Ec8073 Medical Electronics

EC8073 Medical Electronics Regulations 2017
Answer: a
Explanation: The input resistance of both the
EC8073 MEDICAL inputs is very high and does not change as the
gain is varied in and instrumentational
ELECTRONICS
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amplifier. Voltage gain from differential input
(V1–V2) to single ended output, is set by one
resistor. V0 does not depend on common-
ECE -
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mode voltage, but only on their difference.
PROFESSIONAL 2. Which of the following is not the property
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of the instrumentational amplifier?
ELECTIVE I a) Extremely high input impedance
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b) Low bias and offset currents
c) High slew rate
Regulations 2017 d) Very low CMRR
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Answer: d
Explanation: Instrumentational amplifiers
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have very high CMRR. The instrumentation
amplifier offers the following advantages for
UNIT I ELECTRO- its applications in the biomedical field. Some
of them are like extremely high input
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PHYSIOLOGY AND BIO- impedance, low bias and offset currents, high
POTENTIAL slew rate.
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RECORDING 3. CMRR is measured in ___________

a) v/s
b) dB
TOPIC 1.1 SOURCES OF BIO c) dB/s
.B
MEDICAL SIGNALS d) dB/ms
1. Which of the following statement is true Answer: b

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for an instrumentational amplifier? Explanation: CMRR is an important

a) the input resistance of both the inputs is specification referred to the differential
very high and does not change as the gain is amplifier and is normally expressed as
varied decibels. The ability of the amplifier to reject
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b) the input resistance of both the inputs is common voltages on its two input leads is
very low and does not change as the gain is known as common-mode rejection. It is
varied specified as the ratio of common-mode input
c) the input resistance of both the inputs is to differential input to elicit the same
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very high and does change as the gain is response.

varied
d) the input resistance of both the inputs is 4. The carrier amplifier consists of an
very low and does change as the gain is oscillator and a capacitance coupled
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varied amplifier.
a) True
b) False
Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 1

Answer: a side of the isolation barrier.

Explanation: The carrier amplifier consists a) True
of an oscillator and a capacitance coupled b) False
amplifier. The oscillator is used to energize
the transducer with an alternating carrier Answer: a
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voltage. The transducers, which require ac Explanation: The isolation includes different
excitation, are those whose impedance is not supply voltage sources and different grounds
on each side of the isolation barrier. Three
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purely resistive.
methods are used in the design of isolation
5. Electromagnetic coupling cannot be amplifiers: (i) transformer isolation (ii)
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reduced by ___________ optical isolation (iii) capacitive isolation.
a) shielding Isolation amplifiers are commonly used for
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b) wire twisting providing protection against leakage currents.
c) multiple grounding
d) common grounding 8. _________ are commonly used for
providing protection against leakage currents.
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Answer: c a) Isolation amplifiers
Explanation: Having multiple grounds in a b) Differential amplifiers
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single circuit increases the electromagnetic c) Instrumentational amplifiers
coupling effect by producing ground loop d) Inverting amplifiers
which may generate so much noise that it
may completely obscure the useful signal. Answer: a
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Thus, the electromagnetic coupling is reduced Explanation: Isolation amplifiers are
by shielding, wire twisting and proper commonly used for providing protection
grounding which provide a balanced signal against leakage currents. They break the
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pair with satisfactory noise rejection ohmic continuity of electric signals between
characteristics. the input and output of the amplifier. The
isolation includes different supply voltage
6. Which on the following is not a type of sources and different grounds on each side of
.B
isolation amplifier? the isolation barrier.

a) capactively coupled isolation amplifiers
b) optically isolated isolation amplifiers
c) resistive coupled isolation amplifiers
TOPIC 1.2 BIO-POTENTIALS
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d) transformer type isolation amplifiers

1. Source of Bioelectric potential is
Answer: c ____________ in nature.
Explanation: There is nothing such as the a) electronic
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resistive coupled isolation amplifiers. All the b) electric

other three types are in common use, though c) ionic
the transformer isolation amplifier is more d) mechanical
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popular. Opto-coupled amplifier uses a

minimum number of components and is cost Answer: c
effective, followed by the transformer Explanation: Bioelectric potentials are
coupled amplifier. The capacitor coupled generated at cellular level and the source of
amplifier is the most expensive. these potentials is ionic in nature. The
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prominent ions are K+, Na+, and Cl–.

7. The isolation includes different supply Electronic potential is seen in commonly used
voltage sources and different grounds on each cells for example the Galvanic cell.

Mechanical potential is found nowhere. membrane potential of quiescent cell. That is

Electrical potential is found in electricity. if the resting membrane potential of a neuron
is about -70 mV (mV=millivolt) it means that
2. Palsied muscles mean _____________ the inside of the neuron is 70 mV less than
a) paralyzed muscles the outside of the neuron. An action potential
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b) active muscles occurs when the potential of the membrane of
c) voluntary muscles a given axonal position increases and
d) involuntary muscles
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decreases rapidly. This depolarization causes
depolarization of adjacent positions in a
Answer: a similar way.
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Explanation: Palsied is an adjective that
means paralyzed. It is used to describe a 5. The variation of the electrical potential
T.
muscle on which an individual has lost all associated with the passage of a pulse along
control (cannot move). Voluntary muscles are the membrane of a muscle cell or a nerve cell
the muscles on which the individual has is called __________
complete control. Involuntary muscles are the a) muscle potential
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ones on which the individual has no control b) action potential
for example heart wall muscles. c) resting potential
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d) half cell potential
3. The principal ion that is not involved with
the phenomena of producing cell potentials is Answer: b
______________ Explanation: An action potential occurs
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a) sodium when the potential of the membrane of a
b) potassium given axonal position increases and decreases
c) chlorine rapidly. This depolarization causes
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d) hydrogen depolarization of adjacent positions in a

similar way. Resting membrane potential or
Answer: d the resting potential is the relative static
Explanation: Sodium (Na+), Potassium (K+), membrane potential of a quiescent cell.
.B
and Chlorine (Cl–) are the principal ions

involved with the phenomena of producing 6. Cells depolarize and action potential in
cell potentials. Na+ is present outside the cell generated as soon as a stimulus is applied.
a) True
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membrane and creates a positively charged

b) False
environment outside the cell membrane. Cl–
is present inside the cell membrane and is Answer: b
responsible for the negative environment Explanation: This statement is False. This is
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inside the cell membrane. because unless a stimulus above a certain

minimum value is applied, the cell will not be
4. What is the relatively static membrane depolarized and no action potential will be
potential of quiescent cells called?
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generated. This value of potential above

a) half-cell potential which the depolarizes and an action potential
b) action potential is generated is known as the stimulus
c) resting membrane potential threshold.
d) cell potential
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7. After a cell is stimulated, a finite period of

Answer: c time is required for the cell to return to its
Explanation: Resting membrane potential or
pre-stimulus state. This period is known as
the resting potential is the relative static

____________ Electroencephalography is the electrical

a) restoration period recording of brain.
b) refactory period
c) regain period 10. Phonocardiography is listening to
d) regenerative period __________
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a) arm muscle sound
Answer: b b) lungs sound
Explanation: After a cell is stimulated, a c) heart sound
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finite period of time is required for the cell to d) respiratory tract sound
return to its pre-stimulus state. This is
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because the energy associated with the action Answer: c
potential is developed from metabolic process Explanation: A phonocardiogram (or PCG)
T.
within the cell which takes time for is a record high-constancy recording of
completion. This time period is called sounds and mumble made by the heart with
refactory period. the assistance of the machine called
phonocardiography. Consequently,
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8. Electrooculography (EOG/E.O.G.) is a phonocardiography is the chronicle of the
technique for measuring what? considerable number of sounds made by the
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a) abnormal function of the retina heart amid a heart cycle. Mostly stethoscope
b) heart rate is used phonocardiography.
c) respiration rate
d) cornea-retinal standing potential
TOPIC 1.3 BIOPOTENTIAL
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Answer: d ELECTRODES
Explanation: Electrooculography (EOG /
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E.O.G) is a technique for measuring the 1. The material used in limb surface electrode
potential of the corneal retinal standing is ___________
potential that exists between the front and a) German silver
back of the human eye. The resulting signal is b) Copper
.B
called electrooculogram. The main c) Gold

applications are in the diagnosis of d) Platinum
ophthalmology and the recording of eye
movements. Answer: a
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Explanation: The most common type of

9. EKG stands for _________________ electrode most routinely used for recording
a) Electrocardiography ECG are rectangular or circular surface limb
b) Electroencephalography electrodes. The material used in them is
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c) Electromyography German silver, nickel silver or nickel plated

d) Electrtokinetcography steel. They are applied to the surface of the
body with electrode jelly.
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Answer: a
Explanation: Electrocardiography (ECG or 2. Welsh cup electrodes have __________
EKG) is the way toward recording the a) low contact impedance
electrical action of the heart over some stretch b) negligible contact impedance
of time utilizing anodes put on the skin. It c) high contact impedance
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could simply be understood as the electrical d) zero contact impedance

representation of heart beat.

Answer: c polarization associated with the half-cell

Explanation: Welsh cup electrodes or suction potential constant.
electrodes is a metallic cup shaped electrode
which is used for recording ECG from 5. Recording electrical activities associated
various positions from the chest. It has a high with heart is known as ____________
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contact impedance as only the rim of the a) EEG
electrode is in contact with the skin. It is b) EOG
c) EMG
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commonly used to record the unipolar chest
leads. d) ECG
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3. In floating electrodes metal electrode does Answer: d
not make direct contact with the skin. Explanation: The recording of the electrical
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a) True activities associated with the functioning of
b) False the heart is known as electrocardiogram. ECG
is a quasi-periodical, rhythmically repeating
Answer: a signals synchronized by the function of the
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Explanation: In floating electrode the metal heart, which acts as a generator of bioelectric
electrode does not make direct contact with events. This generated signals can be
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the skin. The electrode consists of a light described by the means of a simple electric
weighted metalled screen or plate held away dipole.
from the subject by a flat washer which is
connected to the skin. Floating electrodes can 6. Which of the following is considered to be
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be recharged, i.e. the jelly in the electrodes the primary pacemaker of the heart?
can be replenished if desired. a) sino-atrial node
b) atrio-ventricular node
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4. The main design feature of pregelled c) purkinje fibres

disposable electrodes which helps to reduce d) bundle of his
the possibility of artefacts, drift and baseline
wandering is _____________ Answer: a
.B
a) low absorbency buffer layer with isotonic Explanation: Located in the top right atrium
electrolyte near the entry of the vena cava, are a group of
b) high absorbency buffer layer with isotonic cells known as the sino-atrial node (SA node)
electrolyte that initiates the heart activity. Because this is
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c) high absorbency buffer layer without also considered as the primary pacemaker of
isotonic electrolyte the heart. The SA node is 25 to 30 mm in
d) low absorbency buffer layer without length and 2 to 5 mm in thickness.
isotonic electrolyte
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7. Atrio ventricular node is located at

Answer: b __________
Explanation: The main design feature of a) upper part of the heart wall between the
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pregelled disposable electrode that helps in two atrial

reducing the possibility of artefacts, drift and b) lower part of the heart wall above the two
baseline wandering is the provision of high atrial
absorbency buffer layers with isotonic c) lower part of the heart wall between the
electrolyte. This layer absorbs the effects of two atrial
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movement of the electrode in relationship to d) upper part of the heart wall above the two
the skin and attempts to maintain the atrial

Answer: c wirelessly and displayed on a laptop

Explanation: The AV node is located in the computer.
lower part of the wall between the two atria.
The AV node delays the spread of excitation 10. Before placing the electrodes the skin
for about 0.12s, due to the presence of a should be __________
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fibrous barrier of non-excitable cells that a) wet
effectively prevent its propagation from b) dry
c) hairy
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continuing beyond the limits of stria.
d) oily
8. Buffer amplifier converts ____________
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a) low impedance signals to high impedance Answer: b
signals Explanation: The skin should be dry. Poor
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b) high impedance signals to low impedance skin prep prompts undesirable curio and not
signals putting the terminals where they ought to be
c) ac impedance signals to dc impedance can change the morphology (shape) of the
signals waveforms the specialist will decipher. The
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d) dc impedance signals to ac impedance purpose of decent skin prep is to expel soil,
signals dead skin cells, oils, skin cream, counterfeit
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tan, body powder, sweat and so forth. These
Answer: b sources can prompt poor contact with the
Explanation: Noise is typically generated sensors and ancient rarity.
from motion artefacts and power line
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interference. A common solution used to
suppress noise in dry electrode signals is a
TOPIC 1.4 BIOLOGICAL
buffer amplifier. A buffer amplifies is AMPLIFIERS
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essentially an impedance converter, that

converts high impedance signals to low 1. Bio potential amplifiers have
impedance signals. ____________ input terminals.
a) 3
.B
9. Which of the following is a wireless ECG b) 4

acquiring system? c) 5
a) pregelled disposable electrodes d) 6
b) limb electrodes
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c) pasteless electrodes Answer: a

d) smart pad Explanation: Bio potential has three input
terminals. Out of the three one is arranges at
Answer: d the reference potential. The other two are live
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Explanation: Smart pad is a system that terminals. Bio potential amplifiers are also
displays patients electrocardiogram signals known as differential amplifiers. The
without adhesive pads, wires or active differential amplifier is employed when it is
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intervention from a clinician. The system necessary to measure the voltage difference
automatically selects three electrodes from an between two points, both of them varying in
array of Cu/Ni fabric based electrodes amplitude at different rates and in different
patterned on a thin pad on which the patient patterns.
lies. The selected electrodes are used to
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provide a differential 3 lead measurement of 2. The ability of the amplifier to reject

the patient’s ECG, which is then transmitted common voltages on its two input leads is
known as ________

a) common mode rejection rate to the differential amplifier and is normally

b) coupled mode rejection rate expressed as decibels.
c) common mode rejection ratio
d) coupled mode rejection ratio 5. The common mode rejection for most op-
amps is typically between __________
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Answer: c a) 10-50dB
Explanation: The ability of the amplifier to b) 20-40dB
reject common voltages on its two input leads c) 60-90dB
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is known as common-mode rejection. It is d) 100-120dB
specified as the ratio of common-mode input
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to differential input to elicit the same Answer: c
response. It is abbreviated as CMRR Explanation: The common mode rejection
T.
(Common-mode rejection ratio). for most op-amps is typically between 60 dB
and 90 dB. This may not be sufficient to
3. CMRR is measured in ____________ reject common mode noise generally
a) V/s encountered in biomedical measurements.
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b) dB Also, the input impedance is not very high to
c) dB/s handle signals from high impedance sources.
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d) dB/ms
6. The output of differential gain is given by
Answer: b _________
Explanation: CMRR is an important a) (difference of the two input voltage)*
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specification referred to the differential (feedback resistance/input resistance)
amplifier and is normally expressed as b) (sum of the two input voltage)*(feedback
decibels. The ability of the amplifier to reject resistance/input resistance)
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common voltages on its two input leads is c) (difference of the two input voltage)*(input
known as common-mode rejection. It is resistance/feedback resistance)
specified as the ratio of common-mode input d) (sum of the two input voltage)*(input
to differential input to elicit the same resistance/feedback resistance)
.B
response.
Answer: a
4. CMRR of the preamplifiers should be as Explanation: The output of differential gain
high as possible. is given by (difference of the two input
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a) True voltage)*(feedback resistance/input

b) False resistance). gain is given by (feedback
resistance/input resistance). The input
Answer: a resistances of but the inputs are the same.
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Explanation: CMRR of the preamplifiers

should be as high as possible so that only the 7. In order to be able to minimize the effects
wanted signals find a way through the of changes occurring in the electrode
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amplifier and all unwanted signals get impedances, it is necessary to employ a

rejected in the preamplifier stage. The ability preamplifier having a high input impedance.
of the amplifier to reject these common a) True
voltages on its two input leads is known as b) False
common-mode rejection and is specified as
C
the ratio of common-mode input to Answer: a

differential input to elicit the same response. Explanation: True. In order to be able to
CMRR is an important specification referred minimize the effects of changes occurring in

the electrode impedances, it is necessary to ECG circuit?

employ a preamplifier having a high input a) band pass filters
impedance. It has been found that a low value b) high pass filters
of input impedance gives rise to considerable c) notch filters
distortion of the recordings. d) low pass filters
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8. The impedance of the input should be Answer: c
________ in order to obtain high CMRR in Explanation: A notch filter is employed to
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the differential amplifier. suppress the hum noise generated by the
a) low power supply in the ECG circuit. CMRR of
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b) High the order of 100–120 dB with 5 kW
c) Does not matter unbalance in the leads is a desirable feature of
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d) Very low ECG machines. The instability of the
baseline, originating from the changes of the
Answer: b contact impedance, demands the application
Explanation: This shows that high input of the automatic baseline stabilizing circuit.
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impedance is very necessary in order to
obtain a high CMRR. Also, the electrode skin 3. The branch of medicine that deals with the
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resistance should be low and as nearly equal provision and use of artificial devices such as
as possible. In order to be able to minimize splints and braces is _________
the effects of changes occurring in the a) prosthetics
electrode impedances, it is necessary to b) orthotics
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employ a preamplifier having a high input c) laproscopic
impedance. d) augmentative communication
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Answer: c
TOPIC 1.5 ECG Explanation: The branch of medicine that
deals with the provision and use of artificial
1. The frequency range of ECG is devices such as splints and braces are
.B
____________ orthotics. A modality-specific appliance that

a) 0.05-150 HZ aids the performance of a function or
b) 500-1500 Hz movement by augmenting or assisting the
c) 5-500 kHz residual capabilities of that function or
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d) 0.5-150 MHz movement. An orthopaedic brace is an

orthosis.
Answer: a
Explanation: The diagnostically useful 4. The sensitivity of an electrocardiograph is
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frequency range is usually accepted as 0.05 to typically set at 10 mm/mV.

