Practice Questions for EnP Licensure Examinations @ Name & Date.

Instruction: Write the letter of

best answer on box provided

Basic Concepts, History of Planning, History of Settlements

1r. Presidential Decree 1308 Sec.2a defines it as referring to 'all activities concerned with the
management and development of land, as well as the preservation, conservation and management of
the human environment"
(A) Urban Planning
(B) Human Ecology
(C) Environmental Management
(D) Environmental Planning
2r. Urban planning is "concerned with providing the right place at the right site at the right
time" for the right people.
(A) John Ratcliffe
(B) Lewis Keeble
(C) Brian McLoughlin
(D) George Chadwick
(E) Alan Wilson
3r. Which is not a key feature of 'professional' planning process?
(A) proactive
(B) problem-solving
(C) algorithmic
(D) futuristic
(E) people-driven
4r. As defined by PD 1517 and by National Statistics Office, 'urban' area has the following
characteristics except one:
(A) it exports substantial quantities of processed products
(B) core district's density is at least 500 per square kilometer
(C) overall density of at least 1000 persons per square kilometer in its entirety
(D) exhibits a street pattern
5r. The most recent re-definition of 'urban' by NSCB (2003) does not include one of the
following.
(A) ifa barangay has more fishery output and shellcraft activities compared to farins, then it is
considered urban;
(B) if a barangay has population size of 5,000 or more, then it is considered urban;
(C) If a barangay has at least one establishment with 100 employees or more, then it is
considered urban
(D) If a barangay has 5 or more establishments with a minimum of 10 employees, and 5 or more
facilities within the two-kilometer radius from the barangay hall, then it is considered urban
6r. A 'city' is a significantly-large urban area which has:
(A) a cluster of skyscrapers
(B) a charter or legal proclamation
(C) a rectilinear or orthogonal street design
(D) a seaport or an airport
7r. In a November 2008 ruling of the Supreme Court upholding RA 9009's amendment of Sec. 450 of
RA 7160 LGC, the statutory requirements for an LGU's elevation to citihood are
(A) contiguous territory of at least 100 km2 except for island/group of islands
(B) population of at least 150,000
(C) minimum annual income of P100 million based on 1991 constant prices
(D) all of the above
8r. Under RA 7160 LGC Sec 452, what is the minimum population requirement to approve a Highly
Urbanized City?
(A) At least 200,000
(B) at least 500,000
(C) at least 1 million
(D) at least 10 million
9r. This pertains to the process wherein large numbers of people, driven by demographic factors,
live together in important locations -- a process that is always accompanied by economic
agglomeration, spatial alteration, and Socio-cultural change.
(A) Industrialization
(B) Urbanization
(C) Social Transformation
(D) Modernization
10r. If 'pre-industrial society' was mainly agricultural, kinship-based, self-sufficient, and
relatively parochial, 'industrial society' in contrast
(A) minimizes faming to channel capital into factories
(B) aims for mass production thru mechanization & automation
(C) prioritizes mining of minerals and precious stones
(D) relies on the output of white-collar professionals
11r. Due to greater 'division of labor', there is more heterogeneity of population and classes of
workers beginning with
(A) primitive subsistence society
(B) pre-industrial society
(C) industrial society
(D) post-industrial society
12r. This refers to low-density urban use of land expanded faster than population growth requires
an amorphic manner at the margins of existing urban centers. Over time, more and more houses are
centers that would require more energy use per person and more government resources to provincial
extensions of roads and utilities.
(A) Decentralization
(B) Dispersion
(C) Exurbanization
(D) Sprawl
13r. In Michael P. Todaro's Labor Migration Model of Urbanization (1976), the central pull factor
or main attraction of Third World cities to rural migrants even when these cities are unprepared
to accept migration, is
(A) "bright lights effect" or lure of city life and neon-lit entertainment
(B) possible benefits derived from proximity to seat of power and prestige of central city
address
(C) abundance and plenitude in cities versus hunger and famine due to insurgency wars in the
countryside
(D) substantial wage differentials between urban labor and rural labor for the same level of
skill, task, or occupation
14r. According to Dr. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr in the first comprehensive textbook on urban
planning ever written (1965),the explicit goals of urban planning are the following, except one:
(A) health & safety
(B) convenience & amenity
(C) tolerance & plurality
(D) efficiency & economy
15r. The following are the stated goals of 'urban development policy' (NUDHF) in the Philippines,
except one:
(A) to achieve a more balanced urban-rural interdependence
(B) to slow down rural-to-urban movement by means of migration control and population management
(C) to optimally utilize land and resources to meet the requirements of housing and urban
development
(D) to undertake a comprehensive and continuing program of urban development which will make
available housing and services at affordable cost
16r. According to Dr Garrett Hardin, in an open access regime without defined property rights,
individuals enjoy free unlimited access to natural resources and right to use without exclusion;
each individual is motivated to maximize his or her own benefit from exploiting the resource.
When no individual has adequate incentive to conserve the public resource, the resource will
likely become overused and overexploited.
(A) The Stewardship of Nature
(B) Fencesitter's Dilemma
(C) Communitarian Paradox
(D) Tragedy of the Commons
17r. Related to Thomas Malthus' concept of 'k' as the population size constrained by whatever
resource is in shortest supply, this principle refers to "the maximum population of a given
species that can be supported indefinitely in a defined habitat without causing negative impacts
that permanently impair the productivity of that same habitat."
(A) limits to growth
(B) tipping point
(C) range and threshold
(D) carrying capacity
18r. In general, this refers to the characteristic of a process or state that can be maintained
at a certain level indefinitely; in particular, it refers to the potential longevity of
ecological systems to support humankind and other species.
(A) Resilience
(B) Endurance
(C) Sustainability
(D) Perpetuity
(E) Durability
19r. Which basic principle of 'Sustainable Development' means responsibility and accountability
to future populations?
(A) Common Heritage of Humankind
(B) Inter-generational Equity
(C) Caring Capacity
(D) Parity of Compeers
20r. This type of planning has also been called 'synoptic,' 'static', 'normative,' and 'Utopian',
because it assumes a priori that professional planners have the intelligence, noble intentions,
and expertise to synthesize extensive data, analyze a relatively predictable world, and decide
rightly on crucial questions of broader public interest.
(A) equity or activist or advocacy planning
(B) traditional planning or command planning or imperative planning
(C) Strategic Planning
(D) rational-comprehensive planning
21r. The concepts of "input - throughput -- Output - feedback" comes from what school of
planning?
(A) Communicative Planning
(B) Liberal Pluralistic Planning
(C) incremental Planning
(D) Systems Theory of Planning
22r. The main contribution of Norbert Weiner's 'Cybernetics' to the Systems Theory of planning is
the principle that planning should be --
(A) cyclical, iterative, and self-correcting
(B) wide-ranging and exhaustive
(C) free-wheeling and open-ended
(D) rigorous, exact, and mathematical
23r. Under the Systems Theory of Planning by George Chadwick and Alan Wilson, under which stage
do policy-makers or decision-makers make a fim resolve to pursue a specific course of action?
(A) System Description
(B) System Modeling
(C) System Projection
(D) System Synthesis
(E) System Control
24r. 'Allocative' or 'regulatory' or 'policy planning' in the tradition of Herbert Gans and TJ
Kent is concerned with solving chronic problems of society by allocating resources efficiently
and enacting laws, rules and standards. It is therefore closest to which planning approach?
(A) rational-comprehensive
(B) strategic planning
(C) traditional or command planning
(D) communicative planning
25r. Which principle of Strategic Planning rallies the organization and unifies its members
around a common purpose?
(A) "solve major issues at a macro level"
(B) "avoid excessive inward and short-term thinking"
(C) “be visionary to convey a desired end-state but be flexible enough to allow and to
accommodate changes
(D) "engage stakeholders to pull together behind a single gameplan for execution"
(E) "establish priorities on what will be accomplished in the future"
(F) "communicate to everyone what is most important"
26r. In the "Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats" tool as popularized by exponents of
Strategic Planning, the elements, aspects or characteristics that need to be reinforced, are
enumerated under which quadrant?
(A) 'S'
(B) 'w
(C) 'O'
(D) 'T
27r. Which is a significant accomplishment of "Advocacy Planning" movement as fathered by Paul
Davidoff (1965)?
(A) Single women with children were assisted to find employment.
(B) Social planning was moved from 'backroom negotiations' into the open public forum.
(C) Documentation of long-lasting environmental changes was intensified
(D) Affirmative action and social amelioration were mainstreamed into national policy
(E) Businesses were compelled to draw their employees from the ranks of the poor.
28r. A member of the advocacy/activist/equity school of planning, this planner wrote the classic
"Eight Rungs in the Ladder of Citizen Participation" which describes the varying degrees of
people's involvement in policies, plans, and programs.
(A) Ralph Nader
(B) Susan S. Fainstein
(C) Dr. Martin Luther King Jr
(D) Sherry Arnstein
29r. Of the Eight-Rungs in the Ladder of Citizen Participation (1969), which 'steps' would
require the planner to perform 'facilitation' role rather than 'advice,' 'direction,' or
'manipulation'?
(A) counseling; therapy
(B) consultation; placation
(C) informing
(D) partnership; delegated power; citizen control

30r. For his grid-iron design of ancient Greek settlements such as Priene, Piraeus and Rhodes, he
is acknowledged as the Father of Town Planning in Western civilization.
(A) Vitruvius of Rome
(B) Ptolemy
(C) Hippodamus of Miletus
(D) Appolodorus of Damascus
31r. Which is a major contribution of classical Greek civilization 700-404 BCE to town planning?
(A) polytheism or pantheon of Greek gods which sanctified all elements of Nature as being
animated by divine spirit
(B) the delineation between religious space & secular civic space as separate but complementary
spheres in society
(C) the concept of 'polis' or (Latin) 'civitas' which means that only residents of cities can
truly be called 'civilized'
(D) the practice of direct democracy and the notion of citizenship vwhich included women, the
poor, slaves, and aliens.
32r. Built below the Acropolis in the heart of the citystate, the 'marketplace' was the site
where ancient Greeks came together not only for trading and buying of foodstuffs but also for
political, social, and other secular activities
(A) 'parthenon'
(B) 'gymnasium'
(C) 'erechtheum'
(D) "agora'
(E) "sumposion'
33r. They were considered the earliest regional planners in history (27 BCE -410 AD) because they
planned their cities and settlements with transport network, civil works, utilities, and military
defense, foremost in their minds?
(A) Macedonian Greeks under Alexander The Great
(C) Persians under Cyrus the Great
(B) Romans under the dictatorial Emperors
(D) Egyptians under Ramses, Thutmoses, and Nefertiti
34r. Recognized as 'father of landscape architecture, he also began the 'Parks and Conservation
Movement in the United States which advanced the idea that city parks and greenways can structure
urban space, stimulate mixed uses, dampen class conflict, heighten family and religious values,
and serve as aid to social reform.
(A) Frederic Law Olmstead Sr
(B) John Muir
(C) Gifford Pinchot
(D) George Perkins Marsh
35r. He wrote the famous book "Garden Cities of Tomorrow" (1902) and became a most influential
thinker with his effort to combine the best features of 'town' with the best features of
'country' as shown in his diagram of three-magnets.
(A) Sir Frederic Osborn
(B) Sir Ebenezer Howard
(C) Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie
(D) Sir Raymond Unwin
36r. The Garden City Movement in the United Kingdom directly addressed large-scale problems
caused by the
(A) The Scientific Revolution
(C) Industrial Revolution
(B) British-American War of Independence
(D) World War II and the Holocaust
37r. The Garden City Movement shaped the British policy of "urban containment", with following
features, except one:
(A) greenbelts, green girdles, and clear edges for all cities
(C) homestead of about one acre per family
(B) mass transit to link 'mother city' with 'garden cities'
(D) preservation of more farmland & open space
38r. Considered as the "Father of City Planning in America," he prepared plans for the City of
Manila and the City of Baguio from 1903 to 1911 with the assistance of Pierce Andersson.
(A) John Hay
(C) Robert Kennon
(B) Wiliam Howard Taft
(D) Daniel Hudson Burnham
(E) Francis B, Harrison
39r. "Make no litle plans. They have no magic and probably themselves will not be realized. Make
big plans; aim high in hope and work, remembering that a noble, logical diagram once recorded
will never die..."
(A) Leone Battista Alberti
(B) Daniel H. Bumham
(C) Baron Georges Eugenes Hausmann
(D) Pierre Charles L'Enfant
40r. "First we shape our buildings; thereafter, our buildings shape us." This quotation is
attributed to
(A) Winston Churchill
(B) George Washington
(C) Theodore Roosevelt
(D) Napoleon Bonaparte
41r. This was an American movement in the 1890s that stressed the design of settlements according
to the principles of "grandeur, exuberance, monumentality, drama and tension, cohesiveness, and
symmetry" as demonstrated in the planning of Washington DC, Paris, Chicago, San Francisco, among
others:
(A) City Beautiful Movement
(B) City Functional Movement
(C) City Efficient Movement
(D) New Towns Movement
42r. The US Supreme Court's decision in 1926 to uphold the power of an LGU to regulate land use
through ordinance in the landmark case of "Village of Euclid vs. Ambler Realty Company” is
reckoned as the watershed moment for
(A) City Beautiful Movement
(B) City Functional Movement
(C) City Efficient Movement
(D) Regional City Movement
43r. The major objective of Le Corbusiers (Charles-Edouard Jeanneret) cubist "Radiant City"
design (1923) meant for 3 million people consisting of 'uniform 60-storey tower-blocks set in a
huge park' was to:
(A) use high-rise structures to improve safety of people and security of vital institutions
(B) increase city density by building high on a small part of land
(C) increase the public's enjoyment of environmental amenities and viewscapes from varying
heights
(D) capture the retail market which justifies why prices are necessarily high in central
locations or CBDS
44r. Don Arturo Soria y Mata, a Spanish engineer, suggested that the logic of utility connections
(electricity, sewer,telephone lines, gas and water pipes) be the basis of city lay-out; thus he
considered the impact of technology in his concept of an elongated urban form running from Cadiz,
Spain up to St. Petersburg, Russia.
(A) Ciudad Conectada
(B) Ciudad Alongada
(c) Ciudad Lineal
(D) Ciudad Larga
45r. Tony Garnier (1917) conceptualized a lush green city of about 35,000 inhabitants where man
would rule by himself." thus there would be no police, no churches, no rigid forms of social
control in this Utopian place complete with landscaped homes, factories, trade schools, transport
and leisure facilities.
(A) Esplanade
(B) Axle Industrielle
(C) post-industrial motor city
(D) linear industrial city
46r. In Clarence Stein's Six Principles of Regional Planning (1920), which one concerns traffic
congestion caused by roadside parking?
(A) "Plan simply, but comprehensively
(B) "Provide ample sites in the right places for community use
(C) "Put factories and industrial buildings where they can be used without wasteful
transportation of people and goods
(D) "Cars rmust be stored inside homes
(E) "Bring private land and public land into relationship
(F) "Arrange for the occupancy of houses
47r. Frank Lloyd Wright proposed an alternative (1932) to the congestion in huge metropolis by
way of urban decentralization wherein each American family would be granted at least one acre of
federal land in a self-contained. agro-industrial settlement.
(A) Eco-city
(B) Broadacre city
(C) Exurbia
(D) Micropolis
(E) Suburbia
48r. The New Towns Movement of 1920s might have contributed to scattered and uncontrolled
development in continental America but the main reason for its suburban sprawl after World War II
was
(A) rapid fall of real estate prices in the countryside due to financial meltdown from sub-prime
lending
(B) increased value of rural land due to Hoover's Interstate Highway Act of 1956 which funded
federal highways and freeways across many states
(C) the widespread use of commuter trains and monorail
(D) the popularity of automobile as means of transportation
49r. Which of the following is not a feature of Frank Lloyd Wright's 'Broadacre City' (1932)?
(A) each person regardless of age has one acre of federal land
(B) food garden or small farm would be right next to the house
(C) manufacture &commerce set up in twelve 15-storey buildings
(D) work within walking distance from the home
(E) railroad and freeway to interconnect cities
(F) densification would preserve much open space
50r. He proposed the 'neighborhood unit' (1929) as a self-contained garden suburb' bounded by
major streets, with shops at intersections and a school in the middle; its size would be defined
by school's catchment area with a radius of quarter-mile or 402 meters. This incorporated Garden
City ideas and attempted at some kind of social engineering.
(A) Clarence Perry
(B) Clarence Stein
(C) Clarence Thomas
(D) Clarence McKay
51r. A Scottish biologist who authored the masterpiece entitled "Cities in Evolution" (1915) and
who coined the terms 'folk work-place', 'city-region' and 'conurbation' is acknowledged as the
'father of regional planning'
(A) Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie
(B) Sir Patrick Geddes
(C) Lewis Mumford
(D) Barry Parker
52r. He led the crafting of the regional 'Greater London Plan of 1944', he designed some of 30
post-war New Towns approved by the British Parliament, including Doncaster area and East Kent, in
which he used open space as structuring element.
(A) Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie
(B) Sir Patrick Geddes
(C) Lewis Mumford
(D) Charles Abrams
53r. She was called a 'superwoman' who singlehandedly sparked environmental activism in the
1960s-70s with her research ('Silent Spring) on biomagnification of pesticides and chemicals in
the human food chain; her advocacies bore fruit in the creation of US Environmental Protection
Agency and Environmental Impact Assessment system in the 1970s. the 1970s.
(A) Gro Harlem Brundtland
(B) Catherine Bauer Wurster
(C) Rachel Louise Carson
(D) Martha C. Nussbaum
54r. If 'Earth Hour' is observed on the last Saturday of March, 'Earth Day USA' is celebrated
annually on April 22, 'World Town Planning Day' fails on November 8, World Environment Day' is
marked on the 5th day of the month of
(A) May
(8) June
(C) September
(D) October
55r. If "World Heritage Day' is marked each year on April 18, 'World Biodiversity Day' is
observed on May 22, 'World Ocean Day' on June 8, 'World Indigenous Peoples Day' on August 9,
'World Animal Day' on October 4, and 'World Food Day' on October 16, when is 'World Water Day'
celebrated?
(A) January 13
(3) March 22
(C) June 24
(D) October 31
56r. Based on his landmark book, "Design with Nature,” 'map overlay' to identify 'ecological
constraints' was a tool devised in 1967 by the first modem environmental planner.
(A) lan L. McHarg
(B) Konstantinos Doxiadis
(C) Francis Stuart Chapin Jr
(D) Erma Bombeck
57r. This started as a US federal program in 1949 which aimed to rehabilitate the outworn or
decaying sections of any town by extending fund assistance to LGUs to undertake improvements in
streetscapes, parks, greenways, housing, | community centers, etc based on anticipation that
future tax revenues from real estate will pay for present costs.
(A) land re-adjustment
(B) urban restructuring
(C) infill and densification
(D) urban renewal
58r. As chief planner of New York City, he collaborated with Thomas Adams in crafting the
"Regional Plan of New York and its Environs 1922-1931;" he also conceived, and executed public
works costing $27 billion between 1924 and 1968 and was responsible for virtually every parkway,
expressway, and public housing project in New York metropolitan area.
(A) Wiliam Levitt
(B) Fiorello La Guardia
(C) Robert Murray Haig
(D) Robert Moses
(E) Warren Buffett
59r. The design of this city by Lucio Costa and Oscar Niemeyer (1957) features large open areas
relating to one other to demonstrate 'freedom' and an overall city layout resembling a 'dove in
flight'.
(A) Brasilia
(B) Sydney
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Canberra
(E) islamabad
60r. 'Ekistics' or the 'science of human settlements' by Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951) was
built upon the concept of "basic needs," which were later categorized by Johann Galtung into
"material survival & security needs," "social or enabling needs,” and non-material "human needs".
Which grouping of needs was elaborated on by Abraham Maslow?
(A) food, water, clothing, shelter, sanitation, health care, energy/fuel, employment, peace and
order,
(B) self-expression, sex, procreation, recreation, education, communication, and transportation
(C) physiological needs, physical safety, love and belongingness, esteem, self-
actualization/self-realization
(D) freedom, security, identity, well-being, ecological balance
61r. The following are the basic elements of 'human settlements' according to Dr. Konstantinos
Doxiadis. Which one pertains to the built environment or physical capital?
(A) anthropos
(B) Nature
(C) shells and networks
(D) society
(E) social structure
62r. What is the smallest unit in the 'human settlements planning' or Ekistics by Dr Konstantinos
Doxiadis (1951)?
(A) house
(B) anthropos
(C) organism
(D) neighborhood
(E) hamlet
63r. Which of the following is not part of typology of cities under Ekistics school of Dr
Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951)?
(A) ecumenopolis
(B) megalopolis
(C) metropolis
(D) agropolis
(E) eperopolis
64r. In "Death and Life of Great American Cities" (1961) and "Economy of Cities" (1969), this
planner maintains that 'diversity' promotes innovation among proximate firms and spurs the growth
of cities, thus s/he advocated for heterogeneity, variety, and mixture in the geographic
clustering of firms as well as in the composition of city districts and neighborhoods.
(A) Herbert Gans
(B) James Howard Kunstler
(C) Joel Garreau
(D) Jane Jacobs
65r. An approach in urban planning that puts premium on people and nature by building upon the
historic city or traditional neighborhood in such a way that workplaces, shops, and homes would
be within walking distance of each other.
(A) Neo-Populism
(B) Eco-Village
(C) New Urbanism
(D) Dynapolis
(E) Transit-Oriented Developinent
66r. All of the following schemes are associated with 'New Urbanism' except:
(A) Mixed Use Zoning
(B) Neo-Traditional Design
(C) Exclusionary Zoning
(D) Pedestrianization
67r. Because pre-Spanish aboriginal communities in the Philippines were relatively small and
based on kinship relations, the most common practice of land tenure in pre-colonial society,
wherein one would merely enjoy the 'fruits' of land, was called
(A) primitive communism
(B) Islamic feudalism
(C) usufruct
(D) tenancy
(E) swidden slash-and-burn
68r. This was the Spanish spatial strategy of forming dense settlements from scattered dwellings
for purposes of greater military defense and political control – literally bringing together
dispersed population within hearing distance of church bells -- which policy was applied on most
Spanish colonies from 16th to 18th centuries.
(A) El Alcance del Campanario
(B) Presidio y Fortaleza
(C) Reduccion
(D) Evangelizacion
69r. Under the plaza complex pattern described in 'Leyes de las Indias' (1573), what would be
located next to each other around a Greco-Roman quadrangle of a Spanish colonial settlement?
(A) garden, fountains, monuments, statues, gallery and promenade
(B) governor's mansion, bishop's palace, general's manor, hacendero's villa, military garrison
(C) church, town hall, school, public market
(D) houses of peninsulares, insulares, creoles, mestizos, principales and ilustrados
70r. Through Presidential Letter of Instruction 367 in 1950 combining National Urban Planning
Commission, Real Property Board, and Capital City Planning Commission, the government created
this first physical planning body.
(A) National Planning Commission
(B) National Disaster Coordinating Council
(C) National Environmental Protection Agency
(D) Human Settlements Regulatory Commission
71r. In 1964, Republic Act 4341 established this center to create a pool of professional planners
in the Philippines.
(A) Local Government Academy
(C) Institute of Planning
(B) Development Academy of the Philippines
(D) UPLB Institute of Environmental Science and Management
72r. Presidential Decree No. 01 Integrated Reorganization Plan on September 24, 1972 increased
the number of Philippine regions to 11, regionalized key ministries and line departments, and
created a major planning agency of government which is known today as
(A) Philippine Economic Zone Authority
(B) National Land Use Committee
(C) Congressional Planning and Budget Office
(D) National Economic and Development Authority
73r. In 2012, how many administrative regions does the Philippines have?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 17
74r. Under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 25, which of the following is not among the types of cities in the
Philippines,
(A) Highly Urbanized Cities
(B) Independent Cities
(C) MegaCities
(D) Component Cities
75r. In 2011, which Philippine city had the biggest population, biggest gross income, biggest net
income, and biggest IRA?
(A) City of Manila
(B) Makati City.
(C) Quezon City
(D) Cebu City
76r. This 1997 document is the Philippines' official response to 1997 UNCED 'Earth Summit' and
contains a policy framework that redefines development as the 'drawing out of full human
potential' according to the appropriate productivity' of nature, rather than optimal or maximum
exploitation of natural resources to achieve GDP growth.
(A) Philippine Strategy for Sustainable Development
(C) Strategic National Action Program
(B) Philippine Covenant on Total Human Development
(D) Philippine Agenda 21

