Fiitjee: Talent Reward Exam - 2020

FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam - 2020
for students presently in
Class 9 (Paper 1)
(27th December 2020)
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm) Code 9000 Maximum Marks: 266
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 45 Minutes on Section-II, 30
Minutes on Section-III and 45 Minutes on Section-IV.
2. This Question paper consists of 4 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question
Section Subject Question no.
Correct answer Wrong answer
SECTION – I APTITUDE 1 to 30 +3 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 31 to 39 +2 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 40 to 48 +2 0
SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 49 to 57 +2 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 58 to 66 +2 0
SECTION – III
PHYSICS (PART-A) 91 to 94 +4 –1
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 95 to 98 +4 –1
SECTION – IV
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 99 to 102 +4 –1
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 103 to 110 +4 –1
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your
rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 110 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : ____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : ____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : ____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : ____________________________________________________________
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph: 49283471/73/75
website: www.fiitjee.com
FTRE-2020-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-AT+S&M-2
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I
Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(Directions Q. 1 to 3): In each of the following questions, a number/alphabet series is given with one
term missing choose the alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark (?)
in the given series.
1. 10, 100, 200, 310, ?

(A) 430 (B) 420
(C) 410 (D) 400
2. 7, 26, 63, 124, 215, 342, ?

(A) 391 (B) 511
(C) 410 (D) 400
3. JA, OB, TC, YD, ?

(A) DE (B) CE
(C) EF (D) DF
4. In a given alphabet series ,if all the alphabets are written in a reverse order, then find out the eighth
letter to right of O?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
(A) H (B) G
(C) U (D) X
5. In the following question four words are given. Find out which word will come in the last ,if all the
four words are arranged alphabetically as in a dictionary order.
(A) Science (B) Scrutiny
(C) Scripture (D) Scramble
Space for Rough Work
6. If “tee see pee”, means DRINK MORE JUICE , “see kee lee” means JUICE IS SWEET, and
“lee ree mee”, means HE IS INTELLIGENT, which word in that language means sweet?
(A) see (B) kee
(C) lee (D) pee
7. If MEANDER is coded as 4515459, then MATHEMATICS is coded as?

(A) 6 7 2 5 0 6 2 3 0 7 6 (B) 4 1 2 8 5 4 1 2 9 3 1
(C) 4 5 0 3 8 4 0 1 8 5 4 (D) 5 7 1 5 9 4 1 3 9 5 5
8. How many minimum lines are required to draw the given figure?
(A) 6 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 8
9. How many minimum lines are required to draw the given figure?
(A) 6 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 12
(Directions Q.10 to 11): A college has 63 students studying Political Science, Chemistry and Botany. 33
students study Political Science, 25 Chemistry and 26 Botany. 10 study Political Science and Chemistry,
9 study Botany and Chemistry while 8 study both Political Science and Botany. Whereas 3 students study
all three subjects and 3 study none of these subjects.
10. How many students study Chemistry and Botany only ?

(A) 2 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 7
11. How many students study only one of the three subjects?
(A) 21 (B) 30
(C) 39 (D) 42
12. Which of the following options represents the given Venn diagram?
(A) Page, Chapter, Book (B) Parents, Mother, Father

(C) Furniture, Chairs, Tables (D) Vegetables, Tomato,Fruits
13. The total of the ages of A, B and C is 100 years. What was the total of their ages five years ago?
(A) 85 years (B) 95 years
(C) 80 years (D) 77 years
14. A bus is traveling at an average speed of 45kmph for the 1st hour and at 65 kmph for the next 1
hour. Calculate its average speed.
(A) 60kmph (B) 53kmph
(C) 50kmph (D) 55kmph
15. The mirror image of clock shows 5:30. What is the difference between the actual time and the
time in the mirror image?
(A) 2 hours (B) 5 hours
(C) 1 hour (D) 3 hours
16. If “Minus” means “Multiply” , “Multiply” means “Addition”, “Addition” means “Division”, and
“Division” means “Minus”, then 40 × 12 + 3 – 6 + 6 = ?
(A) 60 (B) 40
(C) 50 (D) 44
17. Choose the alternative which closely resembles the mirror image of given combination?
MWM8OU
(A) MWM8OU (B) UO8MWM
(C) UO8WMM (D) none of these
18. Which is the correct water image from the given four images?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
19. Mr Mohan walks 5 km towards the south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km he turns
to the left and walks 5 km. What direction is he facing right now?
(A) West (B) South
(C) North-East (D) South-West
20. A horse is facing north. It turns 90 degrees in the clockwise direction, then 180 degrees in the
anti-clockwise and then another 90 degrees in the same direction. Which direction is the horse
facing now?
(A) South (B) North
(C) Southwest (D) Southeast
21. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How
is Suresh related to that boy?
(A) Brother (B) Uncle
(C) Cousin (D) Father
22. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?
(A) Brother (B) Sister
(C) Nephew (D) Cannot be determined
23. Cost of a pineapple will be Rs. 7 each whereas a watermelon will cost Rs. 5 each. A man spends
a total of Rs. 38 on these fruits. The number of pineapples that he purchased were:
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
24. What will be the product of all the numbers on a telephone?

(A) 345345 (B) 686680
(C) 787950 (D) None of these
25. A farmer built a fence around his square plot. He used 27 fence poles on each side of the square.
How many poles did he need altogether?
(A) 100 (B) 104
(C) 108 (D) None of these
(Directions Q. 26 to 27): In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given. These
characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.
26.
72 22 50
96 16 80
108 ? 36
(A) 52 (B) 75
(C) 72 (D) 82
27.
B G L
D J P
G N ?
(A) U (B) V
(C) S (D) X
(Directions Q. 28 to 30): Read the following information given below and answer the questions that
follow.
P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seven friends and are sitting in a circle facing the center of the circle. V is
second to the left of S and is the neighbour of T and U. S is not a neighbour of R or T. P is neighbour of Q
and R. Q is the neighbour of S.
28. Which of the following option is correct?

(A) Q is between P and S. (B) S is between U and P.
(C) T is to the immediate right of V. (D) U is to the immediate left of V.
29. Who are the neighbors of V?

(A) T and R (B) T and U
(C) U and S (D) V and U
30. What is the position of R?