150 Hz. Although the electric field generated a) True
by the heart can be best characterized by b) False
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vector quantities, it is generally convenient to

directly measure only scalar quantities, i.e. a Answer: a
voltage difference of mV order between the Explanation: It is true. The sensitivity of an
given points of the body. electrocardiograph is typically set at 10
mm/mV. For routine work, the paper
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2. Which of the following amplifier recording speed is 25 mm/s. Amplitude

circulatory is employed to reduce the hum measurements are made vertically in
noise generated by the power supply in the millivolts. Time measurements and heart rate

measurements are made horizontally on the change in resistance with volume of the cell
electrocardiogram. to hold good, it is recommended that the ratio
of the aperture length to the diameter of the
5. The volume of blood within the dialyzer is aperture should be 0.75:1, i.e. for an orifice of
known as ___________ 100 m diameter the length should be 75 m.
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a) secondary volume The instrument based on the Coulter principle
b) quarterly volume works most satisfactorily when the average
c) priming volume
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diameter of the particles ranges between 2 to
d) residual volume 40% of the diameter of the measuring hole.
C
Answer: c 8. The blood is a poor conductor of
Explanation: The volume of blood within the electricity.
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dialyzer is known as priming volume. It is a) True
desirable that this should be minimal. Priming b) False
volume of present day dialyzers ranges from
75 to 200 ml, depending on the membrane Answer: a
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area geometry and operating conditions. Explanation: It is true. Blood is a poor
conductor of electricity. This principle is used
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6. The ideal membrane should possess in Coulter counters to count the number of
___________ to water. RBCs in the blood.
a) low permeability to water
b) high permeability to water 9. In floating electrodes metal electrode does
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c) medium permeability to water not make direct contact with the skin.
d) high permeability to waste a) True
b) False
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Answer: b
Explanation: The ideal membrane should Answer: a
possess high permeability to water, organic Explanation: In a floating electrode, the
metabolites and ions, and the capability of metal electrode does not make direct contact
.B
retaining plasma proteins. The membrane with the skin. The electrode consists of a light
should be of sufficient wet strength to resist weighted metalled screen or plate held away
tearing or bursting and non-toxic to blood and from the subject by a flat washer which is
all body cells. connected to the skin. Floating electrodes can
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be recharged, i.e. the jelly in the electrodes

7. To achieve optimum performance and to can be replenished if desired.
enable the relationship of change in resistance
with the volume of the cell to hold good, it is
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recommended that the ratio of the aperture TOPIC 1.6 EEG

length to the diameter of the aperture should
be __________ 1. Electrodes to measure EEG are placed on
________
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a) 75:1
b) 0.75:100 a) forehead
c) 0.75:1 b) scalp
d) 0.5:10 c) cheek
d) ears
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Answer: c
Explanation: To achieve optimum Answer: b
performance and to enable the relationship of Explanation: Electrode to measure EEG are

placed on the scalp. The position of each 5. The letter T in the EEG electrode
electrode is specified using the International placement system denotes?
10/20 system. Each electrode site is labeled a) temporal lope
with a letter and a number. b) temper lobe
c) trace
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2. According to the international 10/20 d) timpanic
system to measure EEG, even number
denotes which side of the brain? Answer: a
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a) left Explanation: T denotes temporal lobe of the
b) top head. The position of each electrode is
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c) bottom specified using the International 10/20
d) right system. Each electrode site is labeled with a
T.
letter and a number.
Answer: d
Explanation: The position of each electrode 6. According to the international 10/20
is specified using the International 10/20 system to measure EEG, odd number denotes
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system. Each electrode site is labeled with a which side of the brain?
letter and a number. Even number denotes the a) left
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right side of the head. b) right
c) top
3. Letter F in the EEG electrode placement d) front
system denotes?
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a) front Answer: a
b) face Explanation: The position of each electrode
c) frontal lobe is specified using the International 10/20
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d) fast system. Each electrode site is labeled with a

letter and a number. Odd number denotes the
Answer: c left side of the head.
Explanation: F denotes frontal lobe of the
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head. The position of each electrode is 7. The delta wave in EEG ranges from
specified using the International 10/20 ___________
system. Each electrode site is labeled with a a) 0.5-4Hz
letter and a number. b) 4-8Hz
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c) 8-13Hz
4. Normal EEG frequency range is _______ d) 13-22Hz
a) 50-500Hz
b) 0.5-50HZ Answer: a
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c) 0.05-5Hz Explanation: The delta wave in EEG ranges

d) 1-200Hz from 0.5-4Hz. The theta wave in EEG ranges
from 4-8Hz. The alpha wave in EEG ranges
Answer: b
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from 8-13Hz and beta from 13-22Hz.

Explanation: The frequency varies greatly
with different behavioral states. The normal 8. Disturbance in the EEG pattern resulting
EEG frequency content ranges from 0.5 to from the external stimuli is called ________
50Hz. The nature of the wave varies over the a) provoked response
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different parts of the scalp. b) ckoored response

c) evoked response
d) impulse response

Answer: c a) (7.07,45⁰,53⁰)
Explanation: Disturbance in the EEG pattern b) (0.707,45⁰,53⁰)
resulting from the external stimuli is called c) (7.07,54⁰,63⁰)
evoked response. The stimuli could be a flash d) (0.707,54⁰,63⁰)
light or a click of sound. The stimuli can be
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repeated and the EEG waveform can be Answer: a
observed to find the activities occurring Explanation: r = √(x2+y2+z2) = √50 = 7.07
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because of the stimuli. Θ = cos-1(z/r) = cos-1(5/5√2) = 45⁰
9. The peak to peak amplitude of the waves Φ = tan-1(y/x) = tan-1(4/3) = 53⁰.
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that can be picked from the scalp is
______________ 2. Example of spherical system in the
following is
T.
a) 100mV
a) Charge in space
b) 100V
b) Charge in box
c) 100uV
c) Charge in dielectric
d) 10mV
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d) Uncharged system
Answer: c
Answer: a
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Explanation: The EEG signal can be picked
Explanation: From a point charge +Q, the
up with electrodes either from the scalp or
electric field spreads in all 360 degrees. The
directly from the cerebral cortex. The peak to
calculation of electric field in this case will be
peak amplitude of the waves that can be
spherical system. Thus it is charge in the
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picked up from the scalp is normally 100uV.
space.
The frequency varies greatly with different
behavioral states.
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3. Spherical systems are employed in

waveguides. State True/False
10. Which rhythm is the principal component
a) True
of the EEG that indicates the alertness of the
b) False
brain?
.B
a) theta rhythm
Answer: b
b) gamma rhythm
Explanation: There is no waveguide
c) beta rhythm
designed spherically to avoid absorption,
d) alpha rhythm
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rather than propagation.

Answer: d 4. Choose which of following condition is not
Explanation: The alpha rhythm is the
required for a waveguide to exist.
principal component of the EEG and is an
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a) The dimensions should be in accordance

indicator of the state of alertness of the brain. with desired frequency
It serves as an indicator of the depth of b) Cut-off frequency should be minimum
anesthesia in the operating room. The 6GHz
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frequency of the EEG seems to be affected by

c) The shape should be spherical
the mental activity of a person.
d) No specific condition is required for
waveguide design
TOPIC 1.7 EMG
C
Answer: c
Explanation: A waveguide need not be
1. Convert the point (3,4,5) from Cartesian to
spherical, it has to be rectangular or circular,
spherical coordinates
as it violates the propagation of the wave.

5. Find the spherical coordinates of A(2,3,-1) 9. The scalar factor of spherical coordinates is
a) (3.74, 105.5⁰, 56.13⁰) a) 1, r, r sin θ
b) (3.74, 105.5⁰, 56.31⁰) b) 1, r, r
c) (3.74, 106.5⁰, 56.13⁰) c) r, r, 1
d) (3.74, 106.5⁰, 56.31⁰) d) r, 1, r
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Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: r = √(x2+y2+z2) = √14 = 3.74 Explanation: The radius varies from unity to
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infinity, the plane angle from zero to 360 ⁰
Θ = cos-1(z/r) = cos-1(-1/3.74) = 105.5⁰
and the z plane from (-∞, ∞) .
Φ = tan-1(y/x) = tan-1(3/2) = 56.31⁰.
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10. Transform the vector (4,-2,-4) at (1,2,3)
6. Find the Cartesian coordinates of
T.
into spherical coordinates.
B(4,25⁰,120⁰) a) 3.197i – 2.393j + 4.472k
a) (0.845, 1.462, 3.625) b) -3.197i + 2.393j – 4.472k
b) (-0.845, 1.462, 3.625) c) 3.197i + 2.393j + 4.472k
O
c) (-8.45, 2.462, 6.325) d) -3.197i – 2.393j – 4.472k
d) (8.45, 2.462, 6.325)
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Answer: b
Answer: b
Explanation: r = √(x2+y2+z2) = 3.74
Explanation: x = r sin θ cos φ = 4 sin25⁰ cos
120⁰ = -0.845 Θ = cos-1(z/r) = cos-1(3/3.74) = 36.7⁰
y = r sin θ sin φ = 4 sin 25⁰ sin 120⁰ = 1.462 Φ = tan-1(y/x) = tan-1(2/1) = 63.4⁰
G
z = r cos θ = 4 cos 25⁰ = 3.625. A = (4 sin θ cos φ – 2 sin θ sin φ – 4cos θ)i +
(4 cos θ cos φ – 2 cos θ sin φ + 4 sin θ)j + (-4
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7. The area of sphere can be computed from sin φ – 2 cos φ)k

the sphere volume. State True/False. On substituting r, θ, φ, A = -3.197i + 2.393j –
a) True 4.472k.
b) False
.B
Answer: a TOPIC 1.8 PCG

Explanation: On double integrating the
differential volume, the area can be computed 1. An arrhythmia monitor is basically a
17
for a sphere. ______

a) Sophisticated monitoring system
8. Given B= (10/r)i+( rcos θ) j+k in spherical b) Sophisticated alarm system
coordinates. Find Cartesian points at (-3,4,0) c) Patient monitoring system
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a) -2i + j d) ECG interpretation system

b) 2i + k
c) i + 2j Answer: b
d) –i – 2k Explanation: An arrhythmia monitor is
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basically a sophisticated alarm system. It is

Answer: a not an ECG interpretation system. It
Explanation: r = √(x2+y2+z2) = √25 = 5 constantly scans ECG rhythm patterns and
Θ = cos-1(z/r) = 1 issues alarms to events that may be
C
premonitory or life threatening.

Φ = tan-1(y/x) = tan-1(-4/3)
Thus, B = -2i + j. 2. In arrhythmia monitoring system, it gives
alarm light signals whenever the prematured

or widened ectopic beats exist up to the rate a) 16 bit

of ___________ b) 12 bit
a) 6/min to 10/min c) 32 bit
b) 6/min to 12/min d) 64 bit
c) 6/min or 10/min
M
d) 6/min or 12/min Answer: b
Explanation: In signal conditioning, ECG
Answer: d signal is amplified, filtered and digitized
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Explanation: In arrhythmia monitoring using an 8 or 12 bit analog-to-digital
instrument, it gives alarm light signals converter with a typical sampling rate of 250
C
whenever the prematured or widened ectopic Hz.
beat exist up to the rate of 6/min or 12/min.It
T.
is one of the operating sequences of the 6. By using a _________ rather than a
arrhythmia monitoring instrument. _________ the amplitude of low frequency
noise as well as the low frequency
3. In automated arrhythmia monitoring components of the ECG will be reduced
O
system, which task is performed after the without affecting the QRS.
Ventricular fibrillation detection? a) High-pass filter, Band-pass filter
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a) Rhythm definition b) Low-pass filter, Band-pass filter
b) Beat labeling c) Band-pass filter, Low-pass filter
c) Atrial fibrillation detection d) Band-pass filter, High-pass filter
d) Noise detection
G
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: The maximum of the QRS
Explanation: In automated arrhythmia energy spectrum is in the vicinity of 10 Hz,
LO
monitoring system, Rhythm definition is the filter is designed to have a bandwidth of

performed after the Ventricular fibrillation about 15 Hz with a centre frequency of 10-12
detection. Rhythm definition is also Hz. By using a bandpass filter rather than a
performed after the beat labeling and atrial low-pass filter, the amplitude of low
.B
fibrillation detection in automated arrhythmia frequency noise as well as the low frequency
monitoring and analysis system. components of the ECG will be reduced
without affecting the QRS.
4. In signal conditioning, ECG signal is
17
amplified, filtered with 0.05-100 Hz for 7. The steep, large amplitude variation of the
monitoring purposes and 1-40 Hz for QRS complex is the obvious characteristics to
diagnostic purposes. use and this is the function of the R wave
a) True detector.
-R
b) False a) True
b) False
Answer: b
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Explanation: ECG signal is amplified and Answer: a

filtered with 0.05-100 Hz for diagnostic Explanation: Arrhythmia monitors require
purposes and 1-40 Hz for monitoring reliable R wave detectors as a prerequisite for
purposes in signal conditioning. subsequent analysis. The steep, large
amplitude variation of the QRS complex is
C
5. Which analog-to-digital converter is used the obvious characteristics to use and this is
in the digitization of ECG signal in signal the function of the R wave detector.
conditioning?

8. In the process of the ECG waveform, the maintain no more than 10-20 clusters at a
detection filter removes _______ and time, order to limit the amount of
_______ computation needed to assign a QRS complex
a) Baseline wander, motion noise to a cluster.
b) Muscle artifact, motion noise
M
c) Low frequency noise, motion noise 11. When will be R-R interval declared
d) Baseline wander, muscle artifact premature?
a) If it is greater than 85% of the predicted
O
Answer: c interval
Explanation: The ECG waveform is b) If it is less than 85% of the predicted
C
processed by two digital filters: a detection interval
filter and a classification filter. The detection c) If it is greater than 75% of the predicted
T.
filter removes low frequency noise (baseline interval
wander) and muscle artifact. P waves and T d) If it is less than 75% of the predicted
waves are diminished. interval
O
9. How many steps are there in QRS Answer: b
detection? Explanation: In timing classification, the
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a) Three steps observed R-R interval is compared to an
b) Two steps estimate of the expected R-R interval. An R-
c) Four steps R interval will be declared premature if it is
d) One step less than 85% of the predicted interval.
G
Similarly, an R-R interval is long if it is
Answer: b greater than 110% of the predicted value.
Explanation: QRS detection is now almost
LO
universally performed digitally in a two-step 12. Which is the final stage in arrhythmia
process. The ECG is first preprocessed to analysis?
enhance the QRS complex while suppressing a) Beat labeling
noise, artifact and non-QRS portions of the b) Alarms
.B
ECG. The output of the preprocessor stage is c) Rhythm labeling

subjected to a decision rule that confirms the d) Summary statistics
detection of QRS if the processor output
exceeds a threshold. Answer: c
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Explanation: Rhythm labeling is the final

10. _________ is based on analyzing the stage in arrhythmia analysis. It is based on
shape of the QRS complexes and separating defined sequences of QRS complexes. The
beats into groups or clusters. analysis systems are heavily oriented towards
-R
a) Timing classification detecting ventricular arrhythmias, particularly

b) Morphology characterization single PVCs.
c) Beat labeling
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d) Noise detection 13. Ventricular Fibrillation is detected by

_________
Answer: b a) Shape of the QRS complexes
Explanation: Morphology characterization is b) Difference of the R-R interval
based on analyzing the shape of the QRS c) Timing sequence of QRS complexes
C
complexes and separating beats into groups or d) Frequency domain analysis

clusters of similar morphology. Most
algorithms for real time arrhythmia analysis

Answer: d TOPIC 1.9 TYPICAL

Explanation: Ventricular fibrillation is
usually detected by frequency domain WAVEFORMS AND SIGNAL
analysis. The system is characterized as a CHARACTERISTICS
narrow-band, low frequency signal with
M
energy concentrated in a band around 5-6 Hz. 1. The variation of a quantity such as voltage
It can be distinguished from noise by or current shown on a graph is known as
O
appropriately designing band-pass filters. ___________
a) Waveform
14. Which techniques are used in a new b) Peak value
C
algorithm proposed by Jen and Hwang to c) Instantaneous value
obtain the long term ECG signal feature and d) Period
T.
extract the meaningful information hiding in
the QRS complex? Answer: a
a) Cepstrum time warping and Dynamic Explanation: The variation of a quantity,
coefficient
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which is voltage or current in this case,
b) Cepstrum coefficient and Dynamic time shown on a graph with the x-axis as time is
warping known as a waveform.
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c) QRS detection and Dynamic coefficient
d) QRS detection and Cepstrum time warping 2. What is the duration of one cycle known as
_________
Answer: b a) Waveform
G
Explanation: Jen and Hwang proposed a new b) Peak value
algorithm using cepstrum coefficient and the c) Instantaneous value
dynamic time warping techniques to obtain
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d) Period
the long term ECG signal feature and extract
the meaningful information hiding in the QRS Answer: d
complex. This algorithm may also be used for Explanation: The duration of one cycle is
arrhythmia detection by simply checking the known as a period. A function which repeats
.B
difference of R-R wave intervals through the same waveform at equal intervals of time
signal feature extraction comparison for a is known as a periodic function.
certain period of time.
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3. The repetition of a variable quantity,

15. What is the sampling rate of the analog- recurring at equal intervals, is known as
to-digital converter in digitizing of ECG ___________
signal in signal conditioning? a) Waveform
a) 250 Hz b) Instantaneous value
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b) 215 Hz c) Cycle
c) 40-100 Hz d) Period
d) 200-215 Hz
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Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: Each repetition of a variable
Explanation: In signal conditioning, ECG quantity, recurring at equal intervals, is
signal is amplified, filtered (0.05-100 Hz for termed as a cycle.
diagnostic purposes, 1-40 Hz for monitoring
C
purposes) and digitized using an 8 or 12-bit 4. The value of a given waveform at any
analog-to-digital converter with a typical instant time is termed as ___________
sampling rate of 250 Hz. a) Waveform

b) Instantaneous value instantaneous value is the peak-to-peak value.

c) Cycle For a sinusoidal waveform, it is twice the
d) Period peak value. Hence Vp-p=2Vp.
Answer: b 8. If the peak to peak voltage is 10V, calculate
M
Explanation: Instantaneous value is the value the peak voltage.
of the waveform at that instant. Hence the a) 10V
value of a given waveform at any instant time b) 2V
O
is termed as instantaneous value. c) 4V
d) 5V
C
5. The maximum instantaneous value
measured from zero value is known as? Answer: d
T.
a) Peak value Explanation: Vp-p=2Vp
b) Peak to peak value Substituting the values from the question, we
c) Cycle get Vp=5V.
d) Period
O
9. If the peak voltage is 9V, calculate the peak
Answer: a to peak voltage.
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Explanation: The maximum instantaneous a) 9V
value measured from the zero value is termed b) 20V
as the peak value. c) 18V
d) 12V
6. The maximum variation between the
G
maximum positive and the maximum Answer: c
negative value is known as? Explanation: Vp-p=2Vp
LO
a) Peak value Substituting the values from the question, we

b) Peak to peak value get Vp-p= 18V.
c) Cycle
d) Period
.B
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum variation UNIT II BIO-CHEMICAL
between the maximum positive instantaneous
AND NON ELECTRICAL
17
value and the maximum negative

instantaneous value is the peak-to-peak value. PARAMETER
7. What is the correct relation between the MEASUREMENT
-R
peak value and peak to peak value for a

sinusoidal waveform? TOPIC 2.1 PH
a) Vp=4Vp-p
b) Vp=Vp-p
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c) Vp-p=2Vp 1. Which of the following is the formula for

d) Vp=2Vp-p pH calculation?
a) log10[H+]
Answer: c b) -log10[H+]
C
Explanation: The maximum variation c) log2[H+]

between the maximum positive instantaneous d) -log2[H+]
value and the maximum negative

Answer: b b) Value of hydroxyl ion concentration is

Explanation: pH is defined as the negative greater
logarithm of hydrogen ion concentration. c) They are both always the same
Hence, its formula is -log10[H+]. d) The concentrations keep changing
M
2. Pure water is known to be which of the Answer: c
following? Explanation: In water, the value of hydrogen
a) Weak electrolyte and hydroxyl ion concentrations are the same.
O
b) Strong electrolyte It can be represented as [H+]=[OH-].
c) Neither weak nor strong
C
d) Not an electrolyte 6. The Nernst equation is given by which of
the following statements?
T.
Answer: a a) E=Eo + 2.303 RT/F log CH
Explanation: Pure water is a weak b) E=Eo – 2.303 RT/F log CH
electrolyte. It dissociates to form hydrogen c) E=Eo + 2.303 RT×F log CH
ions and hydroxyl ions.
O
d) E=Eo – 2.303 RT×F log CH
3. Which of the following is the value of
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hydrogen ion concentration of pure water? Answer: a
a) 1×107 moles/litre Explanation: The Nernst equation is
represented as, E=Eo + 2.303 RT/F log CH. it
b) 1×105 moles/litre
is used for measuring the potential of
c) 1×106 moles/litre
G
electrodes.
d) 1×108 moles/litre
7. Which of the following is the relation
LO
Answer: a between the concentration of hydrogen and

Explanation: The hydrogen ion concentration hydroxyl ions in an acidic solution?
of pure water is 1×107 moles/litre. It can be a) Value of hydrogen ion concentration is
represented as [H+]=1×107 moles/litre. greater
.B
b) Value of hydroxyl ion concentration is

4. Which of the following is the value of greater
hydroxyl ion concentration of pure water? c) They are both always the same
d) The concentrations keep changing
17
a) 1×107 moles/litre
b) 1×105 moles/litre Answer: a
c) 1×106 moles/litre Explanation: In acidic solution, the value of
d) 1×108 moles/litre hydrogen ion concentration is greater than
-R
that of hydroxyl ion concentration. It can be

Answer: a represented as [H+]>[OH-].
Explanation: The hydroxyl ion concentration
SE
of pure water is 1×107 moles/litre. It can be 8. Which of the following is the relation
between the concentration of hydrogen and
represented as [OH-]=1×107 moles/litre. hydroxyl ions in a basic solution?
a) Value of hydrogen ion concentration is
5. Which of the following is the relation
greater
C
between hydrogen and hydroxyl ion

b) Value of hydroxyl ion concentration is
concentration of pure water?
a) Value of hydrogen ion concentration is greater
greater

c) They are both always the same respiratory functions. It is maintained at a

d) The concentrations keep changing fairly constant value to within a few percents
in a healthy organism.
Answer: b
Explanation: In basic solution, the value of 2. Liquid part of blood is __________
M
hydroxyl ion concentration is greater than that a) Platelets
of hydrogen ion concentration. It can be b) Red Blood Cells
represented as [H+]<[OH-]. c) White Blood Cells
O
d) Plasma
9. The measurement of hydrogen ion
C
concentration can be made by measuring the Answer: d
potential developed in an electrochemical Explanation: The plasma (liquid part of the
T.
cell. blood) is a very poor carrier of oxygen. At the
a) True pressures available, only 0.3 ml of oxygen
b) False can dissolve in 100 ml of plasma, which is
quite insufficient for the needs of the body.
O
Answer: a
Explanation: The measurement of hydrogen 3. What does red blood cells contain for
SP
ion concentration can be made by measuring combining with a large volume of oxygen?
the potential developed in an electrochemical a) Proteins
cell. b) Haemoglobin
c) Lipids
10. Slope factor is independent of
G
d) Platelets
temperature.
a) True Answer: b
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b) False Explanation: The red blood cells contain

haemoglobin which can combine with a large
Answer: b volume of oxygen so quickly that in the lungs
Explanation: Slope factor is dependent on it may become 97% saturated forming a
temperature. Slope factor is given by – 2.303
.B
compound called oxyhaemoglobin.