Theories of Spatial Planning, Concepts of Regional Planning

77r. This school of thought holds that settlements form in a balanced manner; they tend to be
spread evenly and displaying both hierarchy and equilibriurn arising from the interdependence
between big and small settlements and from the complementation between their respective scope of
functions.
(A) Galaxy of Settlements Theory
(B) Central Place Theory
(C) Geographic Determinism
(D) Dependency Theory
78r. This school of thought maintains that cities are 'theaters of capital accumulation,' largely
a consequence of class based struggle among groups for strategic dominance and control of
surplus. Such conflict is usually won by the rich and powerful through agents of capital such as
multi-national corporations which use the city to amass wealth by raising property values through
commercialization, gentrification, manipulation, and land speculation.
(A) Capital Theoretic Model
(8) Political Economy
(C) Natural Capitalism
(D) David Harvey's Circuits of Capital
79r. This school of thought describes a borderless global economy characterized by free trade and
free movement of capital wherein nation-states would have 'lean and mean' governments which
pursue policies of liberalization, deregulation, privatization, de-bureaucratization,
'unbundling,' de-coupling', and similar structural adjustments.
(A) World Systems Theory
(B) State Corporatism
(C) Neo-Liberalism
(D) Liberal Democracy
80r. Johann Heinreich von Thunen's theory of Agricultural Rent is symbolized as "LR = Y (p-c) -
Ytd” where "Y" is yield or total harvest, "p" is price of crop, "c" is production cost of crop,
"t" is transport cost, and "d" is distance to market. If yield of palay is 3,500 kilos, NFA
buying price is P17.00 per kilo, distance is 5 km, given farmer's gross production cost of 45
cents per square meter per day for unit production cost of P12.00 per kilo, would palay
cultivation be profitable at this specific farm location if transport cost is P1.00 per kilo of
palay?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) It depends on the weather
(D) it depends on quality of road & capacity of vehicie
81r. In Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory, the catchment area of a central place takes
the shape of a hexagon rather than a perfect circle. If a particular service or function such as
elementary school enrolment is represented by the formula, "C = 2.6r'd,” what would be the
catchment area of elementary school if its radius is 0.50 km and diameter is one km?
(A) 0.65 sq.km
(B) 0.75 sq.km
(C) 0.85 sq.km
(D) 0.95 sq.km
82r. in Walter Christaller's central place theory (1933), neighborhood store is an example of
'first-order services' while grocery store, gas station, furniture shop, and post office are
examples of
(A) secondary services
(8) tertiary services
(C) quaternary services
(D) quinary services
83r. In central place theory (1933), this refers to the minimum population required to make a
'service' viable.
(A) resident population
(B) captive market
(C) threshold population
(D) population explosion
B4r. A chart-like tool to measure 'centrality' of a place particularly its range of economic and
social functions, is called
(A) Matrix
(B) Isotims
(C) Isodapanes
(D) Scalogram
85r. All of the following are practical applications of Central Place Theory in the Philippines,
except one.
(A) location of health centers
(B) location of trial courts
(C) location of beach resorts
(D) location of police stations
86r. What Christallerian principles form the basis why a state university, a consumer mall, a
huge sports stadium, or a tertiary-level hospital can not be established in each and every
Philippine municipality?
(A) spatial equity and bio-geographic equity
(C) market range and threshold population
(B) specialization and concentration
(D) profitability and pecuniary interest
87r. The 'hierarchy of settlements in Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory is characterized
by
(A) equally-sized large cities in every region
(C) only medium-sized and small settlements
(B) only one large city, many small settlements
(D) a few large cities, some medium cities, many small settlements
88r. According to the Chicago school of human ecology, 'invasion' refers to how pioneers and
opportunists push the "land frontier farther out; when immigrants settle in waves, they define
new land uses for themselves in a process called
(A) 'evolution'
(3) 'co-location'
(C) 'succession'
(D) 'acclimatization'
(E) 'cohabitation'
89r. In the model of mono-centric cities, it is assumed that manufacturers locate close to
transport A arteries, blue-collar workers locate close to their jobs, while traders and retailers
pay higher for choice locations in city center to have command of the market. This pattern of
land use is explained better by which theory of spatial planning?
(A) Urban Bid-Rent by Alonso, Muth, and Mills
(B) Cumulative Causation by Gunnar Myrdal
(C) Urban Land Nexus Theory by David Harvey
(D) City as Growth Machine by John Logan & Harvey Molotch
90r. "When all land is identical and there is perfect competition among profit-maximizing firms,
land is sold to the highest bidder. As a fim moves closer to the center of a place, transport
costs fall which increases the amount a firm is willing to pay for land. Thus, land at the center
always has the highest value."
(A) Johann Henreich von Thunen, Walter Christaller, and George Kingsley Zipf
(B) William Alonso, Richard E. Muth and Edwin S. Mills
(C) Alfred Weber, August Losch, and Walter Isard
(D) Roderick D. McKenzie, Amos H. Hawley, Robert Park
91r. In William Alonso's Bid-Rent Theory (1960), the most appropriate use of the innermost circle
in the diagram is
(A) farming of the most expensive crops
(B) terminal for commuters, central rail station
(C) central park
(D) shopping & retail services
92r.It in Ernest Burgess' concentric model (1925), factories and work-shops would most likely
locate in
(A) the innermost circle,
(B) the outermost circle
(C) the second circle from the center
(D) the third circle from the center
93r. It In Homer Hoyt's model (1939), where would the elite class place their high-end
subdivisions?
(A).section 'A'
(B) section ‘BI"
(C) section 'C'
(D) section 'D'
94r. 'Leapfrog development' and 'sprawl' are what you commonly see in what Peirce F. Lewis calls
(A) Circumferential City
(B) Multi-cellular city
(C) Stellar City
(D) Galactic City
95r. The 'multiple nuclei' model of Harris and Ullmann (1945) posits that
(A) Cities have varied natural resources that stimulate progress in different locations
(B) Diversified economic functions of cities cluster around several points of growth
(C) Zoning of cities closely follows the flow or 'circuits of capital
(D) Air transport, sea transport, land transport facilities are the logical growth zones of
cities
96r. 'Urban development tends to occur along major transportation routes because
(A) power/water connections and other utilities are naturally linear
(B) business can not take place without roads and vehicles
(C) migration usually occurs lineally from point A to point B such as in exodus, processions, or
diasporas
(D) people tend to locate where exchange, interchange, and access to other land uses are at
maximum
97r. Which theorist of urban land use states categorically that land use follows transport in the
same manner that both population and business follow roads?
(A) Ernest Burgess
(B) Homer Hoyt
(C) Chauncey Harris & Edward Ullman
(D) Peirce Lewis
98r. Which of the following land-use models describes the pattern of radial or axial growth along
lines of least resistance?
(A) Multiple nuclei
(B) Concentric zone
(C) Sector model
(D) Polycentric model
99r. In the model of Homer Hoyt, the sections of urban land with the highest values are those:
(A) downtown sections facing seas, lakes & near waterfronts
(C) immediately around public offices / institutional sector
(B) on top of hills and elevated areas called 'uptowns
(D) along major roadways
100r. The original concept of 'megalopolis' as an extended or super-sized urban area is
attributed to
(A) Jean Gottman
(B) Konstantinos Doxiadis
(C) Dennis Rondinelli
(D) Andreas Faludi
101r. Which characteristic of megalopolis describes its tendency to develop a multi-nuclei or
multi-nodal spatial pattern?
(A) is an expansive urban region with over 10 million population (Giles Clarke)
(B) tends to be dependent on food, water, and energy supplies of its neighboring regions
(C) has complex form as 'mother city' breeds smaller offspring-cities in dendritie
or sprawling manner
(D) requires broad type of regional governance beyond the capacity and resources of a single LGU
authority
102r. This process deals with efficient placement of activities and land uses such as farms,
settlements, industries, transport hubs, infrastructure, wilderness etc across a significantly
large area broader than a single city or town.
(A) Watershed Planning
(B) Area Development Planning
(C) Regional Planning
(D) Physical Planning
103r. Klaasen enumerates the criteria for creating planning regions as follows. Which criterion
pertains to the role of a leading center or a complex of exporting firms or lead industries?
(A) "Must be large enough to take investment decisions of an economic size
(B) "Must be able to supply its own industries with necessary labor
(C) “Should have a homogenous economic structure
(D) "Must contain at least one growth point;
(E) "Must have a common approach to and awareness of its own problems
104r. Which is not a method to delineate a region?
(A) force field analysis
(B) gravitational analysis
(C) factor analysis
(D) flow analysis
(E) ethno-linguistic and socio-cultural profiling
(F) weighted index number method
105r. "High-growth regions with expanding economic activity will attract net migration from other
parts of the country, thus favoring them further. Capital investments tend to have a similar
effect: increased demand in expanding centers spur additional investments, which in turn will
increase incomes and demand or cause a further round of investments...”
(A) Cumulative Causation
(B) Positive Reinforcement
(C) Economic Modernization
(D) Circuits of Capital
106r. According to Gunnar Myrdal, 'forward linkage' refers to the 'development of external
economies for an industry's products" while 'backward linkage' refers to
(A) "connection with lagging or backward enterprises in the rural countryside
(B) "development of auxiliary industries to supply input
(C) "attraction of capital and enterprises to exploit expanding demands
(D) "expansion of service industries and others serving the local market
107r. 'Residentiary services' refers to domestic living-related services such as housing,
grocery, catering, recreation, etc while 'services that cut across varied types of firms such as
security, banking, insurance, courier services, etc are called
(A) logistical
(B) financial
(C) diagonal
(D) interlocal
(E) messengerial
(F) transborder
108r. Which thrust of regional planning addresses core-periphery, center-hinterland economic
exchange & spatial integration?
(A) Enforce urban growth control such as greenbelts or analogous schemes to protect the natural
environment
(B) Cultivate a role for each component-settlement such as administrative center, manufacturing
hub, tourism zone, etc
(C) Develop transport corridors in 'hub and spokes design' with major infrastructure reaching out
to population centers
(D) Resist development in flood plains or on earthquake fault zones by utilizing these areas as
parks, farms. buffers, etc
109r. A region that is defined by common physical features such as resource base, lake, coast,
ecosystem is called 'natural or ecological region'; while that which is defined by extent of
economic connectedness or market exchange is called a "functional region"; that which is created
by law regardless of natural or economic commonality is called
(A) homogenous region
(B) formal region
(C) historic region
(D) virtual region
110r. 'Industrial dispersal' began with Memorandum Circular dated Dec 16, 1973 which banned
establishment of additional medium and heavy industries in the national capital within a 50-
kilometer radius from
(A) Rizal Monument, Luneta
(B) Malacañang Palace
(C) Bonifacio Monument
(0) Quezon Memorial Circle
111r. The first export processing zone in the Philippines which became operational in 1972 was
(A) Bataan EPZ
(B) Mactan EPZ
(C) Baguio EPZ
(D) Zamboanga de Ayala EPZ
(E) Phividec Misamis Oriental
112r. Although theoretically flawed, "Super-Region" as conceived by the administration of Pres,
Gloria Macapagal Arroyo sought to build upon perceived comparative advantage of a cluster of
territories such as agri-processing, tourism, commodity logistics chain, or cyber-services. Which
'super-region' ought to focus on 'agri-business'?
(A) Northern Luzon Quadrangle
(B) Metro Luzon Urban Beltway
(C) CALABARZON Industrial Heartland
(D) Central Philippines (Visayas, Palawan and parts of Mindanao)
(E) Subic - Clark Freeport complex
(F) Bangsa Moro Juridical Authority
113r. Under the 'super-region' concept of the PGMA administration, Central Luzon as part of the
Mega Manila 'Extended Urban Region', would focus on
(A) hacienda farming
(B) meat processing
(C) commodity logistics chain
(D) cyber services
(E) tourism
14r. Of the so-called 'super-regions, which one is being promoted as having the comparative
advantage in 'tourism"?
(A) North Luzon
(B) Central Philippines
(C) Baguio & Cordillera Autonomous Region
(D) Davao Silicon Gulf
115r. Under Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, what is closest to the meaning of
'inclusive growth ?
(A) compromise
(B) transactional
(C) equality
(D) beneficial to all particularly lagging groups
(E) only for the Yellow Army
116r. The 'center-down' paradigm of neo-classical economics of the 1960s assumed that benefits
from national-level or macro-economic growth tend to to component regions and lower-level
communities.
(A) cascade
(B) sprinkle around in spurts
(C) pour down
(D) trickle down
117r. In John Friedman's (1966, 1973) taxonomy of regions according to economic condition, which
refers to 'lagging regions'?
(A) core regions
(B) upward transitional areas
(C) resource frontier areas
(D) downward transitional areas
(E) special problem areas
(F) latifundio-minifundio
118r. The phenomenon of urban primacy' mostly in Third World countries wherein a single
metropolis corners a disproportionate share of a country's population, resources, and investments
by reason of historical or political precedence, or as a result of foreign colonial influence, is
also called "Manila imperialisni" in the Philippines.
(A) it is desirable because of the efficient use of space and economies of scale.
(B) it proves that benefits from agglomeration outweigh the disbenefits from congestion and
overconcentration
(C) it demonstrates that Third World countries remain as colonies of Western imperialist powers.
(D) it shows polarization within a country and siphoning off of economic assets and human talent
from 'hinterland'
119r. Which of the following is not among the Philippine government strategies to attain
'concentrated decentralization' ?
(A) regional industrial centers
(B) special economic zones
(C) growth corridors, growth triangles, growth polygons
(D) agora and agurbia .
120r. According to Francois Perroux (1955), this phenomenon in economics refers to a propulsive
or expanding firm/industry, or cluster of such firms/industries, which induces development of
other firms/industries that are technically or functionally related to it, and stimulates
prosperity of the locality or region through the flow of goods and services.
(A) Market town
(8) Entrepot
(C) Axis Mundi
(D) Growth Pole
(E) Ecozone
121r. Which is not an element of Special Economic Zone or ecozone under PEZA?
(A) free trade zone
(B) financial banking center
(C) export processing zone
(D) industrial park or industrial estate
122r. According to RA 7916 Sec 4, this refers to a tract of land of at least 50 contiguous
hectares which is subdivided and developed according to a comprehensive plan under a unified
continuous management and with provisions for basic infrastructure and utilities, with or without
pre-built standard factory buildings (SFBS)
(A) industrial corridor
(B) regional manufacturing hub
(C) export processing zone
(D) industrial estate
123r. RA 7916 reiterates Sec. 12, Art Xll of Philippine Constitution, "The State shall promote
the preferential use of Filipino labor, domestic materials and locally produced goods and adopt
measures that help make them competitive." What technical planning concept pertains most aptly to
this?
(A) inflow - outflow - backflow
(B) trickle up and trickle down
(C) economic nationalism or Filipinism
(D) forward linkages and backward linkages in production
124r. An industrial estate that is established to develop new industries is called
"developmental" while an industrial estate meant to advance, improve or increase the level of
industrial activity particularly in poor regions is called
(A) "specialized"
(B) "ancillary"
(C) "promotional"
(D) "survival"
(E) "subsistential"
125r. The following central variables except one were used by Alfred Weber, August Lösch, Walter
Isard, Melvin Greenhut and others, in so-called classical theories of industrial location.
(A) the costs of distributing and marketing finished
(C) the costs of transporting raw materials to the goods to the end-user factory
(B) wages of labor
(D) perks and privileges for managers
126r. When a firm locates close to sources of natural resources such as Pittsburg or Ruhr valley,
it is called "materials oriented," when a firm locates close to where there are large populations
such as Shanghai or Tokyo, it is called --
(A) customer-friendly
(B) client-centered
(C) demographically-responsive
(D) market-oriented
127r. According to Walter Isard, firms or industries that are indifferent to the physical
attributes of geographic location to carry out profitable business are called:
(A) vagabond
(B) wanderlust

