FVL2 - PracticeQuestionsExam - June 2016

The following questions have been extracted from the WSET Level 2 book, “Wine and Spirits: Looking
Behind the
Label,” Fully Revised Edition 2014.
FINE VINTAGE LEVEL 2 PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS
Section 1: Production, Quality, and the Consumer

Chapter 1 – Tasting and Evaluating Wine
1) Which of the following conditions allows for the best impression of a wine?
a) A room that has been cleaned with bleach;
b) A room that allows natural light;
c) A palate that has been freshly brushed with toothpaste;
d) A palate after a cup of coffee.
2) Which of the following colours best describes a red wine in its youth?
a) Gold
b) Green
c) Purple
d) Garnet
3) Which of the following best describes at a white wine with some age?
a) Gold
b) Green
c) Salmon
d) None of the above
4) Which of the following colours best describes a red wine with some age?
a) Brown
b) Garnet
c) Purple
d) Gold
5) Which of the following colours best hints a white wine that is youthful?
a) Gold
b) Green
c) Purple
d) Garnet
6) A wine that does not show any fault on appearance is best described as:
a) Clear
b) Clean
c) Cloudy
d) Pretty
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7) A wine that exhibits odours of musty, damp cardboard is likely to have been effected by:
a) Decanting
b) Oxidation
c) Cork Taint
8) An example of a wine where oxidative notes may be deliberately detected is:

a) Oloroso Sherry
b) LBV Port
c) New Zealand Sauvignon Blanc
d) Bottle-Aged St. Emilion Grand Cru
9) The systematic approach to tasting would use which expression to describe a Chablis?
a) Feminine
b) Masculine
c) Elegant
d) Green Apple
10) Sweetness in wine is tasted where on the palate?

a) Tip
b) Middle
c) Back
d) Side
11) Acidity in wine is tasted where on the palate?

a) Tip
b) Middle
c) Back
d) Side
12) Which wine would likely show notes of high tannin?

a) Mosel Riesling
b) White Zinfandel
c) Côte-Rôtie
d) Sauternes
13) Which factor(s) may contribute to a fuller-body wine?

a) Residual Sugar
b) Low Alcohol
c) High Acidity
d) All of the Above
14) A conclusion may rate a wine as very good because:
a) The length is short and to the point
b) It is very sweet with low acidity
c) It expresses complex flavours that indicate the varietal and location
d) You like it
15) Which of the following best describes the appearance of a Napa Cabernet Sauvignon with significant age?
a) Clean, pale ruby
b) Clear, medium ruby-garnet
c) Clear, intense ruby-purple
d) Clean, medium ruby-amber
16) Which of the following would likely describe the nose of a New Zealand Sauvignon Blanc?
a) Clean, low intensity
b) Clear, medium intensity
c) Clean, pronounced intensity
d) Clean, medium intensity
17) Which of the following would likely describe the palate of a Barossa Shiraz?
a) Medium-sweet, full-body, high alcohol
b) Dry, full-body, high alcohol
c) Off-dry, medium body, medium alcohol
d) Dry, light body, high alcohol
18) Which pair would indicate an Icewine of excellent quality that is in good balance?
a) High acidity, low sweetness
b) Low acidity, high sweetness
c) High Acidity, high sweetness
d) Low acidity, low sweetness
19) Which of the following would likely describe the concluding notes for a Chambertin?
a) Acceptable Quality: short length, little complexity, no expression of varietal or terroir
b) Good Quality: medium length, complex character, flavours typical of a New World Pinot Noir
c) Excellent Quality: long length, complex character, flavours typical of a Left Bank Grand Cru
d) Outstanding Quality: long length, complex character, flavours typical of a Burgundian Grand Cru
20) Which might be an indicator of high-quality wine?

a) Cloying Sweetness
b) A long, complex finish
c) The wine is unique and like no other wines from the same region
d) All of the above
Chapter 2 – Wine with Food
21) Which of the following is true about Sweetness in food when pairing with wine?
a) It increases the perception of bitterness in the wine
b) It increases the perception of acidity in the wine
c) It increases the alcohol burn of the wine
d) All of the above
22) Which of the following is true about Umami in food when pairing with wine?
a) It decreases the perception of bitterness in the wine
b) It decreases the perception of acidity in the wine
23) Which of the following is true about Salt in food when pairing with wine?
a) It decreases the perception of body in the wine
b) It decreases the perception of bitterness in the wine
c) It decreases the perception of acidity in the wine
d) Both B and C
24) In some instances the best pair for a high intensity dish, like curry, would be a low intensity wine.
a) True
b) False
25) Which of the following is true about Acidity in food?

a) Acidity in food increases the perception of acidity in wine
b) Acidity in food decreases the perception of acidity in wine
c) Acidity in food decreases the perception of body in wine
26) Which of the following pairings is correct?

a) Salt in food decreases Acidity in wine
b) Umami in food decreases Alcohol in wine
c) Chili Heat in food decreases Bitterness in wine
d) Sweetness in food decreases Acidity in wine
27) Salt can counteract the impact of Umami on a wine.

a) True
b) False
28) A person’s individual tastes do not play an important role in matching food and wine.
a) True
b) False
29) Chili Heat in food makes a wine taste:
a) Fuller in body
b) Drier
c) Less bitter
d) More fruity
30) Bitterness in food softens bitterness in wine.

a) True
b) False
31) A spicy dish could be paired with a red wine that is:
a) High in acid and light in body (e.g. Valpolicella)
b) Full body and high in tannin (e.g. Barolo)
c) High in alcohol and full in body (e.g. Amarone)
d) Intensely fruity and low in tannin (e.g. Barbera)
32) A dish that is high in Umami should be paired with a heavily oaked white wine.
a) True
b) False
33) Which of these elements is not considered high risk in food?

a) Acidity
b) Alcohol
c) Bitterness
d) Sweetness
34) Which of these components is not considered low risk in wine?

a) Acidity
b) Fruitiness
c) Off-dry level of sweetness
d) Simple flavours
35) When pairing Champagne with oysters, which of the following statements is false?
a) Champagne is unoaked and won’t clash with the Umami of oysters
b) Champagne is high in acidity and will balance lemons added to oysters
c) Champagne is full-bodied and will complement the weighty texture of oysters
d) Champagne has delicate flavours that will pair with the delicate flavours of oysters
Chapter 3 – Factors Affecting Wine Style, Quality, and Price
36) Which of the following pairs are not found in a grape yet can impact the style of a wine?
a) Skins and Stalks
b) Sugar and Acid
c) Seeds and Bloom
d) Carbon Dioxide and Water
37) Tannin in wine can come from:

a) Skin
b) Stalks
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
38) Which of the following factors needed to grow a vine is not affected by the vine’s environment?
a) Warmth
b) Water
c) Carbon Dioxide
d) Nutrients
39) Generally speaking, a wine from a hot climate will show:

a) More alcohol, fuller body, more tannin, less acidity
b) Less alcohol, lighter body, less tannin, more acidity
c) More alcohol, fuller body, less tannin, more acidity
d) Less alcohol, lighter body, more tannin, less acidity
40) An example of a grape that performs better in a cool climate but not in a warm climate is:
a) Chardonnay
b) Pinot Noir
c) Cabernet Sauvignon
d) Grenache
41) Warm ocean currents play a significant climatic role in:

a) California
b) Chile
c) Bordeaux
d) Southern Australia
42) An example of an inland region with warmer summers and cooler winters is:
a) Burgundy
b) Bordeaux
c) Carneros
d) Walker Bay
43) In climates further from the equator, vineyards can maximise sunlight exposure by:
a) Planting grapes on flat, easily accessible land
b) Planting grapes on slopes that receive ample shade
c) Planting grapes on slopes facing rivers
d) Planting grapes on undulating landscape with many different aspects
44) Significant rainfall in the vineyard will not result in the following:
a) Grapes will become bloated and flavours will be diluted
b) Chalky soils will hold water and impede sugar production
c) The risk of fungus and rot is increased
d) The need for irrigation will become less important
45) Most of the world’s vineyards are found between which degrees of latitude?
a) 10 to 30
b) 20 to 40
c) 30 to 50
d) 40 to 60
46) Which of the following factors hinders the production of sugars in a vineyard?
a) Extremely hot weather
b) Dry, stony soils
c) Vineyards sloping to face the sun
d) Temperate Zone climate
47) Nutrients are provided to the vines through which source?

a) Weather
b) Sunlight
c) Water
d) Soil
48) Which vineyard activity would result in the lowest labour costs?
a) Careful pruning
b) Manual shoot positioning
c) Maximum mechanisation
d) Selecting nobly rotten grapes
49) Lower yields will generally result in a grape that is:

a) Diluted
b) Of little complexity
c) More expensive
50) An example of a pest or disease that is beneficial to grapes is:
a) Birds
b) Pierce’s Disease
c) Mildew
d) Botrytis Cinerea
51) An example of a harvest likely done by machine is:

a) From grapes that are whole-bunch harvested
b) From grapes that are individually selected
c) From vineyards on steeper slopes
d) From vineyards on flatter land
52) The correct order for white winemaking is:

a) Fermentation, Crush, Press, Maturation
b) Fermentation, Press, Crush, Maturation
c) Crush, Press, Fermentation, Maturation
d) Press, Crush, Fermentation, Maturation
53) The correct order for red winemaking is:

a) Crush, Press, Fermentation, Maturation
b) Crush, Fermentation, Press, Maturation
c) Press, Crush, Fermentation, Maturation
d) Press, Fermentation, Crush, Maturation
54) The correct order for rose winemaking is:

a) Crush, Skin Contact, Low-Temperature Fermentation, Maturation
b) Crush, Skin Contact, High-Temperature Fermentation, Maturation
c) Crush, Low-Temperature Fermentation, Skin Contact, Maturation
d) Crush, High-Temperature Fermentation, Skin Contact, Maturation
55) Which of the following would result in the least cost when adding oak flavours to a wine?
a) Oak essence
b) New French oak
c) Previously used barrels
d) Barrel fermentation
56) Fermenting and aging premium Chardonnay in oak barrels is most common in:
a) Bordeaux
b) Chile
c) Australia
d) Burgundy
57) Which vessel would lead to maturation with oxygen?
a) OId oak vats
b) Bottles
c) Cement tanks
d) Stainless steel tanks
58) After which step of the winemaking process is the wine unlikely to improve?
a) Pressing
b) Fermentation
c) Maturation
d) Bottling
59) Which combination of factors would most likely increase the cost of a wine?
a) Steep vineyard, new French oak barrels, natural cork
b) Machine-harvest, used American barrels, screwcap
c) Hand-harvest, stainless steel, synthetic cork
d) High-yield, oak staves, cardboard box
60) Which of the following is the ultimate factor that determines the price of a wine?
a) Exchange rates
b) Transportation costs
c) Consumer’s expectations
d) Taxes and levies
61) Which of the following is a vineyard activity that contributes to full and even ripening?
a) Increased mechanization
b) Leaf positioning
c) Proximity to water
d) All of the above
62) Which of the following is true about climate and weather?

a) Availability of CO2 is dependent on climate
b) Climate concerns include hail and frost
c) Vintage variation is largely dependent upon weather
d) High quality Cabernet Sauvignon depends upon cool climate conditions
63) What is essential to sugar production in grapes?

a) Sunlight, Canopy Management, and Soil Nutrients
b) Carbon Dioxide, Sunlight, and Canopy Management
c) Water, Sunlight, and Carbon Dioxide
d) Carbon Dioxide, Water, and Soils with good drainage
64) What specific growing condition can result in a wine being overly sour, astringent, and lacking in fruit?
a) Excessive heat and arid, desert-like conditions
b) Improper canopy management resulting in overexposure to sunlight
c) Vineyards at high altitudes far from the equator
65) Which of the following is true about mechanization in the vineyard?

a) It is labour intensive and increases overall costs
b) It relies on suitably flat vineyards
c) It is most appropriate for top-quality producers
d) The increased cost is usually passed on to consumers
Chapter 4 – Understanding the Label
66) Which of the following styles of wine is generally not dominated by a small number of large brands?
a) Sherry
b) Port
c) Bordeaux
d) Cava
67) In which month would a 2014 Marlborough Sauvignon Blanc have been harvested?
a) March, 2013
b) March, 2014
c) September, 2013
d) September, 2014
68) Which of the following statements is true?

a) The acronym for a PDO-level wine in France is IGP
b) Vin de France is a PDO-level wine region
c) A PDO-level wine in France will rarely name the grape(s) on the label
d) There are no PDO-level wines in Beaujolais
69) How many Spanish wine regions qualify to use the acronym DOCa?
a) 1
b) 6
c) 2
d) 13
70) Which is correct acronym for the Italian equivalent of France’s Vin de Pays category?
a) DOC
b) VdlT
c) IGT
d) PDO
71) In France, the PDO category is represented by which of the following?
a) Vin de France
b) Appellation d’Origine Contrôlée (AC or AOC)
c) Vin de Pays (VdP)
d) All of the Above
72) Typically, wines with a geographical indication must adhere to which of the following?
a) Only traditional varieties may be used
b) Grapes must come from a designated area
c) The variety or blend percentage must be stated on the label
d) All of the above
73) Which of the following production techniques is limited to white wines only?
a) Oak-aged
b) Aged in barriques
c) Barrel-fermented
d) Oaked
74) Which labeling term would indicate a wine that would most likely deposit sediment as it ages?
a) Oak-aged
b) Unfiltered
c) Vegetarian
d) Organic
75) Which of the following German terms translates in English to ‘off-dry’ or ‘semi-sweet’?
a) Halbtrocken
b) Auslese
c) Qualitätswein
d) Kabinett
76) Which French term best translates as “Merchant?”

a) Château
b) Domaine
c) Négociant
d) Coopérative
77) The term “organic” refers to which stage of the winemaking process?
a) Vineyard management
b) Fermentation
c) Maturation
d) All of the above
78) The term Cuvée indicates a blend from which of the following?
a) Grapes from different areas or regions
b) Grapes from different vintages
c) Grapes from vats from within a winemakers own estate
d) All of the above
79) What feature(s) do organic and biodynamic viticulture share?

a) They eschew the use of synthetic fertilisers
b) They use astrological markers to guide their practices
c) Vines become immune to insects and fungal disease
80) Which of the following is true?

a) Few countries outside of the EU have legislation governing labels
b) Wine imported into the EU must adhere to EU production standards
c) Use of the term Vieilles Vignes/Old Vines is strictly controlled
d) Use of the term Cuvée is strictly controlled
81) Which of the following words does not translate as “dry”?

a) Secco
b) Sec
c) Sekt
d) Seco
82) The word rot on a German label informs us that the wine is:
a) Sweet
b) Red
c) Bad
d) White
83) Sur lie informs us that the wine:

a) Has been aged in 225L barriques
b) Is organic
c) Is unfiltered
d) Has aged on dead yeast cells
84) Which country does not have legislation covering use of label terms?
a) USA
b) South Africa
c) Australia
85) Which region is the source of the majority of IGP wines in France?
a) Bordeaux
b) Val de la Loire
c) Pays d’Oc
d) Alsace
86) Which of the following is not a legally defined term in France?

a) Vielles Vignes
b) Villages
c) Grand Cru
d) Château
87) Which term indicates a German wine at its most basic level?
a) Prädikatswein
b) QbA
c) Deutscher Wein
d) Landwein
88) How many Quality Regions are there in Germany?

