is no use of energy in the whole has blood group ‘O’. The genotype of his parents
process could be
(4) Pyruvic acid is the end product of it (1) IAIA and ii (2) IBIB and ii
117. Select the substrate with maximum RQ (3) IAi and IBi (4) IAIB and IAIB
(1) Oxalic acid (2) Malic acid
126. Study the given pedigree chart and choose the
(3) Glucose (4) Tripalmitic acid correct option regarding it.
118. The role of stress hormone is to
(1) Promote stem elongation
(2) Promote abscission
(3) Prevent dormancy
(4) Promote transpiration
119. Auxin and cytokinin work antagonistically as
(1) Auxin promotes cell division whereas
cytokinin inhibits it (1) The trait under the study can be Haemophilia
(2) Auxin promotes apical dominance whereas (2) Both parents are heterozygous for the trait
cytokinin counteracts it
(3) The genotype of (P) can be Aa and shows
(3) Cytokinin promotes senescence whereas myotonic dystrophy
auxin prevents it
(4) Female (Q) and (R) are not affected because
(4) Auxin induces shoot formation whereas parents are not carrying the trait
cytokinin inhibits it
127. During DNA replication, the discontinuously
120. Epicotyl grows first, cotyledons remain
synthesized fragments are later joined by the
underground in
enzyme
(1) Cucurbits (2) Mustard
(1) DNA polymerase (2) Helicase
(3) Groundnut (4) Castor
(3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA ligase
121. Find the incorrect match
128. In the nucleus of eukaryotes, there are three
(1) Rhizome - Ginger types of RNA polymerases and one of them
(2) Offset - Water hyacinth codes for ____.
(3) Tuber - Potato (1) 16S rRNA (2) 23S rRNA
(4) Bulb - Agave (3) 28S rRNA (4) σ factor

(11)
Test-10 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

129. If lactose is absent in the E. coli growing medium 133. Select the incorrect statement
then
(1) In ecological pyramids, any calculation of
(1) There will be no synthesis of repressor energy content, biomass, or numbers has to
protein include all organisms at that trophic level
(2) There will be synthesis of lac mRNA
(2) The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
(3) There will be no synthesis of inverted
β-galactosidase
(3) In an ecosystem all the pyramids are upright
(4) Repressor will bind to the RNA polymerase
130. Which of the following diseases is caused by (4) The base of each pyramid represents the
bacteria? producers.
(1) Brown rust of wheat 134. Which of the following is the most important
(2) Turnip mosaic cause that drives animals and plants to
extinction?
(3) Black rot of crucifers
(4) Late blight of potato (1) Over-exploitation
131. Pusa Sawani is resistant to shoot and fruit borer. (2) Alien species invasions
It is a variety of
(3) Co-extinctions
(1) Brassica (2) Flat bean
(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(3) Okra (4) Cauliflower
132. Select the incorrect match. 135. Select the odd one w.r.t Montreal protocol.
Name of interaction Species A Species B (1) Was signed in 1987
(1) Predation : + + (2) Is meant to control the emission of ODS
(2) Commensalism : + 0
(3) Is another name for Kyoto protocol
(3) Amensalism : – 0
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Protocooperation : + +

ZOOLOGY
136. Cardiac muscle fibres are (1) Exothermic reaction with energy A in
(1) Unbranched, involuntary and multinucleated absence of enzyme.
(2) Endothermic reaction with energy B in
(2) Fusiform shaped, non-striated and
presence of enzyme.
uninucleated
(3) Endothermic reaction with energy A in
(3) Involuntary, striated and uninucleated absence of enzyme.
(4) Voluntary, cylindrical shaped and (4) Exothermic reaction with energy A in
uninucleated presence of enzyme
137. The type of cell junction found in epithelium which 139. In RNA molecule, thymine is replaced by
helps primarily to stop substances from leaking (1) Uracil (2) Guanine
across the tissue is
(3) Thiamine (4) Adenine
(1) Tight junction (2) Gap junction 140. Match column I with column II and select the
(3) Adhering junction (4) Desmosome correct option.
138. Select the correct statement w.r.t. the given Column I Column II
graph. (i) Oxyntic cells (a) Crypts of
Lieberkühn
(ii) Bile pigments (b) Biliverdin
(iii) Lysozyme (c) HCl
(iv) Scurvy (d) Ascorbic acid
(1) i – d, ii – b, iii – c, iv – a
(2) i – c, ii – b, iii – a, iv – d
(3) i – d, ii – a, iii – c, iv – b
(4) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b

(12)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-10 (Code-A)