(C) itinerant
(D) footloose
128r. An American car company breaks up its production process because of high wage cost of
unionized labor in Detroit and moves its manufacturing plants to China where labor costs are low
and sources of refined metals are close by. What theory of firm location likely underpins this
decision?
(A) Market-Oriented Approach by August Lösch
(B) Least Cost Approach by Alfred Weber
(C) Profit-Maximizing Approach by Walter Isard
(D) Organizational Theory (Segmentation & Mergers)
129r. A Swedish computer company relocates to Silicon Valley, California, where despite high wage
costs, IT companies boast of highest IQ points per square-meter of floorspace, and have vibrant
linkages with topnotch universities to create state-of-the-art technologies. What theory of firm
location is operational here?
(A) Theory of Human Capital
(B) Profit Maximizing Approach
(C) Satisficing Theory
(D) Behavioral Theory
130r. Despite global economic recession and decline of demand for luxury goods, a watch company
decides to stay put in Switzerland because of its secure market niche and proven track record in
producing Rolex timepieces. What theory of firm location is likely at work here?
(A) Comparative Advantage
(B) Profit Maximizing Approach
(C) Satisficing Theory
(D) Behavioral Theory
131r. In 1970, the Presidential Advisory Council on Public Works and Community Development and
the UP Institute of Environmental Planning together drafted the first-ever national physical
framework plan that attempted to address spatial inequity or imbalance among regions using the
concept of
(A) integrated area development
(B) growth pole/growth center
(C) selective territorial closure
(D) New Society
132r. The declared strategy of the national government since the 1980s to promote greater
complementarity between agriculture and industry sectors and between urban and rural places is
called
(A) Import Substitution Industrialization
(C) Countrywide Urban-Rural Linkages (CURL)
(B) Export Oriented Industrialization (EOI)
(D) Balanced Agro-Industrial Development Strategy (BAIDS)
133r. "Development process should be redefined in such a way that urban development promotes
rural development while rural development supports urban development." (John Friedman)
(A) agropolis / agropolitan approach
(B) rurban interlink
(C) agro-based countryside development
(D) Michael Lipton model
134r. This sub-national development approach of government from the mid-1970s to mid-1990s refers
to the necessary combination of agricultural, industrial, and institutional activities in
mutually reinforcing manner -- fostering the growth of viable market towns or mid-size cities
that offer broad services and amenities meant to achieve both stability oi population movement
and agro-industrial growth; closely tied to, and integrated with, efficient agricultural
production.
(A) Autonomous Autarchic Development
(B) integrated area development
(C) endogenous self-reliant development
(D) selective territorial closure
135r. As conceptualized in 1989, the private-led "Agro-Industrial Development Area (AIDA)" scheme
analogous to Japan's "One Town One Product" model would cluster several villages to carry out the
following components except:
(A) family farm school or folk school
(B) small-scale agro-processing industries
(C) rural development center
(D) roll-on-roll-off (RORO) port
136r. RA 8550 Fisheries Code defines it is a band of dry land and adjacent ocean space in which
terrestrial processes and uses, as well as oceanic processes and uses directly affect each other;
its geographic extent has a landmark limit of one (1) kilometer from the shoreline at high tide
to a seaward limit of 200 meters isobath.
(A) Seashore land
(B) Foreshore land
(C) Coastal Zone
(D) Aqua Marine Zone
137r. This refers to the part of a seashore which is alternately covered by the ebb and flow of
tide, technically, to a string of land margining a body of water, between the low-water line
usually at the seaward margin of a low tide terrace and the upper limit of wave wash at high tide
usually marked by a beach scarp or bem.
(A) seaside
(B) seaboard
(C) foreshore
(D) seagrass bed
(E) beachfront
138r. Under RA 8550, what is the extent of municipal waters of a seaside town as measured fronı
its shoreline?
(A) 7 km
(B) 10 km
(C) 15 km
(D) 20 km
139r. Under RA 8550 Fisheries Code of 1998, if the total width of water body between two seaside
municipalities is less than 30 km, each one's municipal waters is determined by using
(A) comparative sizes of fishing population
(B) a median line on common water body
(C) preponderance of maritime and aquatic activities
(D) ratio and proportion according to length of shoreline
140r. Philippines is one of 18 mega-diverse countries which together contain two-thirds of the
world's biodiversity. Philippines has over 30% of Southeast Asia's coral reef cover, a square
kilometer of which can produce between 30 to 40 metric tons of seafood annually. Which area is
considered among the most serious hotspots in rapid coral reef destruction?
(A) Sulu
(B) Boracay
(C) Palawan
(D) Mindoro
141r. According to 1997 study on 775 coral formations by Dr Edgardo Gomez, Dr Helen Yap of UP
Marine Science Institute, 30% of total Philippine coral reef cover is dead, 39% dying, 25% in
fair condition, how much remains in 'excellent condition?
(A) approximately 5%
(B) approx. 8%
(C) approx. 26%
(D) approx. 31%
142r. The following are illegal and destructive forms of fishing in Philippine marine waters,
except one.
(A) use of crude, traditional, or artisanal gadgets
(8) use of dynamites and other explosives
(C) use of fine mesh nets
(D) muro-ami
(E) use of cyanide on reef-based or pelagic species
(F) use of beach seine and bottom-scouring trawis
143r. Wilson (1992) estimated that 90% habitat loss of an area results in 50% reduction cf number
of species. Under RA 9174 "Wildlife Resources Conservation & Protection Act", a species or sub-
species that faces high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called
(A) Acutely Threatened Species
(B) Critically Endangered Species
(C) Species Vulnerable to Extinction
(D) Rapidly Vanishing Species
144r. Because land use changes affect a species' ability to migrate,_______ are necessary to give
species a route reach their new habitats.
(A) Science Reserves & Ranches
(B) Zoos & Botanical Gardens
(C) Lifelines
(D) Wildlife Corridors
145r. The Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species (CITES) on March 3, 1973 has
been helpful in protecting endangered animals and plants, of which the Philippines has over 800,
by
(A) listing all species that can be hunted, traded, and used commercially
(B) listing those species and products whose international trade is controlled
(C) funding projects for breeding endangered plants and animals
(D) preventing the hunting of whales and dolphins
(E) specifying prices for certain plant and animal products
146r. This refers to the totality of cultural properties preserved and developed through time and
passed on for posterity.
(A) national patrimony
(B) customs & traditions
(C) patriotic legacy
(D) cultural heritage
(E) bequeaths & bequests
147r.Which of the following is not a major Heritage Site in the Philippines as declared by
UNESCO?
(A) Baroque churches of Manila, Sta. Maria, Paoay & Miag-ao
(B) Tubattaha Reef Marine Park
(C) Magellan's Cross in Cebu
(D) Rice Terraces of the Philippines
(E) Puerto Princesa Underground River
(F) Historic Town of Vigan
148r. According to RA 10066 National Cultural Heritage Act of 2009, this refers to “historical
sites or structures hallowed and revered for their history or association as declared by the
National Historical Institute"
(A) Epochal Landmark
(B) National Treasure
(C) National Cultural Property
(D) Historic Shrine
(E) Sacred Place
149r. Basic principle of Heritage Conservation which holds that historic structures and treasures
should be utilized by preserving as much of their exteriors as possible while adopting more
modern uses in their interiors.
(A) Total Makeover
(B) Reconfigurative Renovation
(C) Converted Property
(D) Adaptive Re-use
150r. Presidential Decree 2146 defines 'amenity areas' as those with high aesthetic values such
as the following, except one.
(A) outstanding landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes
(B) planetarium, space observatory, and science centrum
(C) heritage sites and historic places
(D) municipal plazas and public parks
151r. Which is not a benefit from having large greenspace in cities?
(A) absorbs air pollution
(B)gives of oxygen
(C) cools the air as water transpires
(D) provides habitat to wild beasts
(E) provides shade with less electricity required
(F) muffles noise and creates an island of peace
1521. A 'drainage basin' is the total land area that contributes runoff to a given stream. What
characteristic of a drainage basin causes it to have an 'efficient' response to rainfall?
(A) sloping topography in bowl-like formation
(C) plasticity of clay bottom
(B) permeable soils
(D) filtration by its wetlands
153r. Under RA 8371, this refers to "all areas generally belonging to ICCs/IPs comprising lands,
inland waters, coastal areas, and natural resources therein, held under a claim of ownership,
occupied or possessed by ICCS/IPs, by themselves or through their ancestors, since time
immemorial, continuously up to the present."
(A) tribal land
(B) cultural heritage
(C) autonomous region
(D) ethnic realm
(E) ancestral domain
Land Use Process, Physical Planning, Transport, and Disaster
154r. According to RA 8749, this geographic-based document integrates primary data and
information on natural resources and anthropogenic activities on the land as evaluated using
various risk assessment and forecasting methodologies, and evaluates environment quality and
carrying capacity of an area in such a way that enablesplanners and govemment decision-makers to
anticipate the type of development control necessary in the planring area.
(A) Natural Resources Inventory
(B) Environmental Accounting
(C) Biogeographic Compendium
(D) Eco-Profile
155r. In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the 'social
sector"?
(A) Education
(8) Tourism
(C) Health
(D) Police Protective Services
(E) Sports and Recreation
156r. In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the 'economic
sector ?
(A) Housing
(B) Mining
(C) ICT and Business Process Outsourcing
(D) Mariculture
(E) Small Scale Industries
157r. This process defines the physical platform of development at the local level, and proceeds
by systematically evaluating alternative patterns of resource use, choosing that use which meets
specified goals, and drawing-up appropriate policies and programs, directed to the best use of
land in view of accepted objectives, and of environmental and societal opportunities and
constraints.
(A) Framework Planning
(B) Strategic Planning
(C) Land Use Planning
(D) Development Planning
158r. This document consists of specific proposals to guide growth in a locality including
statements about community goals, priorities, strategies, and socially-desired mix of resource
uses. These are illustrated by maps, diagrams, charts, tables that show a coherent spatial
framework for environment protection, economic production, settlements, and infrastructure.
(A) Charrette
(B) Chatroulette
(C) Comprehensive Land Use Plan
(D) Strategic Plan
(E) Framework Plan
159r. An essential part of land-use planning, this activity occurs after strategic planning but
before the detailed layout of location, and aims to characterize and design a parcel of land or
specific section of town so that it can function effectively in relation to the complexity and
scale of proposed development and the range of land uses around it.
(A) Estate Planning
(B) Wards and Precincts Planning
(C) Parcellary Planning
(D) Site Planning
(E) Project Planning
160r. This concerns the arrangement, appearance, and functionality of a whole town or city, in
particular the shape and form of city blocks, the uses of public space, the articulation of
physical features in three dimensions, so that residents and visitors alike can make high-quality
connections between people, places, and buildings.
(A) Architectural Master Plan
(B) Cityscape and Streetscape
(C) Urban Design
(D) Form and Style
(E) Visual Panorama
161r. This refers to the division of a community into districts or sections according to present
and potential uses of land in order to maximize, regulate, arid cirect their use and development
(A) Wards & Precincts Planning
(B) Subdivision Plats
(C) Land Allocation and Apportionment
(D) Zoning
162r. It is an integrated development scheme wherein a defined area is comprehensively planned as
a unitary entity such that innovations in site design and building design are rewarded by
government with some flexibility in zoning, usually relaxation of standards or their replacement
with negotiated agreement between the developer and the LGU.
(A) Enterprise Zone
(B) Sites and Services model
(C) Zonal Improvement Program
(D) Planned Unit Development
163r. This type of town regulation says that man-made structures should be of such height, bulk,
or design so as not to upstage, play down, or draw attention away from a landmark (eg Eiffel
Tower), natural landscape, or character of place
(A) design aesthetics
(B) architectural masterplan
(C) cultural mapping
(D) forrm-zoning
164r. An innovation in land-use regulation in which the right to develop a property can be
separated or severed from Ownership of land in a particular zoning district, then sold or passed
on to another property owner, and exercised in connection with the development of land in some
other part of the jurisdiction.
(A) Market-based instrument
(B) Commutation of Rights
(C) Property Conversion
(D) Transfer of Development Rights
165r. Which is not considered 'production land in a Philippine LGU?
(A) agro-industrial estate
(B) cropland
(C) orchard
(D) fishpond
(E) fishpen
166r. Which type of land use is not described as 'urban'?
(A) residential
(B) institutional
(C) industrial
(D) mineral
167r. Which type of land use is most easily reversible or convertible to its original state?
(A) forest land
(B) memorial park
(C) infrastructure land
(D) commercial
168r. What is the percent slope of a land parcel that has a change in elevation ('rise') of 8
meters and is 160 meters long?
(A) 8%
(B) 7%
(C) 6%
(D) 5%
(E) 4%
169r. In slope analysis, land with slope 0% to 3% is described as
(A) 'even and smooth'
(B) 'flat to gently sloping'
(C) level to nearly level'
(D) 'gently to moderately undulating'
170r.Which of the following soil types has the greatest permeability, and hence has the least
nutrient-holding capacity?
(A) sand
(B) clay
(c) silt
(D) loam
(E) humus
171r.Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for agricultural
use?
(A) climate and rainfall
(B) soil quality
(C) geologic fault lines
(D) slope
172r. In agricultural land use planning, the soil characteristics of solum depth and clay-silt
fraction that would ensure good plant growth are
(A) <50 cm and <80%
(B) > 100 cm and >80%
(C) 50-100 cm and 40-80%
(D) 10-50 cm and 10-40%
173r. These are lands capable of intensive use or cultivation over time and can sustain the
productivity levels of crops in a given climatic region without adversely affecting the immediate
or adjoining environment.
(A) agro-industrial estate
(B) prime agricultural land
(C) aluvial fans
(D) ricefields or mud paddies
174r. The recommended map scale for provinces is 1 : 50,000 while that for town/city CLUP should
be at least
(A) 1:200,000
(B) 1:100,000
(C) 1:25,000
(D) 1:10,000
175r. Which of those listed below is not a 'thematic' map?
(A) political – administrative boundaries
(B) NPAAAD map
(C) slope map
(D) forest cover map
176r. 'Contour lines' on a topographic map indicate
(A) soil classes
(B) layers of vegetative cover
(C) demarcation lines of A&D
(D) elevation intervals
177r. An'analytical map is a composite or overlay of two or more
(A) base maps
(B) thematic maps
(C) aspect maps
(D) choropleth maps
178r. It is a computer system consisting of software and hardware components that are used to
organize, store, process. analyze and display multiple layers of spatially-referenced information
about geographically located features.
(A) Geodesy and Geodetics
(B) Global Positioning System
(C) Electronic Cadastral System
(D) Geographic Information System
179r. These are geometric coordinates for designating the location of places on the surface of
the Earth; the First gives the location of a place above or below the equator, expressed by
angular measurements ranging from 0° at the equator to 90° at the poles, while the Second gives
the location of a place east or west of an upright line called the prime meridian, and is
measured in angles ranging from 0° at the prime meridian to 180° at the International Date Line.
(A) landmass and ocean
(B8) Cartesian x,y, points
(C) north pole & south pole
(D) latitude and longitude
180r. Prior to the development of computer mapping software in the mid-1970s, spatial analysis
was dorme manually by Overlaying different thematic maps of the same scale, principally to
determine
(A) geohazards and physical constraints
(B) areas that are ideal for urban development
(C) critical areas for rehabilitation or intervention
(D) all of the above
181r. This refers to aerial photographs that have been rectified to produce an accurate image of
the Earth by removing tilt of planet, relief displacements, and topographic distortions which
occurred when the photo was taken from an airplane
(A) photogrammetry
(8) orthophotography
(C) remote sensing
(D) geomatics
(E) geodetics
182r. In a computer graphics/mapping system, this is a data structure for representing point and
line data by means of x,y,z geometric coordinates; it can also be a set of line segments joined
end-to-end to make a curved path in space.
(A) vector
(8) raster
(C) curvature
(D) field
(E) node
183r. According to Prof. Ernesto Serote, this is the process of putting two or more thematic maps
on top of each other to determine areas of convergence of certain features of land contributing
to the suitability of the area to a particular purpose, and conversely, to eliminate or screen
out areas that are tiot suitable for that purpose.
(A) thematic superimposition
(B) cartographic merging
(C) sieve analysis
(D) spatial modeling
184r. What rational tool do planners use in selecting from alternative land use schemes?
(A) checklist of criteria
(B) linear programming
(C) cost-benefit analysis
(D) computer simulation
185r. By taking into account both quantitative values and non-quantitative values. “Planning
Balance Sheet' is an 'extended' 'multiple-criteria' form of
(A) cost-revenue analysis
(B) cost-benefit analysis
(C) cost-effectiveness analysis
(D) cost-estimate analysis
186r. This refers to the wise and prudent use of any resource that is held in trust.
(A) technocracy
(B) shepherding
(C) protectionism
(D) championing
(E) stewardship
187r. In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning works with Nature by conserving
natural resources.
(A) interconnect open space and greenways to provide corridors and refuge for wildlife
(B) delineate clear town edges or greenbelts to protect surrounding farmland
(C) encourage quarrying near main rivers to generate substantial revenues for the municipality
(D) create neighborhood pocket-parks and urban mini-forests to serve as lungs of the city/town
188r. This is the legal term for forest at 1,000 meters elevation or more or with steep gradients
at 50% or more, which perform vital ecological functions and must therefore be kept perpetually
in natural state and free from human intrusion.
(A) Everlasting Forest
(B) Permanent Forest
(C) Virginal Forest
(D) Primeval Forest
189r. This is the scientific term for old-growth forest in tropical countries that is dominated
by broad-leaf trees which form thick canopy thus allowing little sunlight on the forest floor,
and includes much-prized hardwood species such as red lauan, white lauan, red narra, tanguile,
tiaong, almon, bagtikan, apitong, kamagong, yakal, and mayapis.
(A) Dipterocarp Forest
(B) Deciduous Forest
(C) Coniferous or 'Pine' Forest
(D) Tropical Scrub Forest
(E) Mossy Forest
(F) Sub-marginal Forest
(G) Mangrove Forest
(H) Evergreen Forest
190r. All but one of the following are sub-categories of Forest Reserve,
(A) Permanent Forest
(B) Critical River Watershed
(C) Mangrove Forest
(D) Military and Civil Reservations
191r. Under RA 7586, these are identified portions of land and water, remarkable areas,
biogeographic zones, habitats of rare and endangered species-- all set aside by reason of their
unique physical and biological significance, to be managed to enhance biological diversity, and
to be secured from destructive human exploitation.
(A) National Heritage Parks and Reservations
(B) Resource Reserve
(C) Ecological Zones
(D) Protected Areas
192r. A 'watershed' is principally a source of
(A) timber for processing into lumber, shelter materials, paper
(B) charcoal for grill requirements of five-star restaurants
(C) food and prey for biodiverse species in rivers, streams
(D) water for humans, animals, plants, and other species
193r. Under RA 7586, poor communities occupying sections of forestland continuously for at least
5 years prior to legal proclamations, who are dependent on the forest for subsistence, are
considered "tenured migrant communities and are engaged by government to undertake reforestation
and upland management under this specific program.
(A) Agro-Forestry
(B) Sloping Agricultural Land Technology
(C) Integrated Social Forestry
(0) Industrial Forestry
194r. Unaer Executive Order 23 dated February 1, 2011 declaring "moratorium on the cutting and
harvesting of timber," which of the following is exempted from the total log ban until the year
2016?
(A) concessions signed by DENR secretary
(B) conversion of mangrove forests
(C) selective or rotational harvesting in industrial and commercial plantations
(D) small-scale tree cutting, 'carabao logging,' and kaingin
195r. Under Executive Order 26 series of 2011 which declared the National Greening Program as DA-
DAR-DENR Convergence Initiative, how many tree seedlings should each government employee plant
each year, a requirement that also applies to students identified by DEPED and CHED?
(A) 10
(8) 20
(C) 25
(D) 30
(E) 35
196r. Under RA 9175 Chainsaw Act of 2002, one of the following does not possess a chainsaw in a
legal manner.
(A) has a subsisting timber license agreement, production sharing agreement, or a private land
timber permit
(B) is duly elected official of upland barangay
(C) is an orchard and fruit tree farmer
(D) is a licensed wood processor who cuts only timber that has been legally sold
(E) is an industrial tree farmer
197r. This broad category refers to land deliberately kept undeveloped for its contribution to
the amenity value of the environment. It offers opportunities for adventure recreation or passive
leisure at low-cost, and at the same time, serves as protection buffer around sensitive areas and
hazardous installations.
(A) Wilderness
(B) Tourism & Recreation Zone
(C) Rangeland
(0) Open Space
198r. PD 705 Revised Forestry Code Section 16 affirms that, after a salvage zone of 40 meters
from the hightide-mark or shoreline, there shall be protective strips of mangroves or swamps
along the coast with width of at least
(A) 20 meters
(B) 25 meters
(C) 30 meters
(D) 35 meters
(E) 40 meters
199r. Republic Act that provides for "conservation and protection of wildlife resources and their
habitats" is numbered as
(A) RA 9147
(B) RA 9714
(C) RA 4791
(D) RA1479
200r. PD 1067 Water Code of 1976 Article 51 requires a three-meter easement from the banks of
creeks, canals, and esteros, in urban areas, but MMDA Resolution 3 s, 1996, has expanded the
easement for Metro Manila areas adjoining water bodies as measured from the banks of Pasig River,
tributary streams and the shoreline, to be at least
(A) 10 meters
(B) 20 meters
(C) 40 meters
(D) 5 meters
201r. Because of public need for salvage zone, how far should a residential property be from the
banks of rivers,streams and waterways in a rural farming area?
(A) 5 meters
(8) 20 meters
(C) 40 meters
(D) 100 meters
202r. What would be the most suitable land use of geologic fault with buffer strip of at least 5
m on both sides from the line?
(A) aqueduct or tunnel
(B) foodway
(C) Venice-like canals
(D) open space or farm
(E) wildlife refuge
203r. What kind of use would be most compatible around a huge oil depot and Petrol-LPG gas
depository?
(A) transport terminals
(B) commercial
(C) BPO call centers
(D) open space
(E) hospitals
204r. The following data help planners identify the appropriate industrial areas in an LGU,
except one.
(A) indicated as Class A in SAFDZ/NPAAAD maps of the Bureau of Soils and Water Management
(B) part of growth area or growth corridor as stated in the Medium-Term National Development Plan
(C) among sites previously identified in 1970 NPFP national policy on industrial dispersal &
decentralization of development
(D) already surveyed and positively evaluated by PEZA under RA 7916
205r. Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for heavy
industrial use?
(A) load-bearing capacity
(B) location
(C) slope
(D) soil characteristics
206r. Which of the following is not considered a criterion to select industrial estates in the
Philippines?
(A) presence of natural resources
(B) physical boundary
(C) availability of labor
(D) existing infrastructure and utilities
(E) logistics or efficient movement of goods and products
207r. This document serves as basis for adopting land use and physical planning-related
guidelines and standards to guide the formulation of long-term framework plans and particularly
city/municipal land use plans and zoning ordinances.
(A) Long-Term Philippine Investment Plan
(B) Medium-Term Philippine Development Plan
(C) National Framework for Physical Planning
(D) Regional Physical Framework Plan
208r. In the National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030, "Settlements," "Production,"
"Protection," and "Infrastructure” are discussed as --
(A) Key Economic Functions of any Local Government Unit
(B) Land Use Zones that exclude one another
(C) Land Use Policy Areas whose functional relationships have to be fleshed out at the local
level
(D) Primary Districts in urban design that have to be delineated in each town or city
209r. One goal of land use planning as stated in the 'National Framework for Physical Planning
2001-2030' is the utilization of the country's land and water resources in a manner that provides
sufficient and affordable food products to all Filipinos of the present and future generations
through local production and/or importation.
(A) "Green Revolution"
(B) "Agricultural Development"
(C) "Food Security"
(D) "Self-Sufficiency in Grains"
210r. 'National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030' notes a shift from rural resource-
based environmental problems to urban-based man-made environmental problems. Which of the
following NFPP measures pertains to development control and urban growth management (UGBs)?
(A) "delineate land available for or restricted from settlement expansion
(B) "identify and manage environmentally critical areas
(C) "match land uses and densities with environmental capacities and service capacities of
infrastructure
(D) "encourage appropriately planned mixed use developments, transit use, pedestrianization and
cultural/historical preservation in large urban centers
211r. Which of the following is not a basic step in preparing a CLUP?
(A) identify stakeholders and analyze the situation
(B) develop a detailed organizational management profile
(C) formulate goals and translate them into strategies
(D) anticipate economic trends and build scenarios
(E) identify the needed infrastructure and utilities
(F) involve participants in Goals Achievement Matrix
212r. Which of the following steps are common to both CLUP and Comprehensive Development Plan?
(A) urban morphology and physiognomy
(B) data collection, problem analysis, sectoral forecasting, formulation of overall vision,
goals, objectives
(C) Investment programming, zero-based budgeting, earmarking and appropriation
(D) community-based monitoring system, local government poverty monitoring system
213r. All of the following tools are relevant to land use planning but one is least used in land
use allocation?
(A) Land Use Accounting
(B) Scenario Analysis
(C) Life Cycle Analysis
(D) Spatial Modeling
214r. In Ernesto Serote's land use accounting, the following measures increase overall land
supply for planning, except one,
(A) reclamation of coastal area
(B) infill and densification
(C) urban renewal and redevelopment
(D) NPAAAD
215r. In Ernesto Serote's method of estimating land supply, the following are deducted from
total, except one.
(A) environmentally critical areas
(B) grasslands and idle lands
(C) high-risk geohazard zones
(D) military and civil reservations
216r. UN-FAO standards state that at least 5.7 hectares of aggregate urban land (residential,
commercial, industrial, etc) and 6 hectares of farmland need to be reserved for every 1,000
population. How much urban land is needed for a town of 22,000?
(A) 62.7 hectares
(B) 125.4 hectares
(C) 220 hectares
(D) 11.4 hectares
217r. UN-FAO standards state that at least 0.60 hectares should be devoted to educational space
(public and private)per thousand population. How much combined area of schools is the minimum for
a town of 40,000 people?
(A) 40 hectares
(B) 24 hectares
(C) 10 hectares
(D) 240 hectares
218r. HLURB standards state that at least 2.5 hectares of industrial land needs to be reserved
for every 1,000 population. How much total industrial land is needed for an independent chartered
city of 200,000 people?
(A) 200 hectares
(B) 400 hectares
(C) 500 hectares
(D) 2,500 hectares
219r. Like a mould needed to control shape, the spatial strate UP is the creative physical
arrangement of space using activities used to influence the shape, direction, and intensity of
the built environment so as to preserve and Conserve the unbuilt environment.
(A) City image
(B) City Metaphor
(C) Spatial Modeling
(D) Urban Form
(E) Urban Template
220r. According to Kevin Andrew Lynch (1961), a good 'urban design' is one where residents and
visitors can use a 'cognitive image' or 'mental map of the city as they navigate through the
territory in the process of 'way finding'. He identified the elements of legibility of place as:
(A) Circumferentials, arterials, radials, crossroads
(B) Skyscrapers, skyways, multi-nodals, junctions
(C) Arched gateways, waterfronts, boulevards, and promenades
(D) Paths, edges, nodes, districts, and landmarks
221r. Under the design elements of Kevin Lynch, 'Quiapo church' would be a landmark while
Divisoria would be terned as
(A) Flea Market
(B) icon
(C) District
(D) Nodule
(F) Transshipment
222r. Under Kevin Lynch's scheme (1961), what would best describe Rockwell Makati and Ortigas
Center?
(A) Landmark
(B) Cosmopolitan
(C) District
(D) Downtown
(E) Estate
223r. What are the elements of 'urban form'?
(A) infill, densification, property conversion, retro-fitting
(B) vertical, horizontal, diagonal, curvilinear
(C) beauty, amenity, safety, convenience, functionality
(D) land use, transport network, layout, building types, density
224r. Which the following indicates good site planning?
(A) best orientation to sun, sea and wind
(B) congruence and compability with its surrounding
(C) proactive features to anticipate possibility of disaster
(D) maximized space
(E) efficient circulation
(F) all of the above
225r. 'Smart Growth USA,' with its ten declared principles, deliberately combats 'amorphic
sprawl' by means of
(A) mixed use zoning rather than conventional exclusionary zoning
(B) design of walkable, bikable, sociable, health-oriented settlements
(C) residential, commercial, institutional uses are integrated & clustered
(D) interconnected modes of transport
(E) compact development through infilling
(F) All of the above
226r. Which one is not an innovative element of 'Planned Unit Development'?
(A) cul de sac, horseshoe design, and motorcourt
(B) usable open space
(C) complementarity of building types
(D) preservation of significant natural land features
227r. This refers to the establishment of mini-forests or small nature parks, lining roads and
highways with trees, shrubs, or ornamental plants, and ground landscaping of schools, hospitals,
and other government agencies in order to improve the environment in built-up areas.
(A) Reforestation
(B) Miniature Forestry
(C) Urban Forestry
(D) Silvicuture
(E) Agro-Forestry
228r. This spatial strategy deliberately directs growth towards major roadways that emanate from
a center like rays of a star
(A) Radial/Axial/Sectoral
(B) Central & nodal
(C) Multi-centric & poly-nodal
(D) Concentric
(E) bi-polar & tri-polar
229r. A 'tri-polar' or 'bi-polar' form in municipal CLUP would focus on comprehensively
developing new sections as magnets or complete attractions for population and business, inorder
to ease pressure on traditional center, and is an example of
(A) Simple Dispersion
(B) Concentrated Dispersion
(C) Simple Concentration
(D) Compact Development
230r. Which of the following urban street layout creates the most severe transport congestion?
(A) grid-iron or rectilinear
(B) circumferential & radial
(C) uni-linearlstrip development
(D) irregular free pattern
231r. What are the tools or levers of authority of city/town Local Government Units to implement
their local plans?
(A) clearance, non-conformance, variance, exemptions, licenses, and permits
(B) condemnation, legal expropriation, seizure, confiscation, closure and takeover of property
(C) zoning and regulation, subdivision controls, taxation, public investment, incentives to
private investment
(D) levies, duties, charges, tolls, and tarifs
232r. Under Philippine zoning codes, a family-run commercial-scale piggery with more than 10
heads of swine should be properly located in
(A) general residential zone (R-1)
(B) slaughterhouse and abbatoir zone
(C) agro-industrial zone
(D) rangeland and pastureland
233r. Under Philippine zoning codes, a mixed-use seven-storey structure with residential
condominiums, offices, gyms, shops and boutiques should be properly located in --
(A) general residential zone R-1
(B) commercial zone C-3
(C) tourism recreational zone
(D) special economic zone
234r. An area within an LGU where the average density is 35 dwelling units per hectare or below.
with majority of lot sizes between 120 to 800 square meters or more, is zoned as
(A) R-1
(B) R-2
(C) R-3
(D) R-4
(E) Mixed Use Zone
235r. An area in certain cities with regional shopping centers, huge consumer malls, sports
stadiums, high-rise hotels, office towers, is zoned as
(A) C-1
(B) C-2
(C) C-3
(D) Tourism zone
(E) Financial District
236r. What color is used to represent industrial areas in zoning map?
(D) Yellow
(A) Black
(B) Gray
(C) Violet
237r. What color is used to represent institutional areas in zoning map?
(A) Brown
(B) Beige
(C) Blue
(D) Maroon
238r. What color is used to represent tourism areas in zoning map?
(A) Orange
(B) Red
(C) Purple
(D) Fuchsia
239r. An example of positive easement is one that
(A) preserves a certain habitat
(B) protects a certain stream
(C) allows the right to harvest a natural crop
(D) stipulates not to drain a wetland
240r. Exemptions, special permissions, and relief from provisions of land use and zoning
ordinance are obtained from
(A) Office of the Mayor / Local Chief Executive
(B) Planning Commission or Planning & Dev't Office
(C) Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments
(D) Office of the Vice Mayor as head of Sanggunian
241r. A type of land use control where there may be no possibility of the application of the
right of reverter' is called
(A) restrictive covenants
(B) telluric
(C) deed of sale
(D) monolithic
242r. The total area of permitted building space expressed as a proportion of the total site is
known as:
(A) Gross Leasable Area
(8) Buildable Site Formula
(C) Floor Area Ratio
(D) Location Quotient
243r. When a proponent of a proposed project applies for 'locational clearance,' which
consideration is first and foremost from the perspective of the approving authority?
(A) Community disruption, relocation and the required land acquisition
(B) Consistency with local land use plan and with zoning map
(C) Likely impacts on town traffic and local parking
(D) Carbon Footprint from the use of fossil fuels in power generation, company bus shuttles,
executives' luxury cars
(E) Amount of tax and non-tax revenues to be received by the Local Government Unit
(F) Consumption of power, water, and other utilities
244r. A mixed-use building has 6 storeys of 1,000 sq.m each, on a lot area of 2,000 sq.m. What is
the FAR?
(A) 2:1
(B) 3:1
(C) 4:1
(D) 5:1
(E) 6:1
245r. Floor Area Ratio of 1.5 and below is considered as low density. What FAR is labeled as
'very high density ?
(A) 2 and above
(B) 3 and above
(C) 4 and above
(D) 5 and above
246r. This refers to a kind of ad-hoc or arbitrary zoning that allows a small piece of land to
deviate from the district or zone regulations for reasons not found in the officially-approved
CLUP.
(A) flexible zoning
(B) mixed use zoning
(C) Euclidean zoning
(D) spot zoning
(E) optional zoning
247r. A device usually given at the enactment of Zoning Ordinance which grants property owner
relief from certain provisions of ordinance because the application of the same would result in a
particular hardship to the owner.
(A) Exceptionality
(8) Certificate of Non-Conformance
(C) Quasi-judicial relief
(D) Variance
248r. If there are 12 signatures needed to approve construction of a building and 32 signatures
needed to thoroughly develop a parcel of non-agricultural land, whose signature is needed for the
issuance of a development permit?
(A) Planning Consultant
(B) Real Estate Broker
(C) Natural Scientist
(D) Head Local Planner
(E) Legislator-Sponsor
249r. What document makes possible that funds for priority projects enumerated in LDIP are
budgeted and releasedmyearly?
(A) Special Allotment Release Order (SARO)
(B) Notice of Cash Availability (NCA)
(C) Annual Investment Plan
(D) PBBS
(E) Memorandum of Undertaking
(F) Program of Work and Expenditure Plan
250r. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings under various legal issuances.
Under AFMA, only 50% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while RA 7160 Local
Government Code Sec. 20 limits it to
(A) 15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized and independent chartered cities
(C) 10% of total cultivable land in any city
(B) 20% of total arable land in any LGU
(D) 25% of total alienable and disposable land
251r. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Section 20, reclassification of agricultural land in
component cities and first to third class municipalities is limited to Lof farm land.
(A) 5%
(B) 10%
(C) 15%
(D) 20%
252r. Of the five correct criteria for conversion of farmland into non-agricultural uses, which
criterion is within the control of the investor or project proponent, in terms of production
activity, design, selection and mobilization of men, money. materials, and machines?
(A) The reclassification of land use must be consistent with the natural expansion of the
municipality or city, as contained in their approved land use plan;
(B) The area to be reclassified in use is not the only remaining food production area of the
community:
(C) Areas with lower crop productivity will be accorded priority for land use conversion,
(D) The land use reclassification shall not hamper the availability of irrigation or the
productivity of nearby farms;
(E) The proposed project is supportive of agro-industrial development, and will generate
alternative livelihood opportunities for the affected community.
253r. Under the current setup, what government agency has the final authority on the conversion
of agricultural land?
(A) DAR
(B) Land Registration Authority
(C) Department of Agriculture
(D) Land Management Bureau
(E) HLURB
254r. Of the following cases of land conversion, which one needs to prove that the land has
ceased to be "economically feasible and sound for agricultural purposes," to be certified by the
Secretary of Agriculture?
(A) conversion of cropland into irrigation facility
(B) conversion of cropland into national RROW
(D) conversion of cropland into protected area for rare species
(E) conversion of cropland into heritage site and ecotourist spot
(C) conversion of cropland into commercial center
(F) conversion of cropland into LGU buffer / floodholding area
255r. Under Philippine Land Capability classes by BSWM, lands that are very level and often wet
such as mangrove Swamps and fresh marshes are deemed appropriate for fishponds and categorized as
"Class X” while lands that are very hilly, rugged, mountainous, and generally baren are deemed
fit for recreation or wildlife and categorized as
(A) Class Y
(B) Class 2
(C) Class W
(D) Class A
(E) Class H
256r. The following conditions permit the establishment of fishponds or inland fish farming,
except one.
(A) Land Capability 'Class X' according to BSWM
(D) meet accepted criteria on elevation, soil type, soit depth,topography
(B) 0% to 3% in slope
(C) natural wetland, swamp, or marsh
(E) rivermouth estuary vegetated with rare mangrove species useful for breeding and spawning of
fish and crustaceans
257r. These are water bodies legally considered as "land" and can be claimed for private
ownership.
(A) tarns
(B) non-meandered water bodies
(C) loch
(D) coves
(E) puddles
258r. Because of the permanent danger zone, no settlement, barangay, sitio, or purok ought to be
established at the foot of an active volcano within a radius of
(A) 4 kms
(B) 5 kms
(C) 6 kms
(D) 7 kms
(E) 8 kms
259r. Which of the following results from the mis-use of wetlands?
(A) loss of habitat
(C) decreased flood protection
(E) all of the above
(B) decreased erosion control
(D) decreased biological cleaning of water
260r. Loss of biodiversity is caused by
(A) deforestation
(B) pollution
(C) exploitation of species for commerce and recreation
(D) conversion of natural habitats into agricultural uses
(E) indiscriminate mining and quarrying
(F) all of the above
261r. Which of the following is least effective for controlling soil erosion caused by wind and
water?
(A) planting windbreaks
(B) planting cover crops
(C) removing crop stubble from surface
(D) using conservation tillage
262r. "Performance standards” refers to health, safety, and amenity as main determinants of land
use while " -.----" refers to determination of land use by considering time and distance as the
primary units of measurement;
(A) Convenience Standards
(B) Technical Standards
(C) Expediency Standards
(0) Contingency Standards
263r. 'Performance Zoning' can be described as a tool that
(A) Allows property owners with limited development rights to buy additional rights from another
property owner
(B) Cities can use these to encourage development that exceeds the minimum standards
(C) Regulates the character and quality of the use instead of simply regulating the mere use
itself
(D) Establishes objective thresholds and maximum limits of the effects or characteristics of land
use
264r. RA 9729 'Climate Change Act of 2009' created a Climate Change Commission composed of a
commissioner and two deputy commissioners whose principal planning function, among other
functions, is to
(A) cascade policies & programs to LGUs with respect to climate change preparation, risk
mitigation, resilience etc
(B) undertake scientific studies and similar projects to support proposed legislation
(C) conduct capacity-building activities to vulnerable local communities
(D) formulate a Framework Program on Climate Change
265r. United Nations defines it as "the adjustment in natural or human systems in response to
actual or expected climatic stimuli or their effects, which moderates harm or exploits beneficial
opportunities"
(A) amelioration
(8) adaptation
(C) accustomization
(D) acclimatization
266r. As a serious disruption of the functioning of a community or society involving widespread
human, material, economic or environmental losses and impacts, 'disaster' is caused by the
following, except one.
(A) exposure to natural or environmental hazards
(B) conditions of vulnerability, and lack of human preparedness
(C) insufficient capacity of community to reduce or cope with the negative consequences of
hazards
(D) low level of nominal literacy, functional literacy and numeracy of people affected by
calamities
267r. It refers to the systematic efforts to analyze and manage the causal factors of disasters,
through reduced exposure to hazards, lessened vulnerability of people and property, wise
management of land and the environment, and improved preparedness for adverse events throughout a
society.
(A) Disaster Management
(B) Disaster Planning
(C) Disaster Resolution
(D) Disaster Risk Reduction