(A) Second to the left of Q (B) Third to the right of U
(C) To the immediate left of P (D) None of these
Recommended Time: 45 Minutes for Section – II
Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 39. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Kepler’s second law of a planet is a consequence of the law of conservation of

(A) Energy (B) Angular momentum
(C) Linear momentum (D) None of these
32. A satellite A of mass m is at a distance of r from the centre of the earth. Another satellite B of
mass 2 m is at a distance of 2r from the earth’s centre. Their time periods are in the ratio of
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 16
(C) 1 : 32 (D) 1: 2 2
33. As we go from the equator to the poles, the value of g

(A) Remains the same (B) Decreases
(C) Increases (D) Decreases upto a latitude of 45°
34. The S.I. Unit of G is :–

kg2  m2
(A) Kg2/N–m2 (B)
N
N  m2 N  m2
(C) (D)
gm2 kg2
35. The force of friction depends on

(A) Area of contact of surface (B) Normal reaction applied by surface
(C) Coefficient of friction of surface (D) Both (B) and (C)
36. If a particle moves in uniform circular motion then it’s

(A) Acceleration remains constant (B) Velocity remains constant
(C) Speed remains constant (D) Both (A) and (B)
37. Gravitation force on surface of earth is a :–

(A) Conservative force (B) Non-conservative force
(C) Constant force (D) Both (A) and (C)
–1 –1
38. The velocity acquired by a body moving with uniform acceleration is 30 ms in 2 sec and 90 ms
in 6 sec. The initial velocity is
(A) zero (B) 2 ms–1
–1
(C) 3 ms (D) 10 ms–1
39. If mass of a satellite is doubled and time period remain constant the ratio of orbit in the two cases
will be
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 1
(C) 1 : 3 (D) None of these
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
40. Brass majorly contains :

(A) Aluminium and Zinc (B) Copper and Zinc
(C) Iron and Tin (D) Iron and Zinc
41. IUPAC stands for :

(A) International Union of Practical and Applied Chemistry
(B) Indian Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry
(C) International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry
(D) International Union of Practical and Analytical Chemistry
42. Which of these is deprived of a neutron?

(A) Protium (B) Deuterium
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
43. Which of the following mixtures can be separated by the process of sublimation?
(A) Sugar and Common salt (B) Iron filings and Sand
(C) Sand and Sugar (D) Camphor and Common salt
44. Which of the following elements is common to ammonium chloride, bleaching powder and
common salt?
(A) Chlorine (B) Oxygen
(C) Sodium (D) Iodine
45. Out of the following, which pair of elements is considered as ‘isotones’?

(A) C12
6 and C 6
14
(B) Ca 40
20 and Ar18
40
(C) B12 13
5 and C 6 (D) N3  and F
46. Which one of the following is considered to be a heterogeneous mixture?

(A) Petrol and water (B) Methanol and water
(C) Common salt and water (D) Vinegar and water
47. The percentage of nitrogen in Urea is :

(A) 38.4 (B) 46.6
(C) 59.1 (D) 23.3
48. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a shell of an atom (if ‘n’ = shell
number) is given by :
(A) n2 (B) n
(C) n/2 (D) 2n2
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
49. The point of intersection of the lines x = 3 and y + 2 = 0 is

(A) (– 3, 2) (B) (– 3, – 2)
(C) (3, 2) (D) (3, – 2)
50. Find the value of ‘a’ if (x + a) is a factor of x3 + ax2 – 2x + a + 4

5 4
(A) (B) 
3 3
3
(C) 3 (D)
4
51. Find the value of 3

27  3 53  49
(A) 1 (B) 15
(C) 20 (D) 14
2
52. The number  5 1  is a/an
(A) rational number (B) irrational number
(C) perfect number (D) none of these
R
53. In the given figure, POR and QOR form a linear pair. If x –
y = 70°, then find the value of x
(A) 125° (B) 55°
x° y°
(C) 110° (D) 135°
P O Q
54. In the given figure, x° + y° + z° is equal to

(A) 180° (B) 270° x°
(C) 360° (D) 90°
y° z°
55. The distance between the parallel lines y = 5 and y + 5 = 0 is

(A) 10 units (B) 20 units
(C) 14 units (D) 0 unit
56. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4, then the largest angle is
(A) 80° (B) 40°
(C) 60° (D) 120°
1 1  A B 
57. If A = and B = , then the value of   is
3 2 3 2  2 
(A) – 2 (B) 2 3
(C) 3 2 (D)  3 2 
BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
58. Lignified thick cell wall with no cytoplasmic space in a cell is characteristic of:
(A) Parenchyma (B) Collenchyma
(C) Chlorenchyma (D) Sclerenchyma
59. Component of blood responsible for producing antibodies is:

(A) Thrombocytes (B) Monocytes
(C) Erythrocytes (D) Lymphocytes
60. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is:
(A) Cuboidal epithelium (B) Columnar epithelium
(C) Transitional epithelium (D) Squamous epithelium
61. Which of the following disease is non-communicable?

(A) Influenza (B) Hepatitis
(C) Typhoid (D) Cancer
62. Which of the following pathogen causes whooping cough?

(A) Vibrio cholera (B) Salmonella typhi
(C) Myxovirus influenzae (D) Bordetella pertussis
63. Dengue is transmitted through:

(A) Female Anopheles mosquito (B) Female Aedes mosquito
(C) Female Culex mosquito (D) Male Culex mosquito
64. Mitochondria in animal cell:

(A) Lacks membrane and contains cristae
(B) Is membrane bound and contains cisternae
(C) Is membrane bound and contains cristae
(D) Lacks membrane and stores excretory substance
65. What structure is known as Dictyosome in plant cell?

(A) Endoplasmic Reticulum (B) Golgi body
(C) Lysosome (D) Polysome
66. Which phase comes between G1 amd G2 phase?