a) 3
b) 7
c) 13
d) 17
89) Which list is the correct order for Italian wine regions from basic to top?
a) IGT, DOCG, DOC
b) DOC, DOCG, IGT
c) IGT, DOC, DOCG
d) DOC, IGT, DOCG
90) Which of the following is true regarding Prädikatswein in Germany?

a) Wines will fall within three sub-categories based upon minimum sugar level
b) The categories are not strictly defined and wineries may opt for use of any of the terms
c) Prädikatswein and sub-categories apply to Riesling only
Chapter 5 – Social Responsibility
91) Which of the following is not a category of alcohol legislation?

a) Advertising restrictions
b) Guidelines for sensible drinking
c) Maximum drinking age
d) Maximum blood alcohol
92) Which is the acronym that refers to legislation for a minimum age to purchase alcohol?
a) AIM
b) BAC
c) LDA
d) LDL
93) Most countries have legal blood alcohol limits within which range?
a) 0.0 mg/mL – 0.4 mg/mL
b) 0.0 mg/mL – 0.6 mg/mL
c) 0.0 mg/mL – 0.8 mg/mL
d) 0.0 mg/mL – 1.0mg.mL
94) An official “drink” is within which range of pure ethanol?

a) 8 g – 14 g
b) 5 g – 10 g
c) 15 g – 18 g
d) 14 g – 21 g
95) Which group receives no health benefits from moderate drinking?

a) Men over 40
b) Post-menopausal women
c) Men under 30
96) On average, at what rate does the body break down alcohol?
a) One standard drink per hour
b) One standard drink per two hours
c) One standard drink per half hour
d) One standard drink per fifteen minutes
97) The key organ that breaks down alcohol is the:

a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Small Intestines
d) Stomach
98) Intoxication increases the risk of:

a) Sexual promiscuity
b) Sustaining injuries
c) Damage to internal organs
d) All of the above
a) If you do not feel drunk then you’re blood alcohol levels are within the legal limit
b) Alcohol should be consumed as a health benefit
c) Eating food with alcohol minimises the effect on the body
100) Which of the following statements is false?

a) Drinking water dilutes the body’s blood alcohol level
b) Drinking coffee in the morning speeds up the process of breaking down alcohol
c) Drinking regularly enables the body to build up a tolerance, reducing associated health risks
d) All of the above
Chapter 6 – Storage and Service
101) Which is the best temperature range for long-term storage?

a) 5°C - 8°C
b) 7°C - 10°C
c) 10°C - 15°C
d) 15°C - 18°C
102) Which degree is generally accepted as “room temperature?”

a) 6°C
b) 12°C
c) 18°C
d) 24°C
103) Which of the following storage conditions would cause a cork to dry out?
a) Storing wine on its side
b) Storing wine at a consistent temperature
c) Storing wine away from natural light
104) Which style of wine could be served at the warmest temperature?
a) Still red wine
b) Rosé wine
c) Sparkling wine
d) Sweet wine
105) Which of the following red wines should be served at the coolest temperature?
a) Amarone
b) Beaujolais
c) Châteauneuf-du-Pape
d) Rioja Crianza
106) Which of these wines should be served at room temperature?
a) Champagne
b) Valpolicella
c) Vintage Port
d) White Burgundy
107) Which pair of wines is best served well chilled?

a) Pouilly-Fuissé and Meursault
b) Pouilly-Fumé and Asti
c) Champagne and Sauternes
d) Muscadet and Oloroso Sherry
108) An ice-bucket will efficiently chill a wine if:

a) The bucket is full of ice
b) The bucket is mostly full of ice with a little cold water
c) The bucket is mostly full of equal parts ice and cold water
d) The bucket is partially full of mostly cold water and some ice
109) Which style of wine is best served in small glasses to emphasize fruit character rather than alcohol?
a) Fortified Wines
b) Rosé wines
c) Sparkling Wines
d) White Wines
110) A red wine should be served in a larger-sized glass because:

a) A larger-sized glass better protects the fruit characteristics
b) Aromatics float to the surface more easily in a larger-sized glass
c) A larger-sized glass allows for more air contact to release aroma and flavour characteristics
d) A larger-sized glass helps hide the alcohol content of a red wine
111) When opening a bottle of sparkling wine, one should always:

a) Hold the cork secure while loosening the cage
b) Tilt the angle of the bottle to 45°
c) Turn the cork, not the bottle
d) All of the above
112) When opening an aged wine, why should one pour the wine over a light source?
a) It helps gauge the colour of the wine
b) It allows the pourer to see when the deposit gathers at the neck
c) It allows the pourer to bring the wine to room temperature
d) It is entirely for show and has no significance in the decanting process
113) The least efficient way to aerate a wine is to:
a) Open the bottle sometime before service
b) Swirl the wine in a glass
c) Pour the wine into a decanter
d) Pour the contents of the bottle into another, empty bottle
114) How many 125 mL glasses can be served from a single, standard wine bottle?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
115) A blanket system:

a) Chills a wine to proper serving temperature
b) Adds a layer of gas to protect remaining wine from oxidation
c) Is a decanting method that efficiently allows a wine to breathe
Section 2: Grape Varieties and Geographically Names Wines

Chapter 7 - Chardonnay
116) Which of the following statements about Chardonnay is false?

a) Chardonnay is an aromatic varietal
b) Chardonnay is the grape of Chablis
c) Chardonnay is grown in hot climates
d) Chardonnay has delicate flavours
117) Which winemaking technique will impact the flavour of Chardonnay?

a) Malolactic Fermentation
b) Lees stirring
c) Oak-aging
d) All of the above
118) Which flavour profile is not related to the impact of climate on Chardonnay?
a) Green fruit
b) Butter and hazelnut
c) Citrus and stone fruit
d) Tropical fruit
119) Which of the following is a true statement about heavily oaked Chardonnay?
a) It tends to be light bodied with aromatic notes of gooseberry and asparagus
b) It tends to be medium bodied with high alcohol and notes of lychee
c) It tends to be full bodied with a weighty, creamy texture
d) It tends to range from light and dry to full and sweet, depending on the style
120) Which of the following regions would Chardonnay most likely be unoaked?
a) Chablis
b) Puligny-Montrachet
c) Meursault
d) Pouilly-Fuissé
121) Which region is considered the heart of Burgundian Chardonnay?

a) Côte de Nuits
b) Côte de Beaune
c) Côte-Rôtie
d) Côtes du Rhône
122) Which region is the southernmost for premium Chardonnay in Burgundy?

a) Pouilly-Fumé
b) Pouilly-Fuissé
c) Puligny-Montrachet
d) Chassagne-Montrachet
123) A region where altitude significantly influences the climate is:

a) Walker Bay, South Africa
b) Mendoza, Argentina
c) Casablanca, Chile
d) Marlborough, New Zealand
124) Which region is New Zealand’s main producer of premium Chardonnay?

a) Carneros
b) Marlborough
c) Central Otago
d) Yarra Valley
125) Which of the following statements about California Chardonnay is false?

a) They are often full-bodied with flavours of stone fruit and oak
b) Some examples are savoury and reminiscent of Burgundian Chardonnay
c) Carneros often produces sparkling wines from Chardonnay
d) Cool breezes and morning mists slow the ripening in the Central Valley
126) Which cool sub-region produces premium Chardonnay in Chile?
a) Casablanca
b) Mendoza
c) Colchagua
d) Walker Bay
127) Chardonnay is often used for inexpensive, bulk-production because:

a) It expresses typical butter and melon flavours in all climates
b) It can tolerate a wide range of soils
c) It grows only in cool to moderate climates
d) It most often requires hand-harvesting
128) Which region on a label would likely be an inexpensive, bulk-produced Chardonnay?

a) Meursault
b) Central Valley
c) Walker Bay
d) Yarra Valley
129) Which region would likely be the source of a highly-priced Chardonnay?

a) Central Valley
b) Western Cape
c) Mâconnais
d) Meursault
130) Which grape often brings acidity to a blend with Chardonnay in Australia?
a) Chenin Blanc
b) Colombard
c) Semillon
d) Viognier
131) Which grape brings an oily texture and peachy aromatics to a Chardonnay blend?
a) Chenin Blanc
b) Colombard
c) Semillon
d) Viognier
132) Which winemaking technique would most likely be utilized to bring oaky flavours to a large-volume
Chardonnay?
a) Stainless steel fermentation, storage, then bottling
b) Oak-barrel fermentation, oak-barrel storage, then bottling
c) Stainless steel fermentation, oak-barrel storage, then bottling
d) Stainless steel fermentation, oak-stave addition, then bottling
133) The label “Cono Sur 20 Barrels Limited Edition Chardonnay” from Chile is likely to be:
a) A premium white wine that has seen prolonged maturation in barriques
b) A medium-priced white wine that was fermented in stainless steel tanks and is unoaked
c) An inexpensive white wine that saw high-yields
d) None of the above; you cannot tell alone by the label
134) Which premium Chardonnay region is located in the Southern Hemisphere?

a) Carneros
b) Casablanca
c) Chablis
d) Russian River
135) Mineral characters are more pronounced in Chardonnays labeled with:

a) Mâcon
b) Premier Cru
c) Sur Lie
d) Vielles Vignes
136) Which AC would be the most basic Chardonnay?

a) Mâcon AC
b) Meursault AC
c) Bourgogne AC
d) Montrachet Grand Cru AC
137) Although widely grown, which region is not recognised for significant amounts of Chardonnay?
a) Adelaide Hills
b) Coonawarra
c) Margaret River
d) Yarra Valley
138) A climatic factor that helps maintain cools vineyards in California is:
a) Ocean breezes
b) Morning mists
c) Altitude
d) All of the above
139) Which of the following is true about Malolactic Fermentation:

a) It adds a noticeable minerality to the wine
b) It add flavours of coconut and vanilla
c) It may be used to soften harsh acids in the wine
d) All of the above
140) Which of the following wines and typical profiles represents a correct pair?
a) Chablis – High acid, creamy texture, aromas of toast and vanilla
b) Meursault – Fuller body, citrus, stone, and tropical fruit aromas, high complexity
c) Macon – Full-bodied, Intense tropical fruit aromas, Oak spice on the palate
d) Margaret River – Lightly aromatic, fresh green apple and grapefruit aromas, short length
141) Which of the following is typically true of Chardonnay from Argentina:

a) Quality examples will come from vineyards benefitted by cool Pacific breezes
b) Wines will have a green fruit character, be unoaked, and light in body
c) All examples will tend to have pronounced aromatics
d) Quality examples will most often come from vineyards at high altitudes
142) Which of the following statements is true regarding California Chardonnay

a) Wines may be labelled as simply coming from California
b) Wines are often labelled by region, such as Carneros or Russian River
c) There is no typical ‘California Chardonnay’ as styles vary widely
d) All of the above
143) Which of the following is not a typical blending partner for Chardonnay?
a) Chenin Blanc
b) Sauvignon Blanc
c) Semillon
d) Colombard
144) Which of the following wine regions is unlike the others?

a) Yarra Valley
b) Marlborough
c) Adelaide Hills
d) Margaret River
145) Which of the following is true about typical Chilean Chardonnay?

a) Wines are typically unoaked and display a steely minerality
b) Quality vineyards are often cooled by sea breezes and morning fogs
c) The best examples are coming from high altitude vineyards
d) The typical aroma profile includes green apple and hay
Chapter 6 – Pinot Noir
146) Which of the following statements about Pinot Noir is true?

a) Pinot Noir is widely planted as it adapts easily to most soil and climatic conditions
b) Pinot Noir may not need time in bottle to evolve attractive flavours
c) Pinot Noir is a full-body grape with strong tannins
147) If a climate or vintage is too cool, the flavours of Pinot Noir will become:
a) Excessively jammy
b) Excessively red-fruit
c) Excessively vegetal
d) Excessively gamey
148) Which of the following statements is true in regards to a Grand Cru Burgundy Pinot Noir?
a) Maturation in new oak is common in order to add toasty, vanilla flavours
b) It is best consumed young in order to enjoy the fresh, red-fruit flavours
c) Prolonged aging in bottle allows for more complex flavours to evolve
d) All of the above
149) Which PDO would yield a medium-bodied red wine with simple red fruit and savoury aromas?
a) Bourgogne AC
b) Central Otago
c) Pommard
d) Pauillac
150) Which of the following is among the most famous Grand Cru Pinot Noir vineyards?
a) Montrachet
b) Chambertin
c) St. Emilion
d) Vougeot
151) Which of the following is not a village PDO in Burgundy?

a) Beaune
b) Nuits-Saint-Georges
c) Pomerol
d) Pommard
152) The common word for Pinot Noir in Germany is:

a) Rotburgunder
b) Spätburgunder
c) Weissburgunder
d) Grauburgunder
153) Which German wine region is not known for Pinot Noir?
a) Mosel
b) Pfalz
c) Baden
154) A cool region of Australia that produces quality Pinot Noir is:
a) Barossa Valley
b) Hunter Valley
c) Clare Valley
d) Yarra Valley
155) When compared to Burgundy, New Zealand Pinot Noir may be described as:
a) Lighter in body and higher in acidity
b) Fuller in body and lower in acidity
c) Lighter in body and lower in acidity
d) Fuller in body and higher in acidity
156) Which region of New Zealand is not famous for its Pinot Noir?
a) Marlborough
b) Coonawarra
c) Central Otago
157) Which region of New Zealand produces much Pinot Noir for sparkling wine?
a) Marlborough
b) Hawke’s Bay
c) Central Otago
d) Tasmania
158) Good examples of Pinot Noir in California are generally not found in:
a) Carneros
b) Santa Barbara
c) Sonoma
d) Napa
159) Which two regions of Chile are sources of intensely fruity Pinot Noir?
a) Casablanca and Colchagua
b) Casablanca and San Antonio
c) Maipo and Colchagua
d) Maipo and San Antonio
160) Which region is well known for producing bulk, inexpensive red wines?
a) Central Valley
b) Pays d’Oc
c) Murray-Darling
d) All of the above
161) Chile has gained a reputation as a source soft, fruity and inexpensive Pinot Noir?
a) True
b) False
162) Blending Pinot Noir with other grapes is common practice in:
a) Burgundy
b) Beaujolais
c) Champagne
d) Hermitage
163) A wine labeled AC Bourgogne is likely to be:

a) 100% Pinot Noir
b) 100% Gamay
c) 85% Pinot Noir with up to 15% Gamay
d) 85% Gamay with up to 15% Pinot Noir
164) Which term indicates a wine from the best vineyards of Burgundy?
a) Clos
b) Grand Cru
c) Premier Cru
d) Villages
165) A Domaine indicates a producer that sources its grapes:

a) From different growers and different vineyards
b) From its own vineyards exclusively
c) From an association of growers who are part-owners
d) From other producers to sell a finished product under their own name
166) Which region is known for both premium Riesling and premium Pinot Noir?
a) Mosel
b) Rheingau
c) Pfalz
d) Rheinhessen
167) Which premium Australian wine region is considered to have a hot climate?
a) Mornington Peninsula
b) Clare Valley
c) Margaret River
d) McLaren Vale
168) Central Otago is famous for which grape?

a) Chardonnay
b) Sauvignon Blanc
c) Merlot
d) Pinot Noir
169) Which varietal is not widely produced in the Napa Valley?

a) Cabernet Sauvignon
b) Chardonnay
c) Sauvignon Blanc
d) Pinot Noir
170) Which pair of states produce premium, world-class Pinot Noir?