268r. In the equation, = , 'disaster' can be reduced by :

(A) decreasing vulnerability by eliminating hazard

(B) training people to cope and cope unceasingly
(C) preparing people to anticipate and to equip themselves constantly
(D) changing the equation of exposure by creating a risk-free world
269r. According to RA 10121 of 2010, the following measures pursue 'disaster prevention' by
taking action in advance to avoid potential adverse impacts of disaster. Which one prevents
disaster the least?
(A) stockpiling and pre-positioning of relief food/goods in strategic locations before occurrence
of disaster
(B) construction of dams, levees, & channel modifications as well as continuous dredging to
reduce river overflow
(C) land-use regulations based on hazard maps that do not permit any settlement in high-risk
zones
(D) seismic engineering designs of major structures; mandatory retrofitting of old buildings and
tall houses (E) evacuation training and rescue drills in major facilities, centers, or areas that
are always full of people
270r. Which solution to reduce disaster vulnerability needs the longest-term and most
comprehensive perspective?
(A) environmental safeguards and natural protection
(B) regulation of private and public infrastructure to ensure social protection
(C) safer location for settlements
(D) safer building construction
271r. Which factor increases a population's 'vulnerability to disaster?
(A) young-age and old-age dependency
(C) crowding & congestion
(E) illness and disability
(B) lack of resources to change physical location
(D) lack of information (F) all of the above
272r. Which of the following will not reduce vulnerability to hazards
(A) Maintaining 'healthy' natural systems
(C) stockpiling emergency goods and disaster relief
(B) Restricting development in hazardous areas
(D) Requiring safer building standards
273r. What is the mechanism that causes 'land subsidence'?
(A) A reduction in subsurface fluid pressures within sedimentary layers
(B) An increase in weight at the land surface
(C) A heavy rainfall for a prolonged time period
(D) The dissolution of soluble bedrock such as limestone exposed at the land surface
274r. The natural movement downslope of soil, regolith, or rocks under the influence of gravity
without seismic motion or heavy rainfall is collectively called
(A) avalanche
(8) mass wasting
(C) crustal abrasion
(D) erosion by wind (E) shear stress
275r. The DENR Environmental Management Bureau (2006) classified 525 of approximately 840 rivers
and freshwater bodies in the Philippines, of which 50 were biologically dead, 18 below Class C, 5
were Class AA, 203 were Class A. Which class of water is suitable for irrigation, livestock
watering, farm operations, but not for human drinking?
(A) Class B
(B) Class C
(C) Class D
(D) Class E
276r. In water supply planning, what is the classification of water that a residential consumer
should get from a faucet?
(A) Class AA
(B) Class B
(C) Class C
(D) Class D
(E) Class E
277r. Dissolved Oxygen (DO) is the amount of oxygen dissolved in water and essential for healthy
streams and lakes to support fish and aquatic life. When bacteria and waste decomposers abound in
water, they multiply rapidly and consume so much oxygen as to lower the DO level below the
national standard of
(A) 5 mg/L
(B) 10 mg/L
(C) 15 mg/L
(D) 20 mg/l
278r. This document contains an LGU's proposed schedule of infrastructure projects listed in
order of construction priority usually for a timeframe of 6 years together with cost estimates,
anticipated means of financing, and commitment of public funds for the purchase, construction, or
replacement of physical assets of the community.
(A) DOTC Plan
(B) Annual Investment Plan
(C) Civil Works Program
(D) Capital Investment Program
279r. 'Infrastructure Planning' covers both “replacement infrastructure” and “new infrastructure
for emerging areas." The following are important considerations in infrastructure planning, but
which is first and foremost of all considerations?
(A) capacity of infrastructure
(B) public safety and structural integrity
(C) level of service (LOS) and quality of service
(D) age of infrastructure
280r. In planning public facilities and utilities, 'population density' has to be rationally
matched with'
(A) materials & machines
(B) nuts & bolts
(C) service capacity of infrastructure
(D) investment of government
281r. For infrastructure planning by a water utility company, what is the HLURB-LWUA measure of
average consumption per capita per day at Level Ill which is used to determine the company's
level of service capacity?
(A) 110-150 lpcd
(8) 160-200 Ipcd
(C) 210-250 Ipod
(D) 260-300 lped
282r. Under PD198 dated May 25,1973, if a "water district" can be created for at least one
municipality or cluster of municipalities, what should be the minimum population to be serviced
within a water district?
(A) 15,000
8) 25,000
(C) 35,000
(D) 45,000
(E) 55,000
283r. To this category belongs an LGU water system which has a source, a reservoir, piped
distribution network, where homes have individual connections or household taps, and is
appropriate in densely populated areas.
(A) Level |
(B) Level II
(C) Level III
(D) Level IV