(A) M phase (B) S phase
(C) Anaphase (D) Propase
Recommended Time: 30 Minutes for Section – III
Section – III
67. Which of the following situation is not possible

(A) An object moving in certain direction with an acceleration in perpendicular direction
(B) An object moving with constant acceleration but zero velocity
(C) An object moving with variable speed and uniform velocity
(D) None of the above
68. The rotation period of an earth satellite close to the surface of the earth is 40 minutes. The time
period of another earth satellite in an orbit at a distance of three times earth radii from its surface
will be
(A) 40 minutes (B) 83  8 minutes
(C) 320 minutes (D) 640 minutes
69. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth, its value at a height equal to double
the radius of earth is
(A) g (B) g/2
(C) g/3 (D) g/9
70. A body weighs 700 g wt on the surface of the earth. How much will it weigh on the surface of a
1
planet whose mass is and radius is one third that of the earth
7
(A) 300 g wt (B) 900 g wt
(C) 50 g wt (D) 600 g wt
71. A body starts from rest with uniform acceleration. If its velocity after n seconds is v, then its
displacement in the last two seconds is
2v  n  1 v  n  1
(A) (B)
n n
v  n  1 2v  n  1
(C) (D)
n n
72. When a person jumps up,

(A) he exerts a force on the ground (B) the ground exerts a force on him
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
73. Smoke is a type of colloid in which the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are respectively:
(A) Gas, Solid (B) Gas, Liquid
(C) Solid, Gas (D) Liquid, Solid
74. Number of atoms in 4.25 g of ammonia is :

(A) 6.02 × 1023 (B) 6.02 × 1024
(C) 1.71 × 1024 (D) 2.40 × 1023
75. Among the colours of visible region of light, which has the minimum wavelength?
(A) Red (B) Green
(C) Violet (D) Indigo
76. ‘Duralumin’ is a/an :

(A) Element (B) Compound
(C) Homogeneous mixture (D) Heterogeneous mixture
77. Which of the following has the smallest number of molecules?

(A) 22.4 ml of CO2 gas at STP (B) 22 g of CO2 gas
(C) 11.2L of CO2 gas at STP (D) 0.1 mole of CO2 gas
78. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) The charge of a proton is equal in magnitude to that of an electron
(B) Atom consists of a positively charged nucleus where all the protons and neutrons are present
(C) The electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular paths, known as stationary orbits.
(D) Canal rays possess negative charge
3 3 3
79. If x + y + z = 0, then x + y + z is equal to
(A) 0 (B) 3xyz
(C) xy + yz + zx (D) 5xyz
80. If 3x + 2 + 3x + 1 = 36, then the value of x is

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 8 (D) 3
B C
81. In the given figure, find the value of y
(A) 130°
y°
(B) 50° 80°
60°
(C) 60° A O D
(D) 40°
82. The graph y + x = 0 lies entirely in which quadrant

(A) quadrant 1, quadrant 2 (B) quadrant 2, quadrant 3
(C) quadrant 1, quadrant 3 (D) quadrant 2, quadrant 4
83. In a triangle ABC, A = 120° then the longest side of the triangle is
(A) BC (B) AC
(C) AB (D) none of these
84. Which of the following is not a criterion for congruency of triangles?

(A) SAS (B) SSA
(C) ASA (D) RHS
85. The letter ‘T’ in T-lymphocytes refers to:

(A) Thalamus (B) Thymus
(C) Thyroid (D) Tonsil
86. A vaccine can be:

(A) An antigenic protein (B) Weakened pathogen
(C) Live attenuated pathogen (D) All of these
87. The difference between human cheek cell and onion peel cell is:
(A) Presence of cell wall in onion peel cell
(B) Presence of mitochondria in onion peel cell
(C) Absence of endoplasmic reticulum in cheek cell
(D) Absence of plasma membrane in cheek cell
88. Which one of the following organelle digests the old organelles that are no longer useful to cells?
(A) Ribosomes (B) Nucleosome
(C) Lysosome (D) Mesosome
89. In angiosperm, xylem is made up of:

(A) Tracheids & fibres (B) Tracheids & vessels
(C) Vessels & fibres (D) All of the above
90. __________ is present mostly at sites where filtration and diffusion occurs.
(A) Simple squamous epithelium (B) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(C) Simple columnar epithelium (D) Pseudostratified epithelium
Recommended Time: 45 Minutes for Section – IV
Section – IV
91. An elevator is moving vertically upwards with uniform velocity of 6 m/s the force exerted on the
floor by the man of mass 50 kg is
(A) 50 N (B) 50(6 + 9.8) N
(C) 70 (6 + 9.8)N (D) 50  9.8 N
92. A body of mass 5 kg is kept on the rough surface with coefficient of friction 0.2. If external force
applied on object is 8 N. The force of friction acting is :–
(A) 10 N (B) 5 N
(C) 8 N (D) 0 N
4
93. The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration m / s2 , in
3
the third second is :–
10 19
(A) m (B) m
3 3
(C) 6 m (D) 4 m
94. A stone is thrown vertically upward with initial velocity u from the top of tower, reaches the ground
with velocity 3u. The height of tower is :–
3u2 4u2
(A) (B)
g g
6u2 9u2
(C) (D)
g g
95. ‘Blue Vitriol’ is the other name for :

(A) MgSO 4  7H2 O (B) CuSO4  5H2 O
(C) ZnSO4  2H2 O (D) Na2 SO4  10H2 O
96. The sulphide of a metal M has the formula MS. The formula of its nitride is expected to be :
(A) MN (B) M2N3
(C) M3N2 (D) M3N
97. Which of these atoms contains the same number of electrons in two different orbits?
(A) Li (B) Be
(C) B (D) C
98. 18 g of NaCl is dissolved in 282g of water. What is the concentration of the solution in terms of
percentage by mass?
(A) 60% (B) 40%
(C) 6% (D) 94%
This part contains 4 Multiple Choice Questions number 99 to 102. Each question has 4
3 3
99. If x – y = 1, then the value of x – y – 3xy will be
(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 1
100. Find the perpendicular distance from point (3, 5) to the x-axis
(A) 3 unit (B) 5 unit
(C) 8 unit (D) 4 unit
 a   b  c 
101. If a, b, c are real numbers, then the value of    
  is
 b   c  a 
(A) 1 (B) abc
1
(C) (D) abc
abc
102. Find the unit digit in the product of (21  22  23  24  25)

(A) 0 (B) 5
(C) 2 (D) 1
103. Which one of the following is a prokaryote?