a) New York and Oregon
b) California and Oregon
c) Washington and California
d) New York and Washington
171) Which southern California county produces world-class Pinot Noir?

a) Sonoma
b) Napa
c) Santa Barbara
d) Willamette
172) Which grape is not of significant importance in Argentina?

b) Chardonnay
c) Malbec
d) Pinot Noir

a) Pinot Noir grapes have thick skins resulting in wines with full body and high levels of tannins
b) In hot regions, Pinot Noir loses its delicate aromas and wines may become excessively jammy
c) Most examples of Pinot Noir benefit from extensive bottle aging
d) Toast and vanilla notes from new oak harmonize well with Pinot Noirs natural flavours
174) Which of the following is not a well-known Burgundy village known for Pinot Noir?
a) Nuits-St-Georges
b) Fleurie
c) Pommard
d) Gevrey-Chambertin
175) Which of the following is not used as a blending partner for Pinot Noir
a) Chardonnay
b) Gamay
c) Syrah
d) All of the above
Chapter 9 – Cabernet Sauvignon and Merlot
176) When blended together, Merlot brings to Cabernet Sauvignon:

a) Softness and acidity
b) Tannin and body
c) Softness and body
d) Tannin and acidity
177) The classic region for Merlot/Cabernet Sauvignon blends is:

a) Bordeaux
b) Southern Rhône
c) Loire Valley
d) Pays d’Oc
178) Which of the following statements best describes a Cabernet Sauvignon?

a) High tannin, high aromatics, high acidity
b) Medium tannin, medium aromatics, full body
c) Soft tannin, medium aromatics, light body
d) High tannins, high aromatics, medium acidity
179) Which flavour profile best describes a Cabernet Sauvignon?

a) Strawberry, mushroom, and barnyard
b) Black currants, bell pepper, and cedar
c) Plum, dark cherry, and coffee
d) Blackberry, black pepper, and liquorice
180) Which of the following statements about Cabernet Sauvignon is true?

a) It ripens easily so can be grown in either a cool or warm climate
b) It has its classic home on the Right Bank of Bordeaux
c) Its high acidity and high tannins enable it to age for a long time
d) All of the above
181) Merlot and Cabernet Sauvignon share the following:
a) Both are high in tannin and low in acidity
b) The best of each gain flavours of vanilla and coffee from oak aging
c) Both have classically red-fruit flavours of strawberry and cherry
182) A hot climate Merlot will show flavours of:

a) Blackcurrant, cedar, and bell pepper
b) Blackberry, black plum, black cherry
c) Blueberry, leather, black pepper
d) Green apple, citrus, mineral
183) The climate of Bordeaux is best described as:

a) Cool continental
b) Moderate maritime
c) Warm Mediterranean
d) Hot tropical
184) Which river divides Bordeaux into a Left and Right Bank?
a) Gironde
b) Rhône
c) Loire
d) Rhine
185) Which of the following communes is not on the Left Bank?

a) Margaux
b) Pomerol
c) Pessac-Léognan
d) Pauillac
186) Which of the following appellations would be mostly Merlot?

a) Haut Medoc
b) Graves
c) St. Émilion
d) Pessac-Léognan
187) Which region has established itself as a modern classic of Australian Cabernet Sauvignon?
a) Coonawarra
b) Barossa Valley
c) Hunter Valley
d) Hawke’s Bay
188) Which premium Cabernet Sauvignon region is located in Western Australia?
a) Hunter Valley
b) McLaren Vale
c) Limestone Coast
d) Margaret River
189) Which of the following statements about Napa Valley Cabernet Sauvignon is false:
a) It is deeply coloured with soft, ripe tannins
b) It has flavours of black cherry and vanilla
c) It is sometimes blended with Merlot, following the Bordeaux model
d) It is difficult to ripen in the California climate
190) Which Chilean region is not a major producer of Cabernet Sauvignon and Merlot?
a) Maipo
b) Casablanca
c) Colchagua
d) Cachapoal
191) In which region would Malbec be blended with Cabernet Sauvignon?

a) Rapel
b) Mendoza
c) Carneros
d) Rioja
192) Stellenbosch is the source of premium Cabernet Sauvignon in which country?

a) Australia
b) New Zealand
c) South Africa
d) Germany
193) Which AC would include the sub region of Pessac-Léognan?

a) Médoc
b) Haut-Médoc
c) Graves
d) St. Émilion
194) Pauillac AC and Margaux AC are located within which region?

a) Médoc
b) Haut-Médoc
c) Graves
d) Pomerol
195) Which AC is a classic Merlot-dominated region?
a) Pauillac
b) Graves
c) Margaux
196) A premium region for producing Merlot and Cabernet Sauvignon in South Africa is:
a) Coastal
b) Coonawarra
c) Stellenbosch
d) Walker Bay
197) Which grape brings richness and softness to an Australian Cabernet Sauvignon?
a) Carmenère
b) Grenache
c) Merlot
d) Shiraz
198) Cachapoal and Colchagua are part of which greater region?

a) Casablanca
b) Maipo
c) Mendoza
d) Rapel
199) Which Bordeaux grape is not an important black grape variety in Chile?
b) Carmenère
c) Malbec
d) Merlot
200) Which of the following varietals is not added to soften Cabernet Sauvignon in a blend from Chile?
a) Carmenère
b) Malbec
c) Merlot
201) A typically hot climate country, what significant factor helps cool vineyards in Argentina?
a) Cool breezes
b) Drip irrigation
c) Altitude
d) All of the above
202) Premium California Merlot is best described as which of the following?
a) Medium-bodied, aromas and flavours of red fruit and earth
b) Full-bodied with savour, meaty aromas and flavours
c) Full-bodied with aromas and flavours of black fruit and fruitcake
d) Medium-bodied with aromas and flavours of mushroom and leather
203) Which region produces wines that may include ‘eucalyptus’ as an aroma descriptor?
a) Rutherford
b) Pauillac
c) Mendoza
d) Coonawarra
204) Cabernet Sauvignon and Merlot make great blending partners for which of the following reasons?
a) Merlot contributes body and alcohol to add balance to the blend
b) Merlot adds softness to a wine that might otherwise be too austere
c) Cabernet adds acidity and tannin helping the wines age for longer periods of time
d) Both B and C
205) A typical aroma profile of Cabernet Sauvignon includes which of the following?
a) Black cherry, fruitcake, chocolate, and mint
b) Blackberry, black cherry, leather, and smoke
c) Blackcurrant, black cherry, bell pepper, and mint
d) Black cherry, blueberry, smoked meat, and black pepper
Chapter 10 – Sauvignon Blanc
206) Which of the following statements about Sauvignon Blanc is false?

a) It is an aromatic varietal
b) It is usually high in acidity and light to medium bodied
c) It needs a warm climate to show its herbaceous character
d) It does not typically benefit from bottle aging
207) Sauvignon Blanc is suited for Sauternes because:

a) Its neutral character develops complexity over time
b) Its high acidity compliments the sweetness
c) It is never aged in oak
d) It grows well in the hot climate of Bordeaux
208) Which pair of villages are the classic home for Loire Sauvignon Blanc?
a) Sancerre and Pouilly-Fumé
b) Sancerre and Pouilly-Fuissé
c) Sauternes and Pouilly-Fuissé
d) Sauternes and Pouilly-Fumé
209) Sémillon and Sauvignon Blanc are blended in Bordeaux because:
a) Sauvignon Blanc lacks acidity, adding Semillon increases aging potential
b) Sémillon is an aromatic grape that can help bring flavour to Sauvignon Blanc
c) Sauvignon Blanc benefits from additional body brought to the blend by Sémillon
b) All of the above
210) Which Bordeaux AC is home to top quality Sauvignon Blanc?

a) Médoc
b) Pomerol
c) Graves
d) St. Émilion
211) The new classic for Sauvignon Blanc in New Zealand is found in:
a) Hawke’s Bay
b) Marlborough
c) Central Otago
d) Walker Bay
212) The new classic of New Zealand Sauvignon Blanc can best be described as:
a) Dry, high acidity, neutral aromas
b) Off-dry, high acidity, pungent aromas
c) Dry, high acidity, pungent aromas
d) Off-dry, low acidity, neutral aromas
213) Where is the best Sauvignon Blanc in Australia found?

a) Hunter Valley
b) Adelaide Hills
c) McLaren Vale
d) Margaret River
214) Most of California is not suited to growing a herbaceous Sauvignon Blanc because:
a) The soils are too fertile
b) The climate is too warm
c) The weather is too dry
215) An oaked style of Sauvignon Blanc particular to California is:

a) Sauvignon Fumé
b) Pouilly-Fumé
c) Pinot Fumé
d) Fumé Blanc
216) Fruit-forward Sauvignon Blanc is emerging in which pair of Chilean wine regions?
a) Maipo and Colchagua
c) Rapel and Cachapoal
d) Mendoza and Cafayate
217) South African Sauvignon Blanc can best be summarised as:

a) Oak- and bottle-aged similar to the Bordeaux style
b) Pungent and fruit-driven similar to the New Zealand style
c) Both a & b
d) Neither a nor b
218) Which of the following is not a source for large volume, inexpensive Sauvignon Blanc in France?
a) Touraine AC
b) Mâcon AC
c) Bordeaux AC
d) Pays d’Oc IGP
219) Which country is not a major source of inexpensive varietal Sauvignon Blanc?
a) Argentina
b) Chile
c) France
d) South Africa
220) The most important blending grape with Sauvignon Blanc is:
a) Chardonnay
b) Chenin Blanc
c) Semillon
d) Viognier
221) A Sauvignon Blanc described as herbaceous with green fruit and high acidity is likely from:
a) A cool climate
b) A moderate climate
c) A maritime climate
d) A Continental climate
222) Which region is not considered ‘cool climate’ for growing Sauvignon Blanc?
a) Casablanca, Chile
b) Elgin, South Africa
c) Napa Valley, California
d) Sancerre, Loire Valley
223) Which of the following statements is true regarding Sauvignon Blanc?
a) Most examples will age well due to high levels of acidity
b) Sauvignon Blancs from the Loire Valley often display a steely character similar to Chablis
c) It grows well in moderate climates, but most suitable vineyards are already planted with Chardonnay
d) Both A and B
224) Argentina is emerging as a significant producer of high-quality Sauvignon Blanc?

a) True
b) False
225) Which of the following statements is true regarding blending Semillon and Sauvignon Blanc?
a) Sauvignon Blanc ages well on its own, but Semillon adds a rich, weighty texture to aged wines
b) Sauvignon Blanc adds refreshing acidity and pronounced aromatics to a blend
c) The very best blends with gain earth and mushroom aromas and complexity with age
d) All of the above
Chapter 11 – Syrah and Grenache
226) Outside France, which country has sustained an international reputation for quality Syrah?
a) Spain
b) Australia
c) United States
d) Argentina
227) Which flavour profile best describes a Syrah?

a) Strawberry, mushroom, and barnyard
228) Which of the following would be a good description of a Syrah grape?

a) Large berries, thin skins, and low acidity
b) Small berries, thin skins, and medium acidity
c) Small berries, thick skins, and medium acidity
d) Large berries, thick skins, and high acidity
229) Smoked meat, pepper, and herbaceousness are characteristic of a Syrah from:
a) A continental climate
c) A hot climate
d) A maritime climate
230) Which of the following would be a good description of a Grenache grape?
231) Which flavour profile best describes a Grenache?

a) Strawberry, raspberry, and white pepper
232) Grenache is used to blend with Syrah to bring:

a) Higher tannin and lower alcohol
b) Lower tannin and higher alcohol
c) Higher tannin and higher alcohol
d) Lower tannin and lower alcohol
233) Syrah is used to blend with Grenache to bring:

a) Deep colour and low acidity
b) Light colour and high acidity
c) Deep colour and high acidity
d) Light colour and low acidity
234) A GSM in Australia refers to a blend of:

a) Grenache-Syrah-Merlot
b) Grenache-Sauvignon-Merlot
c) Grenache-Syrah-Mourvèdre
d) Grenache-Sauvignon-Mourvèdre
235) The classic region for Syrah is:

a) The Northern Rhône
b) The Southern Rhône
c) The Left Bank
d) The Right Bank
236) Among the best appellations for Syrah are:

a) St. Emilion and Pomerol
b) Côte-Rôtie and Hermitage
c) Chambertin and Montrachet
d) Margaux and Pauillac
237) Which region would see red wines made mostly from Grenache?
a) Côtes du Rhone
b) Côte de Beaune
c) Côte-Rotie
d) Côte de Nuits
238) “Côtes du Rhône Villages” on a label would indicate:

a) The wine is barrel-aged
b) The wine is sourced from the better vineyards in the region
c) The wine is made from 100% Syrah
d) All of the above
239) A typical Châteauneuf-du-Pape is best described as:

a) Full-bodied, strong-tannins, and high acidity
b) Medium-bodied, light tannins, and low acidity
c) Full-bodied, medium tannins, and low acidity
d) Light-bodied, medium tannins, and medium acidity
240) The best expression of Garnacha in Spain is from which region?

a) Penedès
b) Rioja
c) Navarra
d) Priorat
241) A moderate climate region for Shiraz in Australia is:

a) Hunter Valley
b) Heathcote
c) McLaren Vale
d) Barossa Valley
242) In Minervois, Grenache is often blended with:

a) Syrah
b) Mourvèdre
c) Carignan
d) All of the above
243) Blending Shiraz from different regions in Australia allows for:

a) Different characteristics to contribute to overall complexity
b) Vintage expression
c) The winemaker to have greater control over how grapes are managed
d) All of the above
244) Based on a northern Rhône tradition, which white grape is sometimes blended with Shiraz?
a) Chardonnay
b) Sauvignon Blanc
c) Viognier
d) Semillon
245) Which of these appellations is located in the Southern Rhône?

a) Hermitage AC
b) Côte-Rôtie AC
c) Châteauneuf-du-Pape AC
d) Minervois AC
246) The main grapes of Languedoc-Roussillon are:

a) Grenache and Syrah
b) Chenin Blanc and Sauvignon Blanc
c) Riesling and Pinot Gris
d) Merlot and Cabernet Sauvignon
247) Shiraz is the most widely grown grape in Australia?

a) True
b) False
248) Which of the following varieties might be included in a wine labelled ‘GSM’?
a) Mataro
b) Mourvèdre
c) Shiraz
d) All of the above
249) Which of the following is true regarding Grenache?

a) It is the fourth most widely planted grape throughout the world
b) Most Grenache is planted throughout Spain and France
c) It’s berries are small with thick skins and high sugar levels
d) It makes wines that are deep in colour and high in alcohol
250) Which of the following Rhône villages are permitted to add their village name to the label?
a) Crozes-Hermitage
b) Côte-Rôtie
c) Châteauneuf-du-Pape
d) All of the above
Chapter 12 – Riesling
251) In a moderate climate, Riesling develops flavours of:

a) Asparagus, pea, and gooseberry
b) Green apple, mineral, and lychee
c) Lime, floral, and white peach
d) Vanilla, coconut, and hazelnut
252) Naturally high acidity in Riesling means:

a) It is suitable for late-harvesting when conditions are right
b) It should be consumed young and does not have potential to develop further
c) Oak aging is often used to contribute to balance and complexity
253) A basic Riesling in Germany is categorised as:

a) Liebfraumilch
b) Qualitätswein
c) Prädikatswein
d) Spätlese
254) What is the determining factor for each of the German Prädikatswein levels?
a) Vineyard site
b) Vintage
c) Sugar levels
d) Price
255) In order of sweetest to driest, which of the following is correct?