284r. A water system composed of a source, reservoir, distribution system, and communal faucets.
Usually, one faucet serves 4 to 6 households, generally suitable for rural and urban-fringe areas
where houses are clustered densely to justify a simple piped-system.
(A) Level |
(B) Level II
(C) Level III
(D) Level IV
285r. Any system or network of pipelines, ditches, canals, channels, or conduits including
pumping stations, lift stations, force mains, digestive cesspools, other devices and appliances
appurtenant thereto, which involves the collection, transport, pumping and treatment of liquid
waste to a point of disposal.
(A) drainage
(8) sewage treatment plant
(C) sewerage
(D) septage
286r. Which law exempts, in Section 20, cremation, siga, bonfires, traditional cultural
practices, etcetera from the total ban on incineration?
(A) RA 8749
(B) RA 9003
(C) RA 6969
(D) RA 9275
287r. This defines the extent of land corridor that can be used for carriageway, curb, sidewalk,
drainage canals, etc.
(A) linear easement
(B) buffer and gutter
(C) right of way
(D) setback
288r. A highway is a multi-lane, high-speed, controlled-access road that handles 'crosstown' or
'through-traffic' across multiple cities/towns; listed below are examples of highway except one.
(A) freeway
(B) expressway
(C) tollway
(D) causeway
289r. What class of road is not part of a hierarchy?
(A) artenal
(B) venial
(C) collector
(D) distributor
290r. An'avenue' is the main approach thoroughfare of most cities/towns; it is
usually called a 'boulevard' when
(A) it has historic significance and symbolic function
(B) it is used for ceremonial parades and functions of State
(C) it has medians which are carefully beautified
(D) all the above
291r. The classic 4-step model of Transport Planning integrated with Land Use has all but one of
the following phases:
(A) Activity Systems
(B) Trip Generation & Trip Distribution
(C) Modal Split
(D) Traffic Assignment
292r. What planning measures contribute to the evolution and development of a "sustainable
transportation system"?
(A) Reduce need to travel
(B) Change people's travel behavior
(C) Integrate different modes of transport
(D) Give people more choices and more accessibility
(E) Provide transport with new sources of energy
(F) All of the above
293r. In the physical design of roads, which of the following increases the possibility of
accidents and mishaps?
(A) prescribed dimensions according to hierarchy of roads
(B) conforms to natural topography
(C) conforms to BP 344 Accessibility Law
(D) blind corners (E) moderate slope/grade
(F) adequate sight distance
294r. One of the methods of trip generation modeling, this seeks to find the best functional
relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables, usually assuming
their relationship to be linear.
(A) analysis of variance
(B) multiple regression
(C) category analysis
(D) polynomial equation
295r. Traffic Impact Assessment (TIA) for specific development projects is required in all but
one of the following cases:
(A) Condominium Tower with over 100 dwelling units
(B). Factory with total gross area over 0.86 hectares
(C) Day care and kindergarten of around 2,000m2
(D) Hospital with over 85 beds
296r. Level of Service "E" is characterized as very 'heavy traffic' when 0.86-1.000 is the ratio
between
(A) traffic volume to road capacity
(B) number of vehicles to length of motorway
(C) number of people to number of vehicles
(D) number of people to area of all roads
297r, Travel Demand Management (TDM) refers to a set of 'soft' measures to influence people's
travel behavior so as to reduce or redistribute transport demand. TDM includes all of the
following except one:
(A) Ride Sharing and Car pooling
(B) Bicycle racks on buses
(C) By-pass road
(D) Number-coding or Color-Coding of vehicles on national highways
298r. It consists of strategies to improve the efficiency of transportation system through
operational improvements such as bus priority or reserved lanes, signalization, access
management, turn restrictions, which all seek to increase the demand that can be accommodated by
the transport system.
(A) Transport Engineering
(B) Transit-Oriented Development
(C) Transport Infrastructure Improvement
(D) Transport System Management

Methods of Research, Demography, Shelter, Social Services

299r. This refers to population-focused planning that seeks to enhance people's capacities to
meet their own needs through improvements in 'social infrastructure' such as mass shelter,
schools, hospitals, daycare, rehab centers, homes for the aged, etc. and the provision of public
utilities, water, power, sewerage, parks, and cemeteries.
(A) Population Management
(B) Social Welfare Development
(C) Infrastructure Planning
(D) Social Planning
300r. Because 'environmental planning' as a multi-disciplinary field utilizes the methods of
social sciences, the foilowing research approaches are more appropriate except one:
(A) Experimental
(B) Correlational
(C) Causal-Comparative
(D) Historical Descriptive
301r. This refers to the broad type of social research whose central objective is to solve urgent
problems, develop a tool or social technology, explain effects of policies or actions, and
evaluate the impact of plans and programs on people.
(A) Exploratory Research
(B) Pure / Basic Research
(C) Evaluation Research
(D) Applied Research
302r. In scientific research, it refers to attribute of data that can take on different values;
it may be a characteristic, trait or dimension of a person, object, process, or event that can be
classified, measured, and studied.
(A) Variable
(8) Factor
(C) Metrics
(D) Coefficient
303r. In using descriptive statistics to study population and society, the three measures of
central tendency are:
(A) midpoint, minimum, and maximum
(C) occurrence, convergence, and divergence
(B) range, frequency, and threshold
(D) mean, median, mode
304r. In statistics, this is a value in a set of sample observations which occurs most often or
with the greatest frequency
(E) sum
(F) minuend
(A) recurrence
(B) returns
(C) mode
(D) average
305r. 'Linear regression' is a statistical method used to:
(A) establish that as supplies increase, prices decrease
(B) calculate the probability of a sample value being within 1.96 standard deviations of the mean
(C) determine the influence of one or more independent variables on a dependent variable
(D) estimate the degree to which research findings may be generalized
306r. This measures the degree to which two variables are related but not necessarily in a cause-
and-effect manner.
(A) Coefficient of Correlation
(8) Coefficient of Variation
(C) Multivariate Function
(D) Chi-Squared Statistic
307r. In all distributions of data, the 'median' is equivalent to the:
(A) mode
(B) variance
(C) 50th percentile
(D) mean
308r. Probability is at times used in relation to natural cycles with mean return period or
recurrence interval. Il a flood that recurs once in 100 years has an annual probability of one
percent (0.01), what would be the annual probability of a 475-year earthquake?
(A) 0.475
(B) 0.2375
(C) 0.0438
(D) 0.002105
309r. Which of the following is not a research method?
(A) questionnaire
(B interview
(C) appraisal
(D) case study
(E) survey
310r. A 'problem tree' is
(A) a kind of tree that grows in the wrong place
(B) a method of environmental impact assessment
(C) a tool to understand cause and effect relations among problems
(D) used to trace ancient roots of intractable development problems
311r. The strength of survey questionnaire as research instrument lies in
(A) ability to provide baseline data
(B) ability to measure or quantify variables
(C) ability to reveal potential relations between different sets of data
(D) ability to draw out the most sincere responses from informants
312r. This branch of statistics aims to predict and draw conclusions concerning a population or
its characteristics from mere sample chosen to represent the whole population.
(A) descriptive statistics
(B) deductive statistics
(C) analytic statistics
(D) inferential statistics
313r. Probability sampling is selecting samples randomly to reduce bias in data collection such
that chosen sample Would contain the same variations that exist in the larger population. Which
is not an example of random sampling?
(A) systematic sampling
(B) stratified sampling
(C) convenience sampling
(D) cluster sampling
314r. In linear regression exercise where "x = distance in km from Stock Exchange building" and
"y = price in pesos of land per square meter," the line of best fit (LOBF) equation is "y = -
1000x + 16,000" where -1,000 is the slope and 16,000 is the intercept. What would be the value of
land per square meter if it were 15 kms from Stock Exchange?

(A) 1,010
(8) 1,100
(C) 1,600
(D) 1,000
315r. This qualitative method from ethnography immerses the observer into the same conditions as
those s/he is observing so that, in an uncontrolled environment, participants can surface their
own ideas, mental categories, concems, and behaviors as naturally and as spontaneously as
possible.
(A) Quasi-Experiment
(B) Naturalism
(C) Direct Observation
(D) Participant Observation
316r. 'Demography' is the study of human population using statistical methods. The demographic
concepts described as sources of change in the size and magnitude of population are:
(A) copulation, procreation, and reproduction
(B) births, deaths, and migration
(C) transition, stagnation, progression
(D) famine, war, and disease
317r. Based on the 2010 NSO Census of Population and Housing, the total urban population of the
Philippines is
(A) larger than the total rural population
(B) plateauing at a steady growth rate
(C) stabilizing at the level almost equal to the rural population
(D) fluctuating because of numerous urban calamities and terrorist attacks
318r. This refers to amount of population increase attributable to greater number of births than
deaths per thousand population without considering in-migration and out-migration.
(A) Reproductive Rate
(B) Average Growth Rate Per Annum
(C) Population Shift
(D) Natural Increase
319r. The simplified "Rule of 69" to determine population 'doubling time' gives the formula 'dt =
0.693+r', such that if the Philippines AGR in 2000-2007 is 2.04%, the total Philippine population
is expected to double in approximately travel
(A) 32 years
(B) 34 years
(C) 36 years
(D) 38 years
320r. A remote village with 200 all-indigent households engaged in rainfed farming, with an
average household size of 6, would likely grow arithmetically, due to isolation, poverty,
disease, and lack of food. With their births-minus-deaths average of 30 persons per year, what
would be the village's projected total population in 3 years?
(A) 1,230
(B) 1,090
(C) 1,180
(D) 1,290
321r. Town ABCDE had a total year-end population of 20,000 in 2008, 20,400 in 2009, 20,808 in
2010. Using geometric growth formula of P= Po(1+r)t at uniform r=2% per annum, what would be its
total year-end population by 2011?
(A) 21,224
(B) 21,400
(C) 21,820
(D) 22,130
322r. This pattern of rapid population growth expressed by the formula P= P. et is "seemingly
without bounds" and is called "Malthusian,” but is premised on the widespread abundance of food,
which is not true in all places.
(A) polynomial growth rate
(B) parabolic growth rate
(C) logistic growth rate
(D) exponential growth rate
323r. A country currently has a population of 100 million and an annual growth rate of 3.5
percent. If the growth rate remains constant, what will be the population of this country in 40
years?
(A) 150 million
(B) 200 million
(C) 300 million
(D) 400 million
(E) 600 million
324r. According to NSO 2009, heart diseases, cerebrovascular diseases, stroke, cancer, and
malignant neoplasms which are degenerative disorders due to lifestyle, together account for 50%
of total deaths, and are called leading causes of
(A) Fatality
(B) Terminality
(C) Corporeality
(D) Mortality
325r. 'Morbidity' essentially refers to
(A) mental insanity cases per 1000 population
(B) incidence of disease per 1000 population
(C) rate of contagion of epidemic every 72 hours
(D) outbreak of plagues and pandemics every 3 years
326r. The whole country has a population growth rate of 2.04% per annum while Town FGHIJ has
growth rate of 1.49% per annum. Using the 'crude assumption' method of computing migration flows,
which of following is likely true?
(A) there is more out-migration from Town FGHIJ
(B) there is more in-migration to Town FGHIJ
(C) Immigration and Emigration cancel out each other.
(D) Poor transport to Town FGHIJ makes movement difficult.
327r. The central difference between 'birth rate' and 'fertility rate' is
(A) 'birth rate' pertains to fecundity of a woman while fertility rate' pertains to quantity &
intensity of her sexual activity
(B) 'birth rate' pertains to babies who survive while fertility rate' includes pregnancies which
may or may not succeed
(C) 'birth rate' refers to births in relation to total population while 'fertility rate' is in
relation to average childbearing woman
(D) 'birth rate' pertains to live births while 'fertility rate' includes still births, premature
deliveries, abortions & miscarriages
328r. In the following formal statement on 'population policy' (2010-2016) from President Benigno
Simeon Aquino III, which statement pertains to the State's obligation to inform its citizens of
all family planning alternatives from 'A to Z'.
(A)"...I am against abortion as outlawed by the Philippine Constitution.
(B) “...I am in favor of giving couples the right to choose how best to manage their families so
that in the end, their
welfare and that of their children are best served.
(C)"...The State must respect each individual's right to follow his or her conscience and
religious convictions on
matters and issues pertaining to the unity of the family and the sacredness of human life from
conception to
natural death.
(D) "...In a situation where couples, especially the poor and disadvantaged ones, are in no
position to make an
informed judgment, the State has the responsibility to provide complete information. (E) “...In
the range of options provided to couples, natural family planning and modern methods shall always
be presented as equally available."
329r. The historic shift of birth and death rates from high to low levels, signaling the tendency
of total population to decline after replacement-level fertility (1.1% to 1.5%) has been
attained, is called
(C) Population Shift
(D) Demographic Deceleration
(A) Population Reversal
(B) Demographic Transition
330r. What does the Gini coefficient measure?
(A) savings rate
(B) real estate tax
(C) income inequality
(D) poverty
(E) return on investment
331r. The central difference between a 'census' and a 'survey' is that
(A) census makes use of questionnaires while surveys make use of telephone interviews
(B) census involves complete enumeration while survey involves sampling
(C) census is done every 10 years while survey can be done by anyone anytime anywhere
(D) only qualified demographers and statisticians ought to conduct a census
332r. Because census age-groupings do not coincide with school-going ages for primary. secondary
and tertiary schools, this method is used to disaggregate school-age population within a bracket
into workable components.
(A) sprague multiplier
(B) sprengler multiplier
(C) survival and dropout rate
(D) disambiguation
333r. This demographic concept refers to any age-group that is observed through time as its
members are assumed, for the purpose of analysis, to go through roughly similar experiences.
(A) consort
(B) cohort
(C) connivance
(D) array (E) bracket
334r. Which method uses population of larger geographic area to 'interpolate' population of a
smaller geographic area?
(A) 'step down' or area ratio method
(8) logistic method
(C) component method
(D) shift share
335r. What is the smallest time frame using the 'cohort survival method of population analysis?
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years
(E) 6 years
336r. "Young dependents in the Philippine setting refers to population with ages
(A) 0-4
(8) 0-6
(C) 0-10
(D) 0-14
337r. "Working-age population" including those actively seeking and not seeking work, covers
those with ages between
(A) 10-65
(B) 15-64
(C) 18-65
(D) 21-60
338r. All of the following are of productive age, but only one is strictly counted as part of the
'Labor Force.'
(A) 16-year-old who dropped out of school and became a houseboy
(B) 67-year-old BSC degree-holder who owns and operates a neighborhood variety or sari-sari store
(C) 20 year old on his third year of the course, Bachelor of Science in Information Technology
Management
(D) 32-year old virgin entering the nunnery as a religious novice.
339r. 'Labor Force' is more accurately defined as comprising all persois
(A) aged 18 to 65 years currently employed, underemployed, or active in the informal sector or
underground economy
(B) aged 16 to 64 years regardless of gender, economic status, qualification, physical fitness,
mental health condition
(C) aged 15 to 64 years not in school nor under special care and actively seeking productive work
or employment
(D) aged 14 years and above with demonstrated literacy, numeracy, writing, and analytical skills
340r. Commonwealth Act 383 of 1938 punishes the dumping of any refuse, waste matter, or pollutive
substances into rivers with at least 6-months imprisonment, while PD 296 of 1973 penalizes
illegal encroachment, improvement upon. occupation, or reclamation of any portion of rivers,
creeks, esteros, and drainage channels, that result in the constriction, partial or complete
closure of said waterways, with a prison term of
(A) at least 2 to at most 10 years
(B) at least 1 year
(C) 3 to 5 years
(0) 5 to 7 years
341r. Of 145,382 informal settler households in Metro Manila in 2004-2010, 6,802 households
settled along Pasig River. 21,047 settled along esteros, 34,367 settled along the 'riles', and
82,896 households occupied public and private lands. What is primary 'mode' of informal
settlement in Metro Manila?
(A) 'along da riles'
(B) 'along esteros'
(C) 'along the Pasig'
(D) 'occupation of public and private land'
342r. Which of the following population characteristics are important to determine 'housing need?
(A) socio-economic characteristics
(D) in-migration, out-migration
(B) overcrowding
(C) formation of new households/families
(E) all of the above
343r. Under BP 220, the design of housing projects has to prioritize physical needs in the
following order of importance.
(A) electricity, recreation, transport vehicles, market for foodstuffs, water supply, solid waste
facility
(B) health center, daycare center, church, public school, assembly hall, basketball court, and
cellsites
(C) water, roads for circulation, stormwater drainage, disposal of solid and liquid wastes,
power, park/playground
(D) police station, fire station, government office, jail, cemetery, telephone and cable trunk
lines
344r. In the words of PD 933, the "human settlements approach” emphasizes
(A) socialized housing, low-cost housing, economic housing, and cooperative housing
(B) Plato's ideals of "the true, the good, and the beautiful"
(C) family, employment, community, (folk-work-place), freedom of belief, and ecological balance
(D) habitability, quality of life, efficiency, economy, social opportunity, convenience, and
beauty
345r. The law that provides for a comprehensive and continuing urban development and housing
program and establishes the mechanisms for the implementation of socialized housing in the
Philippines
(A) RA 7279
(B) RA 7160
(C) RA 1010
(D) RA 6969
346r. Under RA 7279 UDHA Sec. 28, the following are legal forms of eviction or demolition of
informal settlements. Which one concerns most directly the water safety of the general public?
(A) When persons occupy railroad tracks, RROW, sidewalks, transmission lines, dump sites, parks,
playgrounds and other public spaces;
(B) When persons occupy easements of pipelines, reservoirs, esteros, creeks, rivers, shorelines,
and beaches;
(C) When government infrastructure projects with available funding are about to be implemented;
(D) When there is a court order of eviction of settlers from a legally-owned private property;
47r. Under Executive Order 90, the agency that is responsible for coordinating activities of
government agencies to ensure the accomplishment of the National Shelter Program is