RT/F.
4. How much quantity of oxygen bound with
haemoglobin in the normal arterial blood?
17
TOPIC 2.2 PO2 a) 20.3ml %

b) 21.5ml %
1. Which gas saturation is of great importance c) 19.4ml %
in clinical practice? d) 20.1ml %
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a) oxygen
b) carbon dioxide Answer: c
c) hydrogen Explanation: The total quantity of oxygen
d) nitrogen bound with haemoglobin in the normal
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arterial blood is approximately 19.4 ml

Answer: a percent at a pO2 of 95 mmHg. On passing
Explanation: In clinical practice, the through the tissue capillaries this amount is
percentage of oxygen saturation in the blood reduced to 14.4 ml percent at a pO2 of 40
C
is of great importance. This saturation being a mmHg.

bio-constant is an indication of the
performance of the most important cardio-

5. When blood is withdrawn from the subject a) heart

under anaerobic conditions and measurement b) brain
for oxygen saturation is made at a later time c) ear
in the laboratory, the procedure is referred to d) eyes
as _________ oximetry.
M
a) in vitro Answer: c
b) in vivo Explanation: Blood in the ear must be made
similar to arterial blood in composition. This
O
c) transmission
d) reflection is done by increasing the flow through the ear
without appreciably increasing the
C
Answer: a metabolism. Maximum vasodilatation is
Explanation: When blood is withdrawn from achieved by keeping the ear warm.
T.
the subject under anaerobic conditions and
measurement for oxygen saturation is made at 9. By keeping the ear warm, maximum
a later time in the laboratory, the procedure is vasodilatation is achieved.
referred to as in vitro oximetry. a) True
O
b) False
6. For discrete blood samples, a
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spectrophotometric measurement of oxygen Answer: a
saturation can be made by which method? Explanation: Yes, maximum vasodilatation is
a) in vitro achieved by keeping the ear warm. It takes
b) in vivo about 5 or 10 min for the ear to become fully
G
c) transmission dilated after the ear unit has been put up in
d) cannot be determined place and the lamp turned on.
LO
Answer: c 10. What is time taken for the ear to become

Explanation: For discrete blood samples, a fully dilated after ear unit has been placed?
spectrophotometric measurement of oxygen a) 5-10 min
saturation can be made by either a b) 10-15 min
.B
transmission method or a reflection method. c) 15-20 min

d) 20-25 min
7. Which principle is used by ear oximeter
usually? Answer: a
17
a) in vivo Explanation: Maximum vasodilatation is

b) transmission achieved by keeping the ear warm. It takes
c) reflection about 5 or 10 min for the ear to become fully
d) in vitro dilated after the ear unit has been put up in
-R
place and the lamp turned on.

Answer: b
Explanation: Ear oximeters usually make use 11. Merrick and Hayes (1976) describe details
of a _________ oximeter which enables the
SE
of the transmission principle to measure

arterial oxygen saturation. In this case, the measurement of oxygen saturation of blood.
pinna of the ear acts as a cuvette. Blood in the a) Pulse
ear must be made similar to arterial blood in b) Ear
composition. c) Skin Reflactance
C
d) Intravascular
8. Blood in _________ must be made similar
to arterial Blood in composition.

Answer: b that the optical absorbers act independently

Explanation: Merrick and Hayes (1976) and additively and that the effects of light
describe details of an ear oximeter which scattering by the ear tissue can be minimized
enables the measurement of oxygen by a proper source and detector geometry.
saturation of the blood. This measurement is
M
independent of a wide range of encountered
variables and is made without involving
TOPIC 2.3 PCO2
O
patients in any calibration or standardization
procedure. 1. pH meters can be considered as voltage
sources with which of the following internal
C
12. This technique involves measuring the resistances?
optical transmittance of the ear at how many a) Very low resistance
T.
wavelengths? b) Moderate resistance
a) 12 c) Very high resistance
b) 6 d) No resistance
c) 8
O
d) 10 Answer: c
Explanation: pH meters can be considered as
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Answer: c voltage sources with very high internal
Explanation: In brief, the technique involves resistance. In order to eliminate errors, no
measuring the optical transmittance of the ear current should flow from the source.
at 8 wavelengths in the 650 to 1050 nm range.
G
A 2.5 m long flexible fibre ear probe connects 2. The electrodes used in pH measurement
the patient to the instrument. have which of the following internal
resistances?
LO
13. Ear probe which connects the patient to a) Very low resistance
instrument is ___________ m long. b) Moderate resistance
a) 1.5 c) Very high resistance
b) 2.0 d) No resistance
.B
c) 2.5
d) 3.0 Answer: c
Explanation: The electrodes used in pH
Answer: c measurement have very high internal
17
Explanation: A 2.5 m long flexible fibre ear resistance. It is of the order of 1000M ohm.
probe connects the patient to the instrument.
The ear probe can be either held in position 3. Which of the following is not a failure in
for discrete measurements or can be pH meters?
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conveniently mounted to a headband for a) Defective electrodes

continuous display. b) Defective input circuitry
c) Defective electronic circuitry
d) Defective calibration
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14. Ear oximeter instrument is based on Beer-

Lambert law.
a) True Answer: d
b) False Explanation: Defective calibration is not a
failure in pH meters. Failure occurs due to
C
Answer: a defective electrodes, defective input circuitry

Explanation: The instrument is based on the and defective electronic circuitry.
Beer-Lambert law. However, it is assumed

4. Which of the following is the simplest of Answer: b

pH meters? Explanation: Null-detector type pH meter
a) Null-detector type pH meter has greater accuracy than 0.01 pH. pH value
b) Direct reading type pH meter is read from the calibrated precision voltage
c) Digital pH meter source dial.
M
d) Modern pH meter
8. Which of the following is not the
Answer: a characteristic of direct reading type pH
O
Explanation: Null-detector type pH meter is meters?
the simplest of all pH meters. It is also known a) Simple operation
C
as the potentiometer type. b) Quick to use
c) Continuous indication output
T.
5. In which of the following ways can zero d) It requires balancing process
drift be reduced in pH meters?
a) Using filter Answer: d
b) Giving zero adjustment arrangement Explanation: Direct reading type pH meters
O
c) Keeping the input impedance high do not require balancing process. Its
d) Using balanced and differential amplifiers operation is simple and readings can be read
SP
directly.
Answer: d
Explanation: Zero drift be reduced in pH 9. Which of the following is not the
meters using balanced and differential characteristic of chopper amplifier pH meter?
G
amplifiers. Their response to external signals a) Direct voltage from the electrodes is
are additive and to internal noise are chopped at the main frequency
subtractive. b) Using choppers for high-input resistance
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gives rise to spikes of waveforms at the

6. Which of the following can be used to output
provide automatic temperature c) It leads to stability in DC output of phase-
compensation? sensitive rectifier
.B
a) Proper insulation d) Magnitude of surge increases in the glass

b) Calibration for different temperatures electrode output
c) Thermistor
d) Thermometer Answer: c
17
Explanation: The use of chopper amplifier in

Answer: c pH meter leads to zero instability. It leads to
Explanation: To provide automatic various other problems for high-input
temperature compensation, thermistors must resistance.
-R
be used. As the temperature of the solution

changes, the circuit constants are altered 10. In which of the following ways can the
accordingly. disadvantages of chopper amplifier type pH
SE
meter be overcome?
7. Which of the following is not the a) Using zero corrected DC amplifier
characteristic of null-detector type pH meter? b) Using modern design
a) It can be battery operated c) Using digital design
b) It has less accuracy d) Using vibrating condenser
C
c) It is easy to maintain
d) Its electronic circuits are simple Answer: d
Explanation: The disadvantages of chopper

amplifier type pH meter can be overcome component.

using a vibrating condenser. It is used in the
place of the mechanical chopper.
11. The zero stability of vibrating condenser
M
amplifier type pH meter is much better than a
direct coupled amplifier.
a) True
O
b) False
C
Answer: a
Explanation: The zero stability of vibrating
a) Filter
T.
condenser amplifier type pH meter is much
better than a direct coupled amplifier. The b) Buffer
capacity can be changed by vibrating one of c) A/D converter
its plates. d) D/A converter
O
12. In vibrating condenser amplifier type pH Answer: c
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meter, to maintain good performance which Explanation: The unmarked component is
of the following has to be done? A/D converter. Microprocessor operates only
a) Frequency of the vibrator should be stable on digital data. Electrodes give analog
b) Frequency of the vibrator should be signals. Hence, A/D converter must be
present.
G
constant
c) Amplitude of the vibrator should be
constant TOPIC 2.4 COLORIMETER
LO
d) Both frequency and amplitude of the

vibrator should be constant and stable
1. What is the use of a bomb calorimeter?
Answer: d a) To calculate the calorific value of a volatile
liquid
.B
Explanation: In vibrating condenser

amplifier type pH meter, to maintain good b) To calculate the calorific value of a gas
performance, both frequency and amplitude c) To calculate the calorific value of a non-
of the vibrator should be constant and stable. volatile liquid
17
d) To calculate the calorific value of sparingly

13. If an instrument fails to balance at zero, it soluble salt
is most likely that the electrodes are
defective. Answer: c
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a) True Explanation: It can also be used for

b) False calculating the calorific value of solids. If the
compound in a volatile liquid or gas, the
Answer: b flame calorimeter offers itself as an
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Explanation: If an instrument fails to balance instrument due to which further processes

at zero, it is most likely that the electronic cannot take place.
circuitry is defective. Errors may also occur
due to leakage of capacitance. 2. Why does bomb calorimeter require high
C
pressure oxygen?
14. Given below is the block diagram of a) To increase the rate of reaction
digital pH meter. Identify the unmarked b) To ensure that the given sample in the

crucible burns completely Answer: c

c) To increase the ignition temperature Explanation: When there is a change in
d) To increase the kinetic energy temperature inside the bomb, there is a loss of
heat due to radiation which is then absorbed
Answer: b by the air jacket and water jacket present in it.
M
Explanation: A pressure of 30 bar should be
used to carry out this whole process. The 6. Why only Beckmann or fixed zero
oxygen assists in the burning of coal sample. thermometer are used to note down the
O
temperature reading?
3. Which material is used in the making of the a) Since they can read temperature difference
C
cylindrical bomb? upto 1/100th of a degree
a) Carbon steels b) Since they have a high mercury level
T.
b) Alloy steels c) Since they give a precise value of the
c) Ferritic stainless steels temperature
d) Austenitic stainless steels d) Since they give accurate readings when
dissolved in water
O
Answer: d
Explanation: These steels are used to prevent Answer: a
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the bomb from corrosion. These steels are Explanation: When the current is supplied
also capable of withstanding a pressure of at from a 6 volt battery, then there is a rise in
least 50 atm. temperature, due to which some temperature
change occurs which is very small, so to
4. What is the role of the small ring attached
G
calculate a perfect value for this temperature
to the electrode in a bomb? change Beckmann thermometer is used.
a) It acts as a support to the crucible
LO
b) It is used to connect the electrode and the 7. What is the use of gas releasing pin in the
crucible bomb?
c) It is used as an intermediate for magnesium a) To remove the oxygen gas from the bomb
wire b) To release the pressure from the bomb
.B
d) It helps to collect the fuel at a point in the c) To release the water vapour
crucible d) To remove the carbon containing gases
(such as CH4, CO2 etc)
Answer: a
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Explanation: Since the electrode connected Answer: b

is of tubular form, the ring attached to it Explanation: The pressure required in the
makes good support between them. This bomb should be constant, so as to measure
electrode also acts as an oxygen inlet. the change in enthalpy of the solution.
-R
Sometimes when the value of pressure is

5. Why does the copper calorimeter increased above to the suitability of the bomb,
surrounded by an air jacket and water jacket
then to keep the pressure constant gas
respectively in a bomb?
SE
releasing pin is used.

a) To resist the calorimeter with moisture
particles 8. Which material is used for making the
b) To carry out the process of combustion wires, which are connected to the crucible
c) To prevent the loss of heat due to radiation containing fuel sample?
C
d) To provide stability to the crucible inside a) Arsenic

the bomb b) Phosphorous

c) Sulphur within the body have to meet certain stringent

d) Magnesium specifications; e.g. sensitivity and stability
requirements depend upon the magnitude of
Answer: d flow, location and the diameter of the
Explanation: Since these wires are connected individual vessels.
M
to the electrode from the crucible, they should
be good conductors. Platinum is also used for 2. Which of the following instrument is most
this process. commonly used for measurement of blood
O
flow?
9. What is the basic formulae for calculating a) NMR Blood Flowmeter
C
gross calorific value in bomb calorimeter? b) Ultrasonic Blood Flowmeter
a) θ = [(W+w)(t2+t1)]/m c) Electromagnetic Blood Flowmeter
T.
b) θ = [(W-w)(t2-t1)]/m d) Laser Doppler Blood Flowmeter
c) θ = [(W+w)(t2-t1)]/m
Answer: c
d) θ = [(W+w)(t2+t1)]/m Explanation: The most commonly used
O
instrument for the measurement of blood flow
Answer: c is of the electromagnetic type. With this type
SP
Explanation: Its unit is cal/gm. Here t2-t1 is of instrument, blood flow can be measured in
the temperature difference and W+w is the intact blood vessels without cannulation and
total weight. under conditions which would otherwise be
θ = [(W+w)(t2-t1)]/m impossible. However, this method requires
G
where θ is gross calorific value, W is the that the blood vessel be exposed so that the
weight of the water sample taken in flow head or the measuring probe can be put
calorimeter, w is the weight of water across it.
LO
equivalent, t1 is the initial temperature, t2 is

3. Magnitude of voltage picked up is denoted
the final temperature and m is the weight of
as e = CHVd, where H is ___________
the fuel sample taken respectively.
a) velocity of blood flow
.B
b) strength of magnetic field

TOPIC 2.5 BLOOD FLOW c) diameter of blood vessel
METER d) constant of proportionality
17
Answer: b
1. Which of the following physiological Explanation: The magnitude of the voltage
parameter is most difficult to measure picked up is directly proportional to the
accurately? strength of the magnetic field, the diameter of
-R
a) Blood pressure the blood vessel and the velocity of blood

b) Blood Flow flow, i.e. e = CHVd, where e = induced
c) Blood Volume voltage, H = strength of the magnetic field, V
d) Skin color
SE
= velocity of blood flow,d = diameter of the

blood vessel and C = constant of
Answer: b proportionality.
Explanation: Blood flow is one of the most
important physiological parameters and also 4. Magnitude of voltage picked up is denoted
C
one of the most difficult to measure as e = CHVd, where C is __________

accurately. This is because instruments for a) velocity of blood flow
measuring the flow through blood vessels b) strength of magnetic field

c) diameter of blood vessel the blood vessels which have various

d) constant of proportionality diameters. It is naturally more difficult to
construct flow heads suitable for use with
Answer: c very small blood vessels. However, flow
Explanation: The magnitude of the voltage heads having as small as 1 mm external
M
picked up is directly proportional to the diameter have been reported in the literature.
strength of the magnetic field, the diameter of
the blood vessel and the velocity of blood 7. The operating principle underlying all
O
flow, i.e. e = CHVd, where e = induced electromagnetic type flowmeters is based
voltage, H = strength of the magnetic field, V upon Kirchoff’s law.
C
= velocity of blood flow, d = diameter of the a) True
blood vessel and C = constant of b) False
T.
proportionality.
Answer: b
5. The induced emf is picked by point Explanation: False, The operating principle
electrodes made from ______ in underlying all electromagnetic type
O
electromagnetic blood flowmeter. flowmeters is based upon Faraday’s law of
a) copper electromagnetic induction which states that
SP
b) graphite when a conductor is moved at right angles
c) platinium through a magnetic field in a direction at right
d) copper tungsten angles both to the magnetic field and its
length, an emf is induced in the conductor. In
G
Answer: c the flowmeter, an electromagnetic assembly
Explanation: In actual practice, the provides the magnetic field placed at right
electromagnetic flowmeter transducer (Wyatt, angles to the blood vessel in which the flow is
LO
1984) is a tube of non-magnetic material to to be measured.

ensure that the magnetic flux does not bypass
the flowing liquid and go into the walls of the 8. The average flow velocity appears to be
tube. The tube is made of a conducting _______ cm/s in arteries.
.B
material and generally has an insulating lining a) 5 to 10

to prevent short circuiting of the induced emf. b) 10 to 12
The induced emf is picked up by point c) 12 to 18
electrodes made from stainless steel or d) 20 to 25
17
platinum.
Answer: d
6. What is the external diameter of flow Explanation: The flow-induced voltage of an
heads? electromagnetic flowmeter is, within certain
-R
a) 0.5 mm limitations, proportional to the velocity of the

b) 1 mm flow. This velocity is the average across the
c) 1.5 mm flow stream with an axis symmetric velocity
SE
d) 2 mm profile. The average flow velocity appears to

be 20 to 25 cm/s in arteries and 10 to 12 cm/s
Answer: b in veins.
Explanation: The flow head contains a slot
through which the intact blood vessel can be 9. What is the average flow velocity in veins?
C
inserted to make a snug fit. Several probes of a) 5 to 10 cm/s

different sizes must therefore accompany the b) 10 to 12 cm/s
flowmeter to match the full range of sizes of

c) 12 to 18 cm/s a) True
d) 20 to 25 cm/s b) False
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: The flow-induced voltage of an Explanation: True, To protect the probe from
M
electromagnetic flowmeter is, within certain chemical attack, it must be encapsulated in a
limitations, proportional to the velocity of the biologically inert material having a high
flow. This velocity is the average across the electrical and chemical resistance, e.g.
O
flow stream with an axis symmetric velocity silicone rubber. The probes can generally be
profile. The average flow velocity appears to sterilized by chemical means. Probe
C
be 20 to 25 cm/s in arteries and 10 to 12 cm/s calibration is carried out in 0.9% saline
in veins. during manufacture and each probe is given a
T.
calibration factor that is engraved on the
10. What is velocity for the cardiovascular connector.
system taken for designing the probe?
a) 5 cm/s 13. The cable from the transducer to an
O
b) 10 cm/s instrument is sleeved with medical grade
c) 15 cm/s silicon rubber.
SP
d) 20 cm/s a) True
b) False
Answer: c
Explanation: For designing the probe, Answer: a
G
velocity for the cardiovascular system is Explanation: True, the cable from the
taken as 15 cm/s. For non-cannulated probes, transducer to the instrument should comprise
a uniform magnetic field over the measuring of a teflon insulated wire completely shielded
LO
area is so selected that it has a convenient with a tinned copper braid. The entire cable is
shape and the smallest size (Cunningham et sleeved with medical grade silicone rubber
al. 1983). tubing and impregnated with silicone rubber
to minimize leakage and electrical noise.
.B
11. Iron cored electromagnets are used in

probes having a diameter between ______ 14. Air cored electromagnets are used in
a) 0.1 to 1 mm probes having a diameter _________
b) 1 to 8.2 mm a) between 0.5 to 1 mm
17
c) 8.2 to 10 mm b) between 1 to 2 mm
d) 10 to 15 mm c) below 8.2 mm
d) above 8.2 mm
Answer: b
-R
Explanation: Iron cored electromagnets are Answer: d

used in probes having a diameter between 1 Explanation: Iron cored electromagnets are
to 8.2 mm, and air cored electromagnets are used in probes having a diameter between 1
SE
used in diameters above 8.2 mm. Cannulated to 8.2 mm, and air cored electromagnets are
probes for extracorporeal use can have greater used in diameters above 8.2 mm. Cannulated
field strengths and magnet size as the probes for extracorporeal use can have greater
constraint of small size is no longer present. field strengths and magnet size as the
constraint of small size is no longer present.
C
12. To protect probe from chemical attack, it

must be encapsulated in silicon rubber.
TOPIC 2.6 CARDIAC OUTPUT

1. Which of the following statement is for the age of the person. High BP is when
correct? blood pressure is high than 120/80 mm Hg.
a) 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and
require treatment 5. A normal heart rate in an adult at rest is
b) 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal ______________
M
blood pressure a) 110
c) 105/50 mm Hg makes one active b) 125
c) 60
O
d) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs
d) 75
Answer: d
C
Explanation: The high blood pressure may Answer: d
harm vital organs of the body. It is the Explanation: A normal resting heart rate for
T.
condition in which the force of blood against an adult ranges from 70-85 beats a minute.
the artery valve is very high. Generally, a lower heart rate at rest implies
more efficient heart function and better
2. Blood pressure is the pressure exerted by cardiovascular fitness.
O
blood against ___________
a) kidneys 6. Unhealthy growth of tissue due to higher
SP
b) artery walls pressures on the walls of the artery is termed
c) brain as __________
d) stomach a) atheroma
b) aroma
G
Answer: b c) adenoma
Explanation: Blood pressure exerted by d) aroma and adenoma
circulating blood on the walls of blood
LO
vessels. Answer: a
Explanation: Atheroma is the growth of
3. Blood pressure is measured in terms of tissues due to higher pressure on walls of
____________ artery. High pressures increases heart work
.B
a) mm Hg load.
b) mm
c) cm Hg 7. Any mechanism that increases heart rate is
d) Hg said to have a positive ________ effect.
17
a) cholinergic
Answer: a b) inotropic
Explanation: Blood pressure values are c) chronotrophic
generally measured in terms of millimeters of d) feedback
-R
mercury. It is measured using an instrument

called as sphygmomanometer. Answer: c
Explanation: Chronotrophic are those that
4. A person can suffer from both low blood change the heart rate. It changes the heart rate
SE
pressure and high blood pressure. by affecting the electrical conduction system
a) True of the heart.
b) False
8. The colloid osmotic pressure of blood
C
Answer: a plasma is due to high concentration of

Explanation: Low blood pressure is when the _______
systolic and diastolic blood pressure is below a) albumin

b) hemoglobin gaseous exchange in the body while

c) sodium cardiovascular regulates the blood flow
d) glucose throughout the body.
Answer: a 2. Nose, larynx, pharynx, lungs, trachea, and
M
Explanation: Albumin is a family of globular bronchi are the parts of the respiratory
protein. The most important function is system.
maintaining intra vascular colloid osmotic a) True
O
pressure. b) False
C
9. The sinoatrial node depolarizes more Answer: a
frequently under the influence of ________ Explanation: Respiratory system consists of
T.
a) medulla oblongata all the organs which take part in the
b) vagus nerve respiration. It includes bronchi, trachea,
c) norepinephrine lungs, nose, larynx, and pharynx.
d) acetylcholine
O
3. Which of the following is NOT the
Answer: c function of the respiratory system?
SP
Explanation: Norepinephrine is similar to a) Regulate blood pH
adrenaline. It is used to treat life threatening b) Helps in gaseous exchange
low BP that can occur with certain medical c) Protection against blood loss
conditions. d) Contains receptors for the sense of smell
G
10. _________ is the enzyme that converts Answer: c
Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I. Explanation: Respiratory system helps in
LO
a) Rennin regulation of blood, pH, and also contain

b) ACE receptors of smell, produces vocal sound and
c) ANP filter inspired air while cardiovascular system
d) ADH protects against blood loss by the formation
.B
of blood clots.
Answer: a
Explanation: Angiotensin is a peptide 4. Which of this statement is TRUE for
hormone that causes an increase in blood pulmonary respiration?
17
pressure. Angiotensin I is produced by the a) Exchange of gases between alveoli of

action of rennin, which is formed in the liver. lungs and the blood
b) Exchange of gases between blood and
tissue cells
TOPIC 2.7 RESPIRATORY
-R
c) Breathing between the atmosphere and the

alveoli of the lungs
1. Name the process of gaseous exchange in d) Production of ATP
the body.
SE
a) Lymphatic system Answer: a

b) Respiration Explanation: Pulmonary respiration is the
c) Cardiovascular system exchange of gases between the alveoli of the
d) Respiratory system lungs and the blood in the capillaries.
C
Exchange of gases between blood and tissue

Answer: b cell occurs in internal respiration.
Explanation: Respiration is the process of

5. Which of the following controls the normal Answer: b

breathing process? Explanation: Pineal gland is the smallest
a) Amino acids endocrine gland attached to the roof of the
b) Cholesterol brain and secrete melatonin. Melatonin is
c) Ventral respiratory group responsible for settling of the biological
M
d) Dorsal respiratory group clock.
Answer: d
O
Explanation: Ventral respiratory group TOPIC 2.8 BLOOD PRESSURE
contains both inspiratory and expiratory
C
neurons and controlled forced breathing while 1. Which of the following statement is
dorsal respiratory group contains only correct?
T.
inspiratory neurons control normal breathing. a) 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and
require treatment
6. Oxygen and hemoglobin bind in a b) 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal
reversible manner to form______ blood pressure
O
a) Carboxyhemoglobin c) 105/50 mm Hg makes one active
b) Oxyhemoglobin d) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs
SP
c) Methoglobin
d) BPG Answer: d
Explanation: The high blood pressure may
Answer: b harm vital organs of the body. It is the
G
Explanation: Oxyhemoglobin is formed by condition in which the force of blood against
the combination of oxygen and hemoglobin. the artery valve is very high.
Oxygen binds to the hemoglobin in a
LO
reversible manner. 98% of oxygen is trapped 2. Blood pressure is the pressure exerted by
inside RBC. blood against ___________
a) kidneys
7. How many oxygen molecules bound to b) artery walls
.B
hemoglobin to give 50% saturation? c) brain

a) 6 d) stomach
b) 4
c) 2 Answer: b
17
d) 7 Explanation: Blood pressure exerted by

circulating blood on the walls of blood
Answer: c vessels.
Explanation: Hemoglobin can bind with
-R
maximum 4 oxygen molecules, so for 3. Blood pressure is measured in terms of

obtaining 50% saturation only 2 molecules of ____________
oxygen should be bound to hemoglobin. a) mm Hg
b) mm
SE
8. What is the name of the gland which c) cm Hg

secrete melatonin? d) Hg
a) Pituitary gland
b) Pineal gland Answer: a
C
c) Thyroid gland Explanation: Blood pressure values are

d) Hypothalamus generally measured in terms of millimeters of

mercury. It is measured using an instrument Answer: c

called as sphygmomanometer. Explanation: Chronotrophic are those that
change the heart rate. It changes the heart rate
4. A person can suffer from both low blood by affecting the electrical conduction system
pressure and high blood pressure. of the heart.
M
a) True
b) False 8. The colloid osmotic pressure of blood
plasma is due to high concentration of
O
Answer: a _______
Explanation: Low blood pressure is when the a) albumin
C
systolic and diastolic blood pressure is below b) hemoglobin
for the age of the person. High BP is when c) sodium
T.
blood pressure is high than 120/80 mm Hg. d) glucose
5. A normal heart rate in an adult at rest is Answer: a

______________ Explanation: Albumin is a family of globular
O
a) 110 protein. The most important function is
b) 125 maintaining intra vascular colloid osmotic
SP
c) 60 pressure.
d) 75
9. The sinoatrial node depolarizes more
Answer: d frequently under the influence of ________
Explanation: A normal resting heart rate for
G
a) medulla oblongata
an adult ranges from 70-85 beats a minute. b) vagus nerve
Generally, a lower heart rate at rest implies c) norepinephrine
LO
more efficient heart function and better d) acetylcholine

cardiovascular fitness.
Answer: c
6. Unhealthy growth of tissue due to higher Explanation: Norepinephrine is similar to
pressures on the walls of the artery is termed
.B
adrenaline. It is used to treat life threatening

as __________ low BP that can occur with certain medical
a) atheroma conditions.
b) aroma
17
c) adenoma 10. _________ is the enzyme that converts

d) aroma and adenoma Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I.
a) Rennin
Answer: a b) ACE
-R
Explanation: Atheroma is the growth of c) ANP

tissues due to higher pressure on walls of d) ADH
artery. High pressures increases heart work
load. Answer: a
SE
Explanation: Angiotensin is a peptide

7. Any mechanism that increases heart rate is hormone that causes an increase in blood
said to have a positive ________ effect. pressure. Angiotensin I is produced by the
a) cholinergic action of rennin, which is formed in the liver.
C
b) inotropic
c) chronotrophic
d) feedback

general function of the brain activity, is the

TOPIC 2.9 TEMPERATURE AND
superimposed wave of neuron potentials
PULSE MEASUREMENT operating in a non-synchronized manner in
the physical sense.
1. Which of the following instrument is used
M
for recording the electrical activity of the 4. Which of the following is material is used
brain? to improve electrical contact?
a) Silver Tungsten
O
a) ECG
b) EMG b) Electrode jelly
c) PCG c) Silver Graphite
C
d) EEG d) Copper Tungsten
T.
Answer: d Answer: b
Explanation: Electroencephalograph is an Explanation: Electrode jelly or paste is used
instrument for recording the electrical activity to improve the electrical contact. If the
of the brain, by suitably placing surface electrodes are intended to be used under the
O
electrodes on the scalp. EEG, describing the skin of the scalp, needle electrodes are used.
general function of the brain activity, is the They offer the advantage of reducing
SP
superimposed wave of neuron potentials movement artefacts.
operating in a non-synchronized manner in
the physical sense. 5. Whose electrodes give high skin
impedance as compared to ECG?
G
2. EEG electrodes are larger in size than ECG a) VCG
electrodes. b) PCG
a) True c) EMG
LO
b) False d) EEG
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: Several types of electrodes may Explanation: EEG electrodes give high skin
.B
be used to record EEG. These include: Peel contact impedance as compared to ECG
and Stick electrodes, Silver plated cup electrodes. Good electrode impedance should
electrodes and Needle electrodes. EEG be generally below 5 kilohms. The impedance
electrodes are smaller in size than ECG between a pair of electrodes must also be
17
electrodes. balanced or the difference between them

should be less than 2 kilohms.
3. _______ is the superimposed wave of
neuron potentials operating in a non- 6. What are generally designed to have a very
-R
synchrronized manner in a physical sense. high value of input impedance to take care of
a) VCG high electrode impedance?
b) ECG a) Montages
SE
c) EEG b) Electrodes
d) PCG c) Preamplifiers
d) Filters
Answer: c
Explanation: Electroencephalograph is an Answer: c
C
instrument for recording the electrical activity Explanation: Good electrode impedance
of the brain, by suitably placing surface should be generally below 5 kilohms.
electrodes on the scalp. EEG, describing the Impedance between a pair of electrodes must

also be balanced or the difference between several hundred microvolts, but 50 microvolts
them should be less than 2 kilohms. EEG peak-to-peak is the most typical.
preamplifiers are generally designed to have a
very high value of input impedance to take 10. A pattern of electrodes on the head and
care of high electrode impedance. the channels they are connected to are
M
__________
7. Voltage difference between an active a) Amplifiers
electrode on the scalp with respect to b) Oscilloscope
O
reference electrode at ear lobe or any other c) Montage
part of body is known as ___________ d) Wires
C
recording.
a) Monopolar Answer: c
T.
b) Bipolar Explanation: A pattern of electrodes on the
c) Unipolar head and the channels they are connected to is
d) Nonpolar called a montage. Montages are always
symmetrical. The reference electrode is
O
Answer: a generally placed on a nonactive site such as
Explanation: EEG may be recorded by the forehead or earlobe.
SP
picking up the voltage difference between an
active electrode on the scalp with respect to a 11. Where is the reference electrode placed?
reference electrode on the ear lobe or any a) nasal
other part of the body. This type of recording b) cervical
G
is called ‘monopolar’ recording. c) forehead
d) facial
8. How is bipolar recording done?
LO
a) Omni channel EEG Answer: c

b) Multi channel EEG Explanation: A pattern of electrodes on the
c) Uni Channel EEG head and the channels they are connected to is
d) Non Channel EEG called a montage. Montages are always
.B
symmetrical. The reference electrode is

Answer: b generally placed on a nonactive site such as
Explanation: ‘bipolar’ recording is more the forehead or earlobe.
popular wherein the voltage difference
17
between two scalp electrodes is recorded. 12. What is the typical value of the
Such recordings are done with multi-channel calibration signal?
electroencephalographs. a) 10 uV/cm
b) 30 uV/cm
-R
9. EEG signals picked up by surface c) 50 uV/cm

electrodes are usually small as compared to d) 70 uV/cm
ECG.
Answer: c
SE
a) True
b) False Explanation: A calibrating signal is used for
controlling and documenting the sensitivity of
Answer: a the amplifier channels. This supplies a
Explanation: Yes, EEG signals picked up by voltage step of adequate amplitude to the
C
the surface electrodes are usually small as input of the channels. A typical value of the
compared with the ECG signals. They may be calibration signal is 50 uV/cm.

13. Preamplifiers used in detection and filtering of frequencies up to

electroencephalograph have high gain and several hundred Hertz. This may be of
low noise characteristics. importance in some intracranial recordings.
a) True
b) False
M
TOPIC 2.10 BLOOD CELL
Answer: a COUNTERS.
Explanation: Yes, preamplifier used in
O
electroencephalographs must have high gain 1. The blood corpuscles are of _________
and low noise characteristics because the kinds.
C
EEG potentials are small in amplitude. In a) 5
addition, the amplifier must have very high b) 4
T.
common-mode rejection to minimize stray c) 2
interference signals from power lines and d) 3
other electrical equipment.
Answer: d
O
14. EEG machines have notch filter sharply Explanation: The blood corpuscles are of 3
tuned at _______ Hz as to eliminate mains types. They are colored corpuscles-
SP
frequency interference. erythrocytes, Colorless corpuscles –
a) 10 Leucocytes and blood platelets.
b) 30
c) 50 2. Blood is stained with _________ stain.
G
d) 70 a) Methylene blue
b) Safranin
Answer: c c) Leishman stain
LO
Explanation: EEG machines have a notch d) Carbol fuchsine

filter sharply tuned at 50 Hz so as to eliminate
mains frequency interference. These however Answer: c
have the undesirable property of ‘ringing’ i.e. Explanation: Leishman stain is used in
.B
they produce a damped oscillatory response microscopy for staining blood smears. It is
to a square wave calibration waveform or a generally used to differentiate and identify
muscle potential. The use of notch filters leucocytes malaria parasites and
should preferably be restricted to exceptional trypanosomas.
17
circumstances when all other methods of

eliminating interference have been found to 3. Process of formation of blood corpuscles is
be ineffective. called _____________
a) Haemolysis
-R
15. What is the typical frequency range of b) Haemozoin

standard EEG machines? c) Haemopoesis
a) 0.025 to 0.05 Hz d) Haemoter
SE
b) 0.05 to 0.1 Hz
c) 0.1 to 70 Hz Answer: c
d) 70 to 140 Hz Explanation: The Process of formation of
blood corpuscles is called Haemopoesis. It
Answer: c occurs in the bone marrow.
C
Explanation: The typical frequency range of

standard EEG machines is from 0.1 Hz to 70 4. Graveyard of RBC is ________
Hz, though newer machines allow the a) Spleen

b) Liver vitamin k might decrease the effectiveness of

c) Kidney warfarin.
d) Thymus
8. Hemoglobin is a ___________
Answer: a a) Reproductive pigment
M
Explanation: Old red blood cells are recycled b) Respiratory pigment
in the spleen. Platelets and white blood cells c) Carbohydrate
are stored there. Spleen also helps fight d) Fat
O
certain kinds of bacteria that cause
pneumonia and meningitis. Answer: b
C
Explanation: Hemoglobin is a protein in
5. Which leucocytes release heparin and RBC that carries oxygen throughout the body.
T.
histamine in blood? Lower Hemoglobin counts indicate anemia.
a) Neutrophil
b) Basophil 9. Absence of which clotting factor leads to
c) Eosinophil Hemophilia-A?
O
d) Monocytes a) Factor VII
b) Factor VIII
SP
Answer: b c) Factor IX
Explanation: Basophil contains heparin d) Factor X
which is an anticoagulant. It is a type of white
blood cell. Answer: b
Explanation: Hemophilia-A is also called
G
6. Which blood cells secrets antibody? factor VIII deficiency or classic hemophilia.
a) Eosinophils It is a genetic disorder caused by missing or
LO
b) Monocytes defective factor VIII a clotting protein.

c) Lymphocytes
d) Neutrophils 10. What prevents the clotting of blood inside
blood vessels?
Answer: c a) Heparin
.B
Explanation: A Lymphocyte is a type of b) Serotonin

white blood cell that is a part of the immune c) Fibrinogen
system. There are 2 main types of d) Fibrin
17
Lymphocyte: B cells and T cells. The B cells

produce antibodies that are used to attack Answer: a
invading bacteria, viruses and toxins. Explanation: Heparin is an anticoagulant that
prevents the formation of blood clots. It is
-R
7. Vitamin essential for blood clotting is used to treat blood clots in veins arteries or
_____________ lung.
a) Vitamin K
b) Vitamin A 11. Red cell count is carried out by
SE
c) Vitamin B _________
d) Vitamin C a) Electrogram
b) Sphygmomanometer
Answer: a c) Haemoglobinometer
C
Explanation: Vitamin K is used by the body d) Haemocytometer

to help blood clot. Warfarin is used to slow
blood clotting. By helping the blood clot

Answer: d c) Morphological-Rhythm statements

Explanation: Haemocytometer is a device d) Rhythm-Morphological statements
designed and used for counting blood cells. It
was invented by Louis Charles Malassez. Answer: b
Explanation: Morphological statement-
M
12. Blood is five times more viscous than primarily based on ECG wave shapes that
distilled water. attempt to describe the state of the working
a) True muscle masses. The other type of diagnostic
O
b) False statement is Rhythm statement. These both
diagnostic statements are observed from the
C
Answer: a ECG records.
Explanation: When hematocrit raised to 60%
T.
or 70% the blood viscosity can become as 3. Rhythm statements concerned with the site
great as 5 to 6 times that of water and it flows and rate of the cardiac pacemaker and the
through blood vessels is greatly retarded propagation of impulses through the
because of increased resistance to flow. conduction system.
O
a) True
b) False
SP
Answer: a
UNIT III ASSIST DEVICES Explanation: Rhythm statements concerned
with the site and rate of the cardiac
G
pacemaker and the propagation of impulses
TOPIC 3.1 CARDIAC through the conduction system is true because
PACEMAKERS the other type of the diagnostic statements is
LO
Morphological statements and it is primarily

1. Any disturbance in the heart’s normal based on ECG wave shapes that attempt to
rhythmic contraction is called? describe the state of the working muscle
a) Heart stroke masses.
.B
b) Cardiac arrest
c) Arrhythmias 4. Which wave from ECG waveforms
d) Premature contraction becomes widened when the self-triggering
impulse does not arrive through the AV node?
17
Answer: c a) P wave
Explanation: Any disturbance in the heart’s b) QRS wave
normal rhythmic contraction is called an c) ST wave
d) T wave
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arrhythmias or cardiac dysrhythmia. In this

arrhythmias heart can’t beat in a regular
rhythm. In arrhythmia heart-rate will be Answer: b
higher than normal rate or will be less than Explanation: Sometimes irritation occurs in
SE
the normal rate. the ventricles, the self-triggering impulse

does not arrive through the node and thus
2. Which diagnostic statement is based on travels a different and slower path in
ECG wave shapes that attempt to describe the spreading over the ventricles. The QRS wave
then becomes widened and is classified as a
C
state of the working muscle masses?

a) Rhythm statements ventricular ectopic beat.
b) Morphological statements

5. When the self-triggering impulse does not when the heart-rate is to fast(greater than
arrive at the AV node and travels a different 100). Here the answer is Bradycardia because
and slower path over the ventricles, the QRS heart rate is less than 60.
becomes widened and is classified as
___________ 8. Which of the following are resuscitation
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a) Ectopic beat techniques?
b) Ventricular-ectopic beat a) Cepstrum coefficient
b) Prophylactic therapy
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c) Ventricular beat
d) Atrio-ventricular beat c) Transthoracic defibrillation
d) Dynamic time warping
C
Answer: b
Explanation: Sometimes irritation occurs in Answer: d
T.
the ventricles, the self-triggering impulse Explanation: The necessity for early
does not arrive through the node and thus detection of the arrhythmias led to the
travels a different and slower path in establishment of coronary care units in
spreading over the ventricles. The QRS wave hospitals for the intensive monitoring and
O
then becomes widened, and is classified as a treatment of such patients. The attempt in
ventricular ectopic beat. This ectopic beat is these units was to effectively carry out
SP
classified from ventricles so it is called as a resuscitation techniques such as cardiac
ventricular ectopic beat. massage and transthoracic defibrillation.
6. An ectopic beat, which starts in an 9. If heart rate is x, then which value of x is

G
abnormal location in the heart and is often known as tachycardia?
premature, therefore also called _______ a) x < 60
a) Pre ventricular contraction b) x > 60
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b) Premature ventricular beat c) 60 < x < 100

c) Pre ventricular beat d) x > 100
d) Premature ventricular contraction
Answer: d
.B
Answer: d Explanation: There are 2 types of

Explanation: An ectopic beat is a beat, which arrhythmias,i)Bradycardia-when the heartrate
starts in an abnormal location in the heart and is to slow(less than 60), ii)Tachycardia-when
is often premature, therefore also called the heartrate is to fast(greater than 100).Here
17
premature ventricular contraction (PVC), i.e. the answer is Bradycardia because,heart rate
it occurs sooner than the next expected beat. is less than 60.
7. When the heartbeat is slower than the 10. Photo-diodes work in ___________
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normal rate of the heart(less than 60), this a) forward biased

type of arrhythmias called _______ b) reverse biased
a) Bradycardia c) independent of forward and reverse biasing
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b) Tachycardia d) any configuration

c) Arterial contraction
d) Ventricular contraction Answer: b
Explanation: The photodiode is a P-N
Answer: a junction semiconductor diode. It always
C
Explanation: There are 2 types of operated in the reversed biased condition. The
arrhythmias, i) Bradycardia-when the heart- light is always focused through a glass lens
rate is to slow(less than 60), ii)Tachycardia- on the junction of the photo diode.

11. Parallel flow dialyzer has a low internal arrhythmias or cardiac dysrhythmia. In this
resistance. Because of this blood pump is arrhythmias heart can’t beat in a regular
required. rhythm. In arrhythmia heart-rate will be
a) True higher than normal rate or will be less than
b) False the normal rate.
M
Answer: b 2. Which diagnostic statement is based on
Explanation: Parallel flow dialyzer has a low ECG wave shapes that attempt to describe the
O
internal resistance which allows adequate state of the working muscle masses?
blood flow through the dialyzer with the a) Rhythm statements
C
patient’s arterial blood pressure, eliminating b) Morphological statements
the need for a blood pump. The dialyzing c) Morphological-Rhythm statements
T.
surface area of a parallel flow dialyzer is d) Rhythm-Morphological statements
about 1 sq m. At a blood flow rate of 200
ml/min and a dialysate flow of 500 ml/min, Answer: b
the urea and creatinine clearance is about 80 Explanation: Morphological statement-
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and 64 ml/min. primarily based on ECG wave shapes that
attempt to describe the state of the working
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12. CMRR is measured in _______________ muscle masses. The other type of diagnostic
a) V/s statement is Rhythm statement. These both
b) dB diagnostic statements are observed from the
c) dB/s ECG records.
G
d) dB/ms
3. Rhythm statements concerned with the site
Answer: b and rate of the cardiac pacemaker and the
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Explanation: CMRR is an important propagation of impulses through the

specification referred to the differential conduction system.
amplifier and is normally expressed as a) True
decibels. The ability of the amplifier to reject b) False
.B
common voltages on its two input leads is

known as common-mode rejection. It is Answer: a
specified as the ratio of common-mode input Explanation: Rhythm statements concerned
to differential input to elicit the same with the site and rate of the cardiac
17
response. pacemaker and the propagation of impulses

through the conduction system is true because
the other type of the diagnostic statements is
TOPIC 3.2 DC DEFIBRILLATOR Morphological statements and it is primarily
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based on ECG wave shapes that attempt to

1. Any disturbance in the heart’s normal describe the state of the working muscle
rhythmic contraction is called? masses.
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a) Heart stroke
b) Cardiac arrest 4. Which wave from ECG waveforms
c) Arrhythmias becomes widened when the self-triggering
d) Premature contraction impulse does not arrive through the AV node?
a) P wave
C
Answer: c b) QRS wave

Explanation: Any disturbance in the heart’s c) ST wave
normal rhythmic contraction is called an d) T wave

Answer: b a) Bradycardia
Explanation: Sometimes irritation occurs in b) Tachycardia
the ventricles, the self-triggering impulse c) Arterial contraction
does not arrive through the node and thus d) Ventricular contraction
travels a different and slower path in
M
spreading over the ventricles. The QRS wave Answer: a
then becomes widened and is classified as a Explanation: There are 2 types of
arrhythmias, i) Bradycardia-when the heart-
O
ventricular ectopic beat.
rate is to slow(less than 60), ii)Tachycardia-
5. When the self-triggering impulse does not when the heart-rate is to fast(greater than
C
arrive at the AV node and travels a different 100). Here the answer is Bradycardia because
and slower path over the ventricles, the QRS heart rate is less than 60.
T.
becomes widened and is classified as
___________ 8. Which of the following are resuscitation
a) Ectopic beat techniques?
b) Ventricular-ectopic beat a) Cepstrum coefficient
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c) Ventricular beat b) Prophylactic therapy
d) Atrio-ventricular beat c) Transthoracic defibrillation
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d) Dynamic time warping
Answer: b
Explanation: Sometimes irritation occurs in Answer: d
the ventricles, the self-triggering impulse Explanation: The necessity for early
G
does not arrive through the node and thus detection of the arrhythmias led to the
travels a different and slower path in establishment of coronary care units in
spreading over the ventricles. The QRS wave hospitals for the intensive monitoring and
LO
then becomes widened, and is classified as a treatment of such patients. The attempt in
ventricular ectopic beat. This ectopic beat is these units was to effectively carry out
classified from ventricles so it is called as a resuscitation techniques such as cardiac
ventricular ectopic beat. massage and transthoracic defibrillation.
.B
6. An ectopic beat, which starts in an 9. If heart rate is x, then which value of x is

abnormal location in the heart and is often known as tachycardia?
premature, therefore also called _______ a) x < 60
17
a) Pre ventricular contraction b) x > 60

b) Premature ventricular beat c) 60 < x < 100
c) Pre ventricular beat d) x > 100
d) Premature ventricular contraction
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Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: There are 2 types of
Explanation: An ectopic beat is a beat, which arrhythmias,i)Bradycardia-when the heartrate
SE
starts in an abnormal location in the heart and is to slow(less than 60), ii)Tachycardia-when
is often premature, therefore also called the heartrate is to fast(greater than 100).Here
premature ventricular contraction (PVC), i.e. the answer is Bradycardia because,heart rate
it occurs sooner than the next expected beat. is less than 60.
C
7. When the heartbeat is slower than the 10. Photo-diodes work in ___________
normal rate of the heart(less than 60), this a) forward biased
type of arrhythmias called _______ b) reverse biased

c) independent of forward and reverse biasing 1. Dialysis commonly refers to ___________

d) any configuration a) heamo dialysis
b) chemo dialysis
Answer: b c) liver dialysis
Explanation: The photodiode is a P-N d) pancreatic dialysis
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junction semiconductor diode. It always
operated in the reversed biased condition. The Answer: a
light is always focused through a glass lens Explanation: When the term dialysis is
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on the junction of the photo diode. mentioned, it usually means the purification
of blood and removal of nitrogenous wastes
C
11. Parallel flow dialyzer has a low internal from the body. It refers to the work done by
resistance. Because of this blood pump is the kidney by drawing out blood and
T.
required. purifying it.
a) True
b) False 2. The membrane used for dialysis is made of
____________
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Answer: b a) cellulose
Explanation: Parallel flow dialyzer has a low b) polyvinyl chloride
SP
internal resistance which allows adequate c) polyethylene
blood flow through the dialyzer with the d) chitin
patient’s arterial blood pressure, eliminating
the need for a blood pump. The dialyzing Answer: a
G
surface area of a parallel flow dialyzer is Explanation: Cellulose is an easily available
about 1 sq m. At a blood flow rate of 200 material which does not cause any harm to
ml/min and a dialysate flow of 500 ml/min, the blood or body. It is cheap and with certain
LO
the urea and creatinine clearance is about 80 tampering, it’s strength can be increased. It
and 64 ml/min. has a good pore size, small enough to stop the
blood cells but large enough to pass out the
12. CMRR is measured in _______________ waste products.
.B
a) V/s
b) dB 3. The latest form of dialysis machine being
c) dB/s used has what kind of membrane
d) dB/ms arrangements
17
a) Parallel Plate
Answer: b b) Hollow Fibre
Explanation: CMRR is an important c) Coil Tube
specification referred to the differential d) Hollow Plate
-R
amplifier and is normally expressed as

decibels. The ability of the amplifier to reject Answer: b
common voltages on its two input leads is Explanation: The hollow fibre is dialyzer is a
SE
known as common-mode rejection. It is tube like structure with fibers planted in

specified as the ratio of common-mode input polyurathanes at the opposite ends. This
to differential input to elicit the same forms hollow pipe like structures for the
response. blood to flow through and allow for the
exchange of materials across the membrane.
C
TOPIC 3.3 DIALYSER 4. Dialysis can also be used in situations of

_________

a) extreme fever Answer: b

b) acute poisoning Explanation: In this procedure, the
c) low blood pressure diaphragm is used to conduct dialysis. There
d) blood transfusions is cannula which allows the electrolyte to be
entered in the body. The electrolytes stay in
M
Answer: b the body for up to 6 hours during which the
Explanation: When a person is suspected of person’s blood vessels and diaphragm act as
acute poisoning, the person may be made to
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filtering membranes and the unwanted
undergo dialysis. Poison will be regarded as a products like creatinine and urea get filtered
toxin by the body and will be removed out. Then the stopper on the cannula is
C
normally by kidney and liver which may opened once more and the electrolyte is
cause damage to these organs. Thus, the allowed to flow out.
T.
blood is extracted out and sent to the dialysis
machine so that any harm to the organs and 7. The principle behind dialysis is ________
the body can be minimized. a) Adhesion
b) Cohesion
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5. The parameters being monitored during c) Capillary Action
dialysis are _________ d) Reverse – Osmosis
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i. Blood Pressure
ii. Diabetes Answer: d
iii. Embolus Formation Explanation: It is the movement of solutes
iv. Pulse from the area of high concentration to low
G
v. Temperature concentration through a semi permeable
vi. Flow Rate membrane. Dialysis is done with the
v. Albumin level electrolytes flowing through one side and the
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vi. Createnine blood flowing in the opposite direction. The

vii. Repiratory Rate two fluids flow in opposite directions across a
a) i, ii, vi, vii semi permeable membrane which causes a
b) ii, iii, iv, vii pressure to be created and the wastes flow out
.B
c) i, ii, iv, v, vi, vii from the blood to the dialysate.

d) vi, v, vi, vii
8. The dialysate consists of __________
Answer: c i. Sodium
17
Explanation: All the parameters mentioned ii. Potassium

above are monitored for dialysis but some are iii. Iron
monitored before and some after the dialysis. iv. Carbon
The parameters monitored during dialysis are v. Magnesium
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of blood pressure, embolus formation, pulse, vi. Manganese

temperature, flow rate and respiratory rate as vii. Chlorine
they directly affect the health of the patient viii. Sulphur
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and are indicative of abnormalities. ix. Phosphorus

x. Calcium
6. The dialysis that can be performed even at a) i, iii, viii,ix
home is ___________ b) vi, vii, ix,
a) Apheresis c) i, ii, v, vii, x
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b) Peritoneal Dialysis d) ii, iii, ix, x

c) Hemodialysis
d) Perfusion

Answer: c incision at the site of insertion is made and is

Explanation: Sodium 140.0 mmol / l, used to insert the catheter. Usually, it is filled
potassium 1.0 mmol / l, calcium 1.25 mmol / with heparin & capped to maintain patency
l, bicarbonate 34.0 mmol / l, magnesium 0.5 between dialysis treatments.
mmol / l, chloride 107.5 mmol / l, glucose 5.5
M
mmol / l. Normally, these ions are present in
the blood plasma as well. Since the principle
TOPIC 3.4 VENTILATORS
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is osmosis under high pressure, also called as
ultra-filtration, these salts help create a 1. The term _________ is used to mean the
pressure difference across the membrane. free passage of clean air in a structure.
C
This causes the unwanted materials like a) Circulation
creatinine and urea to be filtered out from the b) Ventilation
T.
blood. c) Dissipation
d) Condensation
9. How does the doctor diagnose dialysis?
a) GFR via Blood Test Answer: b
O
b) Number of WBCs in Blood Test Explanation: In other words, the removal of
c) Presence of blood in urine all vitiated air from a building and its
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d) Low urine quantity replacement with fresh air is known as
ventilation. It is important from the
Answer: a engineering viewpoint for various reasons.
Explanation: Glomerular Filtration Rate
G
(GFR) is used to test if the kidneys are 2. For comfortable working, the
functioning normally. In kidneys, the ___________ content should be limited to
glomerulus is the site for ultrafiltration, i.e. about 0.6% by volume.
LO
filtration of blood under high pressure. a) Oxygen

Everything except cellular components moves b) Hydrogen
out in this phase and the required materials c) Carbon monoxide
are reabsorbed in the following phases. Thus, d) Carbon dioxide
.B
if the glomerulus is not functioning well,

unwanted wastes like creatinine will be high Answer: d
in the blood which will all get reflected in the Explanation: It is observed that breathing is
difficult when the amount of carbon dioxide
17
GFR. Thus, the doctors will be able to

suggest if the person needs to go for dialysis by volume is about 6% and a man loses
or not. consciousness when it reaches about 10% or
so. The more the amount of carbon dioxide,
10. When a subclavian vein or a femoral vein the more difficult is the breathing.
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is used for dialysis, what kind of

incision/insertion is made? 3. The difference of temperature between the
a) Catheter outside air and inside air tends to the
deposition of moisture in the room surfaces
SE
b) Shunt
c) Graft known as ___________
d) Fistula a) Ventilation
b) Diffusion
Answer: a c) Condensation
C
Explanation: When the femoral vein or the d) Dissipation

subclavian vein is used to extract blood for
dialysis, a simple catheter is used. A simple

Answer: c c) Relative humidity

Explanation: The proper and sufficient d) Wet bulb temperature
ventilation results in the absence of
condensation. It can be effectively controlled Answer: c
by the provision of suitable ventilation of the Explanation: The value of relative humidity
M
room. is obtained by comparing dry bulb and wet
bulb temperature. For higher temperatures,
4. Where people are working, there has to be the low humidity and greater air movements
O
______________ to cause proper ventilation are necessary for removing greater portion of
of the premises. heat from the body.
C
a) Air change
b) Humidity 7. The ________________ plays an important
T.
c) Temperature role in the comfort of persons affected by
d) Moisture ventilation system.
a) Carbon monoxide
Answer: a b) Purity of air
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Explanation: The minimum and maximum c) Volume of room
rates of air change per hour is 1 and 60 d) Health of occupant
SP
respectively. If the rate of change is less than
1/hour, it will not create any appreciable Answer: b
effect of the ventilation system. On the other Explanation: The air should be free from
hand, at the rate of air changes more than odours, organic matter, inorganic dust and
G
60/hour, it will result in discomfort due to unhealthy fumes of gases such as carbon
high velocities of air. monoxide, carbon dioxide and Sulphur
Dioxide, etc. All the above impurities depend
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5. The rate of amount of water vapour present on the habits of occupants, volume of a room,
to the amount it would have contained, had it source of ventilating air, etc.
been saturated, is known as the ___________
the temperature being same. 8. It is quite evident that the incoming air for
.B
a) Relative humidity ventilation should be ________ in summer

b) Saturated air and ________ in winter before it enters the
c) Dry bulb temperature room.
d) Wet bulb temperature a) cool, warm
17
b) warm, cool
Answer: a c) humid, dry
Explanation: When a certain volume of air at d) dry, humid
a certain temperature contents as much water
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vapour as it can, it is said to be Saturated air. Answer: a

Generally, the air is not saturated at all times. Explanation: The usual difference of
But it contains a certain amount of water temperature between inside and outside is
SE
vapour in it. kept as about 8°C to 10°C. With regards to

human comfort, the term effective
6. For working a temperature of 21 degree temperature is used. It is an index which
Celsius, range of 30% to 70% of combines the effect of air movements,
____________ is desirable. humidity and temperature.
C
a) Saturated air
b) Dry bulb temperature 9. __________________ is an index which
combines the effect of air movement,

humidity and temperature. economical in the sense that no special

a) Saturated air equipment is necessary for making the room
b) Effective humidity adequately ventilated and that is affords
c) Dry bulb temperature living under natural conditions.
d) Effective temperature
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12. In _____________ system, some
Answer: d mechanical arrangement is adopted to provide
Explanation: Effective temperature indicates enough ventilation to the room.
O
the temperature of air at which sensation of a) Natural ventilation
same degree of cold or warmth will be b) Skylight
C
experienced as in quite a fully saturated at the c) Artificial ventilation
same temperature. Thus, if two rooms have d) Man made
T.
the same effective temperature, no change of
temperature will be experienced by a person Answer: c
when he suddenly leaves one room and enters Explanation: Mechanical or Artificial
the room. ventilation has become popular due to recent
O
change in notion regarding ventilation. At
10. The value of ______________ depends present, the ventilation is required not nearly
SP
on type of activity, geographical conditions, to furnish warm air or cool air. But the
age of occupants, etc. ventilation system should provide air of such
a) Saturated air qualities regarding humidity, temperature, etc.
b) Relative humidity
G
c) Effective temperature 13. Exhaust system, supply system, air
d) Condensation conditioning, etc. comes under ________
type of ventilation system.
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Answer: c a) Natural
Explanation: The popular values of effective b) Mechanical
temperature in winter and summer or 20°C c) Man made
and 22°C respectively. It should however be d) Doors
.B
remembered that the effective temperature

indicates same feeling of cool or warmth. But Answer: b
it results in human comfort only when it is Explanation: The mechanical system is
correlated with humidity and air movements. costly, but it results in a considerable increase
17
in the efficiency of the person under the

11. In ______________ system, the use is command of the system. This system is
made of doors, windows, ventilators and adopted for big offices, banks, industrial
skylights to make the room properly plants, theatres, etc.
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ventilated.
a) Artificial ventilation 14. In ______________ system, the partial
b) Air conditioning vacuum is created inside of the room by
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c) Natural ventilation exhausting the vitiated inside air by fans or

d) Mechanical ventilation blowers.
a) Supply
Answer: c b) Plenum
Explanation: Natural ventilation is useful for c) Air conditioning
C
small buildings and it cannot be adopted for d) Exhaust

big offices, theatres, auditoriums, etc. The
only advantage of the system is that it is

Answer: d a) Helium
Explanation: In exhaust system, the b) Neon
extraction of air from inside sets of the c) Argon
current of fresh air from outside to inside and d) Xenon
thus, it becomes possible to provide fresh air
M
to the room through doors and windows. The Answer: a
fans or blowers are installed at suitable places Explanation: Helium is a noble gas which is
non reactive in nature. A good coolant has a
O
in the outside wall and they are connected to
different rooms through duct system. high thermal capacity, low viscosity, non
toxic, chemically inert, all the properties that
C
15. _______________ system is just the Helium possesses. Another advantage is that
reverse of the exhaust system. Helium does not have the tendency to absorb
T.
a) Air conditioning any neutrons and so it cannot become
b) Exhaust radioactive. Being a noble gas, it is non
c) Plenum reactive and so non corrosive in nature. Thus,
d) Supply it is used a coolant for the MRI machine,
O
especially the magnet.
Answer: d
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Explanation: Supply system consist in 3. If an MRI was done for a long bone, the
supplying fresh air to the room by installing part of the bone that will be imaged is the
input fans in outside walls. This system is _________
used for ventilating rooms near an unusual a) Bone salts
G
quantity of heat or odours is not produced. b) Bony Prominence
c) Inflamed Joints
d) Bone Marrow
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TOPIC 3.5 MAGNETIC

RESONANCE IMAGING Answer: d
Explanation: Bone marrow is a soft tissue as
1. The commonly used MRI’s have a compared to the encasing bone structure.
.B
magnetic strength of ______ Also, it had water whose Hydrogen is used by

a) 1.5 – 3 Tesla the MRI to form an image. The other parts of
b) 3 – 6 Tesla the bone do contain hydrogen but the
hydrogen is placed in a crystal structure,
17
c) 6 – 12 Tesla
d) 12 – 24 Tesla making it difficult to move or be magnetized.
Thus, it is difficult to image any other parts of
Answer: a the bone with MRI except for the bone
Explanation: MRI’s have three major marrow.
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portions which work together to form an

image. The largest portion is taken up by the 4. A hypothetical MRI is made having a
magnet. This magnet is always on and magnetic field (B0) of 7 Tesla. This uses
SE
produces a Magnetic Field of the strength of nitrogen for study. The gyrometric ratio of
1.5 – 3 Tesla. Commercially, 1.5 – 2 T was nitrogen 15 is -4.316. Find the Lamar
used but now even with 3T have been frequency.
introduced. For research purposes, MRI of 7T a) -35.889
b) – 30.212
C
has also been constructed.

c) 0
2. The cooling agent for the MRI magnet is d) -189.812
_______

Answer: b nature and thus, volumetric pixel or voxel is

Explanation: Gyrometric ratio is the ratio of used.
the magnetic moment to the angular moment
of the element. Lamar frequency, also called 7. MRI has a high _______ resolution.
as Lamar precision is the frequency by which a) spatial
M
the element will undergo a change in b) temporal
orientation when placed in a strong external c) frequency
d) magnitude
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magnetic field. Lamar frequency is given by
the formula: f = γn x B0/2Π
Here γn/2Π is the gyrometric ratio. Thus, Answer: a
C
f = -4.316*7 = -30.212. Explanation: MRI can form a 3D image of
the organ which is anatomical in nature. It
T.
5. If the XY grid is selected in MRI then the gives good clarity and resolution for the finer
slice selection is in which plane? details of the image. In the same way, fMRI
a) X plane has a good temporal resolution. It maps the
b) Y plane brain with respect to time, scanning the
O
c) Z plane oxygen used at the regular intervals.
d) XY plane
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8. In a brain scan of a person
Answer: c suffering/suspected of suffering from
Explanation: An MRI can give a 3D image schizophrenia, the brain _______
of an object and we can choose the form a) has gray matter which more than normal
G
which direction and from which angle we b) has white matter which more than normal
would like to view the image. The image is c) is of a size bigger than normal
always perpendicular to the grid that has been d) has shrunk
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selected. As it is given that our grid is XY,

then slice selection can be done only in Z Answer: b
plane and so, therefore, the image is also in Z Explanation: A person suffering from
plane. schizophrenia suffers from problems like
.B
hallucinations, listening to non existent

6. The smallest unit in the sounds etc. The persistent problem can be
reconstruction/projection of an MRI image is analyzed by looking at the brain scan which
called as ________ shows that the white matter in a particular
17
a) pixel part of the brain has become more than

b) voxel normal. Since white matter is responsible for
c) binary unit sending impulses, a bigger area of white
d) dot matter will mean faster travelling of impulses
-R
and therefore such thoughts. However, since

Answer: b the CT shows the negatives of the original,
Explanation: Voxel stands for the volumetric the white matter will look gray and gray
SE
pixel. MRI is unique in a way that it can matter will look white. Thus, in a scan, if
image segments of the organ from different there is a large gray area and the person
angles with various slice selections. These suffers from symptoms like hallucinations or
slice selections help choose which layer of anxiety etc, then it’s a high possibility that
the organ will be imaged and the smallest unit they have schizophrenia.
C
of this image is called a voxel. Since MRI can

produce 3D scans, the image is volumetric in 9. The scans for lissencephaly will show a
brain _______

a) with no gyri and sulci wave gets refracted when the medium
b) with excess gyri and sulci changes and are reflected back that the image
c) with deformed brain structure is formed. Thus, the principle for ultrasound
d) with a smaller than normal brain size is reflection and refraction.
M
Answer: a 2. Ultrasound is also useful for __________
Explanation: Lissencephaly is a neuronal i. detecting fault in metal sheets ii. imaging
defect that is present right from birth. It may marine depths iii. looking for metals beneath
O
or may not be detected in the fetal stage. In the earth’s surface iv. detecting distances v.
this disorder, the brain in smooth without the detecting earthquakes
C
presence of any gyri and sulci. A child born a) ii, iii, v
with lissencephaly often has a normal head b) i, iv, v
T.
structure so it is often difficult to detect the c) i, ii, iv
presence of this defect till a later age. d) ii, iii
10. Frontotemporal Dementia brain scan Answer: c
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shows a __________ Explanation: Ultrasound is used for detecting
a) growing brain the fault in metal sheets, imaging marine
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b) shrinking brain depths and detecting distances. If the metal
c) brain with lesions sheets have faults like cracks or deformity,
d) brain with a tumour the reflected sound waves will not be
uniform. SONAR and RADAR are used to
G
Answer: b detect distances and work on the principle of
Explanation: Frontotemporal Dementia ultrasound.
(FTD) is the most common kind of dementia
LO
found in the population. In this, the neural 3. Which of the following medical imaging
cells of the brain go for apoptosis (cell death) modality other than ultrasound does not use
causing an atrophy (shrinkage) of the brain. any form of radiation?
This causes the person to have memory a) PET Scan
.B
disorders. b) SPECT Scan

c) CT Scan
d) MRI
TOPIC 3.6 | 3.7 ULTRASONIC
17
IMAGING SYSTEMS. Answer: d

Explanation: MRI uses the electromagnetism
1. What property of sound waves acts like the of the atoms present in the body to get the
principle of ultrasound? images while all the other imaging modalities
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a) Reflection and Refraction use some sort of radioactivity in order to take

b) Reflection only the images. Ultrasound relies on the sound
c) Refraction only waves while MRI relies on the
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d) Propagation electromagnetic waves. Thus, they are both

non radioactive imaging modalities.
Answer: a
Explanation: The ultrasound works on the 4. For which of these areas can the ultrasound
principle of reflection and refraction. While it be taken for an infant but not for an adult?
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is necessary that sound waves need a medium a) Cranium

to travel, so we can say propagation is b) Chest
important but it is only because the sound

c) Arms impedance offered by the bones is extremely

d) Legs high.
Answer: a 7. The wave velocity of ultrasound in soft

Explanation: Bones are natural impedance tissues is 1540m/s and the impedance offered
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providers to ultrasound and so if any organ is by it is 1.63 X 106 kg/m2s. What is the
covered or surrounded by bones, it is not density of the soft tissue?
possible or very difficult to take their
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a) 0.1058441 kg/m3
ultrasound. For an infant, their bones are soft
and do not provide so much of a resistance to b) 10.58441 kg/m3
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the passage of the ultrasound waves. Thus, it c) 1058.441kg/m3
is possible to take an ultrasound of the brain d) 105844.1 kg/m3
T.
at an infant stage but not at an adult stage.
Answer: c
5. A piezoelectric crystal is used to produce Explanation: The impedance is given by z =
the ultrasound waves. What kind of ρc where z = impedance, ρ = density and c =
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ultrasound is produced? velocity of the ultrasound. Since the wave
a) Pressure wave ultrasound velocity and the impedance offered are given,
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b) Electrical wave ultrasound ρ = z/c. This results in 1058.441 kg/m3 of
c) Sound wave ultrasound density for the soft tissue.
d) Simple ultrasound
8. Which of the following relations are true?
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Answer: a a) γ increases, penetration of sound increases,
Explanation: A piezoelectric crystal is a resolution decreases
special transducer which converts mechanical b) γ increases, penetration of sound decreases,
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energy into electrical energy and vice-versa. resolution decreases

Thus, when the electrical impulses are given c) γ increases, penetration of sound decreases,
to the transducer, it is converted into resolution increases
mechanical energy. The transducer starts d) γ decreases, penetration of sound increases,
.B
vibrating causing a pressure difference and resolution increases

the ultrasound waves are produced.
Answer: a
6. How is a medium characterized?
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Explanation: When the frequency (γ) of the

a) By its thickness sound waves increases, it gains more energy
b) By its acoustic impedance to overcome the impedance barrier and so is
c) By its water content able to penetrate deeper. However, the
d) By its density
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penetration may not be uniform in all places

and reflection may be uneven thus it affects
Answer: b the resolution of the image.
Explanation: Acoustic impedance is the
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resistance that a sound wave faces when it 9. When an abdominal ultrasound is done,
propagates from one medium to another in why is it advised to have a full bladder?
the body. Thickness, density and water a) To have a good acoustic window
content (for a living body) are all factors that b) To increase the water content
are taken into account when measuring the
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c) To lower impedance
acoustic impedance. Thus the medium is d) To allow for better propagation of waves
characterized by its acoustic impedance. The

Answer: a which the body is treated by the

Explanation: Acoustic window is a small electromagnetic waves or waves of high
opening through which the sound waves can frequency. These waves beyond certain
pass and can help image the structures frequencies have heating effects and can help
beyond. When the bladder is full, it is in easing the pain in the body. This type of
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properly stretched and the folds of the bladder diathermy is used for therapeutic purposes.
do not provide any impedance. The water When the heat is increased and concentrated
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helps in the better propagation of the sound at a point, it can cause cutting action by
and visualization of the structures beyond the boiling and burning the cells. This type of
bladder. diathermy is used for surgical purposes.
C
10. What does the red dot on the probe help 2. What surgical functions are performed by
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within the produced image? the diathermy machine?
a) To check if the correct probe was used a) cutting, coagulation, fulguration
b) To check the probe orientation b) cutting, fulguration
c) To check the depth of the probe that was c) cutting, coagulation
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used d) coagulation, fulguration
d) To check the plane of the image.
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Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: Cutting happens when the heat
Explanation: When the probe is being used, is given is so high that the cell burns and is
it can move in various ways but the image separated. This causes the incision to be
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being formed is a horizontal image. Thus, the formed, hence cutting. Coagulation happens
red dot at the head of the probe appears to the when the cytoplasm is heated so much that it
left of the image and helps in working out the boils and joins together. Fulguration is a
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orientation of the organ or the foetus. process in which the heat is applied and a
spread out action takes place. It covers a
larger area.
.B
3. The types of therapeutic diathermy

UNIT IV PHYSICAL machines that exist are ___________
a) Short wave, micro wave and ultrasound
MEDICINE AND b) Short wave, ultrasound and cold compress
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BIOTELEMETRY 9 c) Cold compress, microwave and electrical

impulse
d) Electrical impulse, microwave and
TOPIC 4.1 DIATHERMIES- ultrasound
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SHORTWAVE
Answer: a
1. For what all purposes is diathermy Explanation: Shortwave diathermy uses the
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principal used? infrared heat waves to treat the patient while

a) Surgical and Therapeutic microwaves go inside the body and produce
b) Therapeutic and Diagnostic heat for treatment. Ultrasound also produces
c) Diagnostic and surgical sound waves which travel in the body,
produce heat and cause healing.
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d) Diagnostic and rehabilitative
Answer: a 4. Which of the diathermy machine is good

Explanation: Diathermy is a process by for deep tissue healing?

a) short wave 7. In heat wave diathermy, the maximum

b) ultrasound power given out is 500 W and the maximum
c) cold compress voltage possible is 4000V. Thus, what is the
d) electrical impulse highest resistance that heat wave diathermy
machine can deal with?
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Answer: a a) 3.2 K ohm
Explanation: The short wave diathermy b) 32 K ohm
produces heat by sending in infrared waves.
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c) 320 K ohm
These waves are produced by the plates or d) 3200 K ohm
coils that are placed around the area to be
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treated. These heat waves can travel deeper Answer: b
into the body than the waves produced by Explanation: The simple formula for power,
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microwave diathermy or ultrasound voltage and resistance is used. P = V2/R
diathermy. R = V2/P
R = 40002/500
5. What is the frequency range of the sound R = 32 K ohm.
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used for ultrasound diathermy?
a) 0.1 – 0.7 MHz 8. Which of the following is used to measure
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b) 0.7 – 3.3 MHz the biological damage caused by radiation?
c) 3.3 – 5 MHz a) Curie
d) 5 – 15 MHz b) Rem
c) Rad
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Answer: b d) Roentgens
Explanation: The ultrasound treatment can
penetrate up to 2 – 5 cm deep within the skin Answer: b
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to relieve pain. The frequency of 0.7 – 3.3 Explanation: Rem is also a forming unit of
MHz is used. If the frequency is increased, it radiation. It is used to measure the amount of
can cause excess heat causing heat burns in exposure to radiation the person has had and
the body and doing damage rather than determine if it is within safe limits or beyond
.B
therapy. it. If the safety limits have been crossed, the

person must stay away from the radiology
6. What precaution is used in diathermy? area for a specific period of time of quit
a) the patient is made to lie on a soft pillow working there altogether.
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b) pads are used for grounding and

completing the circuit 9. Beyond what dose is the cerebral system
c) the patient is made to drink a large number shows signs of failure?
of fluids a) 25 – 200 rad
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d) wooden blocks are used for grounding b) 200 – 600 rad

c) 600 – 1000 rad
Answer: b d) > 1000 rad
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Explanation: Diathermy machines produce

electromagnetic waves and the current used to Answer: d
produce these waves is huge. In case of any Explanation: Various studies show that more
accidents, the person on whom diathermy is mature a cell, higher is its resistance to
being performed and the one who is radiations. Nerve cells and muscle cells show
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performing it, both can get severely injured. high resistance to radioactivity. Nerve cells
Thus, electrode gel and pads are both used for once generated, they stay for a long period of
diathermy, surgical and therapeutic.

time. Thus, they are highly mature cells and Answer: b

so provide high resistance to the radioactivity. Explanation: N = N0 e -λt where N =
particles left after decay, N0 is the original
10. What is the relation between 1 Rad, 1 number of particles, t is the time duration and
Rem and 1 R?
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λ is the decay constant. Thus, putting the
a) 1 Rad ≈ 1.5 Rem ≈ 1000 R values in the formula, we get :
b) 1 Rad ≈ 10 Rem ≈ 1.8 R -17
c) 1 Rad ≈ 1 Rem ≈ 1 R N = 20000 * e(- (4.916* 10 ) *
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d) 1 Rad ≈ 10 Rem ≈ 100 R 365*100*24*60*60)= 19999.99999.
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Answer: c 13. If the half life is found to be 100 msec,
Explanation: All three units have almost the what is the decay constant?
a) 693 per second
T.
same values and they all are units and doses
of radiations. Rad stands for radiation b) 24948 per hour
absorbed dose and it measures the radiation c) 0.1155 per minute
absorbed by the tissues of the body. Rem is d) 59875.2 per day
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radiation equivalent and it measures the
biological damage caused by different types Answer: b
Explanation: Half life is and decay constant
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of radiation.R is for Roentgens and is used as
a unit for X – Rays. are related by t 1/2 = ln2/λ
t 1/2 = 0.693/λ
11. The two known units of radioactivity and Since the half life is given in seconds,
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the relation between the two are _______ appropriate conversions are used for hours,
a) Curie and Becquerel 1 Ci = 3.7 x 1010 Bq minutes and day. By this, we get:
b) Curie and Becquerel 1 Bq = 3.7 x 1010 Ci λ = 0.693*3600/t1/2 = 249480 per hour.
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c) Curie and Roentgens 1 Ci = 1000 R

d) Roentgen and Becquerel 1 R = 1000 Bq 14. With what energy must the radiation be
given to image a bone of thickness 5 cm
Answer: a which has covering of skin of thickness of 2
.B
Explanation: Curie and Becquerel signify the cm on the both sides and the emerging
amount of disintegration of the radioactive intensity of the X – Ray is 200MeV.
substance in a unit time. Curie was an older (impedance for bone = b for skin = s )
unit and had a very high value which was not
17
feasible for elements with lower activity. a) 2000e9

Thus, Becquerel unit was created which is b) 200e(4s + 5b)
one disintegration per second. c) 20/e
d) 2e
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12. In a hypothetical radioactive material, the

total number of active photons are 20000 and Answer: b
the decay constant is found out to be 4.916 X Explanation: The formula goes like : I =
I0e(-μt) where I is the final radiation, I0 is the
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10-17 per second. How much of the material

will be left in a 100 years? (1 year = 365 initial radiation, μ is the impedance and t is
days. Leap year is not assumed in the the thickness. Since we know the emerging
calculations) radiation, by using back processing formula,
a) 1589.99999 we get 200e(4s+5b).
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b) 19,999.9999
c) 19.999999
d) 123.99999

TOPIC 4.2 ULTRASONIC AND 5. Which of the following type sound

generators are not possible?
MICROWAVE TYPE AND THEIR a) Piezo electric
APPLICATIONS b) Magnetostrictive
c) Both piezo electric and magnetostrictive
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1. Basically sound waves are d) None of the mentioned
______________
Answer: d
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a) Voltage signals
b) Pressure waves Explanation: Both piezo electric and
c) Current magnetostrictive devices are successful
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d) Radiation sources of sound waves.
T.
Answer: b 6. Mosaic regarding sonar is ____________
Explanation: Sound waves are pressure a) Surface of sonar
waves in character. b) Frequency of sound wave
c) Pattern of vibrating elements
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2. Which of the following is not a character of d) Depth of sea to which it is applicable
a sensor of a sound wave?
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a) Causes no health hazard Answer: c
b) They are suitable in a harsh environment Explanation: Specific pattern of the vibrating
c) They are only suitable in cold environment element is known as mosaic.
d) They can be used in corrosive environment
7. All elements of sonar are driven
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Answer: c electrically.
Explanation: Sound sensors can be used in a) True
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any environment. b) False
3. Sound waves are similar to light waves in Answer: a

all aspects. Explanation: All elements of sonar are
driven electrically using an external power
.B
a) True
b) False supply.
Answer: b 8. Piezo electric materials are well cut for

17
Explanation: While considering reflection _____________

and refraction, sound waves and light waves a) Good dimension
are similar. b) Good coupling coefficient
c) Compact shape of device
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4. SONAR stands for _______________ d) Increasing frequency

a) Sound navigation and ranging
b) Sound number approximation and ranging Answer: b
Explanation: Piezo electric materials are so
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c) Sound nullifying ranging

d) None of the mentioned cut as to have maximum coupling coefficient
between mechanical strain and electrical
Answer: a polarization direction.
Explanation: Sonar is the short form of
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sound navigation and ranging. 9. Which of the following can be used in

sonar?
a) ADP

b) Rescelle salt b) cutting, fulguration

c) ADP and Roscelle salt c) cutting, coagulation
d) ADP and Roscelle salt in sealed condition d) coagulation, fulguration
Answer: d Answer: a
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Explanation: ADP and Roscelle salt are used Explanation: Cutting happens when the heat
as sealed with oil since they are soluble in is given is so high that the cell burns and is
water. separated. This causes the incision to be
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formed, hence cutting. Coagulation happens
10. Magnetostriction transmitter uses when the cytoplasm is heated so much that it
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_______________ boils and joins together. Fulguration is a
a) Electrostrictive phenomena process in which the heat is applied and a
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b) Horizontal vibration of nickel tube spread out action takes place. It covers a
c) Longitudinal vibration of nickel tube larger area.
d) All of the mentioned
3. The types of therapeutic diathermy
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Answer: c machines that exist are ___________
Explanation: Magnetostriction transmitter a) Short wave, micro wave and ultrasound
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uses longitudinal vibration of nickel tube b) Short wave, ultrasound and cold compress
used. c) Cold compress, microwave and electrical
impulse
TOPIC 4.3 SURGICAL d) Electrical impulse, microwave and
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ultrasound
DIATHERMY
Answer: a
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1. For what all purposes is diathermy Explanation: Shortwave diathermy uses the
principal used? infrared heat waves to treat the patient while
a) Surgical and Therapeutic microwaves go inside the body and produce
b) Therapeutic and Diagnostic heat for treatment. Ultrasound also produces
.B
c) Diagnostic and surgical sound waves which travel in the body,

d) Diagnostic and rehabilitative produce heat and cause healing.
Answer: a 4. Which of the diathermy machine is good

17
Explanation: Diathermy is a process by for deep tissue healing?

which the body is treated by the a) short wave
electromagnetic waves or waves of high b) ultrasound
frequency. These waves beyond certain c) cold compress
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frequencies have heating effects and can help d) electrical impulse

in easing the pain in the body. This type of
diathermy is used for therapeutic purposes. Answer: a
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When the heat is increased and concentrated Explanation: The short wave diathermy
at a point, it can cause cutting action by produces heat by sending in infrared waves.
boiling and burning the cells. This type of These waves are produced by the plates or
diathermy is used for surgical purposes. coils that are placed around the area to be
treated. These heat waves can travel deeper
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2. What surgical functions are performed by into the body than the waves produced by
the diathermy machine? microwave diathermy or ultrasound
a) cutting, coagulation, fulguration diathermy.

5. What is the frequency range of the sound R = 40002/500

used for ultrasound diathermy? R = 32 K ohm.
a) 0.1 – 0.7 MHz
b) 0.7 – 3.3 MHz 8. Which of the following is used to measure
c) 3.3 – 5 MHz the biological damage caused by radiation?
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d) 5 – 15 MHz a) Curie
b) Rem
Answer: b c) Rad
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Explanation: The ultrasound treatment can d) Roentgens
penetrate up to 2 – 5 cm deep within the skin
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to relieve pain. The frequency of 0.7 – 3.3 Answer: b
MHz is used. If the frequency is increased, it Explanation: Rem is also a forming unit of
T.
can cause excess heat causing heat burns in radiation. It is used to measure the amount of
the body and doing damage rather than exposure to radiation the person has had and
therapy. determine if it is within safe limits or beyond
it. If the safety limits have been crossed, the
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6. What precaution is used in diathermy? person must stay away from the radiology
a) the patient is made to lie on a soft pillow area for a specific period of time of quit
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b) pads are used for grounding and working there altogether.
completing the circuit
c) the patient is made to drink a large number 9. Beyond what dose is the cerebral system
of fluids shows signs of failure?
G
d) wooden blocks are used for grounding a) 25 – 200 rad
b) 200 – 600 rad
Answer: b c) 600 – 1000 rad
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Explanation: Diathermy machines produce d) > 1000 rad

electromagnetic waves and the current used to
produce these waves is huge. In case of any Answer: d
accidents, the person on whom diathermy is Explanation: Various studies show that more
.B
being performed and the one who is mature a cell, higher is its resistance to
performing it, both can get severely injured. radiations. Nerve cells and muscle cells show
Thus, electrode gel and pads are both used for high resistance to radioactivity. Nerve cells
diathermy, surgical and therapeutic. once generated, they stay for a long period of
17
time. Thus, they are highly mature cells and

7. In heat wave diathermy, the maximum so provide high resistance to the radioactivity.
power given out is 500 W and the maximum
voltage possible is 4000V. Thus, what is the 10. What is the relation between 1 Rad, 1
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highest resistance that heat wave diathermy Rem and 1 R?

machine can deal with? a) 1 Rad ≈ 1.5 Rem ≈ 1000 R
a) 3.2 K ohm b) 1 Rad ≈ 10 Rem ≈ 1.8 R
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b) 32 K ohm c) 1 Rad ≈ 1 Rem ≈ 1 R

c) 320 K ohm d) 1 Rad ≈ 10 Rem ≈ 100 R
d) 3200 K ohm
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: All three units have almost the
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Explanation: The simple formula for power, same values and they all are units and doses
voltage and resistance is used. P = V2/R of radiations. Rad stands for radiation
R = V2/P absorbed dose and it measures the radiation

absorbed by the tissues of the body. Rem is c) 0.1155 per minute

radiation equivalent and it measures the d) 59875.2 per day
biological damage caused by different types
of radiation.R is for Roentgens and is used as Answer: b
a unit for X – Rays. Explanation: Half life is and decay constant
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are related by t 1/2 = ln2/λ
11. The two known units of radioactivity and
t 1/2 = 0.693/λ
the relation between the two are _______
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Since the half life is given in seconds,
a) Curie and Becquerel 1 Ci = 3.7 x 1010 Bq appropriate conversions are used for hours,
b) Curie and Becquerel 1 Bq = 3.7 x 1010 Ci minutes and day. By this, we get:
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c) Curie and Roentgens 1 Ci = 1000 R
d) Roentgen and Becquerel 1 R = 1000 Bq λ = 0.693*3600/t1/2 = 249480 per hour.
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Answer: a 14. With what energy must the radiation be
Explanation: Curie and Becquerel signify the given to image a bone of thickness 5 cm
amount of disintegration of the radioactive which has covering of skin of thickness of 2
O
substance in a unit time. Curie was an older cm on the both sides and the emerging
unit and had a very high value which was not intensity of the X – Ray is 200MeV.
(impedance for bone = b for skin = s )
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feasible for elements with lower activity.
Thus, Becquerel unit was created which is a) 2000e9
one disintegration per second. b) 200e(4s + 5b)
c) 20/e
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12. In a hypothetical radioactive material, the d) 2e
total number of active photons are 20000 and
the decay constant is found out to be 4.916 X Answer: b
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10-17 per second. How much of the material Explanation: The formula goes like : I =
will be left in a 100 years? (1 year = 365 I0e(-μt) where I is the final radiation, I0 is the
days. Leap year is not assumed in the initial radiation, μ is the impedance and t is
calculations) the thickness. Since we know the emerging
.B
a) 1589.99999 radiation, by using back processing formula,

b) 19,999.9999 we get 200e(4s+5b).
c) 19.999999
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d) 123.99999
TOPIC 4.4 BIOTELEMETRY
Answer: b
Explanation: N = N0 e -λt where N = 1. Leucocytes are in the shape of ________
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particles left after decay, N0 is the original a) sphere

number of particles, t is the time duration and b) cube
λ is the decay constant. Thus, putting the c) hollow
values in the formula, we get : d) cuboid
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N = 20000 * e(- (4.916* 10 ) *
365*100*24*60*60)= 19999.99999. Answer: a
Explanation: Leucocytes are in the shape of
13. If the half life is found to be 100 msec, a sphere. Leucocytes have a nucleus. They
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what is the decay constant? live for seven to fourteen days and there is a
a) 693 per second rapid turn over, with constant destruction and
b) 24948 per hour replacement. There are normally 5000–

10,000 white cells per cubic mm of blood but reluctance of the coupling capacitors. The
their number varies during the day. response should be down to less than one
hertz which is a very frequent requirement.
2. What should be the frequency response of To achieve the low frequency response
the amplifiers that are used for the required for medical applications, the
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amplification purpose of the input signal in amplifier must have large values of coupling
medical devices? capacitance.
a) high frequency response
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b) low frequency response 5. Neutrophils are bigger than the red cells.
c) frequency response has no role to play in it a) True
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d) average frequency response b) False
T.
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: The response should be down Explanation: It is True. Neutrophils are
to less than one hertz which is a very frequent nearly twice as big as the red
requirement. The bioelectric signals in cells.Lymphocytes are of the same size as the
O
medical science contain components of red cells but contain a large density staining
extremely low frequency. Thus the amplifiers nucleus and no granules. Neutrophils contain
SP
must also have a low frequency response. both a nucleus divided into several lobes and
granules in their protoplasm.
3. Leucocytes are not responsible for the
formation of the defence mechanism of the 6. High pass filter amplifies frequency
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body that fights against infection. _____________
a) True a) above certain value
b) False b) below certain value
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c) above and below certain value

Answer: b d) at certain value
Explanation: It is False. Leucocytes form the
defence mechanism of the body against Answer: a
.B
infection. The number and proportion of these Explanation: High pass filter amplifies signal
types of leucocytes may vary widely in above a certain frequency. Band pass filter
response to various disease conditions. They amplifies frequencies with in a certain band.
are of two main types: the neutrophils and the Band stop filter amplifies all the frequencies
17
lymphocytes. Neutrophils ingest bacteria and except those in a certain band. Low pass filter
lymphocytes are concerned with amplifies signals below a certain frequency.
immunological response.
7. Mean Platelet Volume is the ratio of the
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4. To achieve the ______________ required ___________ and is expressed in femolitres.

for medical applications, the amplifier must a) integrated platelet volume to the platelet
have large values of coupling capacitance. count
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a) random frequency response b) integrated platelet volume to the WBC

b) high frequency response count
c) average frequency response c) integrated RBC volume to the platelet
d) low frequency response count
d) integrated platelet volume to the RBC
C
Answer: d count
Explanation: In all RC-coupled amplifiers,
low frequency response is limited by the

Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Mean Platelet Volume (MPV) Explanation: Plateletcrit is the percentage of
is the ratio of the integrated platelet volume to the total specimen volume occupied by the
the platelet count and is expressed in platelets. Red Cell Distribution Width is a
femolitres. Platelet Distribution Width is numerical expression of the width of the size
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related to the size range covered by those distribution of red cells. Mean Platelet
platelets lying between the sixteenth and Volume is the ratio of the integrated platelet
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eighty fourth percentile. Red Cell Distribution volume to the platelet count and is expressed
Width is a numerical expression of the width in femolitres.
of the size distribution of red cells.
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11. Modern instrument use ________ for
8. Unit of Mean Platelet Volume is expressed intravascular oximetry?
T.
in? a) photodiode
a) millilitres b) red and infrared LED’s
b) femolitres c) optical fibre
c) picolitres d) phototransistor
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d) decilitres
Answer: c
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Answer: c Explanation: For intravascular oximetry,
Explanation: Unit of Mean Platelet Volume modern instruments make use of optical
is expressed in femolitres. 1f/l = 10–15 . 1 fibres to guide the light signal inside the
litre of blood contains 0.45 litres of red cells. vessel and the reflected light from the red
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Mean Platelet Volume (MPV) is the ratio of blood cells back to the light detector.
the integrated platelet volume to the platelet
count and is expressed in femolitres. 12. Optical fiber sensors are immune to
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electromagnetic disturbances.
9. Low pass filter amplifies signals below a a) True
certain frequency. b) False
a) True
.B
b) False Answer: a
Explanation: It is True. Optical fiber sensors
Answer: a are electrically passive and consequently
Explanation: It is true. Low pass filter immune to electromagnetic disturbances.
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amplifies signals below a certain frequency. They can be miniaturized and are most
Band stop filter amplifies all the frequencies suitable for telemetry applications. They are
except those in a certain band. High pass geometrically flexible and corrosion resistant.
filter amplifies signal above a certain
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frequency. Band pass filter amplifies 13. Currently available oximeters utilize
frequencies within a certain band. __________ wavelengths.
a) Equal to 2
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10. _______ is the percentage of the total b) Cannot be determined

specimen volume occupied by the platelets. c) Less than 2
a) Mean Platelet Volume d) More than 2
b) Plateletcrit
c) Red Cell Distribution Width Answer: d
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d) Platelet Distribution Width Explanation: Currently available fiber-optic

oximeters utilize more than two wavelengths
to adjust for haematocrit variation. For

estimating SO2, usually the reflectance at two

wavelengths, one in the red and the other in
the near infrared regions, are used.
UNIT V RECENT TRENDS
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14. Mix venous saturation is measured by
__________
IN MEDICAL
a) Ear Oximeter INSTRUMENTATION 9
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b) Intravascular Oximeter
c) Skin Reflectance Oximeter
d) Pulse Oximeter TOPIC 5.1 TELEMEDICINE
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Answer: b 1. _______________ will reject any common
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Explanation: Mixed venous saturation varies mode signal that appears simultaneously at
in reflecting the changes of oxygen both amplifier input terminal.
saturation, cardiac output, haematocrit or a) ac coupled amplifiers
haemoglobin content and oxygen
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b) dc amplifiers
consumption. Intravasacular oximeters are c) carrier amplifiers
normally used to measure mixed venous d) differential amplifiers
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saturation, from which the status of the
circulatory system can be deduced. Answer: d
Explanation: Most of the amplifiers used for
15. Which of the following is correct measuring bioelectric signals are of the
G
expression for RDW index? differential type. A differential amplifier is
a) [(20th – 80th) Percentile Volume / (20th – one which will reject any common mode
signal that appears simultaneously at both
LO
80th) Percentile Volume] X 100 X K

amplifier input terminals and amplifies only
b) [(20th – 80th) Percentile Volume / (20th +
the voltage difference that appears across its
80th) Percentile Volume] X 100 X K input terminals. AC amplifiers have a limited
c) [(20th + 80th) Percentile Volume / (20th – frequency response and are, therefore, used
.B
80th) Percentile Volume] X 100 X K only for special medical applications such as
d) [(20th + 80th) Percentile Volume / (20th + electrocardiograph machine.
80th) Percentile Volume] X 100 X K
17
2. The amplifier from the following that has a

limited frequency response is _________
Answer: b a) dc amplifiers
Explanation: The total erythrocyte count is b) differential amplifier
scanned by a continuously variable
-R
c) ac coupled amplifiers
thresholding circuit. The RDW index is d) carrier amplifiers
expressed by the following equation [(20th –
80th) Percentile Volume / (20th + 80th) Answer: a
SE
Percentile Volume ] X 100 X K. It is a Explanation: AC amplifiers have a limited

numerical expression of the width of the size frequency response and are, therefore, used
distribution of red cells. It is derived by only for special medical applications such as
analog computation. The upper threshold is electrocardiograph machine. For
C
moved progressively lower from a level electrocardiograms, an ac amplifier with

equivalent to 360 femolitres until 20 per cent sensitivity, giving 0.5 mV/cm, and frequency
of all erythrocytes present have a size above a response up to 1 kHz and an input impedance
certain value. of 2 to 5 MW is used. For such applications

as retinography, EEG and EMG, more Answer: a

sensitive ac amplifiers are required, giving a Explanation: It is True. Digital filters are
chart sensitivity of say 50 mV/cm with a high insensitive to temperature as compared with
input impedance of over 10 MW. analog filters. They are also insensitive to
ageing, voltage drift and external interference
M
3. Which of the following amplifiers are used as compared to analog filters. Their response
with transducers which require an external is completely reproducible and predictable,
source of excitation?
O
and software simulations can exactly reflect
a) ac coupled amplifiers product performance.
b) dc amplifiers
C
c) carrier amplifiers 6. The number of amplifiers incorporated in
d) differential amplifier the module of a Chopper stabilized dc
T.
amplifiers are ___________
Answer: c a) 1
Explanation: Carrier amplifiers are used with b) 2
transducers which require an external source c) 3
O
of excitation. They essentially contain a d) 4
carrier oscillator, a bridge balance and
SP
calibration circuit, a high gain ac amplifier, a Answer: c
phase-sensitive detector and a dc output Explanation: Chopper stabilized dc
amplifier. They are characterized by high amplifiers are used for low level but
gain, negligible drift, extremely low noise and preferably wideband applications such as
G
the ability to operate with resistive, inductive oscilloscopes, tape recorders and light beam
or capacitive type transducers. oscilloscope recorders. This includes an ac
amplifier for signals above about 20 Hz, a dc
LO
4. Which feedback system is employed in DC chopper input amplifier for signals from
amplifiers? about 20 Hz down to dc plus wideband
a) Can be any positive or negative doesn’t feedback stabilized dc amplifier. These are
matter complex amplifiers having three amplifiers
.B
b) Negative incorporated in the module.

c) Depends on the application
d) Positive 7. _____________ is employed with resistive
transducers which require an external source
17
Answer: b of excitation.
Explanation: DC amplifiers are generally of a) differential amplifier
the negative feedback type. They are not b) dc bridge amplifier
practical for very low level applications c) carrier amplifier
-R
because of dc drift and poor common-mode d) ac coupled amplifier

rejection capabilities. They are used for
medium gain applications down to about 1 Answer: b
SE
mV signal levels for full scale. Explanation: Essentially, the amplifier

comprises a stable dc excitation source, a
5. Digital filters are not sensitive to bridge balance and calibration unit, a high
temperature as compared with analog filters. gain differential dc amplifier and a dc output
a) True amplifier. DC bridge amplifiers are employed
C
b) False with resistive transducers which require an

external source of excitation. They can be
used as conventional dc high gain amplifiers

and offer operating simplicity and high- the amplifier must have large values of
frequency response. coupling capacitance. The response should be
down to less than one hertz which is a very
8. Which of the following IC is a variable frequent requirement. In all RC-coupled
negative voltage regulator? amplifiers, low frequency response is limited
M
a) 7912 by the reluctance of the coupling capacitors.
b) 7905
c) LM337
O
d) LM317 TOPIC 5.2 INSULIN PUMPS
C
Answer: c 1. Diabetes insipidus is due to insufficient
Explanation: LM337 is a variable negative release of _________
T.
voltage regulator IC. It is capable of drawing a) Insulin
current up to 1.5A and voltage range from b) ADH
(-1.25V) – (-30V) ideally. LM317 is a c) Thyroxine
variable positive voltage regulator IC. 7905 d) Glucagon
O
and 7912 are fixed voltage regulator IC that
give output voltage as -5V and -12V Answer: b
SP
respectively. Explanation: Diabetes insipidus is a disorder
of salt and water metabolism marked by
9. Chopper input dc amplifiers are preferred intense thirst and heavy urination. Diabetes
for high level inputs to instrumentation insipidus is due to insufficient release of
G
systems because of their high sensitivity, ADH.
negligible drift and excellent common mode
rejection capability. 2. Which of the following gastrointestinal
LO
a) True hormone stimulates insulin secretion?

b) False a) GIP
b) CCK
Answer: b c) Gastrin
.B
Explanation: It is False. Chopper input dc d) Secretin

amplifiers are preferred for low level inputs
to instrumentation systems because of their Answer: a
high sensitivity, negligible drift and excellent Explanation: GIP is gastroinhibitory peptide.
17
common mode rejection capability. Their It is also known as glucose dependent

high frequency response is limited to about insulinotroic peptide. It is a weak inhibitor of
one half of the input chopper frequency. gastric acid secretion; its main role is to
stimulate insulin secretion.
-R
10. The amplifier configuration must contain

_____________ to achieve the low frequency 3. Which of the following element is needed
response for medical applications? for insulin to exert its maximal effect in
glucose uptake?
SE
a) higher resistance
b) lower resistance a) Vanadium
c) lower capacitance b) Molybdenum
d) higher capacitance c) Selenium
d) Chromium
C
Answer: d
Explanation: To achieve the low frequency Answer: d
response required for medical applications, Explanation: Chromium is an essential

mineral that appears to have a beneficial role b) Beta somatostatin

in the regulation of insulin action and its c) Delta insulin
effects on carbohydrate, protein and lipid d) Alpha glucagon
metabolism. Chromium is an important factor
for enhancing insulin activity. Answer: d
M
Explanation: Alpha glucagon is secreted by
4. Insulin promotes _______ endocrine cells of the pancreas. They make
a) Glucosuria up to 20% of human islet cells synthesizing
O
b) Glycogenesis and secreting glucagon.
c) Glycogenolysis
C
d) Gluconeogenesis 8. Where does synthesis of insulin begin?
a) rRER
T.
Answer: b b) sRER
Explanation: Glycogenesis is a process of c) Nucleolus
glycogen synthesis from sugar. Insulin d) Mitochondria
promotes Glycogenesis.
O
Answer: c
5. Humulin is being commercially produced Explanation: Nucleolus is a part of eukaryote
SP
from a transgenic species of _______ cell where ribosomes are made. It is the
a) Rhizobium largest structure in the nucleus. Synthesis of
b) Saccharomyces insulin begins in Nucleolus.
c) Escherichia
9. How many intermolecular and
G
d) Mycobacterim
interamolecular disulfide bond is present in
Answer: c insulin?
LO
Explanation: Humulin is being commercially a) 1 Intermolecular, 2 intramolecular

produced from a transgenic species of b) 2 Intermolecular, 2 intramolecular
Escherichia. Humulin is a man-made form of c) 2 Intermolecular, 1 intramolecular
hormone that is produced from the body. It d) 1 Intermolecular, 3 intramolecular
.B
was first done by Eli Lily company.

Answer: c
6. Insulin receptors are ___________ Explanation: There are 2 Intermolecular and
a) Extrinsic protein 1 intramolecular disulfide bond is present in
17
b) Intrinsic protein insulin.

c) G protein
d) Trimeric protein 10. Which of the following order is correct?
a) Insulin > Proinsulin > Preproinsulin
-R
Answer: a b) Preproinsulin > Insulin > Proinsulin

Explanation: Insulin receptors are extrinsic c) Proinsulin > Preproinsulin > Insulin
protein. Insulin binds to r4ecetors on the cell d) Preproinsulin > Proinsulin > Insulin
surface. This activates the cell’s glucose
SE
transporter molecules to form a doorway in Answer: d

the cell membrane so that glucose can enter Explanation: Insulin is made up of two
the cell. peptide chains referred to as A chain and B
chain. A and B chains are linked together by
C
7. What do endocrine cells of the pancreas disulfide bonds and an additional disulfide
secrete? bond is formed within A chain.
a) Omega growth hormone

11. What is the beta subunit of the insulin 1. Radio telemetry is useful when source and
receptor? receiver is at ________________
a) Protein kinase a) Long distance separation
b) Tyrosine kinase b) Short distance separation
c) Tryptophan kinase c) Varying separation distance
M
d) Taurine kinase d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer: d
O
Explanation: Tyrosine kinase is an enzyme Explanation: Radio telemetry can be used
that can transfer a phosphate group from ATP where the distance between source and
C
to a protein in the cell. It functions as an on or receiver may vary.
off switch in many cellular functions.
T.
2. PLCC stands for _________________
12. What do delta cells secrete? a) Power Load Carrier Current
a) Cortisol b) Power Line Carrier Current
b) Glucose c) Peak Line Carrier Current
O
c) Pancreatic enzyme d) None of the mentioned
d) Somatostatin
SP
Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: PLCC is the short of power line
Explanation: Somatostatin is also known as carrier current.
growth hormone. It is a peptide hormone.
3. Multiplexing is not possible in radio
G
Somatostatin is secreted by delta cells.
telemetry.
13. What is the function of GLUT 4? a) True
LO
a) Glucose transport b) False

b) Glycogen transport
c) Insulin transport Answer: b
d) Glucagon transport Explanation: Multiplexing of data in radio
telemetry is possible.
.B
Answer: a
Explanation: GLUT 4 is the insulin regulated 4. Carrier frequency in radio telemetry will be
glucose transporter found primarily in _________________
17
adipose tissues and striated muscle. a) Very low value

b) Very high value
14. Hyperglycemia is a condition of high c) Any value greater than 100 Hz
blood glucose. d) Frequency appropriate to conductor size
-R
a) True
b) False Answer: d
Explanation: For multiplexing in radio
Answer: a telemetry, carrier frequency should be
SE
Explanation: Hyperglycemia is an appropriate to conductor size.

abnormally high blood glucose level. It is a
sign of diabetes. The main symptoms are 5. For space telemetry, carrier frequency
increased thirst and frequent need to urinate. should be _______________
C
a) Very high value

b) Very low value
TOPIC 5.3 RADIO PILL

c) Frequency appropriate to distance Answer: a

d) Any value greater than 100 Hz Explanation: Output power of the transmitter
is kept very low.
Answer: a
Explanation: Very high value of carrier 10. Output power of transmitter will be
M
frequency helps in reducing antenna size. ______________
a) 2 to 10 w
6. Frequency range of space telemetry should b) 2 to 50 w
O
be _________________ c) 2 to 100 w
a) Less than 216 MHz d) Above 100 w
C
b) Between 216 – 235 MHz
c) Between 235 – 412 MHz Answer: c
T.
d) Above 412 MHz Explanation: Output power of the transmitter
is always kept very low and it lies in the
Answer: b range of 2 to 100 w.
Explanation: Carrier frequency range of
O
space telemetry system should be between
216 MHz and 235 MHz. TOPIC 5.4 ENDOMICROSCOPY
SP
7. Which of the following represent stability 1. The endoscope that examines the
relaxation for RF carrier? respiratory tract is called as ____________
a) 0 % a) Bronchoscopy
b) +/- 1 %
G
b) Laparoscopy
c) +/- 0.1 % c) Colonoscopy
d) None of the mentioned d) Arthroscopy
LO
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: RF carrier must remain stable Explanation: Broncoscope is inserted in the
within +/- 0.1 %. body via the nasal passage and it used to
.B
image the respiratory tract. It has a very thin

8. For FM/FM modulation, what is the tube so that the patient feels minimal
bandwidth allowed? discomfort as the scope goes down the track.
a) 0.2 MHz A laryngoscope can be used to examine the
17
b) 0.5 MHz larynx. It is inserted through the mouth and

c) 0.9 MHz the direction of the scope is changed at the
d) 1 MHz epiglottis. This allows the scope to look at the
larynx and not enter the GI tract.
-R
Answer: b
Explanation: For FM/FM modulation, 2. Endoscope used to examine the upper GI
bandwidth allowed is 0.5 MHz. tract is ___________
a) Laparoscopy
SE
9. Output power of transmitter will be b) Bronchoscopy

_____________ c) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
a) Very low d) Laryngoscopy
b) Very high
C
c) Varying Answer: c
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: As the name suggests, this
particular endoscope has a really long range

and can be used to view esophagus, stomach x) Vinegar

and the duodenum. The region till here is a) i,iv, vi, vii, viii
mostly considered as the upper GI tract. b) i, vii, viii, ix, x
c) ii, iii, ix, x
3. Capsule endoscope has a ________ for d) iii, iv, v, ix
M
taking images.
a) CCD camera Answer: a
b) LED camera Explanation: The body of an endoscope is
O
c) X-Ray camera flexible because it is made of polymers. The
d) US camera cleaning agents used need to be harsh enough
C
for the microbes that may get attached to the
Answer: a endoscope as it is examining the patient but
T.
Explanation: The CCD (Charge coupled they should not corrode or harm the body of
device) camera is small and is easily fitted in the endoscope.
the capsule. It does not require too much
energy and the range of the camera is wide 6. None of the endoscopic procedures require
O
enough. It may also be called as CMOS any cuts.
(Complementary Metal Oxide a) True
SP
Semiconductor) imager. b) False
4. Extraction of a small piece of the diseased Answer: b

organ is called __________ Explanation: Some procedures like
G
a) biopsy laparoscopy and arthroscopy require a small
b) surgery cut to allows the devices to go in.
c) chemotherapy Laparoscopy is done for the diaphragm and
LO
d) replacement the organs in that region. It can help look at

kidneys and the reproductive organs in
Answer: a women.
Explanation: The smallest unit of any system
.B
is its cell. Every organ is made of tissues and 7. Which of the following operations can be
tissues are a collection of similar cells. Thus, done with an endoscope?
what a tissue system does is a result of the i. Bypass surgery
network of the similar cells. So, when a tissue ii. Cardiac Catherization
17
is diseased or injured, a part of the tissue is iii. Kidney Stone Removal

extracted to study the nature of the trauma or iv. Knee Replacement
disease. This extracted part is called a biopsy. v. Biopsy
vi. Tracheotomy
-R
5. The cleaning of the endoscope is done with vii. Appendix Removal

____________ a) i, ii, iii, iv, vii
i) 2% Glutarldehyde (CIDEX) b) ii, iii, v, vii
SE
ii) Sodium Hypochlorite c) iii, vii

iii) Hydrochloric acid d) v, vi, vii
iv) Iodophor (Betadine-providone)
v) 1% Saline Solution Answer: b
vi) 70% ethyl or isopropyl alcohol Explanation: All of the above mentioned
C
vii) Ethylene oxide (ETO) processes are minimally invasive procedures

viii) Formaldehyde vapour and can be quickly resolved with the help of
ix) Phenol Solution endoscopes. Come to require a small cut to

allow insertion of the scope along with the c) speaking

micro instruments while others may be d) all of the mentioned
performed without any incisions. These use
the nasal opening, oral opening, the anal Answer: c
opening and the vaginal opening for Explanation: None.
M
visualization and surgery.
2. Elementary linguistic units that are smaller
8. Which if the following diagnostic than words are?
O
procedures require an endoscope? a) allophones
a) Transesophagal Echocardiography b) phonemes
C
b) X Ray of the Chest c) syllables
c) Counting the Number of Platelets d) all of the mentioned
T.
d) Detecting Leukemia
Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: This is a type of Ultrasound of
O
the heart where the endoscope is sending 3. In LISP, the atom that stands for “true” is
through the oral cavity and placed close to the _____________
SP
heart via the oesophagus. This helps in taking a) t
an unhindered ultrasound of the heart. b) ml
c) y
9. Which endoscope can be used to look at d) time
G
the knees before and after a surgery?
a) Colonoscopy Answer: a
b) Arthroscopy Explanation: None.
LO
c) Bronchoscopy
d) Laryngoscopy 4. A mouse device may be _____________
a) electro-chemical
Answer: b b) mechanical
c) optical
.B
Explanation: Arthroscopy is a process where

the bones are visualized and worked upon d) both mechanical and optical
with the help of an endoscope. The soft parts
of the knee like the cartilage or the synovial Answer: d
17
capsule cannot be properly visualized with an Explanation: None.

X-Ray so an arthroscope is used to look at
5. An expert system differs from a database
them. The healing of the bones after a surgery
program in that only an expert system
can be monitored by the arthrocope. Small
-R
_____________
operations regarding the bones can be
a) contains declarative knowledge
performed with the help of the arthroscope.
b) contains procedural knowledge
c) features the retrieval of stored information
SE
TOPIC 5.5 BRAIN MACHINE d) expects users to draw their own

INTERFACE conclusions
Answer: b
1. What is the primary interactive method of
C
Explanation: None.
communication used by humans?
a) reading 6. Arthur Samuel is linked inextricably with a
b) writing program that played _____________

a) checkers 1. How many gates per chip are used in first

b) chess generation Integrated Circuits?
c) cricket a) 3-30
d) football b) 30-300
c) 300-3000
M
Answer: a d) More than 3000
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
O
7. Natural language understanding is used in Explanation: The first generation ICs
_____________ belongs to small scale integration, which
C
a) natural language interfaces consists of 3-30 gates per chip
b) natural language front ends (approximately).
T.
c) text understanding systems
d) all of the mentioned 2. Find the chip area for a Medium Scale
Integration IC?
Answer: d a) 8 mm3
O
Explanation: None.
b) 4 mm2
c) 64 mm3
SP
8. Which of the following are examples of
software development tools? d) 16 mm2
a) debuggers
b) editors Answer: d
c) assemblers, compilers and interpreters Explanation: The approximate length and
G
d) all of the mentioned breadth of Medium Scale Integration would
be 4 mm. Therefore, its area is given as =
LO
Answer: d .
length × breadth = 4mm × 4mm = 16mm2
Explanation: None.
3. The number of transistors used in Very
9. Which is the first AI programming
Large Scale Integration is
language?
.B
a) BASIC a) 107 transistors/chip

b) FORTRAN b) 106 – 107 transistors/chip
c) IPL(Inductive logic programming) c) 203 – 105 transistors/chip
17
d) LISP d) 102 – 203 transistors/chip

Answer: d Answer: c
Explanation: None. Explanation: Very Large Scale Integration
-R
(VLSI) ICs are fabricated using more than

10. The Personal Consultant is based on?
3000 gates/chip, which is equivalent to
a) EMYCIN
20,000 – 1,00,00,00 transistors/chip.
b) OPS5+
SE
c) XCON 4. What type of integration is chosen to

d) All of the mentioned fabricate Integrated Circuits like Counters,
multiplexers and Adders?
Answer: d
a) Small Scale Integration (SSI)
C
Explanation: None.
b) Medium Scale Integration (MSI)
c) Large Scale Integration (LSI)
TOPIC 5.6 LAB ON A CHIP. d) Very Large Scale Integration (VLSI)

Answer: b Semiconductor
Explanation: Fabrication of ICs like counter, b) Bell telephone laboratories and Fair child
multiplexers and Adders requires 30-300 Semiconductor
gates per chip. Therefore, Medium Scale c) Fairchild Semiconductor
Integration is best suitable. d) Texas instrument and Bell telephone
M
Laboratories
5. Determine the chip area for Large Scale
Integration ICs. Answer: a
O
a) 1,00,000 mil2 Explanation: The concept of Integrated
circuits was introduced by Texas instrument
b) 10,000 mil2
C
and Fairchild Semiconductor, whereas Bell
c) 1,60,000 mil2 telephone laboratories developed the concept
d) 16,000 mil2
T.
of transistors.
Answer: c 8. Which process is used to produce small

Explanation: The chip area for a Large Scale circuits of micron range on silicon wafer?
O
Integration IC is 1 cm2. a) Photo etching
=> Area of LSI = 10mm × 10mm = 1cm × 1 b) Coordinatograph
SP
cm = 1cm2. c) Photolithography
d) Ion implantation
=> 1,60,000mil2 (1cm=400mil).
Answer: c
6. Ultra Large Scale Integration are used in
G
Explanation: It is possible to fabricate as
fabrication of
many as 10,000 transistors on a 1cmX1cm
a) 8-bit microprocessors, RAM, ROM chip, using photolithography process.
LO
b) 16 and 32- bit microprocessors

c) Special processors and Smart sensors 9. Mention the technique used in
d) All of the mentioned photolithography process
a) X-ray lithographic technique
Answer: c
.B
b) Ultraviolet lithographic technique

Explanation: Ultra Large Scale Integration
c) Electron beam lithographic technique
have nearly 106 – 107 transistors/chip. Hence, d) All of the mentioned
it is possible to fabricate smart sensors and
17
special processor. Answer: d

Explanation: All these techniques are used to
7. The concept of Integrated circuits was produce device dimension as small as 2µm or
introduced at the beginning of 1960 by even down to sub micron range (<1µm).
-R
a) Texas instrument and Fairchild

SE
C

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EC8073 Medical Electronics Regulations 2017

PROFESSIONAL 2. Which of the following is not the property

Regulations 2017 d) Very low CMRR

RECORDING 3. CMRR is measured in ___________

MEDICAL SIGNALS d) dB/ms

1. Which of the following statement is true Answer: b

for an instrumentational amplifier? Explanation: CMRR is an important

very high and does change as the gain is response.

Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 1

Answer: a side of the isolation barrier.

isolation amplifier? the isolation barrier.

d) transformer type isolation amplifiers

resistive coupled isolation amplifiers. All the b) electric

popular. Opto-coupled amplifier uses a

prominent ions are K+, Na+, and Cl–.

Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 2

Mechanical potential is found nowhere. membrane potential of quiescent cell. That is

d) hydrogen depolarization of adjacent positions in a

and Chlorine (Cl–) are the principal ions

membrane and creates a positively charged

inside the cell membrane. because unless a stimulus above a certain

generated. This value of potential above

7. After a cell is stimulated, a finite period of

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____________ Electroencephalography is the electrical

called electrooculogram. The main c) Gold

Explanation: The most common type of

c) Electromyography German silver, nickel silver or nickel plated

could simply be understood as the electrical d) zero contact impedance

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Answer: c polarization associated with the half-cell

4. The main design feature of pregelled c) purkinje fibres

7. Atrio ventricular node is located at

pregelled disposable electrode that helps in two atrial

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Answer: c wirelessly and displayed on a laptop

essentially an impedance converter, that

9. Which of the following is a wireless ECG b) 4

c) pasteless electrodes Answer: a

provide a differential 3 lead measurement of 2. The ability of the amplifier to reject

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a) common mode rejection rate to the differential amplifier and is normally

a) True voltage)*(feedback resistance/input

Explanation: CMRR of the preamplifiers

amplifier and all unwanted signals get impedances, it is necessary to employ a

the ratio of common-mode input to Answer: a

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the electrode impedances, it is necessary to ECG circuit?

____________ orthotics. A modality-specific appliance that

d) 0.5-150 MHz movement. An orthopaedic brace is an

frequency range is usually accepted as 0.05 to typically set at 10 mm/mV.

vector quantities, it is generally convenient to

2. Which of the following amplifier recording speed is 25 mm/s. Amplitude

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be recharged, i.e. the jelly in the electrodes

recommended that the ratio of the aperture TOPIC 1.6 EEG

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d) fast system. Each electrode site is labeled with a

c) 0.05-5Hz Explanation: The delta wave in EEG ranges

from 8-13Hz and beta from 13-22Hz.

different parts of the scalp. b) ckoored response

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