a) Kabinett, Spätlese, Auslese, Beerenauslese
b) Beerenauslese, Auslese, Spätlese, Kabinett
c) Auslese, Beerenauslese, Spätlese, Kabinett
d) Spätlese, Kabinett, Auslese, Beerenauslese
256) Which Prädikatswein translates to English as “late harvest?”

a) Eiswein
b) Auslese
c) Spätlese
d) Liebfraumilch
257) Which of the following would likely be the lightest in body and express more green apple flavours?
a) Mosel Kabinett
b) Mosel Auslese
c) Rheingau Kabinett
d) Rheingau Auslese
258) Bernkastel is a key village in which German region?
a) Pfalz
b) Mosel
c) Rheingau
d) Baden
259) Forst and Deidesheim are key villages in which German region?
a) Mosel
b) Baden
c) Rheingau
d) Pfalz
260) Riesling characteristics in Alsace vary greatly because:

a) Winemaking techniques remain the same among producers
b) The climate of Alsace is drastically varied from site to site
c) Long, dry autumns yield different results in different vineyards
d) The geology of Alsace is very complicated
261) A bottle-aged, premium Riesling will develop which hallmark character?

a) Hazelnuts
b) Green apple
c) Petrol
d) Lime
262) Beyond Germany and Alsace, a key Riesling-producing country in Europe is:
a) Italy
b) Spain
c) Austria
d) Hungary
263) Which pair of regions produces Australia’s signature Rieslings?

a) Clare Valley and Eden Valley
b) Barossa Valley and McLaren Vale
c) Yarra Valley and Hunter Valley
d) Mornington Peninsula and Margaret River
264) A pronounced character of Australian Riesling is:

a) Stone fruit flavours (white peach, apricot)
b) Tropical flavours (mango, pineapple)
c) Vegetal flavours (bell pepper, asparagus)
d) Citrus flavours (lemon, lime)
265) A bulk-produced, branded, medium-sweet German white wine is likely to be:
a) 100% Riesling
b) Mostly Riesling with other varietals
c) Roughly half Riesling, half other varietals
d) Mostly other varietals with little or no Riesling
266) At the premium level, which of the following statements about Riesling is false?
a) Riesling develops a smoky, honeyed complexity with age
b) The high acidity helps Riesling age for a long time
c) Riesling is often blended with an aromatic varietal for added depth
d) Riesling rarely sees oak
267) In Australia, which of the following grapes is sometimes blended with Riesling?
a) Chardonnay
b) Semillon
c) Viognier
d) Gewurztraminer
268) Which of the following is a Riesling?

a) Welschriesling
b) Olaszrizling
c) Piesporter Riesling
d) Laski Rizling
269) The Vosges Mountains shelter which French region?

a) Alsace
b) Burgundy
c) The Northern Rhône
d) Bordeaux
270) On a Mosel-sourced label marked Piesporter Goldtröpfchen Spätlese, which word indicates the village?
a) Piesporter (from Piesport)
b) Goldtröpfchen (from Goldtröpfche)
c) Spätlese (from Spätle)
d) None of the above; there is no easy way to determine a village on this label
271) Where do most premium Alsatian wines, like Riesling and Pinot Gris, grow in New Zealand?
a) South Island
b) North Island
c) Hawke’s Bay
d) Martinborough
272) Examples of Riesling from the Rheinghau will exhibit:
a) More body and exotic fruit notes of mango and pineapple
b) Smoky petrol-like aromas
c) Medium body and a drier style
d) Wines that are always off-dry
273) Which of the following statements is true:

a) Riesling has the ability to express nuances of individual vineyard sites
b) Riesling retains high acidity and herbaceous notes even when harvested late
c) The term Grosses Gewächs/Erstes Gewächs indicates a high quality, off-dry wine from riper grapes
d) Both a & b
274) German labels frequently include the village name and vineyard area.
a) True
b) False
275) Most cheap medium-sweet wines in Germany are labelled “Erstes Gewachs”.
a) True
b) False
Chapter 13 – Other White Grape Varieties and White Wines
276) Gewurztraminer is best described as:

a) Medium-bodied with medium alcohol
b) Full-bodied with high alcohol
c) Light-bodied with light alcohol
d) Any of the above; it depends on the sweetness
277) The main grape used in a range of styles in Touraine is:

a) Sauvignon Blanc
b) Chenin Blanc
c) Pinot Blanc
d) Melon Blanc
278) The main appellation for Chenin Blanc in Touraine is:

a) Vouvray AC
b) Volnay AC
c) Vougeot AC
d) Viognier AC
279) A winemaking technique that is popular in Muscadet is:
a) Barrel fermentation
b) Prolonged new oak barrel aging
c) Aging wines on their lees
d) Short skin contact to create a pink-coloured wine
280) The grape of Muscadet is:

a) Pinot Blanc
b) Sauvignon Blanc
c) Melon Blanc
d) Chenin Blanc
281) Pinot Gris is known by which name in Italy?

a) Pinot Nero
b) Pinot Grigio
c) Pinot Bianco
d) Pinto Friuli
282) The grape of Soave is:

a) Garganega
b) Cortese
c) Trebbiano
d) Verdicchio
283) Gavi DOCG is located in which part of Italy?

a) Piemonte
b) Veneto
c) Tuscany
d) Sicilia
284) The main grape of Gavi DOCG is:

a) Cortese
b) Garganega
c) Verdicchio
d) Trebbiano
285) Albariño is the white grape of which region?

a) Priorat
b) Rioja
c) Rueda
d) Rías Baixas
286) South Africa’s most widely planted white grape is:
a) Chenin Blanc
b) Sauvignon Blanc
c) Chardonnay
d) Semillon
287) A common bulk white blend from South Africa is:

a) Chardonnay/Semillon
b) Chardonnay/Chenin Blanc
c) Chardonnay/Sauvignon Blanc
d) Chardonnay/Viognier
288) Which region is famous for light-bodied, complex Semillon?

a) Clare Valley
b) Eden Valley
c) Hunter Valley
d) Yarra Valley
289) Torrontés is best described as:

a) An aromatic white wine with medium body and high alcohol
b) A neutral white wine with full-body and medium alcohol
c) A soft tannin red wine with light body and medium alcohol
d) A high tannin red wine with full-body and high alcohol
290) The best examples of Torrontés come from which region in Argentina?
a) Cafayate
b) Casablanca
c) Mendoza
d) Colchagua
291) Typical aromas and flavours for Pinot Gris in Alsace include:
a) Lemon, chamomile, and honey
b) Spice, tropical fruits, and honey
c) Rose, clove and banana
292) Typical aromas and flavours of Soave include:

a) Lemon, fennel, and bitter almond
b) Chamomile, green fruit, and white pepper
c) Simple green apple and citrus
d) Ginger, banana, and melon
293) Trebbiano is an Italian white grape known for producing low-acid varietal wines
a) True
b) False
294) The main grape grown in the Marche region of Italy is:
a) Garganega
b) Verdicchio
c) Cortese
d) Pinot Gris
295) The Albariño grape is known for producing which of the following:
a) High-acid, lightly-oaked white wines from Portugal
b) Light to medium bodied red wines from Rías Baixas
c) Unoaked white wines with fresh green and citrus fruit character
d) Complex, medium-bodied white wines from the north coast of Spain
Chapter 14 – Other Black Grape Varieties and Red Wines
296) Light, soft-tannin wines of Beaujolais are made from:

a) Pinot Noir
b) Pinot Meunier
c) Gamay
d) Grenache
297) Which of these is not a village in Beaujolais?

a) Morgon
b) Brouilly
c) Minervois
d) Moulin-à-Vent
298) Although all are made from Gamay, which of the following is an incorrect labeling?
a) Beaujolais AC
b) Beaujolais Nouveau AC
c) Beaujolais Villages AC
d) Beaujolais Fleurie AC
299) How many Beaujolais villages are there in total?

a) 4
b) 10
c) 16
d) 22
300) Beaujolais Nouveau is released in which month?
a) September
b) October
c) November
d) December
301) The term Classico on an Italian label indicates:

a) The wine is made from Nebbiolo
b) The wine comes from a historic centre of a wine region
c) The wine has been aged for a minimum period
d) The wine uses Italian and French grapes
302) The term riserva on an Italian wine label indicates:

a) The wine has been aged for a minimum period
b) The wine is of a lower minimum alcohol
c) The wine is from the best vineyards
d) None of the above; it has no legal implications
303) Which of these words do not relate to a red wine from Piemonte?
a) Brunello
b) Barolo
c) Barbera
d) Barbaresco
304) Which grape is used to make Barolo?

a) Nebbiolo
b) Corvina
c) Sangiovese
d) Montepulciano
305) Lighter tannins, red-fruit, black pepper and high acidity is indicative of a wine made from:
a) Aglianico
b) Primitivo
c) Negroamaro
d) Barbera
306) Full-body, high tannins, with red-fruit and earth character is indicative of a wine made from:
a) Corvina
b) Nebbiolo
c) Sangiovese
d) Primitivo
307) Which is the main grape of a Valpolicella blend?
a) Corvina
b) Nebbiolo
c) Sangiovese
d) Primitivo
308) Which of these is a dry wine made from partially dried grapes?
a) Valpolicella
b) Valpolicella Classico
c) Amarone della Valpolicella
d) Recioto della Valpolicella
309) Chianti is dominated by which grape varietal?

a) Corvina
b) Nebbiolo
c) Sangiovese
d) Aglianico
310) Which of these wines is not made with Sangiovese?

a) Chianti Classico
b) Brunello di Montalcino
c) Montepulciano d’Abruzzo
311) Which grape is the same as Zinfandel?

a) Negroamaro
b) Primitivo
c) Aglianico
d) Corvina
312) A Taurasi DOCG is made from 100%:

a) Nebbiolo
b) Barbera
c) Aglianico
d) Primitivo
313) Which pair of regions is represents a red-only and a white-only appellation?

a) Barolo and Barbaresco
b) Valpolicella and Soave
c) Chianti and Brunello
d) Gavi and Castelli di Jesi
314) Which term does not appear on a Spanish label?
a) Gran Reserva
b) Riserva
c) Reserva
315) List the following Spanish wine labelling terms in order, from least to most aged?
a) Joven, Gran Reserva, Reserva, Crianza
b) Crianza, Joven, Reserva, Gran Reserva
c) Joven, Crianza, Reserva, Gran Reserva
d) Reserva, Gran Reserva, Crianza, Joven
316) In Spain, the term Crianza indicates a wine that will show characteristics of extensive aging?
a) True
b) False
317) The most important region for premium red wines in Spain is:
a) Rías Baixas
b) Rioja
c) Catalunya
d) Navarra
318) In which region is Tempranillo not a significant red grape?

a) Rioja DOCa
b) Priorat DOCa
c) Ribera del Duero DO
d) Navarra DO
319) A black grape unique in South Africa is:

a) Shiraz
b) Carmenère
c) Pinotage
d) Cinsault
320) Which style of wine is the Zinfandel grape largely used for?
a) Bulk, off-dry rosé
b) Premium, dry rosé
c) Light bodied sparkling wines
d) Premium sparkling red wines
321) The most complex and intense Zinfandels in California are made from:
a) Grapes grown at high-altitudes
b) Grapes picked from old vines
c) Grapes sourced from vineyards near the Pacific
d) Grapes irrigated in hot climates
322) Which Bordeaux varietal is the most important black grape variety in Argentina?
a) Shiraz
b) Carmenère
c) Malbec
d) Merlot
323) Where is Tempranillo used or added to blends to produce good to premium-quality red wines?
a) Rioja DOCa
b) Ribera Del Duero DOC
c) Navarra DO
d) All of the above
324) Garnacha adds alcohol and spice to a blend with Tempranillo?

a) True
b) False
325) Aglianico is the main grape variety in Campania and Basilicata?

a) True
b) False
Section 3: Other Styles of Wine

Chapter 15 – Sparkling Wines
326) Broadly speaking, two categories of sparkling wine are:

a) Barrel-fermented and Tank-fermented
b) Barrel-fermented and Bottle-fermented
c) Bottle-fermented and Tank-fermented
d) Bottle-fermented and Secondary-fermented
327) Generally speaking, how much will the alcohol increase when a base wine is made sparkling?
a) 1 – 2%
b) 4 - 6%
c) 10 - 12%
d) 15 – 20%
328) Interrupting fermentation by chilling the wine & filtering out the yeast results in a sparkling wine that is:
a) Sweet with low alcohol
b) Sweet with high alcohol
c) Dry with low alcohol
d) Dry with high alcohol
329) Which style of sparkling wine does not see secondary fermentation in tanks?
a) Asti
b) Cava
c) Prosecco
d) Sekt
330) Glera forms the base to which sparkling wine?

a) Asti
b) Cava
c) Prosecco
d) Sekt
331) Sweet, fruity, and light-bodied best describes which sparkling wine?
a) Asti
b) Brut Champagne
c) Cava
d) All of the above
332) In which pair of countries is Sekt made?

a) Austria and Germany
b) Italy and France
c) Spain and Portugal
d) Chile and Argentina
333) Deutscher Sekt can only be made from grapes from which country?
a) Austria
b) Germany
c) France
d) Switzerland
334) Which factor adds bready complexity to a bottle-fermented sparkling wine?

a) Aging wines in oak barrels
b) Extended contact with dead yeast cells
c) Adding a mixture of sugar and yeasts
d) Adding a mixture of sugar and wine
335) What is the correct order for the production of a bottle-fermented sparkling wine?
a) Second-fermentation, yeast autolysis, disgorge, dosage
b) Dosage, second-fermentation, yeast autolysis, disgorge
c) Second-fermentation, disgorge, dosage, yeast autolysis
d) Yeast autolysis, disgorge, second-fermentation, dosage
336) What is added to a base wine to inaugurate a second-fermentation in a bottle-fermented sparkling wine?
a) Sugar and wine
b) Sugar and yeast
c) Yeast and wine
337) Biscuity, bready flavours in a bottle-fermented sparkling wine are described as:
a) Frizzante
b) Autolytic
c) Dosage
d) Remuage
338) “Riddling” refers to which part of the traditional method of making sparkling wine?
a) Adding sugar and yeast to start a second-fermentation
b) Aging sparkling wines on their lees
c) Turning the bottles to collect yeast cells at the neck
d) Removing dead yeast cells and topping up with a sugar and wine mixture
339) The purpose for disgorging a bottle-fermented wine is to:

a) Add carbon-dioxide to the wine
b) Add extra levels of alcohol to the wine
c) Remove surplus wine
d) Remove dead yeast cells
340) Which term refers to the addition of a sugar/wine mixture to a traditional method sparkling wine?
a) Tirage
b) Remuage
c) Dégorgement
d) Dosage
341) Which of the following involves emptying bottle-fermented wines into tank?
a) Tank Method
b) Traditional Method
c) Transfer Method
d) Tasting Method
342) The term ‘brut’ refers to a sparkling wine that is:
a) Full-sparkling
b) Lightly-sparkling
c) Tastes dry
d) Tastes medium-sweet
343) Which of the following is not a traditional method sparkling wine?

a) Cava
b) Champagne
c) Crémant
d) Prosecco
344) Which of the following is not a grape of Champagne?