141. The condition in which the food is not properly 150. Photoreceptors in the human eye are A
digested leading to a feeling of fullness is called
during darkness and become B in response to
(1) Constipation the light stimulus.
(2) Indigestion Choose the option that represents A and B
(3) Diarrhoea correctly
(4) Vomiting A B
142. Partial pressures of oxygen in alveoli is (1) Hyperpolarised Depolarised

(1) Less than that in deoxygenated blood. (2) Polarised Repolarised

(3) Depolarised Hyperpolarised
(2) More than that in oxygenated blood.
(4) Repolarised Depolarised
(3) Equal to that in atmospheric air.
151. Electrogenic Na+–K+ ATPase transmembrane
(4) Less than that in tissues. pumps in the axonal membrane transport
143. A chronic disorder caused due to excessive (1) 3 Na+ outwards for 2K+ into axoplasm
cigarette smoking and damage to walls of alveoli (2) 2 Na+ inwards for 3K+ to ECF
resulting in reduced surface area for exchange of
gases is called (3) 3 Na+ to axoplasm for 2K+ outwards
(4) 1 Na+ to axoplasm for 2K+ outwards
(1) Asthma
152. Which of the following hormones interacts with
(2) Emphysema membrane–bound receptors and generates
(3) Pneumoconiosis second messengers?
(4) Asbestosis (1) Cortisol (2) Estradiol
144. In typical ECG, contraction of both the atria is (3) Progesterone (4) Glucagon
represented by 153. A form of hyperthyroidism, characterised by
enlargement of the thyroid gland, protrusion of
(1) P-wave (2) T-wave
the eyeballs, increased BMR and weight loss is
(3) S-T segment (4) Peak R called
145. In ABO blood grouping, person with blood group (1) Exophthalmic goitre
O– can accept blood from (2) Cretinism
(1) AB – (2) A+ (3) Simple goitre
(3) O+ (4) O – (4) Addison’s disease
146. Even in the absence of vasopressin hormone, 154. Choose the incorrect statement.
maximum reabsorption in nephron of human (1) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body
kidney occurs in in trace amounts that act as intercellular
(1) PCT (2) DCT messengers are known as hormones.

(3) CD (4) Loop of Henle (2) Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of

the adrenal medulla, leading to increased
147. Select the odd one w.r.t regulation by RAAS secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
(1) ADH (2) ANF (3) Melanin produced from pineal gland,
(3) Renin (4) Angiotensinogen regulates the normal rhythm of sleep wake
cycle.
148. Choose the odd one w.r.t paired bones.
(4) Stored oxytocin is released from posterior
(1) Parietal (2) Temporal
pituitary and is known as milk let down
(3) Palatine (4) Mandible hormone.
149. Select the incorrect match. 155. Chromosome number in meiocytes and gametes
(1) Cartilaginous joint – Adjacent vertebrae of housefly is
of vertebral column (1) 12, 6
(2) Fibrous joint – Sutures (2) 46, 23
(3) Saddle joint – Between carpals (3) 8, 4
(4) Pivot joint – Elbow joint (4) 380, 190

(13)
Test-10 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

156. Match the name of the animal (column I), with Choose the correct option.
characteristics (column II), and the taxon (1) Both statements are correct.
(column III) to which it belongs.
(2) Both statements are incorrect.
Column I Column II Column III (3) Statement A is correct but statement B is
incorrect.
(1) Petromyzon Placoid Chondrichthyes
scales (4) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is
correct.
(2) Chameleon Poikilotherm Reptilia
162. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. evolution of
with
metanephric man.
kidney Characteristics Brain
capacities
(3) Apteryx Cornified Amphibia
skin with (1) Australopith • Hunted with 650-800 cc
epidermal ecines stone
scale weapons
• Essentially ate
(4) Macaca 10 pair Mammalia meat
cranial
nerves (2) Homo habilis • Probably did 650-800 cc
not eat meat
157. Which of the following hormones is mainly • First human-
responsible for ovulation and stimulates corpus like being, the
luteum in menstrual cycle? hominid