(A) Agaricus (B) Salmonella
(C) Green algae (D) Bacteriophage
104. Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell?
(A) Cell wall (B) Nuclear membrane
(C) Plasma membrane (D) Glycocalyx
105. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs:

(A) Only on the ribosomes present in the cytosol
(B) Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope & endoplasmic reticulum
(C) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in the cytoplasm
(D) On ribosomes present in the cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
106. The cell junctions called tight, adhering & gap junctions are found in:
(A) Muscular tissue (B) Connective tissue
(C) Epithelial tissue (D) Neural tissue
107. This is not a function of neuroglia:

(A) Phagocytosis (B) Isolation of neurons
(C) Secretion of cerebrospinal fluid (D) Information processing
108. This is correct about epithelial tissue:

(A) Lack of nerve supply (B) Lack of blood supply
(C) Lack of free surface (D) Lack of intercellular matrix
109. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which
type of immune-response is responsible for such rejections?
(A) Autoimmune response (B) Cell-mediated immune response
(C) Hormonal immune response (D) Physiological immune response
110. ‘Bacillary dysentery' is caused by:

(A) Salmonella (B) Shigella
(C) Proteus (D) Entamoeba
(FTRE – 2020)
ANSWERS
CLASS – IX (PAPER-1)
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. B
5. B 6. B 7. B 8. D
9. C 10. B 11. C 12. A
13. A 14. D 15. C 16. D
17. B 18. C 19. B 20. A
21. D 22. D 23. C 24. D
25. B 26. C 27. A 28. A
29. B 30. D 31. B 32. D
33. C 34. D 35. D 36. C
37. D 38. A 39. B 40. B
41. C 42. A 43. D 44. A
45. C 46. A 47. B 48. D
49. D 50. B 51. A 52. B
53. A 54. C 55. A 56. A
57. A 58. D 59. D 60. D
61. D 62. D 63. B 64. C
65. B 66. B 67. C 68. C
69. D 70. B 71. A 72. C
73. C 74. A 75. C 76. C
77. A 78. D 79. B 80. A
81. D 82. D 83. A 84. B
85. B 86. D 87. A 88. C
89. D 90. A 91. D 92. C
93. A 94. B 95. B 96. C
97. B 98. C 99. D 100. B
101. A 102. A 103. B 104. D
105. D 106. C 107. D 108. B
109. B 110. B
FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam - 2020

for students presently in
Class 9 (Paper 2)
(27th December 2020)
Time: 3 Hours (1:45 pm – 4:45 pm) Code 9009 Maximum Marks: 272
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 55 Minutes on Section-I, 45 Minutes on Section-II, 40
Minutes on Section-III and 40 Minutes on Section-IV.
2. This Question paper consists of 4 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question
Section Subject Question no.
Correct answer Wrong answer
SECTION – I
SECTION – II
SECTION – III
SECTION – IV
PHYSICS (PART-D) 108 to 110 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-E) 111 to 113 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-F) 114 to 116 +3 0
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your
rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
6. See method of marking of bubbles at the back of cover page for question no. 108 to 116.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 116 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : ____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : ____________________________________________________________
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For questions 108 to 116

Numerical based questions single digit answer 0 to 9
Example 1:
If answer is 6.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Example 2:
If answer is 2.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Recommended Time: 55 Minutes for Section – I

Section – I
1. 10 Newton is equivalent to
(A) 106 Dyne (B) 10–1 Dyne
(C) 100 Dyne (D) 100–2 Dyne
2. A block of 10 kg is kept on the frictionless horizontal 80 N

surface as shown. What will be the acceleration of the 10 kg
block if 80 N force acts on it in horizontal direction.
(A) 8 m/sec2
(B) 10 m/sec2
(C) 80 m/sec2
(D) 4 m/sec2
3. A ball of 30 kg is tied to the massless inextensible string, this system

is attached to the ceiling as shown in figure such that string does not
break. Find the tension in the string (g = 9.8 m/sec2)
(A) 294 kg (B) 294 N
(C) 492 kg (D) 350 N
30 kg
4. A ball of mass 2 kg is dropped from a height of 500 m. What will be the speed with which the ball
hit the ground. [Neglect air friction] (g = 10 m/sec2)
(A) 10 m/sec (B) 50 m/sec
(C) 100 m/sec (D) 80 m/sec
5. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

(A) Distance (B) Speed
(C) Power (D) All of these
6. A body starts from rest and moves with an acceleration of 10 m/sec2. Find the displacement in 4th
sec of its motion
(A) 10 m (B) 40 m
(C) 35 m (D) 80 m
7. The masses of two planets A and B are in the ratio 1 : 2 and their radius are in the ratio 2 : 1
respectively. The ratio of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet A to the planet B will
be
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 3 : 5 (D) 1 : 8
8. A bike accelerates uniformly from 10 m/sec to 25 m/sec in 5 seconds along a straight line. Find
the distance travelled by the bike in this time
(A) 112.5 m (B) 57.5 m
(C) 100 m (D) 87.5 m
9. The velocity – time graph of a particle moving along a fixed

direction is shown in figure. Find the distance travelled by
the particle between 0 sec to 12 sec. ↑
(A) 144 m V 24
(B) 444 km (m/sec)
(C) 24 m
(D) 288 m
0 6 12
t→
(Sec)
10. A car travels 100 km at a uniform speed of 60 km/h and next 100 km with 100 km/h. The average
speed of the car will be.
(A) 75 km/hr (B) 70 km/hr
(C) 80 km/hr (D) 85 km/hr
11. Figure shows the graph of distance s and time t. The motion of S
the body is with
(A) uniform acceleration and constant velocity
(B) uniform velocity
(C) uniform velocity and retardation
(D) non-uniform velocity
12. A particle start from rest with acceleration of 5 m/s2. The displacement of body in 10th second is :–
(A) 95 m (B) 250 m
(C) 47.5 m (D) 50 m
13. Neutron was discovered by :

(A) Thomson (B) Chadwick
(C) Bohr (D) Dalton
14. A sample of CaCO3 contains 40% Ca, 12% C and 48% O. Applying law of constant proportions,
the mass of Ca in 5 g sample of CaCO3 obtained from another source would be:
(A) 2.0 g (B) 0.2 g
(C) 0.02 g (D) 0.8 g
15. Among the following metals, which is the best conductor of electricity?
(A) Sodium (B) Aluminium
(C) Iron (D) Silver
16. Which of these elements is not a constituent of Potash alum?