a) Chardonnay
b) Pinot Blanc
c) Pinot Meunier
d) Pinot Noir
345) Due to the very cool climate, most Champagnes:

a) Are of the same vintage
b) Are a blend of different vintages
c) Are sweet from noble rot
d) Are dry
346) What is the minimum legal period for aging Champagne on its lees?
a) 6 months
b) 12 months
c) 15 months
d) 18 months
347) The term Grandes Marques refers to:

a) A vintage champagne
b) A famous Champagne house
c) A supermarket-branded Champagne
d) A co-operative-owned Champagne brand
348) The term Crémant refers to:

a) A bottle-fermented sparkling wine from anywhere in France
b) A tank-fermented sparkling wine from anywhere in France
c) A bottle-fermented sparkling wine from the Loire Valley only
d) A tank-fermented sparkling wine from the Loire Valley only
349) Saumur is a key region for sparkling wines made from which grape?
a) Chardonnay
b) Chenin Blanc
c) Pinot Noir
d) Sauvignon Blanc
350) Cava refers to:

a) A tank-fermented sparkling wine from Italy
b) A tank-fermented sparkling wine from Spain
c) A bottle-fermented sparkling wine from Italy
d) A bottle-fermented sparkling wine from Spain
351) Which French grape is occasionally used in the production of Cava?

a) Chardonnay
b) Chenin Blanc
c) Pinot Meunier
d) Pinot Noir
352) Which grape would feature in a premium bottle-fermented sparkling wine from California?
b) Merlot
c) Pinot Noir
d) Zinfandel
353) Chile has earned a reputation for the producing high volumes of sparkling wine?
a) True
b) False
354) Which country specialises in the production of sparkling red wine?

a) Australia
b) Chile
c) France
d) Spain
355) Blending grapes between villages to maintain a consistent quality & style is especially important for:
a) Alsace Grand Cru
b) Chassagne-Montrachet
c) Non-Vintage Champagne
d) Sancerre
Chapter 16 – Sweet Wines
356) A wine may become sweet by:

a) Stopping the fermentation through the addition of alcohol
b) Adding a sweet component to the wine
c) Harvesting rotted grapes
d) All of the above
357) Which sweet wine is fortified to interrupt fermentation?

a) Oloroso Dulce Sherry
b) Pedro Ximénez
c) Rutherglen Muscat
d) Sauternes
358) Which Alsatian grape is often fortified in the Mediterranean to produce sweet wines?
a) Gewurztraminer
b) Muscat
c) Pinot Gris
d) Riesling
359) The German word for unfermented grape juice used to sweeten wine is:
a) Einzellage
b) Eiswein
c) Beerenauslese
d) Süssreserve
360) Which is not a method to concentrate sugars in grapes for making sweet wine?
a) Leaving the grapes on the vines for a later harvest
b) Soaking harvested grapes in alcohol
c) Drying the grapes on straw mats
d) Freezing the grapes
361) Which of the following styles of wine are not made from dried grapes?
a) Amarone
b) Recioto
c) Muscat Beaumes de Venise
d) Pedro Ximénez
362) Botrytis cinerea is a type of:

a) Mould
b) Grape
c) Sweet wine
d) Yeast
363) Which condition may lead to grey rot instead of noble rot?
a) Healthy, fully-ripened grapes
b) Misty mornings
c) Warm, sunny afternoons
d) Heavy rains
364) Which French region is not known for producing noble rot-affected wines?
a) Alsace
b) Bordeaux
c) Burgundy
d) Vouvray
365) Which is the main grape of Sauternes?

a) Chenin Blanc
b) Pinot Gris
c) Riesling
d) Sémillon
366) Which Central European country produces a sweet wine called Tokaji?
a) Croatia
b) Bulgaria
c) Hungary
d) Romania
367) How many puttonyos levels are there in Tokaji?

a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
368) Which German Prädikatswein is always made from grapes affected by noble rot?
a) Kabinett
b) Spätlese
c) Auslese
d) Beerenauslese
369) Which grape is likely to be the base for a Trockenbeerenauslese?

a) Chenin Blanc
b) Gewurztraminer
c) Riesling
d) Sémillon
370) Pinot Gris and Riesling are often used to make botrytis wine in which region?
a) Alsace
b) Bordeaux
c) Mosel
d) Vouvray
371) Which grape is the base of a sweet wine from Coteaux du Layon AC?
a) Chenin Blanc
b) Pinot Gris
c) Riesling
d) Semillon
372) Which grape is commonly used for botrytis-affected wines from Australia?
a) Chenin Blanc
b) Muscat
c) Pinot Gris
d) Semillon
373) Which country is not well-known for the production of icewine?

a) Austria
b) Canada
c) France
d) Germany
374) The concentrated sweetness of an icewine comes from:

a) A special mould that grows in cold conditions
b) Adding frozen wine during fermentation
c) Fermenting the wine at freezing temperatures
d) Removing ice crystals from frozen grapes
375) Which grape is the source of premium icewine in Germany?

a) Chardonnay
b) Pinot Gris
c) Sauvignon Blanc
d) Riesling
376) Which pair of grapes is high in acid, generally unoaked, and susceptible to noble rot?
a) Chardonnay and Viognier
b) Pinot Gris and Gewurztraminer
c) Torrontés and Muscat
d) Chenin Blanc and Riesling
377) The term Eiswein indicates a sweet wine most greatly affected by noble rot
a) True
b) False
378) Sweet fortified Muscat wines are at their best following extensive bottle aging
a) True
b) False
379) Which of the following is an example of a Vins Doux Naturels?

a) Muscat de Rivesaltes
b) Pedro Ximénez
d) Vouvray AC
380) Which of the following styles of sherry differs from the others?
a) Fino
b) Amontillado
c) Pedro Ximénez
d) Oloroso
Chapter 17 – Sherry and Port
381) What is the name of the Spanish region that produces Sherry?
a) Catalunya
b) Jerez de la Frontera
c) La Mancha
d) Rioja
382) Which of the following best describes the sweetness level of Sherry?
a) Dry
b) Medium
c) Sweet
d) All of the above
383) The neutral, low acid grape responsible for Sherry production is:
a) Airén
b) Albariño
c) Flor
d) Palomino
384) What is the name of the aging technique responsible for producing Sherry?
a) Gran Reserva
b) Solera System
c) Sur lie
d) Traditional Method
385) What is largely responsible for the flavour profile of Sherry?

a) Aging process
b) Hot climate
c) Grape varietal
d) Soil type
386) Which style of sherry is not pale in colour?

a) Amontillado
b) Fino
c) Manzanilla
d) Pale Cream
387) What role does flor play in Sherry?

a) It is a type of white, chalky soil unique to the region
b) It is a type of grape that is neutral in flavour
c) It is an aging process that allows for blending from many different vintages
d) It is a type of yeast that forms a protective layer on the wine
388) Which of the following styles of Sherry is dry?

a) Pale Cream
b) Manzanilla
c) PX
389) Which style of Sherry has alcohol added during the aging process to kill yeast?
a) Amontillado
b) Fino
c) Manzanilla
d) Pedro Ximénez
390) Which style of sherry is fortified to 18% and is oxidative in character?

a) Amontillado
b) Fino
c) Manzanilla
d) Oloroso
391) Which style of Sherry is both the name of a grape and a sweet, sun-dried wine?
a) Amontillado
b) Manzanilla
c) Oloroso
d) Pedro Ximénez
392) How does Port become a sweet wine?

a) Fermentation is halted with the addition of alcohol
b) Noble rot affects ripe grapes on the vines
c) Red grapes are dried on straw mats to concentrate sugars
d) Unfermented grape juice is added to the final wine
393) Which style of Port is the most basic red?

a) LBV
b) Tawny
c) Ruby
d) Vintage
394) Which style of Port will have oxidative, kernel flavours?

a) Reserve Ruby
b) Vintage
c) LBV
d) Reserve Tawny
395) Which style of Port is from a single year?

a) 20-Year Tawny
b) LBV
c) Ruby
d) White
396) A 20-Year Tawny indicates a wine that:

a) Has matured in a Solera for an average of 20 years
b) Has matured in barrels for an average of 20 years
c) Is made from grapes harvested at least 20 years ago
d) Has the potential to age for 20 years
397) Which style of fortified wine is best served at room temperature?

a) Fino Sherry
b) Manzanilla Sherry
c) Ruby Port
d) Rutherglen Muscat
398) Which style of Port must be decanted?
a) Reserve Ruby
b) Vintage
c) Reserve Tawny
d) 40-year Tawny
399) Which of the following is not typical of Reserve Tawny Ports?

a) Wines must be aged in small barrels
b) Wines will have an oxidative style
c) Wines must be aged at least 10 years
d) Wines will be tawny in colour
400) Almost all sherry begins with a dry, low acid, neutral white wines from the Albariño grape?
a) True
b) False
Section 4: Spirits
Chapter 18 – Tasting and Evaluating Spirits
401) How much of a spirit should you pour in a tasting glass?

a) ¼ the amount you would of wine
b) ½ the amount you would of wine
c) ¾ the amount you would of wine
d) The same amount you would of wine
402) On appearance, a non-faulted spirit should be:

a) Golden
b) White
c) Clear
d) Brown
403) Water is added in what ratio to a spirit being tasted?

a) ¼
b) ½
c) ¾
d) Equal part
404) Why is water added when tasting spirits?

a) Water helps release aromatic compounds
b) Water makes the spirit more approachable on the palate
c) Both a & b
d) Neither a nor b
405) Which style of spirit should have a short, simple finish?
a) Cognac
b) Barrel-aged Rum
c) Whisky
d) Vodka
406) Which style of spirit should be light in body?

a) Cognac
b) Pot-still Rum
c) Malt Whisky
d) Vodka
407) Spirits may gain sweetness from wood as they age

a) True
b) False
408) Sugar may be added to some spirits for sweetness

a) True
b) False
409) Rum made in a pot still will typically be full-bodied

a) True
b) False
410) Cork taint affects spirits and wine equally

a) True
b) False
Chapter 19 – The Distillation Process
411) Distillation is defined as:

a) A process that separates the alcohol from other constituents of an alcoholic mixture
b) A process that converts sugars into alcohol
c) A process that converts the suns energy into sugars
d) A process that brings water to a boil
412) Distillation allows for the creation of spirits because:

a) Ethanol boils at a higher temperature than water
b) Ethanol boils at a lower temperature than water
c) Ethanol and water boil at the same temperature
d) Ethanol is a by-product of the distillation process
413) After the distillation process, what is largely left behind?
a) Water
b) Colour compounds
c) Sugars
d) All of the above
414) Which vapour component of a distilling liquid contains the highest proportion of ethanol?
a) Heads
b) Foreshots
c) Hearts
d) Tails
415) Which of the following is the correct order in pot still distillation?
a) Still-head, Condenser, Swan’s Neck
b) Condenser, Swan’s Neck, Still-head
c) Still-head, Swan’s Neck, Condenser
d) Swan’s Neck, Condenser, Still-head
416) As a general rule, a higher strength spirit will:

a) Be lighter in flavour and character
b) Need to mature in oak
c) Be subject to more impurities
d) All of the above
417) Which of the following statements about a newly distilled spirit is true:
a) The spirit is water-white
b) The spirit is bone dry
c) The spirit is low in acid
d) All of the above
418) Oak maturation will have which of the following effects on a spirit?
a) Colouring
b) Flavour
c) Tannins
d) All of the above
419) Column still are made using simple designs with few variations:
a) True
b) False
420) Column distillation is loosely defined as many mini-distillations continually occurring on different levels
concentrating the alcohol vapours as they rise:
a) True
b) False
Chapter 20 – Spirit Categories and Styles
421) The distillation of wine results in which spirit?

a) Brandy
b) Gin
c) Vodka
d) Whisky
422) Cognac and Armagnac are located near which French wine region?
a) Alsace
b) Bordeaux
c) Burgundy
d) Champagne
423) Which order of terms is correct for Cognac, youngest to oldest?

a) VS, VSOP, XO
b) VSOP, VS, XO
c) XO, VS, VSOP
d) XO, VSOP, XO
424) The process of changing starches into fermentable sugars is called:

a) Compounding
b) Conversion
c) Distillation
d) Maceration
425) A 12-year Scotch whisky indicates a spirit that :

a) Has matured in a barrels for an average of 12 years
b) Has matured in barrels for a minimum of 12 years
c) Is made from grains harvested at least 12 years ago
d) Has the potential to age for 12 years
426) The minimum aging period for Scotch whisky is:

a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 4 years
d) 5 years
427) A malt whisky is made exclusively from:
a) Barley
b) Corn
c) Rye
d) Wheat
428) A single malt whisky must:

a) Use only corn as a base
b) Come from a single distillery
c) Age for at least 5 years in cask
d) All of the above
429) Which of the following statements about a grain whisky is true?

a) It must be made from maize only
b) It is made in a column still
c) It has complex flavours
d) Peat is usually a defining flavour
430) Labelling terms VS, VSOP, and XO are loosely defined and not legally mandated:
a) True
b) False
431) An Irish whiskey will generally use which base ingredient?

a) Agave
b) Barley
c) Maize
d) Wheat
432) Which is always the major component of Bourbon?

a) Agave
b) Barley
c) Corn
d) Wheat
433) Which factor is most responsible for the distinctive flavours of Bourbon?
a) Barley as a principle base ingredient
b) Filtration through maple wood charcoal
c) Maturation in charred American barrels
d) All of the above
434) By law, Armagnac must follows identical production procedures as in Cognac:

a) True
b) False
435) How does Tennessee whiskey differ from Bourbon?
a) Barley is used as a principle base ingredient
b) It can only be made in Kentucky
c) It is filtered through maple wood charcoal
d) It is matured in new American oak barrels
436) Which material is most commonly used as the principle base for rum?
a) Agave
b) Barley
c) Molasses
d) Corn
437) Scotch Whisky must be both distilled in Scotland and aged for a minimum of 2 years
a) True
b) False
438) Which of the following is not a style of rum?

a) White
b) Silver
c) Golden
d) Dark
439) Flavours of fig, raisin, and clove best reflect which spirit?
a) Bourbon
b) Dark rum
c) Reposado tequila
d) Single malt scotch
440) Which style of tequila has seen the longest period of aging in oak?
a) Añejo
b) Golden
c) Oro
d) Reposado
441) Which of the following spirits is typically not aged?

a) Brandy
b) Tequila
c) Rum
d) Vodka
442) White rums are not a popular ingredient in cocktails as their strong flavours tend to dominate a blend:
a) True
b) False
443) Which spirit is most likely to be distilled to such a degree that traces of the base ingredient are not
perceptible?
a) Brandy
b) Tequila
c) Whisky
d) Vodka
444) Which of the following is used as a base for vodka?

a) Barley
b) Grapes
c) Potatoes
d) All of the above
445) Which of the following is not a common botanical used in the production of gin?
a) Angelica
b) Aniseed
c) Coriander
d) Juniper
446) London Dry Gin is a style of gin that:

a) Is re-distilled in a column still and is neutral in flavour
b) Is re-distilled in a pot still and is neutral in flavour
c) Is re-distilled in a column still and has intense flavours
d) Is re-distilled in a pot still and has intense flavours
447) Blended whiskies range in style but most brands remain consistent from year to year
a) True
b) False
448) A liqueur differs from a flavoured-spirit because:

a) A liqueur is coloured
b) A liqueur is sweetened
c) A spirit is naturally flavoured
d) A spirit is generally less expensive
449) Brandy is typically garnet or tawny in colour:

a) True
b) False
450) Rums aged in oak cask will gain which of the following:
a) Flavours of dried fruit and toffee
b) A spiciness from the oak
c) A smoother texture
d) All of the above
FINE VINTAGE LEVEL 2 PRACTICE EXAM ANSWERS
Section 1: Production, Quality and the Consumer