(1) FSH (2) Estrogen (3) Homo • Probably ate 900 cc

erectus meat
(3) LH (4) Progesterone • Had erect
posture
158. Incorrect statement w.r.t human reproduction is
(4) Neanderthal • Used hides to 1400 cc
(1) Capacitation occurs in female reproductive
man protect body
tract.
• Buried their
(2) Fertilization is feasible if both sperm and dead
ovum are transported simultaneously to the
ampullary region of fallopian tube. 163. In a population of 1000 individuals, 490 are of
dominant homozygous genotype AA. Based on
(3) Circulating levels of estrogen and this data, the frequency of allele ‘a’ in the
progesterone in females regulates the population and number of heterozygotes
changes in GnRH pulse frequency. respectively are
(4) In females, meiosis-I completes at the time of (1) 0.3, 420 (2) 0.7, 490
birth.
(3) 0.21, 420 (4) 0.3, 90
159. A non-steroidal contraceptive which is a selective
estrogen receptor modulator for females is 164. Read the following statements and choose the
option with incorrect statements only.
(1) Gossypol (2) Nirodh
(a) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal
(3) Saheli (4) Norplant test.
160. In test-tube baby programme, the zygote or early (b) Rhinoviruses infect the nose and respiratory
embryo with upto 8 blastomeres could be passage but not the lungs.
transferred into
(c) P. malariae causes the most serious and fatal
(1) Fallopian tube (2) Uterus malignant malaria.
(3) Cervix (4) Fimbriae (d) Sporozoite form of Plasmodium are stored in
161. Read the following statements. the stomach of female Aedes mosquito.

Statement A: Triceratops was a three horned, (1) (a) and (b)

quadruped dinosaurs. (2) (a), (c) and (d)
Statement B: Brachiosaurus had plates on its (3) (b), (c) and (d)
back and was a flesh eating biped
dinosaur. (4) (c) and (d)

(14)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-10 (Code-A)

165. Choose the set of bacterial diseases. 172. When pBR322 is digested with Pvu I and ligated
(1) Ascariases, dysentery with alien piece of DNA at its site, the
recombinants will be
(2) Diphtheria, filariasis
(1) Ampicillin resistant
(3) Plague, dysentery
(2) Tetracycline susceptible
(4) Common cold, amoebiasis
(3) Both ampicillin and tetracycline resistant
166. Select an incorrect match :
(4) Ampicillin susceptible
(1) Acid in stomach – Physiological barrier
173. Which among the following is not essential in
(2) Natural killer cells – Cellular barrier
PCR reaction mixture?
(3) IgA in colostrum – Passive immunity
(1) DNA template
(4) Administration of – Active immunity
(2) Taq polymerase
Anti-toxin
(3) Primers
167. Correct match among the following is
(4) Agarose
(1) HIV – Attacks B-lymphocytes
174. A stirrer in stirred-tank reactor primarily facilitates
(2) Benign tumor – Show metastasis
(1) Uniform oxygen availability throughout the
(3) Leghorn – Sheep bioreactor
(4) Jersey – Cattle (2) Death of microbes
168. In MOET,
(3) Temperature control
(1) A cow is administered hormone with
(4) Optimum pH conditions
progesterone like activity.
(2) Superovulation yields 1 to 2 eggs per cycle. 175. B thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a
particular growth phase. These crystals contain a
(3) Only one egg is fertilized by natural mating toxic protein which is
(4) The fertilized eggs are transferred to (1) Herbicidal
surrogate mothers.
(2) Insecticidal
169. Plasmid is
(3) Bactericidal
(1) Autonomously replicating, single stranded
chromosomal RNA. (4) Fungicidal
(2) Autonomously replicating, closed circular 176. Choose the correct option w.r.t. cockroach.
extrachromosomal DNA.
(1) Respiration : Tracheal system
(3) A double stranded, linear, chromosomal
RNA. (2) Paurometabolous : 12 times moulting
(4) A closed circular, single stranded vital gene
coding DNA. (3) Muscular heart : One-chambered
170. Choose the odd one w.r.t sticky ends. (4) Excretion : Ammonotelic
(1) Bam HI
177. In RNAi, there is silencing of a specific A due
(2) Sal I
to complementary B molecule that binds to
(3) Pst I
and prevents protein synthesis.
(4) Eco RV
Choose the option that represents A and B
171. Now adays, the most commonly used matrix is correctly.
agarose which is a natural polymer extracted
from A B
(1) Sea weeds (1) mRNA ssRNA
(2) B. thuringiensis (2) ssRNA ssRNA
(3) Bt cotton (3) mRNA dsRNA
(4) Thermus aquaticus (4) ssDNA dsDNA

(15)
Test-10 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

178. Mature form of recombinant human insulin lacks 180. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Disulphide bonds Genus Character Taxon

(2) A-peptide chain (1) Obelia  Metagenesis Coelenterata

 Cnidoblast cells
(3) B-peptide chain
(2) Planaria  High regeneration Platyhelminthes
(4) C-peptide chain
 Organ level of
179. The first clinical gene therapy was given to a organisation
4-year old girl with deficiency of enzyme
(3) Nereis • Segmented worm Annelida
(1) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase • Closed circulatory
system
(2) Adenosine deaminase
(4) Limulus • Living fossil Arthropoda
(3) Alcohol dehydrogenase
• Chitinous endoskeleton
(4) Myosin ATpase
  

(16)