(A) Hydrogen (B) Oxygen
(C) Chlorine (D) Sulphur
17. 80 g of oxygen gas contains as many atoms as are in :

(A) 10 g of hydrogen gas (B) 5 g of hydrogen gas
(C) 80 g of hydrogen gas (D) 40 g of hydrogen gas
18. The number of electrons in the penultimate shell of an aluminium atom is :

(A) 2 (B) 8
(C) 3 (D) 13
19. The ratio of radius of 2nd, 4th and 6th orbit of hydrogen atom is:
(A) 6 : 4 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 3
(C) 1 : 4 : 9 (D) 3 : 2 : 1
20. The masses of cane sugar and water respectively required to prepare 200 g of 15% w/w solution
of cane sugar in water is :
(A) Cane sugar = 30 g; water = 200 g (B) Cane sugar = 15 g; water = 185 g
(C) Cane sugar = 15 g; water = 200 g (D) Cane sugar = 30 g; water = 170 g
21. The volume of water to be added to 400 ml of N/8 HCl solution to make it N/12, is :
(A) 600 ml (B) 300 ml
(C) 200 ml (D) 100 ml
22. Two electrons in K-shell of an atom will differ in :

(A) Principal quantum number (B) Azimuthal quantum number
(C) Magnetic quantum number (D) Spin quantum number
23. Which of the following is a chemical change?

(A) Boiling of water (B) Corrosion of Copper
(C) Sublimation of Iodine (D) Freezing of Water
24. How many moles and how many grams of NaCl are present in 250 ml of a 0.5 M NaCl solution?
(A) 0.125 mol; 7.3 g (B) 7.3 mol; 0.125 g
(C) 0.125 mol; 0.125 g (D) 0.125 mol; 2.8 g
2x –1 1
25. If 2 = x 3
, then the value of x is
8
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 0 (D) 5
26. Find the remainder, when the polynomial p(x) = x 4 – 3x2 + 2x + 1 is divided by (x – 1)
(A) 2 (B) 5
(C) 1 (D) 7
27. Let P(a, b) be a point in the plane such that a > 0 and b < 0. Its reflection with respect to x-axis as
mirror is P(x, y). Its reflection with respect to y-axis as mirror is P(c, d) then P(a.x.c, b.y.d) lies
in
(A) Ist quadrant (B) IInd quadrant
rd
(C) III quadrant (D) IVth quadrant
28. Find the measure of an angle which is 18°210 less than its complement
(A) 35° 58 55 (B) 71° 57 50
(C) 72° 58 50 (D) 71° 58 50
29. In ABC, the medians AD, BE and CF intersect in G, then which of the following is correct.
3
(I) BE + CF > BC
2
(II) 4(AD + BE + CF) > 3(AB + BC + CA)
(III) BE + CF > AD
(IV) BE + AD > CF
(A) only I is correct (B) only I and II are correct
(C) only I, II and III are correct (D) All are correct
30. Which of the following is correct statement?

(I) every point on number line always represents a unique irrational number.
(II) each point on number line always represents a unique rational number.
(III) each point on number line always represents a unique real number.
(A) only I is correct (B) only II is correct
(C) only III is correct (D) none of these
2 2
31. Factors of (4x – 6x + 9y – 9y + 12xy) is/are
(I) (2x – 3y)
(II) (2x – 3y + 3)
(III) (2x + 3y)
(IV) (2x + 3y – 3)
(A) both (I) and (IV) are its factors (B) both (I) and (III) are its factors
(C) both (III) and (IV) are its factors (D) both (II) and (III) are its factors
32. Let a point P(a, 0) lies on x-axis for all possible values of a. How many pair(s) of points lie on
y-axis which is/are equidistant from P
(A) only one pair (B) only two pairs
(C) infinite pairs (D) no such pair exists
33. If Exterior angle of a regular polygon is one third of its interior angle, then number of sides in
polygon is
(A) 7 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8
34. ABC is an isosceles triangle in which AB = AC, side BA is produced to D such that AD = AB
then BCD is
(A) 30° (B) 45°
(C) 60° (D) 90°
35. In the given figure, if AB = BC and AD = EC then which A
of the following statement/s is/are true D


(I) ABD = CBE
E
(II) BDE = BED
(III) BDA = BEC
C
(A) both (I) and (II) are true only
B
(B) both (II) and (III) are true only
(C) both (I) and (III) are true only
(D) all are true
1 1
36. Evaluate:  17  12 2    17  12 2 
2 2
(A) 3 2 (B) 4 2
(C) 6 2 (D) 2 2
37. When collagen fibres are removed from the areolar tissue:
(A) Tissue becomes hard (B) Tissue becomes loose & elastic
(C) Tissue becomes loose & inelastic (D) Remains unchanged
38. The small fine branches arise from the cyton of a nerve cell are:
(A) Dendrites (B) Soma
(C) Axon (D) Synaptic knob
39. Hydrophobia is the characteristic symptom of:

(A) Cholera (B) Diphtheria
(C) Rabies (D) Plague
40. Match the following column & choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
1. Tuberculosis (a) Western Blot
2. AIDS (b) BCG
3. Typhoid (c) Jaundice
4. Hepatitis (d) Widal
(A) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d (B) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
(C) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d (D) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
41. ‘Membrane biogenesis’ is performed by:

(A) Plastid (B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Nucleus (D) Cell wall
42. The association of more than one ribosome with a single molecule of RNA complex is called as:
(A) Polypeptide (B) Polymer
(C) Polysome (D) Polysaccharide
43. Who among the following is recognized as father of Immunology?

(A) Robert Koch (B) Louis Pasteur
(C) Edward Jenner (D) Robert Brown
44. Which of the following is the correct matching of vitamin, its nature & its deficiency disease?
(A) Vitamin K - Fat soluble : Beri-Beri (B) Vitamin C - Water soluble : Night Blindness
(C) Vitamin B1 - Fat soluble : Scurvy (D) Vitamin D - Fat soluble : Rickets
45. ________ is a form of cel division which results in the creation of gametes or sex cells.
(A) Mitosis (B) Meiosis
(C) Miosis (D) Amitosis
46. Prokaryotic genetic system has:

(A) DNA but no histone (B) Both DNA & histone
(C) Neither DNA nor histone (D) Either DNA or histone
47. Which are the external protective tissues of the plant?