Chapter 1 – Tasting and Evaluating Wine
1) Which of the following conditions allows for the best impression of a wine?
b) A room that allows natural light
2) Which of the following colours best describes a red wine in its youth?
c) Purple
3) Which of the following colours best describes a white wine with some age?
a) Gold
4) Which of the following colours best describes a red wine with some age?
b) Garnet
5) Which of the following colours hints at a white wine that is youthful?

b) Green
6) A wine that does not show any fault on appearance is best described as:
a) Clear
7) A wine that exhibits odours of musty, damp cardboard is likely to have been effected by:
c) Cork Taint

a) Oloroso Sherry
9) The systematic approach to tasting would use which expression to describe a Chablis?
d) Green Apple
10) Sweetness in wine is tasted where on the palate?

a) Tip
11) Acidity in wine is tasted where on the palate?

d) Side
12) Which wine would likely show notes of high tannin?
c) Côte-Rôtie
13) Which factor(s) may contribute to a fuller-body wine?

a) Residual Sugar
14) A conclusion may rate a wine as very good because:

c) It expresses complex flavours that indicate the varietal and location
15) Which of the following best describes the appearance of a Napa Cabernet Sauvignon with significant age?
b) Clear, medium ruby-garnet
16) Which of the following would likely describe the nose of a New Zealand Sauvignon Blanc?
c) Clean, pronounced intensity
18) Which pair would indicate an Icewine of excellent quality that is in good balance?
c) High Acidity, high sweetness
19) Which of the following would likely describe the concluding notes for a Chambertin?
d) Outstanding Quality: long length, complex character, flavours typical of a Burgundian Grand Cru
20) Which might be an indicator of a high-quality wine?

b) A long, complex finish
Chapter 2 – Wine with Food
21) Which of the following is true about Sweetness in food when pairing with wine?
d) All of the above
23) Which of the following is true about Salt in food when pairing with wine?
d) Both B and C
24) In some instances the best pair for a high intensity dish, like curry, would be a low intensity wine.
a) True
25) Which of the following is true about Acidity in food?

b) Acidity in food decreases the perception of acidity in wine
26) Which of the following pairings is correct?

a) Salt in food decreases Acidity in wine
27) Salt can counteract the impact of Umami on a wine.
a) True
28) A person’s individual tastes do not play an important role in matching food and wine.
b) False
29) Chili Heat in food makes a wine taste:

b) Drier
30) Bitterness in food softens bitterness in wine.

b) False
d) Intensely fruit and low in tannin
32) A dish that is high in Umami should be paired with a heavily oaked white wine.
b) False
33) Which of these elements is not considered high risk in food?

a) Acidity
34) Which of these components is not considered low risk in wine?

a) Acidity
35) When pairing Champagne with oysters, which of the following statements is false?
c) Champagne is full-bodied and will complement the weighty texture of oysters
Chapter 3 – Factors Affecting Wine Style, Quality, and Price
36) Which of the following pairs are not found in a grape yet can impact the style of a wine?
d) Carbon Dioxide and Water
37) Tannin in wine can come from:

c) Both a and b
38) Which of the following factors needed to grow a vine is not affected by the vine’s environment?
c) Carbon Dioxide

40) An example of a grape that performs better in a cool climate but not in a warm climate is:
b) Pinot Noir
41) Warm ocean currents play a significant climatic role in:

c) Bordeaux
42) An example of an inland region with warmer summers and cooler winters is:
a) Burgundy
44) Significant rainfall will in the vineyard will not result in the following:
b) Chalky soils will hold water and impeded sugar production
45) Most of the world’s vineyards are found between which degrees of latitude?
c) 30 to 50
46) Which of the following factors hinders the production of sugars in the vineyard?
a) Extremely hot weather
47) Nutrients are provided to the vines through which source?

d) Soil
48) Which vineyard activity would result in the lowest labour costs?
c) Maximum mechanisation
49) Lower yields will generally result in a grape that is:

c) More expensive
50) An example of a pest or disease that is beneficial to grapes is:

d) Botrytis Cinerea
51) An example of a harvest likely done by machine is:

d) F rom vineyards on flatter land

53) The correct order for red winemaking is:

b) Crush, Fermentation, Press, Maturation
54) The correct order for rose winemaking is:

a) Crush, Skin Contact, Low-Temperature Fermentation, Maturation
55) Which of the following would result in the least cost when adding oak flavours to wine?
a) Oak essence
56) Fermenting and aging premium Chardonnay in oak barrels is most common in:
d) Burgundy
57) Which vessel would lead to maturation with oxygen?

a) OId oak vats
58) After which step of the winemaking process is the wine unlikely to improve?
d) Bottling
59) Which combination of factors would most likely increase the cost of a wine?
a) Steep vineyard, new French oak barrels, natural cork
60) Which of the following is the ultimate factor that determines the price of a wine?
c) Consumer’s expectations
61) Which of the following is a vineyard activity that contributes to full and even ripening?
b) Leaf positioning
62) Which of the following is true about climate and weather?

c) Vintage variation is largely dependent on weather
63) What is essential to sugar production in grapes?

c) Water, Sunlight, and Carbon Dioxide
64) What specific growing condition can result in a wine being overly sour, astringent, and lacking in fruit?
c) Vineyards at high altitudes far from the equator
65) Which of the following is true about mechanization in the vineyard?

b) It relies on suitable flat vineyards
Chapter 4 – Understanding the Label
66) Which of the following styles of wine is generally not dominated by a small number of large brands?
c) Bordeaux
67) In which month would a 2014 Marlborough Sauvignon Blanc have been harvested?
b) March, 2014

69) How many Spanish wine regions qualify to use the acronym DOCa?
c) 2
70) Which is correct acronym for the Italian equivalent of France’s Vin de Pays category?
c) IGT
71) In France, the PDO category is represented by which of the following?

b) Appellation d’Origine Contrôlée (AC or AOC)
72) Typically, wines with a geographical indication must adhere to which of the following?
b) Grapes must come from a designated area
73) Which of the following production techniques is limited to white wines only?
c) Barrel-fermented
74) Which labeling term would indicate a wine that would most likely deposit sediment as it ages?
b) Unfiltered
75) Which of the following German terms translates in English to ‘off-dry’ or ‘semi-sweet’?
a) Halbtrocken

c) Négociant
77) The term “organic” refers to which stage of the winemaking process?
a) Vineyard management
78) The term Cuvée indicates a blend from which of the following?
d) All of the above
79) What feature(s) do organic and biodynamic viticulture share?

a) They eschew the use of synthetic fertilisers
80) Which of the following is true?

b) Wine imported into the EU must adhere to EU production standards
81) Which of the following words does not translate as “dry”?

c) Sekt
82) The word rot on a German label informs us that the wine is:
b) Red
83) Sur lie informs us that the wine:

d) Has aged on dead yeast cells
84) Which country does not have legislation covering use of label terms?
85) Which region is the source of the majority of IGP wines in France?
c) Pays d’Oc
86) Which of the following is not a legally defined term in France?

a) Vielles Vignes
87) Which term indicates a German wine at its most basic level?
d) Landwein
88) How many Quality Regions are there in Germany?
c) 13
89) Which list is the correct order for Italian wine regions from basic to top?
c) IGT, DOC, DOCG
90) Which of the following is true regarding Prädikatswein in Germany?

Chapter 5 – Social Responsibility
91) Which of the following is not a category of alcohol legislation?

c) Maximum drinking age
92) Which is the acronym that refers to legislation for a minimum age to purchase alcohol?
c) LDA
c) 0.0 mg/mL – 0.8 mg/mL
94) An official “drink” is within which range of pure ethanol?

a) 8 g – 14 g
95) Which group receives no health benefits from moderate drinking?

c) Men under 30
96) At what rate does the body break down alcohol?

a) One standard drink per hour
97) The key organ that breaks down alcohol is the:

a) Liver
98) Intoxication increases the risk of:

d) All of the above

100) Which of the following statements is false?

d) All of the above
Chapter 6 – Storage and Service
101) Which is the best temperature range for long-term storage?

c) 10°C - 15°C
c) 18°C
103) Which of the following storage conditions would lead a cork to dry out?
104) Which style of wine could be served at the warmest temperature?

a) Still red wine
105) Which of the following red wines should be served at the coolest temperature?
b) Beaujolais
106) Which of these wines should be served at room temperature?

c) Vintage Port

108) An ice-bucket will efficiently chill a wine if:

c) The bucket is mostly full of equal parts ice and cold water
109) Which style of wine is best served in small glasses to emphasize fruit character rather than alcohol?
a) Fortified Wines
110) A red wine should be served in a larger-sized glass because:

c) A larger-sized glass allows for more air contact to release aroma and flavour characteristics
111) When opening a bottle of sparkling wine, one should always:

a) Hold the cork secure while loosening the cage
112) When opening an aged wine, why should one pour the wine over a light source?
b) It allows the pourer to see when the deposit gathers at the neck
113) The least efficient way to aerate a wine is to:

a) Open the bottle sometime before service
114) How many 125 mL glasses can be served from a single, standard wine bottle?
c) 6
115) A blanket system:

b) Adds a layer gas to protect remaining wine from oxidation
Section 2: Grape Varieties and Geographically Names Wines

Chapter 7 - Chardonnay

117) Which winemaking technique will impact the flavour of Chardonnay?
d) All of the above
118) Which flavour profile is not related to the impact of climate on Chardonnay?
b) Butter and hazelnut
119) Which of the following is a true statement about heavily oaked Chardonnay?
c) It tends to be full bodied with a weighty, creamy texture
120) Which of the following regions would Chardonnay most likely be unoaked?
a) Chablis
121) Which region is considered the heart of Burgundian Chardonnay?

b) Côte de Beaune

b) Pouilly-Fuissé
123) A region where altitude significantly influences the climate is:

b) Mendoza, Argentina
124) Which region is New Zealand’s main producer of premium Chardonnay?

b) Marlborough
125) Which of the following statements about California Chardonnay is false?

d) Cool breezes and morning mists slow the ripening in the Central Valley

a) Casablanca
127) Chardonnay is often used for inexpensive, bulk-production because:

b) It can tolerate a wide range of soils
128) Which region on a label would likely be an inexpensive, bulk-produced Chardonnay?

b) Central Valley
129) Which region would likely be the source of a highly-priced Chardonnay?

d) Meursault
130) Which grape often brings acidity to a blend with Chardonnay in Australia?
c) Semillon
131) Which grape brings an oily texture and peachy aromatics to a Chardonnay blend?
d) Viognier
132) Which winemaking technique would most likely be utilized to bring oaky flavours to a large-volume
Chardonnay?
d) Stainless steel fermentation, oak-stave addition, then bottling
133) The “Cono Sur 20 Barrels Limited Edition Chardonnay” from Chile is likely to be:
a) A premium white wine that has seen prolonged maturation in barriques
134) Which premium Chardonnay region is located in the Southern Hemisphere?

b) Casablanca
135) Mineral characters are more pronounced in Chardonnays labeled with:

b) Premier Cru
136) Which AC would be the most basic Chardonnay?

c) Bourgogne AC
137) Although widely grown, which region is not recognised for significant amounts of Chardonnay?
b) Coonawarra
138) A climatic factor that helps maintain cools vineyards in California is:
d) All of the above
139) Which of the following is true about Malolactic Fermentation:

c) It may be used to soften harsh acids in the wine
140) Which of the following wines and typical profiles represents a correct pair?
b) Meursault – Fuller body, citrus, stone, and tropical fruit aromas, high complexity
141) Which of the following is typically true of Chardonnay from Argentina:

d) Quality examples will most often come from vineyards at high altitudes
142) Which of the following statements is true regarding California Chardonnay

d) All of the above
143) Which of the following is not a typical blending partner for Chardonnay?
b) Sauvignon Blanc
144) Which of the following wine regions is unlike the others?

b) Marlborough
145) Which of the following is true about typical Chilean Chardonnay?

b) Quality vineyards are often cooled by sea breezes and morning fogs
Chapter 6 – Pinot Noir
146) Which of the following statements about Pinot Noir is true?

b) Pinot Noir may not need time in bottle to evolve attractive flavours
147) If a climate or vintage is too cool, the flavours of Pinot Noir will become:
c) Excessively vegetal
148) Which of the following statements is true in regards to a Grand Cru Burgundy Pinot Noir?
c) Prolonged aging in bottle allows for more complex flavours to evolve
a) Bourgogne AC
150) Which of the following is among the most famous Grand Cru Pinot Noir vineyards?
b) Chambertin
151) Which of the following is not a village PDO in Burgundy?

c) Pomerol

b) Spätburgunder
153) Which German wine region is not known for Pinot Noir?
a) Mosel
154) A cool region of Australia that produces quality Pinot Noir is:
d) Yarra Valley
155) When compared to Burgundy, New Zealand Pinot Noir may be described as:
b) Fuller in body and lower in acidity
156) Which region of New Zealand is not famous for its Pinot Noir?
b) Coonawarra
157) Which region of New Zealand produces much Pinot Noir for sparkling wine?
a) Marlborough
158) Good examples of Pinot Noir in California are generally not found in:
d) Napa
159) Which two regions of Chile are sources of intensely fruity Pinot Noir?
160) Which region is well known for producing bulk, inexpensive red wines?
d) All of the above
161) Chile has gained a reputation as a source of soft, fruit and inexpensive Pinot Noir?
a) True
162) Blending Pinot Noir with other grapes is common practice in:
c) Champagne
163) A wine labeled AC Bourgogne is likely to be:

a) 100% Pinot Noir
164) Which term indicates a wine from the best vineyards of Burgundy?
b) Grand Cru
165) A Domaine indicates a producer that sources its grapes

b) From its own vineyards exclusively
c) Pfalz
167) Which premium Australian wine region is considered to have a hot climate?
d) McLaren Vale
168) Central Otago is famous for which grape?

d) Pinot Noir
169) Which varietal is not widely produced in the Napa Valley?

d) Pinot Noir
170) Which pair of states produce premium, world-class Pinot Noir?

b) California and Oregon
171) Which southern California county produces world-class Pinot Noir?

c) Santa Barbara
172) Which grape is not of significant importance in Argentina?

d) Pinot Noir

b) In hot regions, Pinot Noir loses its delicate aromas and wines may become excessively jammy
174) Which of the following is not a well-known Burgundy village known for Pinot Noir?
b) Fleurie
175) Which of the following is not used as a blending partner for Pinot Noir
c) Syrah
Chapter 9 – Cabernet Sauvignon and Merlot
176) When blended together, Merlot brings to Cabernet Sauvignon:

c) Softness and body
177) The classic region for Merlot/Cabernet Sauvignon blends is:

a) Bordeaux
178) Which of the following statements best describes a Cabernet Sauvignon?
a) High tannin, high aromatics, high acidity
179) Which flavour profile best describes a Cabernet Sauvignon?


181) Merlot and Cabernet Sauvignon share the following:

b) The best of each gain flavours of vanilla and coffee from oak aging
182) A hot climate Merlot will show flavours of:

b) Blackberry, black plum, black cherry
183) The climate of Bordeaux is best described as:

b) Moderate maritime
184) Which river divides Bordeaux into a Left and Right Bank?
a) Gironde
185) Which of the following communes is not on the Left Bank?

b) Pomerol
186) Which of the following appellations would be mostly Merlot?

c) St. Émilion
187) Which region has established itself as a modern classic of Australian Cabernet Sauvignon?
a) Coonawarra
188) Which premium Cabernet Sauvignon region is located in Western Australia?

d) Margaret River
189) Which of the following statements about Napa Valley Cabernet Sauvignon is false:
d) It is difficult to ripen in the California climate
190) Which Chilean region is not a major producer of Cabernet Sauvignon and Merlot?
b) Casablanca
191) In which region would Malbec be blended with Cabernet Sauvignon?

b) Mendoza

c) South Africa
193) Which AC would include the sub region of Pessac-Léognan?

c) Graves
b) Haut-Médoc
195) Which AC is a classic Merlot-dominated region?

196) A premium region for producing Merlot and Cabernet Sauvignon in South Africa is:
c) Stellenbosch
197) Which grape brings richness and softness to an Australian Cabernet Sauvignon?
d) Shiraz
198) Cachapoal and Colchagua are part of which greater region?

d) Rapel
c) Malbec
200) Which of the following varietals is not added to soften Cabernet Sauvignon in a blend from Chile?
b) Malbec
201) A typically hot climate country, what significant factor helps cool vineyards in Argentina?
c) Altitude
202) Premium California Merlot is best described as which of the following?

c) Full-bodied with aromas and flavours of black fruit and fruitcake
203) Which region produces wines that may include ‘eucalyptus’ as an aroma descriptor?
d) Coonawarra
204) Cabernet Sauvignon and Merlot make great blending partners for which of the following reasons?
d) Both B and C
205) A typical aroma profile of Cabernet Sauvignon includes which of the following?
c) Blackcurrant, black cherry, bell pepper, and mint
Chapter 10 – Sauvignon Blanc
206) Which of the following statements about Sauvignon Blanc is false?

c) It needs a warm climate to show its herbaceous character
207) Sauvignon Blanc is suited for Sauternes because:
b) Its high acidity compliments the sweetness
208) Which pair of villages are the classic home for Loire Sauvignon Blanc?
a) Sancerre and Pouilly-Fumé
209) Sémillon and Sauvignon Blanc are blended in Bordeaux because:

c) Sauvignon Blanc benefits from additional body brought to the blend by Sémillon
210) Which Bordeaux AC is home to the top quality Sauvignon Blanc?

c) Graves
b) Marlborough
212) The new classic of New Zealand Sauvignon Blanc can best be described as:
c) Dry, high acidity, pungent aromas
213) Where is the best Sauvignon Blanc in Australia found?

b) Adelaide Hills
214) Most of California is not suited to growing a herbaceous Sauvignon Blanc because:
b) The climate is too warm

d) Fumé Blanc
216) Fruit-forward Sauvignon Blanc is emerging in which pair of Chilean wine regions?
217) South African Sauvignon Blanc can best be summarised as:

c) Both a & b
218) Which of the following is not a source for large volume, inexpensive Sauvignon Blanc in France?
b) Mâcon AC
219) Which country is not a major source of inexpensive varietal Sauvignon Blanc?
a) Argentina
220) The most important blending grape with Sauvignon Blanc is:
c) Semillon
221) A Sauvignon Blanc described as herbaceous with green fruit and high acidity is likely from:
a) A cool climate
222) Which region is not considered ‘cool climate’ for growing Sauvignon Blanc?
c) Napa Valley, California
223) Which of the following statements is true regarding Sauvignon Blanc?
b) Sauvignon Blancs from the Loire Valley often display a steely character similar to Chablis
224) Argentina is emerging as a significant producer of high-quality Sauvignon Blanc?

b) False
225) Which of the following statements is true regarding blending Semillon and Sauvignon Blanc?
b) Sauvignon Blanc adds refreshing acidity and pronounced aromatics to a blend
Chapter 11 – Syrah and Grenache
226) Outside France, which country has sustained an international reputation for quality Syrah?
b) Australia
227) Which flavour profile best describes a Syrah?


229) Smoked meat, pepper, and herbaceousness are characteristic of a Syrah from:
230) Which of the following would be a good description of a Grenache grape?

231) Which flavour profile best describes a Grenache?

a) Strawberry, raspberry, and white pepper
232) Grenache is used to blend with Syrah to bring:

b) Lower tannin and higher alcohol
233) Syrah is used to blend with Grenache to bring:

c) Deep colour and high acidity
234) A GSM in Australia refers to a blend of:

c) Grenache-Syrah-Mourvèdre
235) The classic region for Syrah is:

a) The Northern Rhône

237) Which region would see red wines made mostly from Grenache?
a) Côtes du Rhône
238) “Côtes du Rhône Villages” on a label would indicate:
b) The wine is sourced from the better vineyards in the region
239) A typical Châteauneuf-du-Pape is best described as:

c) Full-bodied, medium tannins, and low acidity
240) The best expression of Garnacha in Spain is from which region?

d) Priorat
241) A moderate climate region for Shiraz in Australia is:

b) Heathcote
242) In Minervois, Grenache is often blended with

d) Carignan
243) Blending Shiraz from different regions in Australia allows for:

a) Different characteristics to contribute to overall complexity
244) Based on a northern Rhône tradition, which white grape is sometimes blended with Shiraz?
c) Viognier
245) Which of these appellations is located in the Southern Rhône?

c) Châteauneuf-du-Pape AC
246) The main grapes of Languedoc-Roussillon are:

a) Grenache and Syrah
247) Shiraz is the most widely grown grape in Australia?

a) True
d) All of the above
249) Which of the following is true regarding Grenache?

b) Most Grenache is planted throughout Spain and France
250) Which of the following Rhône villages are permitted to add their village name to the label?
d) All of the above
Chapter 12 – Riesling
251) In a moderate climate, Riesling develops flavours of:

c) Lime, floral, and white peach
252) Naturally high acidity in Riesling means:

a) It is suitable for late-harvesting when conditions are right
253) A basic Riesling in Germany is categorised as:
b) Qualitätswein
c) Sugar levels
255) In order of sweetest to driest, which of the following is correct?

b) Beerenauslese, Auslese, Spätlese, Kabinett
256) Which Prädikatswein translates to English as “late harvest?”

c) Spätlese
257) Which of the following would likely be the lightest in body and express more green apple flavours?
a) Mosel Kabinett
258) Bernkastel is a key village in which German region?

b) Mosel
259) Forst and Deidesheim are key villages in which German region?
d) Pfalz
260) Riesling characteristics in Alsace vary greatly because:

d) The geology of Alsace is very complicated
261) A bottle-aged, premium Riesling will develop which hallmark character?

c) Petrol
262) Beyond Germany and Alsace, a key Riesling-producing country in Europe is:
c) Austria

264) A pronounced character of Australian Riesling is:

d) Citrus flavours (lemon, lime)
265) A bulk-produced, branded, medium-sweet German white wine is likely to be:

d) Mostly other varietals with little or no Riesling
266) At the premium level, which of the following statements about Riesling is false?
c) Riesling is often blended with an aromatic varietal for added depth
267) In Australia, which of the following grapes is sometimes blended with Riesling?
d) Gewurztraminer
268) Which of the following is a Riesling?

c) Piesporter Riesling
269) The Vosges mountains shelter which French region?
a) Alsace
270) On a Mosel-sourced label marked Piesporter Goldtröpfchen Spätlese, which word indicates the village?
a) Piesporter (from Piesport)
271) Where do most premium Alsatian wines, like Riesling and Pinot Gris, grow in New Zealand?
a) South Island
272) Examples of Riesling from the Rheinghau will exhibit:

c) Medium body and a drier style
273) Which of the following statements is true:

a) Riesling has the ability to express nuances of individual vineyard sites
274) German labels frequently include the village name and vineyard area.
a) True
275) Most cheap medium-sweet wines in Germany are labelled “Erstes Gewachs”.
b) False
Chapter 13 – Other White Grape Varieties and White Wines
276) Gewurztraminer is best described as:

b) Full-bodied with high alcohol

b) Chenin Blanc
278) The main appellation for Chenin Blanc in Touraine is

a) Vouvray AC

280) The grape of Muscadet is:

c) Melon Blanc
281) Pinot Gris is known by which name in Italy?

b) Pinot Grigio
282) The grape of Soave is:

a) Garganega
283) Gavi DOCG is located in which part of Italy?

a) Piemonte
284) The main grape of Gavi DOCG is:
a) Cortese
285) Albariño is the white grape of which region?

d) Rías Baixas
286) South Africa’s most widely planted white grape is:

a) Chenin Blanc
287) A common bulk white blend from South Africa is:

b) Chardonnay/Chenin Blanc

c) Hunter Valley
289) Torrontés is best described as:

a) An aromatic white wine with medium body and high alcohol
290) The best examples of Torrontés come from which region in Argentina?
a) Cafayate
291) Typical aromas and flavours for Pinot Gris in Alsace include:
b) Spice, tropical fruits, and honey
292) Typical aromas and flavours of Soave include:

b) Chamomile, green fruit, and white pepper
293) Trebbiano is an Italian white grape known for producing low-acid varietal wines
b) False
294) The main grape grown in the Marche region of Italy is:
b) Verdicchio
295) The Albariño grape is known for producing which of the following:
c) Unoaked white wines with fresh green and citrus fruit character
Chapter 14 – Other Black Grape Varieties and Red Wines
296) Light, soft-tannin wines of Beaujolais are made from:

c) Gamay

c) Minervois
298) Although all are made from Gamay, which of the following is an incorrect labeling?
d) Beaujolais Fleurie AC
299) How many Beaujolais villages are there in total?

b) 10
300) Beaujolais Nouveau is released in which month?

c) November
301) The term Classico on an Italian label indicates:

b) The wine comes from a historic centre of a region

303) Which of these words do not relate to a red wine from Piemonte?
a) Brunello
304) Which grape is used to make Barolo?

a) Nebbiolo
305) Lighter tannins, red-fruit, black pepper and high acidity is indicative of a wine made from:
d) Barbera
306) Full-body, high tannins, with red-fruit and earth character is indicative of a wine made from:
b) Nebbiolo
307) Which is the main grape of a Valpolicella blend?

a) Corvina
308) A which of these is a dry wine made from partially dried grapes?
c) Amarone della Valpolicella
309) Chianti is dominated by which grape varietal?

c) Sangiovese
310) Which of these wines is not made with Sangiovese?

c) Montepulciano d’Abruzzo
311) Which grape is the same as Zinfandel?

b) Primitivo

c) Aglianico
313) Which pair of regions is represents a red-only and a white-only appellation?
b) Valpolicella and Soave
314) Which term does not appear on a Spanish label?

b) Riserva
315) List the following Spanish wine labelling terms in order, from least to most aged?
c) Joven, Crianza, Reserva, Gran Reserva
316) In Spain, the term Crianza indicates a wine that will show characteristics of extensive aging?
b) False
317) The most important region for premium red wines in Spain is:
b) Rioja
318) In which region is Tempranillo not a significant red grape?

b) Priorat DOCa
319) A black grape unique in South Africa is:

c) Pinotage
320) Which style of wine is the Zinfandel largely used for?

a) Bulk, off-dry rosé
321) The most complex and intense Zinfandels in California are made from:
b) Grapes picked from old vines
322) Which Bordeaux varietal is the most important black grape variety in Argentina?
c) Malbec
323) Where is Tempranillo used or added to blends to produce good to premium-quality red wines?
d) All of the above
324) Garnacha adds alcohol and spice to a blend with Tempranillo?

a) True
325) Aglianico is the main grape variety in Campania and Basilicata?

a) True
Section 3: Other Styles of Wine

Chapter 15– Sparkling Wines
326) Broadly speaking, two categories of sparkling wine are:

c) Bottle-fermented and Tank-fermented
a) 1 – 2%
328) Interrupting fermentation by filtering out the yeast results in a sparkling wine that is:
a) Sweet with low alcohol
329) Which style of sparkling wine does not see secondary fermentation in tanks?
b) Cava
330) Glera forms the base to which sparkling wine?

c) Prosecco
331) Sweet, fruity, and light-bodied best describes which sparkling wine?
a) Asti
332) In which pair of countries is Sekt made?

a) Austria and Germany
333) Deutscher Sekt can only be made from grapes from which country?
b) Germany
334) Which factor adds bready complexity to a bottle-fermented sparkling wine?

b) Extended contact with dead yeast cells
336) What is added to a base wine to inaugurate a second-fermentation in a bottle-fermented sparkling wine?
b) Sugar and yeast
337) Biscuity, bready flavours in a bottle-fermented sparkling wine are described as:
b) Autolytic
338) “Riddling” refers to which part of the traditional method of making sparkling wine?
c) Turning the bottles to collect yeast cells at the neck
339) The purpose for disgorging a bottle-fermented wine is to:

d) Remove dead yeast cells
340) Which term refers to the addition of a sugar/wine mixture to a traditional method sparkling wine?
d) Dosage
341) Which of the following involves emptying bottle-fermented wines into tank?
c) Transfer Method
342) The term ‘brut’ refers to a sparkling wine that is:

c) Tastes dry
343) Which of the following is not a traditional method sparkling wine?
d) Prosecco
344) Which of the following is not a grape of Champagne?

b) Pinot Blanc

346) What is the minimum legal period for aging Champagne on its lees?
b) 12 months
347) The term Grandes Marques refers to:

b) A famous Champagne house
348) The term Crémant refers to:

a) A bottle-fermented sparkling wine from anywhere in France
349) Saumur is a key region for sparkling wines made from which grape?
b) Chenin Blanc
350) Cava refers to:

d) A bottle-fermented sparkling wine from Spain
351) Which French grape is occasionally used in the production of Cava?

a) Chardonnay
352) Which grape would feature in a premium bottle-fermented sparkling wine from California?
c) Pinot Noir
353) Chile has earned a reputation for producing high volumes of sparkling wine?
b) False
354) Which country specialises in the production of sparkling red wine?

a) Australia
355) Blending grapes between villages to maintain a consistent quality & style is especially important for:
c) Non-vintage Champagne
Chapter 16 – Sweet Wines
356) A wine may become sweet by:

d) All of the above
357) Which sweet wine is fortified to interrupt fermentation?

358) Which Alsatian grape is often fortified in the Mediterranean to produce sweet wines?
b) Muscat
d) Süssreserve
360) Which is not a method to concentrate sugars in grapes for making sweet wine?
b) Soaking harvested grapes in alcohol
361) Which of the following styles of wine are not made from dried grapes?
c) Muscat Beaumes de Venise
362) Botrytis cinerea is a type of:

a) Mould
363) Which condition may lead to grey rot instead of noble rot?
d) Heavy rains
364) Which French region is not known for producing noble rot-affected wines?
c) Burgundy

d) Sémillon
366) Which Central European country produces a sweet wine called Tokaji?
c) Hungary
367) How many puttonyos levels are there in Tokaji?

d) 6
368) Which German Prädikatswein is always made from grapes affected by noble rot?
d) Beerenauslese
369) Which grape is likely to be the base for a Trockenbeerenauslese?

c) Riesling
370) Pinot Gris and Riesling are often used to make botrytis wine in which region?
a) Alsace
371) Which grape is the base of a sweet wine from Coteaux du Layon AC?
a) Chenin Blanc
372) Which grape is commonly used for botrytis-affected wines from Australia?
d) Semillon
373) Which country is not well-known for the production of icewine?

c) France
374) The concentrated sweetness of an icewine comes from:
d) Removing ice crystals from frozen grapes
375) Which grape is the source of premium icewine in Germany?

d) Riesling
376) Which pair of grapes is high in acid, generally unoaked, and susceptible to noble rot?
d) Chenin Blanc and Riesling
377) The term Eiswein indicates a sweet wine most greatly affected by noble rot
b) False
378) Sweet fortified Muscat wines are at their best following extensive bottle aging
b) False
379) Which of the following is an example of a Vins Doux Naturels?

a) Muscat de Rivesaltes
380) Which of the following styles of sherry differs from the others?
c) Pedro Ximenez
Chapter 17 – Sherry and Port
381) What is the name of the Spanish region that produces Sherry?
b) Jerez de la Frontera
d) All of the above
383) The neutral, low acid grape responsible for Sherry production is:
d) Palomino
384) What is the name of the aging technique responsible for producing Sherry?
b) Solera System
385) What is largely responsible for the flavour profile of Sherry?

a) Aging process
386) Which style of sherry is not pale in colour?

a) Amontillado

388) Which of the following styles of Sherry is dry?

b) Manzanilla
389) Which style of Sherry has alcohol added during the aging process to kill yeast?
a) Amontillado
390) Which style of sherry is fortified to 18% and is oxidative in character?

d) Oloroso
391) Which style of Sherry is both the name of a grape and a sweet, sun-dried wine?
d) Pedro Ximénez
392) How does Port become a sweet wine?

a) Fermentation is halted with the addition of alcohol
393) Which style of Port is the most basic red?

c) Ruby
394) Which style of Port will have oxidative, kernel flavours?

d) Reserve Tawny
395) Which style of Port is from a single year?

b) LBV
396) A 20-Year Tawny indicates a wine that:

b) Has matured in barrels for an average of 20 years
397) Which style of fortified wine is best served at room temperature?

c) Ruby Port

b) Vintage
399) Which of the following is not typical of Reserve Tawny Ports?

c) Wines must be aged at least 10 years
400) Almost all sherry begins with a dry, low acid, neutral white wines from the Albariño grape?
b) False
Section 4: Spirits
Chapter 18 – Tasting and Evaluating Spirits
401) How much of a spirit should you pour in a tasting glass?

b) ½ the amount you would of wine
402) On appearance, a non-faulted spirit should be:

c) Clear
403) Water is added in what ratio to a spirit being tasted?
d) Equal part

c) Both a & b
405) Which style of spirit should have a short, simple finish?

d) Vodka

d) Vodka
407) Spirits may gain sweetness from wood as they age

a) True
408) Sugar may be added to some spirits for sweetness

a) True
409) Rum made in a pot still will typically be full-bodied

a) True
410) Cork taint affects spirits and wine equally

b) False
Chapter 19 – The Distillation Process

412) Distillation allows for the creation of spirits because:

b) Ethanol boils at a lower temperature than water
413) After the distillation process, what is largely left behind?

d) All of the above
414) Which vapour component of a distilling liquid contains the highest proportion of ethanol?
c) Hearts
415) Which of the following is the correct order in pot still distillation?
c) Still-head, Swan’s Neck, Condenser
416) As a general rule, a higher strength spirit will:

a) Be lighter in flavour and character
417) Which of the following statements about a newly distilled spirit is true:
d) All of the above
418) Oak maturation will have which of the following effects on a spirit?
d) All of the above
419) Column still are made using simple designs with few variations.
b) False
420) Column distillation is loosely defined as many mini-distillations continually occurring on different levels
concentrating the alcohol vapours as they rise:
a) True
Chapter 20 – Spirit Categories and Styles
421) The distillation of wine results in which spirit?

a) Brandy
422) Cognac and Armagnac are located near which French wine region?
b) Bordeaux

a) VS, VSOP, XO
424) The process of changing starches into fermentable sugars is called:

b) Conversion
425) A 12-year Scotch whisky indicates a spirit that:

b) Has matured in barrels for a minimum of 12 years
426) The minimum aging period for Scotch whisky is:

b) 3 years
427) A malt whisky is made exclusively from:

a) Barley
428) A single malt whisky must:

b) Come from a single distillery
429) Which of the following statements about a grain whisky is true?

b) It is made in a column still
430) Labelling terms VS, VSOP, and XO are loosely defined and not legally mandated:
b) False
b) Barley
432) Which is always the major component of Bourbon?

c) Corn
433) Which factor is most responsible for the distinctive flavours of Bourbon?
c) Maturation in charred American oak barrels
434) By law, Armagnac must follows identical production procedures as in Cognac

b) False
435) How does Tennessee whiskey differ from Bourbon?

c) It is filtered through maple wood charcoal
436) Which material is most commonly used as the principle base for rum?
c) Molasses
437) Scotch Whisky must be both distilled in Scotland and aged for a minimum of 2 years
b) False
438) Which of the following is not a style of rum?

b) Silver
439) Flavours of fig, raisin, and clove best reflect which spirit?
b) Dark rum
a) Añejo
441) Which of the following spirits is typically not aged?

d) Vodka
442) White rums are not a popular ingredient in cocktails as their strong flavours tend to dominate a blend:
b) False
443) Which spirit is most likely to be distilled to such a degree that traces of the base ingredient are not
perceptible?
d) Vodka
444) Which of the following is used as a base for vodka?

d) All of the above
445) Which of the following is not a common botanical used in the production of gin?
b) Aniseed
446) London Dry Gin is a style of gin that:
d) Is re-distilled in a pot still and has intense flavours
447) Blended whiskies range in style but most brands remain consistent from year to year
a) True
448) A liqueur differs from a flavoured-spirit because:

b) A liqueur is sweetened
449) Brandy is typically garnet or tawny in colour:

b) False
450) Rums aged in oak cask will gain which of the following:
e) All of the above
FINE VINTAGE LEVEL 2 PRACTICE EXAM

a) Oloroso Sherry
b) LBV Port
c) New Zealand Sauvignon Blanc
d) Bottle-Aged St. Emilion Grand Cru
a) Medium-sweet, full-body, high alcohol
c) Off-dry, medium body, medium alcohol
d) Dry, light body, high alcohol
a) It decreases the perception of bitterness in the wine
b) It decreases the perception of acidity in the wine

a) High in acid and light in body (e.g. Valpolicella)
b) Full body and high in tannin (e.g. Barolo)
c) High in alcohol and full in body (e.g. Amarone)
d) Intensely fruity and low in tannin (e.g. Barbera)

b) Less alcohol, lighter body, less tannin, more acidity
c) More alcohol, fuller body, less tannin, more acidity
d) Less alcohol, lighter body, more tannin, less acidity
a) Planting grapes on flat, easily accessible land
b) Planting grapes on slopes that receive ample shade
d) Planting grapes on undulating landscape with many different aspects
a) Fermentation, Crush, Press, Maturation
b) Fermentation, Press, Crush, Maturation
d) Press, Crush, Fermentation, Maturation

a) The acronym for a PDO-level wine in France is IGP
b) Vin de France is a PDO-level wine region
d) There are no PDO-level wines in Beaujolais

a) Château
b) Domaine
c) Négociant
d) Coopérative
a) 0.0 mg/mL – 0.4 mg/mL
b) 0.0 mg/mL – 0.6 mg/mL
c) 0.0 mg/mL – 0.8 mg/mL
d) 0.0 mg/mL – 1.0mg.mL

a) 6°C
b) 12°C
c) 18°C
d) 24°C

a) Pouilly-Fuissé and Meursault
b) Pouilly-Fumé and Asti
d) Muscadet and Oloroso Sherry

b) Chardonnay is the grape of Chablis
c) Chardonnay is grown in hot climates
d) Chardonnay has delicate flavours
a) Casablanca
b) Mendoza
c) Colchagua
d) Walker Bay

a) Pouilly-Fumé
b) Pouilly-Fuissé
c) Puligny-Montrachet
d) Chassagne-Montrachet
a) Bourgogne AC
b) Central Otago
c) Pommard
d) Pauillac

a) Rotburgunder
b) Spätburgunder
c) Weissburgunder
d) Grauburgunder
a) Mosel
b) Rheingau
c) Pfalz
d) Rheinhessen

a) It ripens easily so can be grown in either a cool or warm climate
b) It has its classic home on the Right Bank of Bordeaux
d) All of the above

a) Australia
b) New Zealand
c) South Africa
d) Germany
a) Médoc
b) Haut-Médoc
c) Graves
d) Pomerol
b) Carmenère
c) Malbec
d) Merlot
a) Hawke’s Bay
b) Marlborough
c) Central Otago
d) Walker Bay

a) Sauvignon Fumé
b) Pouilly-Fumé
c) Pinot Fumé
d) Fumé Blanc


a) St. Emilion and Pomerol
c) Chambertin and Montrachet
d) Margaux and Pauillac
a) Mataro
b) Mourvèdre
c) Shiraz
d) All of the above
a) Vineyard site
b) Vintage
c) Sugar levels
d) Price

b) Barossa Valley and McLaren Vale
c) Yarra Valley and Hunter Valley
d) Mornington Peninsula and Margaret River

a) Sauvignon Blanc
b) Chenin Blanc
c) Pinot Blanc
d) Melon Blanc

a) Barrel fermentation
b) Prolonged new oak barrel aging
d) Short skin contact to create a pink-coloured wine

a) Clare Valley
b) Eden Valley
c) Hunter Valley
d) Yarra Valley

a) Morgon
b) Brouilly
c) Minervois
d) Moulin-à-Vent

b) The wine is of a lower minimum alcohol
c) The wine is from the best vineyards
d) None of the above; it has no legal implications
a) Nebbiolo
b) Barbera
c) Aglianico
d) Primitivo
a) 1 – 2%
b) 4 - 6%
c) 10 - 12%
d) 15 – 20%
b) Dosage, second-fermentation, yeast autolysis, disgorge
c) Second-fermentation, disgorge, dosage, yeast autolysis
d) Yeast autolysis, disgorge, second-fermentation, dosage

a) Are of the same vintage
c) Are sweet from noble rot
d) Are dry
a) Einzellage
b) Eiswein
c) Beerenauslese
d) Süssreserve

a) Chenin Blanc
b) Pinot Gris
c) Riesling
d) Sémillon
a) Dry
b) Medium
c) Sweet
d) All of the above
a) It is a type of white, chalky soil unique to the region
b) It is a type of grape that is neutral in flavour
c) It is an aging process that allows for blending from many different vintages

a) Reserve Ruby
b) Vintage
c) Reserve Tawny
d) 40-year Tawny

a) Water helps release aromatic compounds
b) Water makes the spirit more approachable on the palate
c) Both a & b
d) Neither a nor b

a) Cognac
b) Pot-still Rum
c) Malt Whisky
d) Vodka

b) A process that converts sugars into alcohol
c) A process that converts the suns energy into sugars
d) A process that brings water to a boil
47) Column still are made using simple designs with few variations:
a) True
b) False

a) VS, VSOP, XO
b) VSOP, VS, XO
c) XO, VS, VSOP
d) XO, VSOP, XO
a) Agave
b) Barley
c) Maize
d) Wheat
a) Añejo
b) Golden
c) Oro
d) Reposado
FINE VINTAGE LEVEL 2 PRACTICE EXAM ANSWERS

a) Oloroso Sherry

d) Intensely fruit and low in tannin




c) Négociant
c) 0.0 mg/mL – 0.8 mg/mL
c) 18°C



a) Casablanca

b) Pouilly-Fuisse
a) Bourgogne AC

b) Spätburgunder
c) Pfalz


c) South Africa

b) Haut-Médoc
c) Malbec
b) Marlborough

d) Fumé Blanc

d) All of the above
c) Sugar levels


b) Chenin Blanc


c) Hunter Valley

c) Minervois


c) Aglianico
a) 1 – 2%

d) Süssreserve

d) Sémillon
d) All of the above

b) Vintage

c) Both a & b

d) Vodka

47) Column still are made using simple designs with few variations.
b) False

a) VS, VSOP, XO

b) Barley
a) Añejo

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The following questions have been extracted from the WSET Level 2 book, “Wine and Spirits: Looking

FINE VINTAGE LEVEL 2 PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS

Section 1: Production, Quality, and the Consumer

8) An example of a wine where oxidative notes may be deliberately detected is:

10) Sweetness in wine is tasted where on the palate?

11) Acidity in wine is tasted where on the palate?

12) Which wine would likely show notes of high tannin?

13) Which factor(s) may contribute to a fuller-body wine?

20) Which might be an indicator of high-quality wine?

25) Which of the following is true about Acidity in food?

26) Which of the following pairings is correct?

27) Salt can counteract the impact of Umami on a wine.

30) Bitterness in food softens bitterness in wine.

33) Which of these elements is not considered high risk in food?

34) Which of these components is not considered low risk in wine?

37) Tannin in wine can come from:

39) Generally speaking, a wine from a hot climate will show:

41) Warm ocean currents play a significant climatic role in:

47) Nutrients are provided to the vines through which source?

49) Lower yields will generally result in a grape that is:

51) An example of a harvest likely done by machine is:

52) The correct order for white winemaking is:

53) The correct order for red winemaking is:

54) The correct order for rose winemaking is:

62) Which of the following is true about climate and weather?

63) What is essential to sugar production in grapes?

65) Which of the following is true about mechanization in the vineyard?

Chapter 4 – Understanding the Label

68) Which of the following statements is true?

76) Which French term best translates as “Merchant?”

79) What feature(s) do organic and biodynamic viticulture share?

80) Which of the following is true?

81) Which of the following words does not translate as “dry”?

83) Sur lie informs us that the wine:

86) Which of the following is not a legally defined term in France?

88) How many Quality Regions are there in Germany?

90) Which of the following is true regarding Prädikatswein in Germany?

Chapter 5 – Social Responsibility

91) Which of the following is not a category of alcohol legislation?

94) An official “drink” is within which range of pure ethanol?

95) Which group receives no health benefits from moderate drinking?

97) The key organ that breaks down alcohol is the:

98) Intoxication increases the risk of:

100) Which of the following statements is false?

Chapter 6 – Storage and Service

101) Which is the best temperature range for long-term storage?

102) Which degree is generally accepted as “room temperature?”

107) Which pair of wines is best served well chilled?

108) An ice-bucket will efficiently chill a wine if:

110) A red wine should be served in a larger-sized glass because:

111) When opening a bottle of sparkling wine, one should always:

115) A blanket system:

Section 2: Grape Varieties and Geographically Names Wines

116) Which of the following statements about Chardonnay is false?

117) Which winemaking technique will impact the flavour of Chardonnay?

121) Which region is considered the heart of Burgundian Chardonnay?

122) Which region is the southernmost for premium Chardonnay in Burgundy?

123) A region where altitude significantly influences the climate is:

124) Which region is New Zealand’s main producer of premium Chardonnay?

125) Which of the following statements about California Chardonnay is false?

127) Chardonnay is often used for inexpensive, bulk-production because:

128) Which region on a label would likely be an inexpensive, bulk-produced Chardonnay?