(A) NHA
(B) HLURB
(C) HUDCC
(D) NHMFC
(E) HMDF or 'Pag-big (1) HIGC
348r. 'Land Banking' or land assembly refers to the right of the State to acquire land in advance
of actual need through
(A) eminent domain, expropriation, confiscation
(B) readjustment, re-alignment, re-platting
(C) raising revenues through Land Bank LBP bonds & treasury bills
(D) sale, purchase, exchange, negotiation, and similar techniques
349r. Which agency is tasked with the registration of subdivision and condominium dealers,
brokers, salesmen, associations?
(A) National Housing Authority
(B) Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
(C) Securities and Exchange Commission
(D) Presidential Commission on the Urban Poor
(E) Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council
(F) Professional Regulation Commission
350r. In the Philippines, low density housing development means dwelling units per hectare.
(A) 35 and below
(B) 36 to 150
(C) 151 to 210
(D) 211 and above
351r. A single detached dwelling unit' is defined as a house that is
(A) good for one household
(B) intended for ownership
(C) completely surrounded by a yard
(D) with one or more of its sides abutting the property line
352r. All of the following are exempted from regulation of PD 1096 National Building Code of
1977, except
(A) traditional indigenous family dwellings
(B) socialized and low-cost housing under Batas Pambansa 220
(C) garden pools, grottos, aquariums not exceeding 500 mm in depth
(D) piggery and poultry houses of over 100 sq.m (E) sheds, outhouses, greenhouses, gazebos,
aviaries, not exceeding 6 sq.m in total area
353r. Under PD 957, which of the following is not necessary in determining the suitability of
site for economic or socialized housing?
(A) physical suitability
(B) availability of basic needs
(C) on the perimeter of an ecozone
(D) presence of geohazard
(E) conformity to the national development plan
(F) links to the transport network
354r. According to the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, the total cumulative
housing need would reach 6,732,464 by year 2016, but government's capacity to directly provide
houses only averages 120,000 units per annum. What would be a more rational strategy for housing
development?
(A) leave to private households the matter of housing development according to the free play of
market forces;
(B) allow big foreign companies with enormous capital to undertake mass shelter projects;
(C) rationalize taxation of land so that developers can bring down overall cost of house and lot
packages;
(D) LGUs should improve CLUP-Zoning so that price of land would be kept low;
(E) stimulate participation of business, civic, religious, and cooperatives sectors in multi-
partite housing production.
355r. Under RA 7279 UDHA Sec 3, this refers to housing programs and projects undertaken by the
government or the
private sector for the underprivileged and homeless citizens which include sites and services
development, long-term financing, liberalized tems on interest payments, and other related
benefits.
(A) economic housing
(B) socialized housing
(C) low-cost housing
(D) open-rnarket housing
356r. Of the following solutions to address urban slums, which one adopts an 'as is, where is'
approach and hence not conducive to 'land assembly' for an integrated holistic settlement?
(A) off-site resettlement
(B) in-city relocation
(C) on-site slum upgrading
(C) land readjustment
(D) medium-rise tenements as temporary shelter
(E) collaborative models such as 'Gawad Kalinga' and 'Habitat for Humanity
357r. Specific principle contained in RA 7279 UDHA that "developers of proposed subdivision
projects shall be required to develop an area for socialized housing equivalent to at least 20%
of total subdivision area or total subdivision project cost, at the option of the developer,
within the same city or municipality, whenever feasible," so that both government and market can
jointly provide for the needs of lower socio-economic classes.
(A) Public Private Resources Exchange
(B) Cooperative Housing Development
(C) Balanced Housing Development
(D) Corporate Social Responsibility
358r. A house financing program of the National Home Mortgage Finance Corporation which "assists
legally organized associations of underprivileged and homeless citizens to purchase and develop a
tract of land under the concept of community ownership so that residents of blighted or depressed
areas can own the lots they occupy, or where they choose to relocate to, and eventually improve
their homes to the extent of their affordability"
(A) Zonal Improvement Program
(C) Unified Home Lending Program
(B) Slum Upgrading
(D) Community Mortgage Program
359r. In the absence of an operational Local Housing Board, which unit ought to prepare the local
shelter plan of an LGU?
(A) Planning and Development Office
(B) Local Development Council
(C) Subdivision Homeowners Association
(D) Association of Barangay Captains
360r. As per HUDCC circular, a dwelling unit with total value of P375,000 or less is called
(A) Low-Cost Housing
(B) Socialized Housing
(C) Economic Housing
(D) Gawad Kalinga
acadavos@piep.org.ph
361r. According to Batas Pambansa 220, the affordability level of housing is based on that
portion of total gross family income that an average household would regularly allocate for
shelter, which is
(A) 30%
(B) 40%
(C) 50%
(D) 60%
362r. What is minimum gross lot area of a row-house unit of socialized housing under Batas
Pambansa 220?
(A) 32 sqm
(B) 36 sqm
(C) 18 sqm
(0) 22 sqm
363r. What is minimum gross lot area for single-detached family dwelling unit of open market
housing under PD 957?
(A) 90 sqm
(B) 100 sqm
(C) 110 sqm
(D) 120 sqm
364r. According to BP 220, at what scale or minimum number of family dwelling units would it be
appropriate to allocate space for an elementary school as part of a socialized housing project?
(A) 4,000-5,000
(B) 3,000-2,500
(C) 2,000-2,499
(D) 1,500-1,999
365r. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 104, a residential dwelling unit or
"Group A" building shall have one side adjoin or have direct access to a public space, yard,
street, or alley; shall not occupy more than 90% of a comer lot or 80% of an inside lot; and be
built in such a way that its exterior wall is at least from the property line.
(A) 2.0 m
(B) 4.0 m
(C) 6.0 m
(D) 8.0 m
366r. If the sidewalk is 3 meters in width, what should be the total distance of building
exterior wall from the curb of street?
(A) 5 m
(8) 6 sm
(C) 7 m
(D) 8 m
367r. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 806, a habitable room in a
residential dwelling unit should have a minimum area of 6 sq.m (14 mi) and ceiling height or
headroom clearance, as measured from floor to ceiling, of at least
(A) 2.40 m
(B) 2.80 sm
(C) 3.40 m
(D) 3.80 m
368r. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 808, room ventilation in a dwelling
unit without air conditioning or mechanical ventilation is based on ratio that area of window
opening should be at least of floorspace.
(A) one-fifth
(B) one-sixth
(C) one-eighth
(D) one-tenth
369r. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 sec 1003, projections such as balconies
or appendages of a dwelling unit should have this vertical distance between the established
street/sidewalk grade and the iowest undersurface of balcony
(A) 2 meters
(B) 3 meters
(C) 3.5 meters
(D) 4 meters
370r. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 1207, this is the maximum vertical
distance between two landings (not steps) of a stairway.
(A) 2.4 meters
(B) 2.6 meters
(C) 3.6 meters
(D) 4.5 meters
371r. According to RA 6541 National Building Code of 1972, the minimum parking requirement is
'one parking slot for every...
(A) 100-125 m2 of floorspace
(B) 100-125 m2 of business and customer service area
(C) 100-125 m? of titled property
(D) 100-125 m2 of frontyard
372r. Lower than US standards by 10%, this is the ratio between saleable and non-saleable
portions of an open-market subdivision as required under PD 957 or the Subdivision and
Condominium Buyers Protection Act?
(A) minimum of 60% open space
(B) minimum of 50% open space
(C) 60% saleable and 40% non-saleable
(D) 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable
373r. By Philippine standards, how far should a striptease joint, beerhouse, casa, or place of
ill-repute be allowed to locate in relation to a school?
(A) 50 meters away or more
(B) 100 meters away or more
(C) at least 200 meters away
(D) at least 500 meters away
374r. By Philippine standards, how much open space should an ideal school campus have, out of its
total land area?
(A) 60% or more (B) 50% or more
(C) 40% or more (D) 30% or more
375r. To compute for standard size of classroom, 1.40m? (HLURB) or 3 cu.m 'bubble' per pupil
(PD1096 NBC) is multiplied by the ideal number of pupils per classroom as determined by DepEd.
This use in design of average measurements of body and bodily movements is an application of the
field of
(A) biomechanics
(8) bionics
(C) physiometrics
(D) anthropometrics
376r. A University or Institution of Higher Learning with total enrolment of 10,000 or more,
should have a canıpus area of at least seven hectares. What would be the required open space?
(A) at least 2,500 m2
(B) at least 5,000m?
(C) at least 10,000rn?
(D) at least 25,000m2
377r. Under RA 7160 LGC Sec 98, who among the following members of the Local School Board, other
than the Governor or Mayor, holds an elective office?
(A) LGU Treasurer
(B) Division Superintendent or District Supervisor
(C) chairperson of sanggunian's committee on education
(D) Representatives of federations of teachers, SK youth, PTAS, & non-academic personnel of
schools
378r. By Philippine standards, the minimum total area for a tertiary-level general hospital with
300 beds is
(A) 4.5 hectares
(B) 3.5 hectares
(C) 2.5 hectares
(D) 1.5 hectares
379r. As per PD 856 or Sanitation Code of 1975 Sec.13a, washing of clothes and bathing cannot
take place within what distance from any public well or public source of drinking water?
(A) 25 meters
(B) 100 meters
(C) 150 meters
(D) 200 meters

380r. What should be the minimum distance between a drinking water-well or spring from the
drainfield of a septic tank?
(A) 15 m
(B) 25 m
(C) 35 m
(D) 45 m
(E) 55 m
381r. Which 'environmental management practice by households is broadest of the four enumerated
below?
(A) Re-use
(B) Reduce
(C) Recycle
(0) Reform lifestyles
382r. Which 'environmental management practice by firms is most encompassing of the four
enumerated below?
(A) 'Disperse and Dilute'
(B) End-of-Pipe Treatment
(C) Product Life Cycle Assessment
(D) factory waste-exchange
383r. Apart from taxes, incentives, and property rights approaches, the major approach of the
National Government to manage the environment by means of policies, rules, and standards is
called--
(A) Coerce and Compet
(B) Contain and Constrain
(C) Command and Control
(D) Cash and Checks
384r. RA 8371 IPRA grants to Indigenous Cultural Communities and Indigenous peoples the right to
own and possess their tribal lands as a limited form of private ownership that does not include
the right to alienate the same lands.
(A) Regional Autonomy
(B) Ancestral Domain
(C) Self-Government
(D) Tribal Ownership
385r. This is the first law that marked the mainstreaming of gender issues into the agenda of
development by promoting the "Integration of Women as Full and Equal Partners of Men in
Development and Nation Building."
(A) RA 1010
(8) RA 7192
(C) RA 6969
(D) RA 8010
386r. According to RA 9710 Magna Carta of Women of 2009 Sec. 4g, this refers to policies,
instruments, programs, services and actions that address the disadvantaged position of women in
society by providing preferential treatment and affirmative action such as measures aimed to
accelerate de facto equality between men and women.
(A) Gender Equality
(B) Gender Equity
(C) Women's Liberation
(D) Gender Parity
(E) Feminist Empowerment
387r. According to RA 9710, this refers to the strategy for making women's as well as men's
concerns and experiences an integral dimension of the design, implementation, monitoring, and
evaluation of policies and programs in all political, economic, and societal spheres so that
women and men benefit equally and inequality is not perpetuated.
(A) integration & rationalization
(B) gender mainstreaming
(C) sexual equality
(D) transgender accommodation
388r. An individual, group, organization, sector, or community who has a direct or indirect
interest in a policy, program, or project, who affects or is affected by -- positively or
negatively -- the implementation and outcome of it, is called
(A) recipient /beneficiary
(B) proponent / exponent
(C) advocate
(D) stakeholder
(E) shareholder
389r. Which of the following - all true! - about people's participation in planning,
implementation and management holds the same meaning as the statement "people are the principal
actors, the subject rather than the object, of development."
(A) Participation increases the likelihood that policy will be effective and will have long-term
benefit as people provide data and feedback on ground-level needs and concerns to policy-makers
and implementors.
(B) The very process of participating is, in and of itself, educational, liberating, and
empowering for the poor.
(C) People are not passive beneficiaries or mere recipients of dole-outs.
(D) Participation hastens people's ownership of their problems and builds community leadership so
that they gain control over their own fate and learn to make critical decisions for their comnion
future.
(E) Community participation contributes to institutionalizing positive reforms envisioned by
changes in policy.
390r. The "SMART test" by George Doran means that both 'task objectives' and 'process objectives'
have to be specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and
(A) tenable
(B) truthful
(C) time-bound
(D) testable
(E) treatable
391r. Public participation is important for each of the following reasons except
(A) Decision-making competency improves
(B) The legitimacy of the decision increases
(C) The decision-making process is speeded up
(D) Participants become more responsible democratic citizens
392r. Which element of participatory' planning process implies multi-stakeholdership?
(A) bottom-up process to define and prioritize local needs
(B) collective leadership and innovative decision-making
(C) coalition of partners and groundswell of support
(D) negotiated rule-making and policy dialogue
(E) consensus-building and dispute resolution
(F) all of the above