(A) Cortex & epidermis (B) Cork & cortex
(C) Xylem & phloem (D) Epidermis & cork
48. Tendons and ligaments are made of:

(A) Epithelial tissue (B) Dense regular connective tissue
(C) Loose connective tissue (D) Fluid connective tissue
Recommended Time: 45 Minutes for Section – II
Section – II
49. A 10 g bullet is fired horizontally into a 15 kg block of wood and sticks in it. The block, which is
free to move, has a velocity of 5 cm/sec after impact. Find the initial velocity of the bullet
(approximately)
(A) 900 m/sec (B) 800 m/sec
(C) 200 m/sec (D) 75 m/sec
50. The gravitational force of attraction between two bodies is F Newton. If the mass of each body is
tripled and distance between them is also tripled, then gravitational force acting between them in
Newton is
(A) F (B) 3 F
(C) 9 F (D) 27 F
51. At what height from the earth’s surface the acceleration due to gravity will be quarter of its value
at the surface of earth? (Re = 6400 km).
(A) 6400 km (B) 4600 km
(C) 5000 km (D) 2000 km
52. A car increases its speed from 54 km/hr to 72 km/hr in 5 sec, the acceleration of the car is
(A) 4 m/sec2 (B) 1 m/sec2
2
(C) 2 m/sec (D) 3.6 m/sec2
53. The mass of CO2 obtained when 60 g of calcium carbonate is treated with excess of hydrochloric
acid is:
(A) 13.2 g (B) 0.6 g
(C) 26.4 g (D) 22.0 g
54. The correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of chlorine atom can be :
1 1
(A) 3, 1, – 1, + (B) 2, 1, – 1, +
2 2
1 1
(C) 3, 0, 0, + (D) 2, 0, 0, +
2 2
55. Which of the following solutions is likely to exhibit Tyndall effect?

(A) Tincture of iodine (B) Copper sulphate solution
(C) Glucose in water solution (D) Milk in water
56. According to Bohr’s model, the angular momentum value for an electron revolving in 5th orbit of
an atom would be :
5h 2.5h
(A) (B)
 
5 2.5 
(C) (D)
h h
 1
57. If (x – 2) and  x   are factors of px 2 + 5x + r, then
 2
1
(A) p = 2r (B) p =
r
(C) p = r (D) p = – r
58. Let P(a, 0) and R(– a, 0) lie on x-axis where a > 0 while Q and S lie on y-axis, then how many
rhombus PQRS can we make with the help of points P, Q R and S, where PR and QS are
diagonals
(A) only one (B) only two
(C) infinite (D) no such quadrilateral exists
C D
59. In the given figure, If AB || CD and CE || DF, then find the
140°
value of x x
(A) 60° (B) 80°
B
(C) 90° (D) 100° A E F
240°
60. In an isosceles triangle ABC with base BC, the bisectors of B and C intersect at point O. If we
join A to O, then which of the following is/are true
(I) AO is bisector of BAC
(II) BO = OC
1
(III) BOC = 90° + BAC
2
1
(IV) B = 90° – A
2
(A) only (I) is correct (B) only (II) and (III) are correct
(C) only (I) only (III) are correct (D) All are correct
61. A protoplast is a cell:

(A) Without plasma membrane (B) Without nucleus
(C) Undergoing division (D) Without cell wall
62. In ‘fluid mosaic model’ of plasma membrane:

(A) Upper layer is non-polar & hydrophilic
(B) Upper layer is polar & hydrophobic
(C) Phospholipids form a bimolecular layer in middle part
(D) Proteins form a middle layer
63. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in:

(A) Mitochondria (B) Chromoplast
(C) Ribosomes (D) Chloroplast
64. In connective tissue sheaths, this is the correct sequence stretching from the outermost to the
innermost layer:
(A) Epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium (B) Perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium
(C) Perineurium, endoneurium, epineurium (D) Epineurium, perineurium, endoneurium
65. This is the difference between a nerve and a neuron:

(A) Consists of different number of cells
(B) One has motor and other has sensory function
(C) Nerves are made of grey matter while neurons of white matter
(D) Nerves are present in central nervous system only
66. Interferon act against viral infection by …

(A) Protecting other cells against virus
(B) Functioning as macrophages
(C) Providing antibodies
(D) Directly destroying genetic material of virus
67. Which disease in children is caused by intensive use of nitrate fertiliser?

(A) Jaundice (B) Methemoglobinemia
(C) Mumps (D) Septicemia
68. Healing of wound in plants takes place by activity of:

(A) Intercalary meristem (B) Secondary meristem
(C) Apical meristem (D) Lateral meristem
Recommended Time: 40 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
69. Which is a suitable method to decrease friction.

(A) Polishing (B) Lubrication
(C) Using ball bearing (D) All of these
70. A boy moves 100 m north then 300 m west and then 100 m towards south. The net displacement
of the boy is
(A) 100 m (B) 500 m
(C) 300 m (D) 400 m
1
71. Acceleration due to gravity on a body is reduced to th of its value then weight of 150 N body
5
will be (Take g = 10 m/sec2)
(A) 30 N (B) 30 kg
(C) 150 N (D) 150 kg
72. A rider on a horse back falls farward when the horse suddenly stops. This is due to
(A) Inertia of horse (B) Inertia of rider
(C) Larger weight of the horse (D) Losing of the balance
73. A train is moving on a straight track with a speed of 35 m/sec and its length is 100 m it overtakes
another train of 120 m moving at 25 m/sec in the same direction. The time taken by the first train
to overtake the second train is
(A) 19 sec (B) 220 sec
(C) 22 sec (D) 35 sec
74. An object at the surface of the earth has mass 3 kg. The mass of the object at a height of 12.8 ×
6
10 m from the surface of the earth is.
(A) 3 kg (B) 9.75 kg
(C) 1.46 kg (D) 4 kg
75. A 50 g sample of NaOH was taken for complete neutralization of 1 L of 1 N HCl solution. What is
the percentage purity of NaOH sample?
(A) 80 (B) 70
(C) 60 (D) 50
76. The third shell of an atom contains six electrons. How many electrons are present in its
dinegative ion?
(A) 16 (B) 18
(C) 10 (D) 8
+
77. How many moles of Na ions are present in 20 ml of 0.4 M Na3PO4 solution?
(A) 0.08 (B) 0.12
(C) 0.024 (D) 0.05
78. Which of the following techniques is used to separate different fractions from crude oil?
(A) Fractional distillation (B) Evaporation
(C) Centrifugation (D) Crystallization
79. Bromine is :
(A) Yellowish – green liquid (B) Yellowish – green gas
(C) Reddish – brown liquid (D) Violet liquid
80. Consider the reaction:

2KClO3  2KCl  3O2
Calculate the mass of oxygen gas obtained by complete decomposition of 10 kg of pure
potassium chlorate.
(A) 39.2 kg (B) 3.92 kg
(C) 1.31 kg (D) 13.1 kg
81. Expressing 0.34 + 0.34 as a single decimal we get

(A) 0.67 88 (B) 0.6 89
(C) 0.6 878 (D) 0.6 87
82. 
Let x be real number such that x 3 + 4x = 8, then the value of x 7  64x2 is 
(A) 136 (B) 146
(C) 128 (D) 156
83. Line x – y = 0, x + y = 0 and x-axis are concurrent at

(A) x – axis (B) y-axis
(C) origin (D) none of these
84. In ABC, BD and CE are altitudes on AC and AB respectively, where D lies on AC and E lies on
AB. If BD and CE intersect at O and BAC = 60°, then BOC is
(A) 120° (B) 60°
(C) 90° (D) 150°
X
85. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram and BXC
and AYD are such that BX = DY and CX = AY. Which of
the following statement/s is/are true.
B C
(I) BX || DY
(II) OX = OY O
(III) CX || AY
(A) only (I) and (II) are true A
D
(B) only (II) and (III) are true
(C) only (I) and (III) are true
(D) All are true Y
1 1 2 2
86. If x = and y = , then value of (x y + xy + xy) is
32 2 32 2
(A) 7 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 3
87. Which of the following statements best describes the chemical composition of plasma
membrane?
(A) Plasma membrane is composed of two layers – one layer of phospholipids & one layer of
protein.
(B) Plasma membrane is composed of equal number of phospholipids, proteins & carbohydrates.
(C) Plasma membrane is bilayer of proteins with associated lipids & carbohydrates.
(D) Plasma membrane is bilayer of phospholipids with associated protieins & carbohydrates.
88. Match the following column & choose the correct option:
Column-I Column-II
(a) Chlorenchyma 1. Strength, support
(b) Sclerenchyma 2. Buoyancy, support
(c) Aerenchyma 3. Growth
(d) Meristem 4. Photo synthesis
(A) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2 (B) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(C) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 (D) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
89. A boy happens to put his food on a rusted nail and the doctor gives him an injection. Most likely
he has given:
(A) OPV (B) BCG
(C) ATS (D) Tetanospasmin
90. The phenomenon by which protoplast of a cell shrinks from the wall is:
(A) Osmosis (B) Plasmolysis
(C) Diffusion (D) Glycolysis
91. Connective tissue is:

(A) Ectodermal in origin with intercellular spaces
(B) Mesodermal in origin without intercellular spaces
(C) Ectodermal in origin without intercellular spaces
(D) Mesodermal in origin with intercellular spaces
92. The Kala-azar fever is transmitted through the bite of:

(A) House fly (B) Tse-Tse fly
(C) Sand fly (D) Dragon fly
Recommended Time: 40 Minutes for Section – IV
Section – IV
93. A bike of mass 180 kg is moving with a uniform velocity of 126 km/hr. The force required to stop
the bike in 18 sec.
(A) 180 N (B) 350 N
(C) 500 N (D) 860 N
94. A cyclist goes round a circular track in 7 minutes. If the radius of the circular track is 108 m his
average velocity will be after completing one round is.
(A) 105 m/sec (B) 5.5 m/sec
(C) 2 m/sec (D) zero
95. The tidal moves in the sea are primarily due to

(A) The atmospheric effect of the earth
(B) The gravitational effect of venus on the earth
(C) The gravitational effect of sun on the earth
(D) The gravitational effect of moon on the earth
96. A body starts from rest and acquires some velocity in 10 sec, with a constant acceleration of 5
m/sec2. If the mass of the body is 30 kg, its momentum after 10 sec is.
(A) 300 kg m/sec (B) 500 kg m/sec
(C) 9500 kg/sec (D) 1500 kg m/sec
97. The value of acceleration due to gravity is maximum

(A) On surface of earth (B) At centre of the earth
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) At some height above the earth’s surface
98. The energy associated with a photon of a radiation having wavelength 300 nm is :
(A) 6.6 × 10–29 J (B) 6.6 × 10–28 J
–15
(C) 6.6 × 10 J (D) 6.6 × 10–19 J
99. A compound has a molecular weight of 194 u. If it contains 28.9% by mass of nitrogen, the
number of atoms of nitrogen in one molecule of the compound is :
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 3
+2
100. How many unpaired electrons are there in Ni ion?
(A) 0 (B) 8
(C) 3 (D) 2
101. The incorrect statement for 14 g CO is :

(A) It occupies 2.24 L volume at STP
(B) It corresponds to 0.5 moles of CO
(C) The mass corresponds to same number of moles for CO and N2
(D) It corresponds to 3.01 × 1023 molecules of CO
102. 1 nm equals :
(A) 10–12 m (B) 10–7 m
(C) 10–10 m (D) 10–9 m
n n
103. Let f(x) = x – a where x and a are variables and n is a natural number. Which of the following
statement/s is/are correct?
(I) (x + a) is its factor if n is an odd natural number.
(II) (x – a) is its factor if n is an even natural number.
(III) (x – a) is its factor if n is an odd natural number.
(IV) (x + a) is its factor if n is an even natural number.
(A) only (I) and (II) are true (B) only (I) and (III) are true
(C) only (II), (III) and (IV) are true (D) all are true
104. Let ax + by + c = 0 where a, b and c are real numbers, then which of the statement/s is/are true
(I) if a = 0 b  0 and c  0 then it is parallel to y-axis
(II) if a  0, b = 0 and c  0, then it is parallel to x-axis
(III) if a = 0, b  0 and c  0, then it is parallel to x-axis
(IV) if a  0, b = 0 and c  0, then it is perpendicular to x-axis
(A) only (I) and (II) are true (B) only (II) and (III) are true
(C) only (III) and (IV) are true (D) only (II) and (IV) are true
105. There are three angles. The second angle is one-third of the complement of the first angle. The
third angle is half of the supplement of the first angle. The third angle is 6 times the second
angle. Find the first angle
(A) 45° (B) 60°
(C) 75° (D) 90°
106. Let p(x) be a polynomial such that p(a) = 0 then which of the following is correct?
(I) ‘a’ is a zero of p(x)
(II) (x – a) is a factor of p(x)
(III) it has atleast one zero
(IV) it has atleast one degree
(A) only (I) is correct (B) only (I) and (II) are correct
(C) only (I), (II) and (III) are correct (D) all are correct
250 200 150 100