Economic Planning, Project Development Planning

393r. The main economic theory that underlies both CBA and EIA is that an economic activity or
project should not make one person better off by making someone else worse off, such that gains
in producer surplus or consumer satisfaction to some firms or individuals do not simultaneously
impose losses on others.
(A) Theory of General Equilibrium
(B) Classical Economics
(C) David Ricardo's Theory of Value
(D) Pareto Optimality
394r. A school of thought that holds that the measure of efficiency is people's well-being and
such is attained if the total gains among those who benefit exceed the total losses of those
adversely affected by any economic activity.
(A) Keynesian economics
(B) Welfare economics
(C) Neo-classical economics
(D) Marxist economics
395r. This refers to the collaborative process by which governments, businesses, community
organizations, etc at the local level engage one another to improve economic well-being of their
community, enhance business climate, increase income opportunities, and sustainably utilize
human, natural, infrastructural, and institutional resources.
(A) Project Development Planning
(C) Economic Planning
(B) Investment Coordination
(D) Industrial Convergence
396r. Which of the following is not a 'virtue' of free markets?
(A) 'motivation'
(3) 'efficiency'
(C) 'productivity'
(D) 'equity'
(E) 'diverse consumer choices'
397r. Which of the following data-sets is least needed in Economic Area Analysis?
(A) population forecasts
(B) employment trends
(C) income levels
(D) cohort survival
(E) poverty incidence of households
(F) gross sales of registered enterprises
398r. In Walt Rostow's Theory of Economic Modernization in Linear Stages (1960), tine stage
wherein techniques in production improve, new industries diversify and accelerate output, local
supply exceeds local demand, and the national economy participates in international trade, is
termed as
(A) NIChood or newly industrializing economy
(C) take-off period
(B) pre-conditions for take-off
(D) drive to maturity
399r. Following Rostow's theory, as an economy develops, a smaller percentage of workforce tends
to be employed in
(A) agriculture, because industrialization decreases the value of rural land
(B) agriculture, because investment in technology increases yield per unit effort and decreases
labor demand
(C) industry, because the profit from extracting natural resources increases
(D) industry, because productivity increases as labor costs rise
(E) services, because technology increases efficiency in the provision of services
400r. This phenomenon in economics (Alfred Marshall, 1897) wherein profit-oriented firms try to
locate close to teach other to save on utility costs, realize gains from increased business
interaction, and enjoy benefits from sharing new technologies, improved skills of local
workforce, common infrastructure and amenities, is called --
(A) Co-Location
(B) Proximization
(C) Aggrandization
(D) Agglomeration
401r. This economic phenomenon is internal to a firm, and refers to reduced marginal cost per
unit and increased overall savings as volume or quantity of output is increased utilizing the
same throughputs or production processes.
(A) Localization Economies
(B) Economies of the Mill
(C) Economies of Scale
(D) Discounting
402r. In 1897, he was the first to categorically state that knowledge, intellectual capital, and
technology constitute the chief engine of progress of the economy.
(A) Alfred Marshall
(B) Albert Einstein
(C) Frederick Taylor
(D) Joseph Schumpeter
403r. A ratio that measures output per worker is called
(A) labor intensity
(B) work efficiency
(C) labor productivity
(D) work ethic
404r. A measure that indicates the intensity of the factors of production is known as
(A) capital-labor ratio
(8) liquid exposure
(C) venture capital
(D) operating expenditure
405r. According to Nobel laureate Simon Kuznets, the three ways to determine national macro-
economic accounts(GNP, GDP, NNI) are "value-added," "income approach," and "expenditure
approach." Which of the following is 'expenditure' approach?
(A) final output of Primary sector + Secondary sector + Tertiary sector + etc
(B) National Income + (Taxes-Subsidies) + Depreciation etc
(C) Consumption + Investment + Government Expenditure + (Export minus Import)
(D) Consumption + Taxes + FDI + Balance of Payments + NFIA
406r. The Philippines' GDP totalled 8.32 trillion pesos at nominal prices in 2010, but P4.74
trillion was the consolidated public sector debt stock of national government, LGUs, GOCCs; etc.
The administration of President Gloria Arroyo accumulated a debt stock of 2.57 trillion for 9
years. How much is the total debt stock of 2010 as percent of Gross Domestic Product?
(A) 51%
(B) 57%
(C) 64%
(D) 67%
407r. An indicator of “Quality of Life" developed by Nobel Laureate Amartya Sen, this composite
measure combines life expectancy at birth, school enrolment rate, adult literacy rate, per capita
income, and incidence of poverty.
(A) Millennium Development Goals
(B) Index of Sustainability
(C) Human Development Index
(D) GP| -- Genuine Progress Indicator
408r. Incidence of families below poverty line stood at 39.9% in 1990 and averaged 33% between
2001 and 2010. Did the administration of President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo attain its Millennium
Development Goal in poverty reduction?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Answer depends on one's level of information, political bias, and personal loyalty
(D) Attainment would have been substantial had it not been for the global economic recession of
2008-2009
409r. Under Millennium Development Goals, what is the official target of government in terms of
reducing family poverty below the food threshold or subsistence threshold by the year 2015?
(A) 0.3%
(B) 5.4%
(C) 10.2%
(D) 15.6%
410r. Under which of the following Millennium Development Goals has the Philippines achieved the
greatest accomplishment in the period 2000-2010, according to official UNDP reports?
(A) "Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
(B) "Promote gender equality and empower women
(C) “Achieve universal primary education
(D) "Ensure environmental sustainability
(E) "Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria and other diseases"
(F) "Improve women's reproductive health"
(G) "Reduce child mortality"
(H) "develop global partnership for development"
411r. "It gets worse before it gets better." According to Nobel Prize laureate Simon Kuznets, as
an economy experiences growth, income distribution first worsens before it gradually improves in
the long run.
(A) wealth residual dichotomy
(B) inverted 'U' hypothesis
(C) the 'U' curve
(0) Dismal Theory
412r. The saying "the rich get richer and the poor get poorer" is related to concepts of 'spread'
and 'backwash' in a regional economy that were first articulated by this Nobel Prize laureate for
economics,
(A) Milton Friedman
(B) Paul Krugmann
(C) Robert Solow
(D) Gunnar Myrdal
413r. A gauge of income inequality, it is measured graphically by dividing the area between the
perfect equality line and the Lorenz curve by the total area lying to the right of the equality
line in a Lorenz curve diagrami
(A) absolute poverty barometer
(B) Gini coefficient
(C) Kuznets curve
(D) human deprivation index
414r. According to John Maynard Keynes, the 'income multiplier' with the formula "m = 17 {1-{c-m)
(1-1)}" is derived by dividing '1' with the Marginal Propensity to Save (c-m) and the tax rate
(1-1). For example, if the computed denominator of entire equation is 0.40, what is the 'income
multiplier' of each peso or dollar that enters the econorny?
(A) 2
(B) 2,5
(C) 3
(D) 4
415r. According to NEDA in MTPDP 2004-2010 chap 4, housing construction has a 'income multiplier'
of 16.6, such that for every 10 million spent on housing in local economy, approximately_million
is generated in income/domestic product.
(A) 16.6
(B) 166.0
(C) 1060.6
(D) 1,666.0
416r. The most profitable utilization of property based on what is physically possible,
ecologically sound, legally permissible, and financially viable, thus resulting in the optimal
value of the property, is called (Raleigh Barlowe 1958)
(A) Maximum Sustainable Yield
(B) Feasibility
(C) Highest & Best Use
(D) Cost-efficiency
417r. In the conventional land economics by Raleigh Barlowe (1958), what are the determinants of
land value'?
(A) farmharvest, wild growth, usufruct
(B) scarcity, utility, desirability
(C) sale, lease, rent
(D) location, permanence, transferability
418r. This is the 'price' at which a willing seller and a willing buyer will trade, neither being
under conipulsion to trade, and both having access to all knowledge relevant to the transaction
(A) Prime Price
(B) Fair Market Value
(C) Assessed Value
(D) Zonal Value
(E) Shadow Price
419r. This refers to the combination of talent, ambition, foresight, and skill of an innovative
individual or group to efficiently organize productive resources into a viable undertaking,
ensure survival of business, create a secure market niche, and sustain long-term growth.
(A) Risk-taking
(B) Managerial Savvy
(C) Pioneer or Angel Investment
(D) Entrepreneurship
(E) intrapreneurship
420r. 'Consumer demand' is also called
(A) derived demand
(B) intermediate demand
(C) final demand
(D) sales revenues
(E) output less taxes
421r. Under RA 6930 of 1990, this is a duly registered association of persons, with a common bond
of interest, voluntarily joined together to achieve a common social or economic end, making
equitable contributions to the capital required and accepting a fair share of the risks &
benefits of undertaking in accordance with universally accepted principles.
(A) People's Organization
(C) Cooperative
(e) Credit Union
(0) Micro-finance Grameen bank
(E) Paluwagan
422r. Republic Act 9501 dated May 23, 2008 redefined "medium-scale” enterprise as follows:
(A) number of employees between 100 to 199 with a capitalization of 15 million to 100 million
(C) number of employees between 10 to 99 with a million capitalization of 3 million to 15 million
(B) number of employees more than 200 with a capitalization of more than 100 million
(D) number of employees between 1 to 10 with a capitalization of 1.5 million to 3 million
423r. A micro-scale or cottage-scale enterprise is normally exempted from nationally-legislated
minimum daily wage because
(A) many barangay MSMEs cater to socio-economic classes D&E which have generally low purchasing
power
(B) MSME usually has small profit margins, being more labor-intensive than capital-intensive or
technology. intensive
(C) too high labor wages undermine the viability of micro-scale operations and limited market
range
(D) most micro-scale fims are start-ups or fledgling enterprises without secure or established
market niche.
(E) all of the above
424r. This is an economic strategy of govemment to invest in human capital by giving cash and/or
food subsidies to poor families provided their children regularly go to public school, visit the
health center for regular medical checkup, and participate in community sanitation and
environmental protection?
(A) Benevolent Assimilation
(B) Official Development Assistance
(C) Conditional Cash Transfers
(D) Emergency Relief
(E) Food-for-Work
(F) Developmental Alms-giving
425r. Which combination of three is the best example of primary, secondary, and tertiary
activities, in that order?
(A) farmer, shoemaker, newspaper reporter
(B) lumber mill, gas station attendant, car manufacturer
(C) forester, carpenter, cabinet-maker
(D) miner, farmer, banker
426r. This refers to sustainable travel to a heritage area or natural area to observe wildlife or
exotic ecosystems, to help preserve nature; while also providing for community participation,
protection and management of natural resources, environmental education, and economic benefits
for the enrichment of host communities and the satisfaction of visitors.
(A) domestic tourism
(B) cultural tourism
(C) ecotourism
(D) educational excursion
(E) pleasure trip
427r. Under RA 9593 Tourism Act of 2009, ecotourist spots as well as historic, cultural, scenic
and adventure sites are subsumed under the new concept of
(A) Sustainable Tourism Districts
(B) Tourism Enterprise Zones
(C) Bio-economic Regions
(D) Ecozones
428r. Under RA 9593 Tourism Act of 2009, Heritage Conservation in the Philippines shall be
supported by not less than 5% of travel tax collections accruing to
(A) Philippine Retirement Authority
(B) Tourism Infrastructure & Enterprize Zone Authority
(C) Tourism Promotions Board
(D) Philippine Conventions & Visitors Corp'n
429r. According to RA 9072 National Caves and Cave Resources Protection and Management Act of
2002, this "refers to a cave which contains materials and possesses features that have
archaeological, cultural, ecological, historical or scientific value as determined by the DENR in
coordination with the scientific community and the Academe."
(A) Neolithic Cave
(B) Speleothem & Speleogem
(C) Mesolithic Stalactite
(D) Significant Cave
430r. Under RA 8435 AFMA, what kind of cropland management by farmers is envisioned by the
"Strategic Agricultural and Fisheries Development Zone" in its effort to be compatible with DAR's
"Agrarian Reform Communities"?
(A) corporatist
(B) uniform/homogenous
(C) competitive
(D) convergent
431r. Which declared component of RA 8435 AFMA most directly concerns the health and wellness of
all citizens?
(A) credit and micro-finance
(B) irrigation and farm-to-market roads
(C) post-harvest and storage facilities
(D) product standards and consumer safety
(E) farm technology extension services and technical assistance
(F) product information and marketing
432r. Which of the following would be part of an integrated food systems planning?
(A) Develop farm protection policies and zoning
(D) produce organic compost and farm soil provisions to encourage community gardening
conditioners from municipal solid waste
(B) build wharves and fish landing ports for subsistence
(E) Study transportation network used by food * fishermen suppliers to bring goods to end-users
(C) Promote producers' markets to help local farmers
(F) all of the above
433r. 'Supply chain management' in economic planning and in transport planning concerns the
logistics or timely, seamless movement of goods and commodities to end-users. It is credited to
(A) Michael Porter
(B) Peter Drucker
(C) Frederick Taylor
(D) Hideo Teriyaki
434r. According to 'Philippine Agriculture 2020' by the National Academy of Science and
Technology, Filipinos need to diversify their diet, eat nutritious alternatives to grains, and
reduce average per capita consumption of rice to
(A) 50 kg per year
(B) 100 kg per year
(C) 150 kg per year
(D) 200 kg per year
435r. Under RA 6657 as amended by RA 9700 CARP Extension of 2009, which of following
considerations in undertaking agrarian reform pertains most directly to 'economies of scale' and
the financial viability of small farm production?
(A) "ecological needs of the nation
(B) "fillers' rights and quality of life
(C) "economic-size
(D) "landowners' just compensation and retention rights
(E) "national food security and self-sufficiency in grains
(F) "social justice and emancipation of farmer from bondage to the soil
436r. Under RA 9700 CARP Extension of 2009, all of the following are covered by Agrarian Reform,
except one?
(A) agricultural lands in the public domain still not alienated/disposed
(8) fams planted to cash crops such as sugar, tobacco, coconut palm
(C) agricultural estates and haciendas
(D) family farms of 5 hectares and below
437r. Under RA 6657 CARL, the owner of land under CARP can retain for himself/herself alone
(A) 3 hectares
(B) 5 hectares.
(C) 7 hectares
(D) 9 hectares
(E) 11 hectares
438r. Remittances of migrant Filipinos and overseas contract workers add up to around US$21-
billion per year, almost 20% of Philippines' Gross Domestic Product. In economics, these cash
transfers are collectively called
(A) non-portfolio investment
(B) Overseas Filipino Investment
(C) Net Factor Income from Abroad
(D) Foreign Direct Investment
(E) Family obligations
(F) Balance of Payment
439r. Richard Klostermann's Economic Base (also called Export Base) Model argues that
(A) economic base or relations of production can lead to exploitation between a person with
property and one without it
(B) economic growth of a region/locality is dependent on the growth of its exporting sector
(C) the primary export of any region/locality is its mobile labor force as represented by migrant
workers and expatriates
(D) export-oriented industrialization (EOI) can take place even without abundant raw materials as
in the case of Singapore
440r. Under Economic Base Model, if San Miguel Corporation has an exporting agribusiness plant in
a specific barangay with basic employment of 500 and an employment multiplier of 2.6, what would
be the probable number of nonbasic employment in retail, local services, and residentiary
activities?
(A) 800
(B) 1,300
(C) 1,600
(D) 1,800
441r. If the barangay in the immediately-preceding question has a total population of 5,000,
active labor force of 55%, unemployment rate of 5%, and combined San Miguel Corporation and
registered MSME employment of 1,800 persons, what is the approximate size of the combined
informal sector and visibly-underemployed sector?
(A) 950
(B) 1,050
(C) 2,050
(D) 3,050
442r. In what way is the mix of 'basic sector employment' and 'non-basic employment in a
city/town important?
(A) a little farm village's economic structure will be mostly basic.
(B) Basic workers rely on the area's nonbasic workers in the preparation of food, clothing and
shelter.
(C) Cities/towns with more basic than nonbasic jobs tend to be niore self-sufficient.
(D) Basic employment brings money into the area; nonbasic employment sends money out of the area.
443r. If 'fiberglass boat production' represents 0.28 of the local economy of Ternate while it
represents 0.02 of the entire Economy (GDP) of the country, what would be the location quotient
(LQ) of said industry in Ternate?
(A) 0.0056
(B) 0.071
(C) 1.26
(D) 14
444r. 'If the location quotient (LQ) of an industry in the town of OPQR is greater than one, it
suggests that
(A) the distribution of industry in the territory is very concentrated
(B) the distribution of industry in the territory is dispersed
(C) the distribution of industry in the territory does not deviate much from the distribution of
other industries
(D) the territory has a larger share of the industry relative te its reference region or larger
territory
445r. The town of STUV has 2 times more people engaged in agriculture as percent of total labor
force and 2.5 times more output per hectare of riceland than the national average. This means
that
(A) the town's people are better-fed because of food surplus
(C) the town has more farm-workers and hence lower level of education and lower level of literacy
(B) town has backward economy but blessed with soil fertility and hard-working labor
(D) the town is more agriculturally developed than the 'average' municipality.
446r. In the formulation of CLUP, Location Quotient (LQ) analysis is useful to identify
(A) diversity of industry
(B) comparative advantage
(C) compatibility of land uses
(D) centrality of location
447r. This refers to a set of accounts, usually in monetary figures, widely used in the analysis
of inter-industry relationships and the extent of importing/exporting among industries within an
economy -- whether local, regional, or national.
(A) value added chain
(B) input-output model
(C) discounted cash flow tables
(D) inter-area analysis
448r. Using Wassily Leontief's matrices referred to in immediately-preceding question, supposing
the “Bread and Baked Products industry” in a municipality has the following direct coefficients:
agriculture (dairy, poultry, fruits, firewood), 0.25; manufacture (flour, sugar, butter etc)
0.35; utilities 0.10; households 0.30, approximately how much of industry output is directly paid
as labor wages and salaries?
(A) 30%
(B) 35%
(C) 25%
(D) PhP404 daily minimum wage as per RWPB
449r. This refers to a “set of specific activities carried out by a team of an executing agency
for a fixed/limited period of time in a defined area of operation using limited resources in
order to achieve specific outputs/objectives for a particular target group."
(A) Module
(B) Concordat
(C) Endeavor
(D) Project
(E) Capital Venture
450r. It is a preliminary study undertaken before an endeavor actually starts to ascertain the
likelihood of its success by examining in detail its market, technical, environmental, social,
financial, economic, and organizational soundness.
(A) Investment Study
(B) Interdisciplinary Study
(C) Feasibility Study
(D) TQM - Total Quality Management
451r. "Financial Analysis" uses fair market prices while "Economic Analysis" uses
(A) factory prices
(B) shadow prices
(C) nominal prices
(D) deflationary and inflationary prices
452r. Which concept refers to the value of potential output foregone by not putting resources to
their best alternative Use?
(A) Fixed Costs
(B) Variable Costs
(C) Sunk Costs
(D) Opportunity Costs
453r. These are costs of business not assumed by the firm and not reflected in the internal
financial accounting of the business but such costs are unwittingly shouldered by other people,
by government, or by society-at-large,
(A) extraordinary costs
(B) incidental costs
(C) externalities
(D) collateral costs
454r. What is the first element of the Project Planning Cycle?
(A) project preparation
(B) brainstorming of ideas
(C) budget & appropriations
(D) problem analysis/needs assessment
455r. Which part of the Project Cycle seeks to determine whether an in-depth environmental study
is needed?
(A) pre-feasibility phase
(B) project screening
(C) project appraisal
(D) technical feasibility
504r. 1987 Constitution Art. XII Sec 2. "All lands of the public domain, waters, minerals, coal,
petroleum, and other mineral oils, all forces of potential energy, fisheries, forests or timber,
wildlife, flora and fauna, and other natural resources are owned by the State. With the exception
of agricultural lands, all other natural resources shall not be alienated. *
(A) 'Dominion and Supremacy
(B) 'Regalian Doctrine'
(C) 'Res Judicata'
(D) 'Parens Patriae'
505r. This legal concept means holding a property by reference to a superior entity, such as the
State.
(A) Management
(B) Tenure
(C) Trust
(D) Concession
(E) Franchise
506r. This is a contiguous land area which is considered as a unit, legally recorded as a single
piece, and subject to single ownership.
(A) plat
(B) plot
(C) parcel
(D) partition
(E) tract
507r. Which is not an instrument to prove private property rights over land?
(A) Certificate of Title
(B) CLOA
(C) Free Patent
(D) Special Power of Atty
(E) Tax Declaration
(F) CALT
508r. In the language of Philippine Constitution 1987, 'agricultural land' is synonymous with
(A) prime cropland
(B) arable and cultivable
(C) alienable and disposable
(D) irrigated and irrigable
509r. Philippine Constitution Article XII Sec. 3 classifies land into four specific categories,
namely;
(A) arable land, arid land, cropland, and marginal land or wasteland
(8) land for production, land for protection, land for settlements, and land for infrastructure
(C) public domain, ancestral domain, eminent domain, alienable and disposable land
(D) forestland, agricultural land, mineral land, and national parks
510r. In international environmental law, the principle that "the burden of proof in
demonstrating that a particular technology, practice or product is clean and safe lies with the
developer and not with the general public and that the producer must answer for any environmental
damage such technology has created" is called
(A) Extended Producer Responsibility
(B) Polluter Pays Principle
(C) Principle of Externalities
(D) Precautionary Principle
511r. In international environmental law, it refers to one's action or lack thereof amounting to
"breach of duty to care" that results in material damage to others; "duty to care" is one's legal
obligation to avoid causing physical harm which arises where harm is foreseeable if due care is
not taken.
(A) malpractice
(B) negligence
(C) omission
(D) lapse of judgment
512r. According to Supreme Court Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases 2010, this principle
states that when human activities may lead to threats of serious and irreversible damage to the
environment that is scientifically plausible but uncertain, actions shall be taken to avoid or
diminish that threat.
(A) preventive suspension
(B) restraining order
(C) precautionary principle
(D) principle of proactive restraint
513r. According to Supreme Court Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases 2010, this is a
remedy available to a natural or juridical person, entity or any public interest group registered
with any government agency, on behalf of persons whose constitutional right to a balanced and
healthful ecology is violated, or threatened with violation by an unlawful act or omission of a
public official or employee, or private individual or entity, involving environmental damage of
such magnitude as to prejudice the life, health or property of inhabitants in two or more cities
or provinces.
(A) writ of amparo
(C) writ of kalinga
(B) writ of kalikasan
(D) writ of continuing mandamus
(E) writ of habeas corpus
514r. 'TEPO' from the Supreme Court of the Republic of the Philippines, means
(A) Transmutation of Environmental Penalty Ordinance
(C) Trans-agency Edict on Pollutive Occupations
(B) Temporary Environmental Protection Order
(D) Total Elimination of Pornography and Obscenity
515r. As the national economic planning agency, the NEDA bureaucracy performs 'secretariat'
functions to the 'NEDA Board,' the latter serves as 'National Development Council' and is headed
by
(A) The Director General of NEDA
(C) The Secretary of the Cabinet
(B) Chair of the Congressional Planning and Budget Office
(D) The President of the Philippines
516r. Which part of NEDA organization does not, in most cases, correspond to an actual level of
elected government?
(A) The NEDA Governing Board
(B) Regional Development Council
(C) Provincial Development Council
(D) Municipal Development Council

517r.Which of the following is not a function of the National Economic and Development Authority?
(A) Proper allocation of expenditures for each development activity between current operating
expenditures and capital outlays;
(B) Evaluation of the fiscal, monetary and balance of payments implications of major national
projects,
(C) Privatization and public accountability of corporations and assets owned, controlled or
acquired by the government
(D) Advice the President on matters concerning social development, education, manpower, health
and nutrition, population and family planning, housing, human settlements, and the delivery of
other social services,
(E) Recommend appropriate policies, programs and projects consistent with national development
objectives
518r. Under Executive Orders 127, 127-A and 292, which of the following is not a function of the
Department of Finance?
(A) Formulation, institutionalization and administration of fiscal policies of government;
(B) Supervision of the revenue operations of all local government units;
(C) Conceptualization of major government investments on infrastructure and utilities.
(D) Review, approval and management of all public sector debt, domestic or foreign;
(E) Formulation, institutionalization and administration of fiscal and tax policies;
519r. Which of the following is not a function of the Housing and Urban Development Coordinating
Council?
(A) Custodian and keeper of all resources of government related to housing and urban development;
(B) Determine participation and coordinate activities of key housing agencies in national housing
program,
(C) Monitor, review and evaluate the effective exercise by government housing agencies of their
assigned functions;
(D) Assist in the maximum participation of the private sector in all aspects of housing and urban
development;
(E) Recommend new legislation and amendments to existing laws as may be necessary for the
attainment of government's objective in housing;
520r. Which of the following is not a declared goal of physical planning under MTPDP 2004-2010
chapter 3 on ENR?
(A) Complete land classification by December 2010 by validating and verifying forestland
boundaries covering a total of 78,450 kms within 79 provinces
(8) Provide easier access to markets at home and abroad to alleviate poverty in the countryside,
thus enhancing peace and order in isolated conflict-affected regions through efficient transport
and trade;
(C) Ensure integrity of land titling system in order to promote development of a mortgage market
for lands,
prevent illegal titling, by strengthening registration and monitoring of land titles through
digitization of land records
(D) Accelerate distribution/titling of 1.1 milion hectares of alienable and disposable public
land below 1896 slope by completing survey on 3.8 million hectares in 361 cities/towns
521r. Under PD 933, Executive Order 90, and EO 648, this is the independent agency that
implements the laws, policies, rules, and regulations of government with regard to optimizing the
use of land as a resource.
(A) National Land Use Committee
(C) Land Management Bureau
(B) Land Registration Authority
(D) Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
522r. Which function of the agency referred to in immediately-preceding question is considered
'quasi-judicial' or 'adjudicative'?
(A) Formulate a multi-year integrated national plan on human settlements and identify and develop
tne spatial implications and components of national and regional development plans, policies and
programs
(B) Conduct public hearings on all human settlements plans for submission to NEDA and on all
other plans prepared by it
(C) Require all persons, corporations or other entities to furnish it with such physical and
operational plans, maps and other relevant information as it may need to discharge its duties (D)
Act as appellate body in case of conflicting decisions and actions arising from the exercise of
the physical planning functions of the regional and/or local planning agencies.
523r. In the Philippines, this is historically the most commonly used tool of LGUs to implement
land use plans
(A) legal expropriation
(B) seizure and closure
(C) capital investment program
(D) zoning
524r. In the absence of a Department of Housing, which public official chairs the governing
boards of government agencies that have direct operational functions related Land Use, Urban
Planning, and Mass Shelter?
(A) Secretary of Socio- Economic Planning
(B) Chairperson of HUDCC
(C) Chairperson of Metropolitan Manila Development Authority
(D) Secretary of Department of Environment and Natural Resources
525r. If a Masterplan such as NFPP and RPPF has a timeframe of one generation or 30 years, a
City/Town land use plan may adopt either the timeframe of population doubling time (dt= 0.693/r)
as suggested by Professor Ernesio Serote or the shorter timeframe of to cover maximum three terms
of locally elected officials.
(A) 10 years
(B) 15 years
(8) 20 years
(C) 25 years
526r. If a medium-term National Development Plan has a time-frame of 6 years, what would be the
sensible time-frame of a multi-sectoral Regional Development Plan inorder to be compatible with
the National Development Plan?
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years
(D) 12 years
(C) 20 years
527r. Which is not a component of the multi-sectoral Regional Development Plan?
(A) Regional Economic Production (agriculture, industry, services)
(B) Regional Infrastructure Development Plan
(C) Environmental Protection, Conservation, and Management
(D) Regional Land Use Code
(E) Regional Settlements Plan
528r. What are the administrative levels of government that RA 7160 LGC describes and makes
provisions for?
(A) national, regional, district, city/town, village
(B) provincial, city/municipal, barangay
(C) local, supra-local, inter-local, sub-local
(D) macro, meso, mela, and micro
529r. Which one describes the 'types' of positions and employment in a Local Government Unit as
per RA 7160 LGC?
(A) executive, legislative, judiciary, protective (police)
(8) elective office, appointive office, rank and file (career service and 'emporary/casual
employment)
(C) top management, middle management, supervisorial, clerical, field position, menial/utility
boys
(D) policy-makers, coterminous political appointees, technical specialists, bureaucratic
employees
530r. What is the role of Sangguniang Panlalawigan in the planning process?
(A) formulation of plans
(B) approval of plans of highly urbanized cities
(C) review of ordinances and resolutions approving municipal development plans
(D) approval of residential subdivision projects
531r. Which is not a goal of the Provincial Physical Framework Plan?
(A) enhance the integration of the national economy through the balanced distribution of
population, natural resources, and economic activities
(B) guide government agencies and private developers on proper location of large-scale
infrastructure projects as well as other sectoral plans and activities that have to do with land,
environment, and natural resources
(C) reconcile and rationalize land use proposals of component territories in relation to higher
level framework plans
(D) provide basis for adjudicating conflicts arising from the implementation of land use plans
and development projects that straddle the boundaries of two or more municipalities
532r. Which statement is true about Executive Legislative Agenda?
(A) it is a political compromise between quarreling executive and legislative officials from
rival parties
(B) it is an integrated holistic plan that can serve as physical framework in the absence of CLUP
(C) it is a harmonized enumeration of LGU ordinances that stipulate criminal penaities and civii
sanctions.
(D) it highlights the common vision and reconciled priorities of elected officials for their 3-
year term of office
533r. What percentage of composition of Local Development Councils is allocated to NGOs/POs by RA
7160?
(A) 20%
(B) 40%
(C) 35%
(D) 25%
534r. Which of the following is not a specific responsibility of the Provincial Government?
(A) conservation of public lands through the Provincial Physical Framework Plan
(B) preparation of development programs such as reforestation, small-scale mining, fisheries
development and managed pastures; .
(C) enforcement of uniform urban design for all component municipalities
(D) adjudication of conflicts which arise from the implementation of local zoning ordinances
535r. According to RA 7160 Sec 461, a province should have population of at least 250,000 and
minimum territory of_?
(A) 1000 sq.km
(B) 1500 sq.km
(C) 2000 sq.km
(D) 2500 sq.km
536r. According to RA 7160 Sec. 442, a municipality should have a population of at least 25,000,
income of at least 2.5 million based on 1991 constant prices, and a minimum territory of __?
(A) 50 sq.km
(B) 100 sq.km
(C) 150 sq.km
(D) 200 sq.km
537r. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec 16, the overall goals of an LGU need to be
compatible with:
(A) Declaration of Policies
(C') Sustainable Development
(B) Corporate Nature & Goals
(D) General Welfare clause
538r. Which of the following is not a part of the General Welfare Clause of RA 7150 LGC Section
16?
(A) hospitality and festivity
(C) balanced ecology & social justice
(E) precervation & enrichment of culture
(B) economic prosperity
(D) health and safety
(F) appropriate self-reliant science & technology
539r. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec, 443, the position of "Environment and Natural
Resources Officer" isoptional for a rural municipality. Should a wealthy LGU decide to create it,
such position would partially overlap with what current field position of the national
government?
(A) ARC Development Facilitator
(B) DILG - LG00
(C) DAR - MARO
(D) DENR-CENRO
540r. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 443, the position of "Municipal Architect" is
optional, hence the functions of a "Building Official" are essentially discharged by --
(A) Zoning Administrator
(B) MPDC
(C) Municipal Engineer
(0) Municipal Administrator
541r. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 443d, who appoints the municipal treasurer subject
to Civil Service law and professional standards?
(A) Local Sanggunian
(B) Provincial Governor
(C) Department of Finance Secretary
(D) Municipal Mayor
542r. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 443d, who appoints the municipal budget officer
subject to Civil Service law and professional standards?
(A) Local Sanggunian
(B) Provincial Governor
(C) DILG Secretary
(D) Municipal Mayor
543r. Under RA 7160 LGC, who among the following 'incumbents' may be allowed to practice his/her
primary profession while in public office?
(A) Local Chief Executive
(B) Congressman/Representative
(C) Vice-Governor
(0) Municipal Accountant
544r. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Section 236, "a province, city, or a municipality in
Metropolitan Manila Area, may levy an annual tax on idle lands at the rate not exceeding of the
assessed value of the property which shall be in addition to the basic real property tax."
(A) 5 %
(B) 7%
(C) 8%
(C) 8%
(D) 10%
(D) 10%
545r. Which of the following is not considered 'idle land' under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 237?
(A) Agriculture land of at least one-hectare with 50% of whole area bare and uncultivated
(B) Urban land of at least 1.000 sq.m. with 50% of whole area unutilized and unimproved upon
(C) Grazing land with thick grasses used for pasture of 100 heads of cattle
(D) Stud farm on public land with no ongoing breeding or training activities
546r. Municipalities as a group are entitled to 34% of total Internal Revenue Allotment,
distributed based on formula adopted since 3rd year of RA 7160 implementation-- 60% population,
40% land area. The practical implication of this scheme is that
(A) Urbanization in already-populous towns is reinforced with bigger IRA allotments.
(B) There is ambivalent signal for towns to control population growth and succeed in family
planning.
(C) The allocation does not consider 'actual need' such as poverty incidence or median family
income.
(D) all of the above
547r. Because the value of real property rises in direct relation to perceived progress, RA 7160
Sec. 235 allows LGUs to capture part of private gains from "value added” by regular public
spending on roads, infrastructure, and utilities by institutionalizing a special levy at one
percent (1%) of assessed value of real property, which revenues are then funneled to the local
treasury as
(A) Real Property Cost Recovery
(B) General Fund
(C) Special Education Fund
(D) Development Fund
548r. Under RA 7160 Sec. 241, a Local Sanggunian may impose a "special benefit levy" on real
properties that directly benefit from an LGU's special investment on a section of town. Rate of
levy is not uniform but varies in calibrated manner according to degree of benefit that a
property derives from physical improvement. This special levy lasts for
(A) five to ten years
(B) seven to nine years
(C) five to seven years
(D) three to five years
549r. Specific fiscal scheme used by local governments to finance redevelopment and
revitalization of blighted areas by capturing the additional property taxes generated from the
improvement of the tax base,
(A) Ad Valorem Taxation
(B) Tax Increment Financing
(C) indirect Taxation
(D) Recoupment
550r. Under RA 7160 Sec. 271, how much is the share of each barangay from the total proceeds of
Real Property Tax?
(A) 25% for barangays in provinces, and 15% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
(B) 20% for barangays in provinces, and 10% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
(C) 30% for barangays in provinces, and 20% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
(D) 35% for barangays in provinces, and 25% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
551r. Under RA 7160 Sec. 107, who should prepare the multi-sectoral development plan at the
village level?
(A) Sangguniang Barangay
(B) Lupong Tagapamayapa ng Pook
(C) Federation of Village Neighborhood and Homeowners Associations
(D) Barangay Development Council
552r. This principle encourages shared responsibility between government and the private sector
in infrastructure development and management through joint venture schemes such as BOT, BTO,
BI.T, BO0, and the like.
(E) State & Non-State Collaboration
(A) GO-NGO Cooptation
(B) Rapprochement
(C) Detente
(D) Public-Private Partnership
553r. A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent undertakes the financing of
construction of a given infrastructure or development facility and after its completion turns it
over to the government agency or local government unit concerned, which shall pay the proponent
on an agreed schedule its total investments expended on the project, plus a reasonable rate of
return thereon.
(A) Build and transfer
(B) Build, own and operate
(C) Build, transfer and operate
(D) Develop, operate and transfer
554r. A part of BOT, it is a contractual arrangement whereby the supplier of equipment and
machinery for a given infrastructure facility, if the interest of the Government so requires,
operates the facility providing in the process technology transfer and training to Filipino
nationals.
(A) Purchase and activate
(C) Canvass, Procure and Install
(B) Supply and operate
(D) PBAC - prequalify, bid-out and award
555r. As per RA 7718 BOT Law, a Build-Operate-Transfer undertaking at the local level with value
between PhP 200M 300M has to be approved by what government body?
(A) Local Development Council
(C) Cabinet Committee or Cabinet Cluster
(B) Regional Development Council
(D) Investment Coordination Committee
556r. As in the case of the ZTE-National Broadband Network deal, when a joint venture or
negotiated contract at the national level exceeds the value of PhP 300M, the approving government
body is
(A) Cabinet of the President
(C) Investment Coordination Committee
(B) Council of State
(D) NEDA Board
557r. It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a
project or undertaking and then designing appropriate preventive, protective, mitigating, and
enhancement measures.
(A) Environmental Risk Assessment
(C) Environmental Accounting and Audit
(B) Environmental Impact Assessment
(D) Strategic Environmental Assessment
558r. Which environment assessment methodology addresses long-term frameworks, policies, and
regulatory regimes more substantively than project impacts and activity outcomes?
(A) Environmental Risk Assessment
(C) Environmental Accounting and Audit
(B) Environmental Impact Assessment
(D) Strategic Environmental Assessment
559r. The use of a set of scientific methods to define the probability and magnitude of
potentially adverse effects which can result from exposure to toxic and hazardous materials,
compounds, and substances is called
(A) Chemical Containment and Control
(B) Toxic Prevention Protocol
(C) Environmental Risk Assessment
(D) Strategic Environmental Assessment
560r. What are the basic elements of an EIA study?
(A) Market Aspect, Technical Aspect, Social Aspect, Financial Aspect, Economic Aspect, and
Institutional Aspect
(B) Problem, Objectives, Review of Lit, Conceptual Framework, Methods, Analysis of Data,
Conclusions, Recommendations
(C) Location & Area, Characteristics of Project Undertaking, Magnitude of Impact, Spatial Extent.
Duration, and Complexity
(D) Baseline Data, Mid-stream Data, Operational Conditions, Control Interventions, Post
Implementation
561r. Which of the following is most useful in an EIA study?
(A) performance standards
(C) design standards
(B) LOS' or 'accommodation' standards
(D) convenience standards
562r. RA 8749 Clean Air Act, Sec. 20, generally bans burning which results in poisonous and toxic
fumes, but with a few exceptions. What agency oversees cremation and incineration of
pathological, biological, and contagious wastes?
(A) Bureau of Fire Protection
(B) Department of Interior and Local Government
(C) Philippine Hospitals Association
(D) Department of Health
563r. According to RA 9367 Renewable Energy Act of 2006, what are the 'additives' to gasoline
that are harmful to both people and nature?
(A) methyl tertiary butyl ether
(B) isooctane and heptane
(C) molybdenum oxide
(D) tetraethyl
564r. Which category of industries tend to be generally 'non-pollutive and non-hazardous'?
(A) transient and fleeting
(B) light
(C) cyber-spatial
(E) heavy
(D) medium
565r. The following are generally non-pollutive and non-hazardous except one.
(A) manufacture of bread, pastries, cakes, donuts, biscuits, hopia, and noodles
(B) assembly and repair of personal computers, home electronic devices, appliances, and
appurtenances
(C) manufacture of paints, paint removers, solvents, lacquers, varnishes, shellac, coating
materials
(D) manufacture of small leather goods such as handbags, luggage, wallets, belts, shoes, and
sandals
(E) publishing and printing of school books, pamphlets, flyers, receipts, greeting cards, social
communications
566r. All of these projects, except one, need not submit Project Description 1or Environmental
Impact Statement but need only to comply with registration and documentary requirements of city,
town or barangay.
(A) municipal waterworks system
(C) backyard fowl-raising of less than 10 heads
(B) sari-sari or neighborhood variety store
(D) private-practice office in home garage with 5 employees
567r. These projects need not submit an Environmental Impact Statement but one has to submit a
simple Project Description.
(A) an urban grocery store of around 2,500 sq.m. total area
(B) cluster of stalls selling goto, lugaw, arrozcaldo, and pares in historic Intramuros, Manila
(C) palay marketing warehouse of Samahang Nayon or rural farmers' cooperative
(D) home-based aquaculture using drums, metal tanks, and concrete ponds
568r. What are the proper sections of a Project Description for projects seeking Certificate of
Non-Coverage?
(A) Proponent, Goals, Key Result Areas, Project Mechanics, Resources Needed, Loans to be
contracted, Expected ROI
(B) Rationale, Location & Area, Development Plan & Phases, Alternatives, Manpower Requirements,
Cost, Duration & Schedule
(C) Description of Land, Capital, Machines, Materials, Manpower, Management, and Marketing
(D) Objectives, Scope, Methodology, Program of Work, Resource Requirements, Participating
Entitites
569r. Except one, the following are considered environmentally-critical areas where all major
projects are subject to IEE
(A) Tubattaha Reef
(B) Chocolate Hills
(C) Mount Banahaw
(D) Tawi-tawi Seaweed Farms
570r. Which of these projects should be subjected to Initial Environmental Examination (IEE) by
DENR's regional field units?
(A) 30 sq.m. DOST field instruments station on the slopes of Mount Apo national park
(B) 5,000 sq.m. viewdeck for tourists and watchers of migratory birds in Candaba swamps, Pampanga
(C) six-classroom extension of an existing public elementary school
(D) beach house measuring 400 sq.m near world-famous Pagudpud, Ilocos Norte
571r. The following are all examples of environmentally-critical projects (ECPs) except one:
(A) Laiban Dam, Kaliwa River, Tanay, Rizal
(C) Petrol Refineries & Oil Depots in Batangas City
(B) Ring Dike - Circumferential around Laguna de Bay
(D) perimeter work on centuries-old Plaza Miranda
572r. Which of these projects should submit a full-blown Environmental Impact Statement?
(A) tree planting on urban parks by 6,000 students
(B) high-end residential subdivision of more than 10 hectares with additional area for golf
course
(C) rain-fed farming of around 50 hectares
(D) hydroponic and aeroponic farming inside greenhouse tents and cages

573r. Which project in a declared tribal land does not require a full-blown Environmental Impact
Assessment?
(A) mining
(B) dam for reservoir & hydroelectric power
(C) sericulture & vermi-composting
(D) national highway
574r. Which of the following conditions requires the most serious consideration in the EIA of a
major Sanitary Landfill for any city or urban LGU?
(A) around 20 kilometers from the city
(B) has an in-take capacity of 6 years only
(C) about 100 meters from a river used for water supply
(D) about 1000 meters from an active geologic fault line
575r. Which would not be a priority for EIA investigation of a proposed limestone quarrying-
cement production complex?
(A) Environmental Justice, impacts on sensitive communities, critical habitats, heritage sites,
and endangered species
(8) Management of water quality, air quality, noise, traffic, common industrial wastes, and
toxic/hazardous wastes .
(C) Consumption of electricity, water, and other utilities
(D) Company policies on 'hiring and firing' and management training
576r. Which of the following is the best example of 'environmental remediation'?
(A) A species of trout becomes extinct in a eutrophic lake.
(B) The annual volume of sewage flowing into a stream is decreased by one half.
(C) The height of a factory smokestack is increased.
(D) PCB-consuming bacteria are sprayed on an area that has soil contaminated with PCBs.
(E) A parcel of forest land is declared a state park.
577r. According to RA 9003, which three 'environmentally sensitive resources' should a Sanitary
Landfill be most concerned about?
(A) bionetwork, germplasm, and wildlife habitats
(B) aquifer, groundwater reservoir, watershed area
(C) flora, fauna, and biota
(D) landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes
578r. A reduction in overall water quality due to an increase in the concentration of chemical
nutrients in a waterbody would be an example of
(A) osmosis
(B) hypoalimentation
(C) eutrophication
(D) fertilization
(E) denitrofication
579r. If excessive amounts of hot water are discharged into a lake in a case of 'thermal
pollution', the immediate result will most likely be
(A) an increase in the sewage content of the lake
(B) a decrease in amount of dissolved oxygen in the lake
(C) an increase in the amount of PCB pollution in the lake
(D) a decrease in the amount of phospates in the lake
580r. According to RA 9003, segregation of 'solid wastes' into bio-degradable and non-
biodegradable should be done
(A) "at the factory level"
(C) "at the end of production/consumption
(B) "at source"
(D) "at the option of family concerned
581r. This is a garbage recycling center in a village, or for a cluster of villages, which also
serves as drop-off center for sorted wastes, composting center, and processing center to
consolidate segregated recyclables for remanufacturing.
(A) Barangay Waste Recycling Center
(B) Community Junk Shop
(C) Waste Exchange Facility
(D) Materials Recovery Facility

Planning Profession Law, Planning Ethics

582r. According to the 1997 Code of Ethics for Environmental Planners in the Philippines, Sec..
11, the "primary obligation of the Environmental Planner is too
(A) "contribute to the incessant development of the profession by sharing and improving
knowledge.
(B) "strive for high standards of professional integrity, proficiency, and knowledge
(C) "develop and enhance a healthy professional relationship with colleagues and other
professionals
(D) "serve the country and in so doing safeguard public interest
(E) "maintain a harmonious working relationship with client or partner in a noble undertaking.
583r. Which of the following is unethical practice of a registered environmental planner?
(A) falsely injures the practice of other environmental planners
(B) provides unjust compensation to colleagues and subordinates
(C) afixes signature on plans he did not prepare or supervise
(D) enters competitions where s/he has direct involvement in program formulation
(E) all of the above
584r. Which of the following ethical principles directly pertains to a planners responsibility to
his/her private client?
(A) Do not plagiarize.
(B) Do not accept work that cannot be performed in a timely fashion
(C) Do not coerce others to reach findings which are not supported by evidence
(D) Do not disclose, without sufficient legal cause, privileged information clearly kept
restricted by concerned party
(E) when in authority and facilitating public hearings, do not make secret deals with
participants.
585r. Which act of the planner is not enumerated as punishable under PD 1308 of 1978, "Regulating
the Practice of Environmental Planning in the Philippines"?
(A) Having his/her professional seal done by informal businesses along CM Recto Ave., Manila
(B) Engaging in the practice of environmental planning in the Philippines without having been
registered
(C) assuming, using or advertising any title or description tending to convey the impression that
he is an
environmental planner without holding a valid certificate of registration
(D) Giving any false or forged evidence of any kind, or impersonating any registered
environmental planner
586r. Under PD 1308, a consulting firm, partnership, or company of registered environmental
planners should have
(A) At least 75% of entire membership and 75% of capitalization owned by registered environmental
planners
(B) At least 50% of entire membership and 50% of capitalization owned by registered environmental
plariners
(C) The fifty-plus-one rule of membership and capitalization
(D) 60%-40% combination of licensed planners and unlicensed planners.
587r. You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator of an LGU. Which of the following
does not constitute a conflict of interest?
(A) Accepting a monetary gift from a local building firm
(B) Working for a developer who has an action before the Local Board of Zoning Appeals and
Adjustment
(C) Applying for business permit and health clearance to operate a private fruit stand in
Farmers' Market
(D) Processing a rezoning application of your own property
588r. You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator of an LGU. Your wedded spouse runs
the recreational Country Club and applies for a permit to construct an Olympic size swimming pool
that would utilize water from a public spring. What is the most rational action for you to do?
(A) Hire an independent consultant for an objective analysis of the application
(B) Ask for job transfer or reassignment
(C) Just keep quiet about it.
(D) File for divorce.
589r. In a case of sexual harassment in a planning consulting company, the following ethical
principles apply except one.
(A) A planner should not be penalized for sexual urges that have nothing to do with his/her
profession.
(B) A planner must not commit a deliberately wrongful act, which reflects adversely on the
planner's professional fitness
(C) A planner must respect the rights of others and must not discriminate.
(D) A planner must have special concern for the long-range consequences of present actions.
590r. Which of the following is an actual conflict of interest?
(A) voting in a public election on an environmental issue that directly affects your consulting
services
(B) making official government recommendations on a site plan that you developed when previous
employed in the private sector
(C) accepting souvenir gifts from a housing developer at the vendors' and sponsors' area of a
planners' convention
(D) reporting to PRC an act of dishonesty by a planner about his supposed work experience in a
job originally occupied by you.
591r. A housing developer contacts you with an opportunity to use your expertise as a paid
consultant in a matter not pertaining to your employer's jurisdiction. You would work only on
your off-days and holidays. You should
(A) report the housing developer for unethical behavior
(C) decline the offer
(B) make courtesy notification to your immediate supervisor
(D) keep quiet about it
592r. Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, what is the most preferred manner
of government procurement of goods and services?
(A) selective bidding or limited source bidding
(B) negotiated procurement
(C) single source procurement or direct contracting
(D) competitive bidding
593r. In cases where open public biddings have failed on two (2) consecutive occasions and no
suppliers have qualified to participate or win in the bidding, LGUs, through the local chief
executive with the approval of the Sanggunian; may undertake procurement of supplies and services
without public bidding through:
(A) selective bidding or limited source bidding
(B) negotiated procurement
(C) single source procurement or direct contracting
(D) cornpetitive bidding
594r. In emergency cases such as typhoon or earthquake damage where the need for supplies and
services is exceptionally urgent or absolutely indispensable and inorder to prevent imminent
danger to, or loss of, life or property, LGUs may make emergency purchases or place repair
orders, without open public bidding, provided
(A) public safety and vital public services, infrastructure and utilities, would be endangered if
contracts are rescinded, abandoned, terminated, or not taken over,
(B) it is the best offer and most advantageous price among quotations submitted by at least three
pre-selected suppliers kept in the database of the government agency as having reliable, positive
track record
(C) amount is within the range of 50,000-250,000 or even higher according to ceilings previously
approved by the Government Procurement Policy Board
(D) goods and commodities of any amount are procured from another government agency under LOI 755
and EO 359
(E) all of the above
595r. Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, the Bids and Awards Committee with
five to seven members has to be headed by
(A) chief of procuring entity
(B) resident Ombudsman
(C) resident auditor detailed by COA
(D) at least third ranking permanent official
596r. Under the rule cited in immediately-preceding question, which of the following should not
chair the Bids and Awards Committee?
(A) Chief of Administrative Division
(B) Audio-Visual Technician
(C) Head of Engineering Section
(D) Planning Officer V
597r. The acceptable form of security furnished by a contractor of a public project as a
guarantee of good faith on his/her part to execute the contracted work in accordance with the
terms of the approved contract.
(A) Insurance
(B) Collateral
(C) Performance Bond
(D) Retention or Retained Eamings
(E) Surety Bond
(F) Completion Guarantee
598r. What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from a contract?
(A) surety
(B) assurance
(C) performance
(D) warranty
(E) reparation
599r. Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act, Sec 5i, government may hire Consulting
Services for the following functions, broadly matching the competencies of Registered EnPs. For
which function are Environmental Planners generally least prepared?
(A) advisory and review services;
(D) construction supervision;
(B) pre-investment or feasibility studies, special studies;
(E) management-related services and technical services
(C) design;
600r. A Highly-Urbanized City (HUC) bids out in transparent manner the revision of its CLUP-Z0
for an approved budget of contract (ABC) of 6 million. Four companies participated in open
bidding. In the BAC evaluation of technical proposals, Company A got 89 points, Company B earned
64 points, Company C, 78 points, and Company D, 42 points as the last company missed out on the
required GIS-RS component. After technical examination, the sealed financial proposals were
opened and the bid amounts were revealed as follows: Company A - 6.6 million; Company B = 6.2
million; Company C= 5.9 million; and Company D = 4.5 million. Overall, which company offered the
"most responsive bid" or "lowest calculated complying bid" and should receive the Notice of Award
of Contract from the head of agency.
(A) Company A
(B) Company B
(C) Company C
(D) Company D