107. Among the number 2 ,3 ,4 and 5 , the smallest number is
(A) 2250 (B) 3200
150 100
(C) 4 (D) 5
PHYSICS – (PART – D)
This part contains 3 Numerical Based Questions number 108 to 110. Each question has
Single Digit Answer 0 to 9.
108. A constant retarding force of 40 N is applied on a body of mass 4 kg moving with a speed of 20
m/sec. Time taken by the body to stop is y sec. What is the value of y?
rd n 3
109. According to kepler’s 3 law, if T  R then what is the value of n
110. A box is placed such that the forces acting on it is shown in 20 N

figure. If the resultant force (In magnitude) is X Newton. Find
the value of X?
10 N 15 N
20 N
CHEMISTRY – (PART – E)
111. What is the principal quantum number of the shell in which f-subshell first appears?
112. How many atoms are there in a molecule of sodium sulphite?
113. The total number of orbitals in third energy shell of an atom is :

MATHEMATICS – (PART – F)
4
114. If 3
 3 a  b then (a + b) is
9  3 3 1
4 3 2 2
115. If r(x) is added to (x + 2x – 2x + x – 1) so that the result is exactly divisible by (x + 2x – 3) then
find r(5)
116. If P(a, 0) and R(– a, 0) lies on x-axis where a > 0 and constant, a while point Q and S lies on y-
axis such that PR and QS are diagonals of square PQRS, then how many distinct squares are
possible?
(FTRE – 2020)
ANSWERS
CLASS – IX (PAPER-2)
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. C
5. D 6. C 7. D 8. D
9. A 10. A 11. D 12. C
13. B 14. A 15. D 16. C
17. B 18. B 19. C 20. D
21. C 22. D 23. B 24. A
25. B 26. C 27. B 28. A
29. D 30. C 31. C 32. C
33. D 34. D 35. D 36. D
37. B 38. A 39. C 40. D
41. B 42. C 43. C 44. D
45. B 46. A 47. D 48. B
49. D 50. A 51. A 52. B
53. C 54. A 55. D 56. B
57. C 58. C 59. B 60. D
61. D 62. C 63. C 64. D
65. A 66. A 67. B 68. B
69. D 70. C 71. A 72. B
73. C 74. A 75. A 76. B
77. C 78. A 79. C 80. B
81. D 82. C 83. C 84. A
85. D 86. A 87. D 88. D
89. C 90. B 91. D 92. C
93. B 94. D 95. D 96. D
97. A 98. D 99. B 100. D
101. A 102. D 103. C 104. C
105. B 106. D 107. D 108. 2
109. 2 110. 5 111. 4 112. 6
113. 9 114. 4 115. 3 116. 1

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OMR Answer Sheet No. : ____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : ____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : ____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : ____________________________________________________________

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I

1. 10, 100, 200, 310, ?

2. 7, 26, 63, 124, 215, 342, ?

3. JA, OB, TC, YD, ?

7. If MEANDER is coded as 4515459, then MATHEMATICS is coded as?

10. How many students study Chemistry and Botany only ?

(A) Page, Chapter, Book (B) Parents, Mother, Father

24. What will be the product of all the numbers on a telephone?

28. Which of the following option is correct?

29. Who are the neighbors of V?

30. What is the position of R?

Recommended Time: 45 Minutes for Section – II

31. Kepler’s second law of a planet is a consequence of the law of conservation of

33. As we go from the equator to the poles, the value of g

34. The S.I. Unit of G is :–

35. The force of friction depends on

36. If a particle moves in uniform circular motion then it’s

37. Gravitation force on surface of earth is a :–

40. Brass majorly contains :

41. IUPAC stands for :

42. Which of these is deprived of a neutron?

45. Out of the following, which pair of elements is considered as ‘isotones’?

46. Which one of the following is considered to be a heterogeneous mixture?

47. The percentage of nitrogen in Urea is :

49. The point of intersection of the lines x = 3 and y + 2 = 0 is

50. Find the value of ‘a’ if (x + a) is a factor of x3 + ax2 – 2x + a + 4

51. Find the value of 3

Space for Rough Work

54. In the given figure, x° + y° + z° is equal to

(C) 360° (D) 90°

55. The distance between the parallel lines y = 5 and y + 5 = 0 is

59. Component of blood responsible for producing antibodies is:

61. Which of the following disease is non-communicable?

62. Which of the following pathogen causes whooping cough?

63. Dengue is transmitted through:

64. Mitochondria in animal cell:

65. What structure is known as Dictyosome in plant cell?

66. Which phase comes between G1 amd G2 phase?

Recommended Time: 30 Minutes for Section – III

67. Which of the following situation is not possible

72. When a person jumps up,

74. Number of atoms in 4.25 g of ammonia is :

76. ‘Duralumin’ is a/an :

77. Which of the following has the smallest number of molecules?

78. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

80. If 3x + 2 + 3x + 1 = 36, then the value of x is

82. The graph y + x = 0 lies entirely in which quadrant

84. Which of the following is not a criterion for congruency of triangles?

85. The letter ‘T’ in T-lymphocytes refers to:

86. A vaccine can be:

89. In angiosperm, xylem is made up of:

Recommended Time: 45 Minutes for Section – IV

95. ‘Blue Vitriol’ is the other name for :

102. Find the unit digit in the product of (21  22  23  24  25)

103. Which one of the following is a prokaryote?

105. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs: