CR Procedure Code MCQ

Multiple Choice Questions
Subject: Cr.P.C. (LLB III)

Faculty: Sonali V. Waghchhoure
1] Under the provisions of the Code of Criminal

Procedure, 1973, the term “Taking Cognizance”
means?
A] Arrest any person without warrant.
B] Starting a trial.
C] An administrative action by officials.
D] Taking notice of the matter judicially.
2] Under the provisions of the Code of Criminal

Procedure, 1973, Cognizance can be taken of?
A] Witnesses
B] Offence
C] Offenders
D] Accused
3] The plea of “not guilty” is __________ by Code of

Criminal Procedure, 1973?
A] Well recognised
B] Not recognised
C] Absolutely recognised
D] None of the above
4] Summary case is triable by?

A] Magistrate.
B] Chief Judicial Magistrate.
C] Session Court.
D] Both A] and B].
5] A search warrant is issued for the inspection of
a place?
A] Used for deposit, sale, and production of
forged documents.
B] Used for sale and deposit of stolen
property.
C] Used for deposit, sale, and production of
counterfeit coin, currency notes and
stamps.
D] All of the above.
6] Search during an investigation can be

conducted without warrant by?
A] Investigating Officer.
B] Superintendent of Police.
C] Any Police Officer.
D] Either A] or C].
7] _______ Section of the Code of Criminal

Procedure, 1973 gives power to the police to
register a case regarding commission of a
cognizable offence?
A] Section 154 of Cr.P.C.
B] Section 155 of Cr.P.C.
C] Section 156 of Cr.P.C.
D] Section 157 of Cr.P.C.
8] The power to direct investigation under section

156(3) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973,
can be exercised by?
A] Session Judge.
B] Magistrate.
C] Family Court Judge.
D] None of the above.
9] The attendance of a person acquainted with the
facts and circumstances is procured under ______
Section, and it requires ________?
A] Under Section 60 of Cr.P.C.; Notice in
writing.
B] Under Section 160 of Cr.P.C.; Notice by
telephone.
C] Under Section 60 of Cr.P.C.; By warrant.
D] Under Section 160 of Cr.P.C.; Notice in
writing.
10] The term “Police Officer” does not include?

A] Enforcement Officer investigating the
case under FERA.
B] Officer of Railway Protection Force.
C] An Officer investigating under the NDPS
Act.
D] All of the above.
11] Under Section 357 of the Code of Criminal

Procedure, 1973, the maximum compensation can
be?
A] Equal to the fine.
B] Cannot exceed 1 Lakh Rupees.
C] Depends on the discretion of the Judge.
D] As per law.
12] In cases of plea bargaining, the judgment

delivered by a court is?
A] Appealable.
B] Appeal lies directly to the Supreme Court.
C] Final.
D] Final and no appeal except Special leave
petition U/A 136 and Writ petition U/A 226
and 227.
13] Plea Bargaining is inserted by which of the

following Amendment Act?
A] The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act,
2005.
B] The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act,
2013.
C] Both A] and B].
D] None of the above.
14] Section 164A of Code of Criminal Procedure,

1973 deals with?
A] Medical examination of the victim of rape.
B] Medical examination of the Accused of
any other offence.
C] Post-mortem report.
D] Fitness certificate of witness.
15] In-Camera trial refers to?

A] Summons Trial.
B] Public Trial.
C] Open Trial
D] Trial to which public and press are not
allowed.
16] “No arrest of a woman before sunrise and after
sunset”, which High Court issued this order in
2007?
A] Bombay High Court.
B] Delhi High Court.
C] Rajasthan High Court.
D] Kerala High Court.
17] A copy of the First Information Report should

be given to the complainant under?
A] Section 154 of Cr.P.C.
B] Section 155 of Cr.P.C.
C] Section 156 of Cr.P.C.
D] Section 157 of Cr.P.C.
18] The First Information Report can be quashed

by?
A] High Court.
B] Supreme Court.
C] Magistrate.
D] Session Court.
19] Who among the following is not entitled to

claim maintenance under section 125 of the Code
of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
A] Adoptive Mother.
B] Illegitimate Minor Child
C] Unmarried Sister.
D] Divorced wife who is not remarried.
20] The NARCO Test is?

A] An Oral Evidence.
B] Direct Evidence.
C] Not an Evidence.
D] Indirect Evidence.
1. For granting pardon under section 306 of the

Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973-
A. The witness must not be directly involved in the
offence
B. The accused should have been given an
opportunity to cross examine the person getting
pardon
C. The person getting pardon need not be in police
custody
D. The offence should not be punishable with
imprisonment exceeding 10 years
Ans. C
2. Section 311 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973-
A. Is confined to Court witnesses
B. Does not apply to defence witnesses
C. Cannot be exercised after the accused had
closed his defence
D. Does not include “accused” as witness
Ans. D
3. An order under section 319 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973-
A. Can only be made on the request of the first
informant or one of the witness
B. Cannot be passed unless at least one
prosecution witness has been examined
C. Cannot be made suo motu
D. Is an administrative order
Ans. B
4. Compounding an offence under section 320
of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973-
A. Can only be done after obtaining the permission
from the Court
B. Can only be done by the complainant
C. Cannot result in acquittal of the accused
D. None of these
Ans. D
5. _______ can proceed under section 340 of the
Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and hold a
preliminary enquiry.
I. Civil Court
II. Revenue Court
III. Criminal Court
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and I
D. I, II and III
Ans. D
6. Under section 340 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 the Court can-
I. Move suo motu
II. Not move suo motu
III.Move on the application made by a stranger
IV. Move on the application made by one of the
parties
A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, III and IV
Ans. D
7. If a judge dies after writing his judgement
but before delivering it-
A. The judgement will be final as long as the judge
has signed it
B. The judgement will be final if his successor
comes and delivers it
C. The judgement will be considered merely as an
opinion
D. The judgement will be final in criminal
proceedings
Ans. C
8. A judgement-
A. Should not contain the name of the victim in
case of sexual offences
B. Includes an order of discharge
C. Must be written in the language understood by
the accused
D. In case of acquittal need not direct the accused
to be set free
Ans. A
9. The maximum possible compensation
awardable under section 357 of the Code of
A. Depends on the Court in which the case is being
tried
B. Cannot exceed the maximum fine possible fine
for the offence
C. Cannot exceed Rs 1,00,00,000
D. Depends on the discretion of the judge
Ans. D
10. If the accused is convicted in a criminal
case for an offence under the stature which
does not provide for payment of compensation-
A. The Court cannot award compensation under
section 357 of the CrPC and no civil proceedings
are possible
B. The Court cannot award compensation under
section 357 of the CrPC, but other civil remedies
are possible
C. The Court can award compensation under
section 357 of the CrPC, but the award will be
taken into account in subsequent civil suits
D. The Court can award compensation under
section 357 of the CrPC, but the award will not be
taken into account in subsequent civil suits
Ans. C
11 .______________ of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 states that compensation
payable to the victim under section 357-A will
be in addition to the compensation payable
under section 326-A or 376-D of the IPC.
A. Section 357
B. Section 357-A
C. Section 357-B
D. Section 357-C
Ans. C
12. Which of the following sections of the Code
of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with
provisions regarding treatment of victims of
sexual crimes?
A. Section 357
B. Section 357-A
C. Section 357-B
D. Section 357-C
Ans. D
13. An appeal against the judgement of
acquittal under section 378 of the Code of
A. Is not possible
B. Possible as long as made by the accused
C. Can only be filed by the public prosecutor
D. Can only be made to the Supreme Court
Ans. C
14. Section 401 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973-
I. Allows the Court to convert finding of acquittal
into conviction
II. Allows the Court to pardon the convict
III. Does not allow the Court to act suo motu
IV. Is only applicable to High Court
A. I and II
B. II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II and III
Ans. B
Procedure, 1973-
A. The Court cannot set aside order of discharge
B. The Court can interfere even after the expiry of
the sentence
C. The Court cannot interfere if the accused is
dead
D. The Court can review its judgement pronounced
on revision in a criminal case
Ans. B
Procedure, 1973-
A. A total stranger cannot move an application for
revision
B. The revision can be done without giving notice
to the parties
C. A party who is in contempt of Court cannot be
heard
D. The Court cannot interfere if the case is pending
Ans. C
17. The High Court cannot exercise the power
under section 407 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 if-
A. A fair and impartial inquiry or trial is not
possible
B. A stranger to the case makes an application
C. It is expedient for the ends of justice
D. It will tend to the general convenience of the
witnesses
Ans. B
18. In which of the following cases did the
Supreme Court lay down the guidelines for
premature release of life convict?
A. Lanman Naskar v. Union of India
B. Boucher Pierre Andre v. Superintendent,
Central Jail
C. Kasmer Singh v. Union of India
D. Raghbir Singh v State of Haryana
Ans. A
19. _________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973 deals with the power of the Magistrate to
arrest?
A. Section 40
B. Section 44
C. Section 48
D. Section 52
Ans. B
20. _________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973 allows a person making arrest to seize
offensive weapons.
A. Section 41
B. Section 49
C. Section 52
D. Section 55
Ans. C
21. Akanksha is accused of disobeying a
direction of the law with an intent to save
Sonam from punishment. As per Section 213
Cr. P.C.
A. the charge must set out the disobedience
charged
B. the charge must set out the law infringed
C. both (A) and (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
22. Which of the following section gives power
to issue a warrant in lieu of, or in addition to, a
summons and under which condition it
applies?
a. Section 87 Cr. P.C.; (i) the Court believes that
the person summoned has absconded or will fail to
turn up, (ii) where he has without reasonable
caused failed to appear
b. Section 88 Cr. P.C.; (i) the Court believes that
c. Section 89 Cr. PC.; (i) the Court believes that the
person summoned has absconded or will fail to
d. Section 89 Cr. P.C.; (i) the Court believes that
Ans. a
23. Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. for fraudulent
removal or concealment of property, etc., to
prevent distribution among creditors, which
section of IPC is applicable?
A. 420
B. 421
C. 424
D. 425
Ans. B
24. Which of the following deals with the order
to pay compensation, when a Court imposes a
sentence of fine or a sentence including death
sentence?
A. Section 286 Cr. P.C.
B. Section 357 Cr. P.C.
C. Section 359 Cr. P.C.
D. Section 365 Cr. P.C.
Ans. B
execution of deed of transfer containing false
statement of consideration, which section of
IPC is applicable?
A. 414
B. 415
C. 420
D. 423
Ans. D
26. Abhijeet is charged u/s. 242 of the Indian
Penal Code (45 of 1860), with “having been in
possession of counterfeit coin, having known at
the time when he became possessed thereof
that such coin was counterfeit”, the word
“fraudulently” being omitted in the charge.
Applying Section 215 Cr. P.C.:
A. If it appears that Abhijeet was in fact misled by
this omission, the error shall be regarded as
material
B. If it appears that Abhijeet was deliberately
misled by this omission, the error shall be
regarded as material
C. Unless it appears that Abhijeet was in fact
misled by this omission, the error shall not be
regarded as material
D. none of them
Ans. C
27. The recording of reasons in writing is a
condition under Section 87 Cr. P.C. is:
A. subsequent to the exercise of the power and is
not curable under Section 464 Cr. P.C.
B. precedent to the exercise of the power and is
curable under Section 464 Cr. P.C.
C. precedent to the exercise of the power and is not
D. precedent to the exercise of the power and is
Ans. C
28. Which of the following deals with cases in
which bail is to be taken?
B. Section 287 Cr. PC.
Ans. C
29. Which of the following section deals with
victim compensation scheme?
A. Section 280B Cr. P.C.
B. Section 287D Cr. P.C.
C. Section 357A Cr. P.C.
D. Section 289B Cr. P.C.
Ans. C
removal or concealment of property, which
section of IPC is applicable?
A. 424
B. 420
C. 422
D. 425
Ans. A
31. Which Section of Cr. P.C. overrides Section
72 Cr. PC.?
A. Section 78
B. Section 68
C. Section 58
D. Section 48
Ans: A
execution of deed of transfer containing false
statement of consideration, which section of
IPC is applicable?
A.414
B. 415
C. 420
D.423
Ans: D
33. The recording of reasons in writing is a
condition under Section 87 Cr. P.C. is:
A. subsequent to the exercise of the power and is
not curable under Section 464 Cr. P.C.
B. precedent to the exercise of the power and is
C. precedent to the exercise of the power and is not
D. precedent to the exercise of the power and is
Ans: C
34. Which of the following section deals with
victim compensation scheme?
A. Section 280B Cr. P.C.
B. Section 287D Cr. P.C.
C. Section 357ACr. P.C.
D. Section 289B Cr. P.C.
Ans: C
35. Armaan is charged with cheating Benny,
and the manner in which he cheated Benny is
not set out in the charge, or is set out
incorrectly. Armaan defends himself, calls
witnesses and gives his own account of the
transaction. What will the Court infer from this
while applying Section 215 Cr. PC.?
A. the Court may infer from this that the omission
to set out the manner of the cheating is valid
B. the Court may infer from this that the omission
to set out the manner of the cheating is a
cognisable offence
C. the Court may infer from this that the omission
to set out the manner of the cheating is not
material
D. none of them
Ans: C
36. What do you mean by pursuit?
A. authorising the destruction of corporations for
the purpose of engaging in any lawful enterprise,
business, pursuit, or occupation, is not restricted
in meaning to a scheme for making money, but
includes any object consistent with the interest of
society
B. authorising the dissolution of corporations for
the purpose of engaging in any lawful enterprise,
society
C. authorising the formation of corporations for the
purpose of engaging in any lawful enterprise,
society
D. authorising the reconstruction of corporations
for the purpose of engaging in any lawful
enterprise, business, pursuit, or occupation, is not
restricted in meaning to a scheme for making
money, but includes any object consistent with the
interest of society
Ans: C
37. Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. for mischief,
when the only loss or damage caused is loss or
damage to a private person, which section of
IPC is applicable?
A. 425, 424
B. 426,427
C. 423, 425
D. 426,428
Ans: B
38. When any person who is bound by any bond
taken under this Code to appear before a Court,
does not appear,
A. the officer presiding in such Court may issue a
warrant directing that such a person be arrested
and produced before him
B. the officer presiding in such Court may cancel
the warrant directing that such a person be simply
apprehended by the police
C. the officer presiding in such Court may issue a
proclamation directing that such a person be is
absconding and be produced before him
D. none of them
Ans: A
39. Order to pay costs in non-cognizable cases
is covered under:
Ans: A
40. Atif is charged with the murder of Khuda
Baksh on the 21st January, 1882. In fact, the
murdered person’s name was Haidar Baksh, and
the date of the murder was the 20th January,
1882. Atif was never charged with any murder
but one, and had heard the inquiry before the
Magistrate, which referred exclusively to the
case of Haidar Baksh. What will the Court infer
from this while applying Section 215 Cr. PC.?
A. the Court may infer from these facts that Atif
was not misled and that the error in the charge
was immaterial
B. the Court may infer from these facts that Atif
was misled and that the error in the charge was
immaterial
C. the Court may infer from these facts that Atif
was misled and that the error in the charge was
material
D. none of them
Ans: A
41. Appearance by public prosecutors comes
under:
Ans: A
42. Under Section 320 (1) Cr. P.C. for mischief
by killing or maiming cattle etc. which section
of IPC is applicable?
1. 428
2. 422
3. 429
4. 426
Ans: C
43. All but one is false of Section 91 Cr. P.C.?
1. this section is not deemed to affect Sections 123
and 124 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 Of
1872)
2. this section is not deemed to apply to a letter,
post card, telegram or other document or any
parcel or thing in the custody of the postal or
telegraph authority
3. this section is not deemed to affect Sections 123
and 124 of the Bankers’ Book Evidence Act, 1891
(13 of 1891)
4. none of them
Ans: D
44. The provision for special reasons to be
recorded in certain cases is covered under:
Ans: C
45. “A” is accused of a theft on one occasion
and of causing grievous hurt on another
occasion. Applying Section 218 Cr. PC.:
A. “A” must be charged and tried for the theft and
causing grievous hurt
B. “A” must be separately charged and separately
tried for the theft and causing grievous hurt
C. “A” can be charged and tried only for the theft
D. none of them
Ans: B
46. Section 41 Cr. P.C. is not controlled by
Section 55 Cr. P.C. as:
A. the arrest is made with a warrant
B. the arrest is without a warrant
C. the arrest affects the investigation
D. all of them
Ans: B
47. Which of the following deals with the Copy
of judgment to be given to the accused and
other persons?
Ans: A
48. A commits house-breaking by day with
intent to commit adultery, and commits, in the
house so entered, adultery with B’s wife.
Applying Section 220 Cr. P.C.:
A. A may be separately charged with, and
convicted of offences u/ss. 451 and 494 of the
Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860)
B. A may be separately charged with, and
C. A may be separately charged with, and
D. A may be separately charged with, and
Ans: D
49. Power to summon material witness, or
examine person present is provisioned under:
Ans: C
50. Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. for house-
trespass, which section of IPC is applicable?
A. 455
B. 446
C. 448
D. 442
Ans: C
51. In which of the following case, a search
warrant can be issued?
A. where the Court has the reason to believe that
the person summoned to produce a document or
thing will not produce it
B. where the document or thing is not known to be
in the possession of any person
C. where a general inspection or search is
necessary
D. all of them
Ans: D
52. Which of the following deals with the Court
of Session to send copy of finding and sentence
to District Magistrate?
Ans: C
53. A entices B, the wife of C, away from C with
intent to commit adultery, with B and then
commits adultery with her. Applying Section
220 Cr. PC.:
A. A may be separately charged with, and
B. A may be separately charged with, and
C. A may be separately charged with, and
D. A may be separately charged with, and
Ans: D
54. Procedure in case of insolvency or death of
surety or when a bond is forfeited is covered in:
Ans: D
55. Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. for using a
false trade or property mark, which section of
IPC is applicable?
A.483
B. 455
C. 488
D.482
Ans: D
56. Under which Section 107 Cr. P.C. the
Magistrate has power to drop proceedings
initiated
A. even after a formal order has been under u/s
111 Cr. P.C. has been drawn up and before an
inquiry under Section 116 Cr. PC.
B. even after a formal order has been under u/s
inquiry under Section 118 Cr. P.C.
C. even after a formal order has been under u/s
D. even after a formal order has been under u/s
Ans: A
57. Which of the following deals with the
procedure of presenting the petition of appeal
when appellant is in jail?
A. Section 380 Cr. PC.
Ans: C
58. Which of the following is a requisite of a
complaint?
I. an oral or a written allegation
II. that some persons known or unknown has
committed an offence
III. it must be made to a Magistrate
IV.it must be made with the object that he should
take action
A. I and IV
B. II
C. Ill
D. I, II, III, IV
Ans: D
59. Service of summons on witness by post is
covered under:
Ans: C
60. Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. theft, by clerk
or servant of property in possession of master
for which section of IPC is applicable?
A.386
B.384
C. 380
D. 381
Ans: D
61. The statements or facts stated by an
accused in an application for plea bargaining:
(a) can be used by the court in any other case
against the accused.
(b) can be used in any other case against the
accused only with the permission of the court
before which the application for plea bargaining
was made.
(c) cannot be used for any other purpose except for
the purpose of this chapter.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
62. The powers of Magistrate to order person to
give specimen signatures or handwriting has
been inserted by Criminal Procedure
(Amendment) Act, 2005 (25 of 2005) under:
(a) section 310A
(b) section 311A
(c) section 312A
(d) section 313A.
Ans. (b)
63. A witness or any other person may file a
complaint in relation to an offence under
section 195A of IPC is provided under_________
of Cr.P.C. as inserted by the Code of Criminal
Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2008 (5 of 2009)
with effect from 31-12-2009:
(a) section 195A
(b) section 196A
(c) section 197A
(d) section 198A.
Ans. (a)
64. Every State Government in co-ordination
with the Central Government shall formulate
Victim Compensation Scheme (VCS) for
providing fund for compensation to victims
falls under section 357A of Cr.P.C. with effect
from 31-12- 2009. This section was inserted by:
(a) Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act,
2008 (5 of 2009)
(b) Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act,
2005 (25 of 2005)
(c) Criminal Procedure Law (Amendment) Act, 2005
(2 of 2006)
(d) Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act,
2001 (50 of 2001).
Ans. (a)
65. What is true about Criminal Procedure Code
in respect of the offences by criminals other
than the offences under Indian Penal Code:
(a) Criminal Procedure Code cannot be followed
(b) Criminal Procedure Code can be followed only
against offences under Indian Penal Code
(c) Criminal Procedure Code can be followed as it is
uniform procedural law in criminal proceedings
(d) Criminal Laws other than Indian Penal Code
have their own procedural application.
Ans. (c)
66. The term “victim” is defined under:
(a) section 2(w)
(b) section 2(wa)
(c) section 2(u)
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (b)
67. As per section 26 any offence under section
276 and section 376A to 376D of IPC shall be
tried as far as practicable by a court presided
over by:
(a) a woman
(b) Judicial Magistrate of First Class
(c) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(d) a High Court Judge.
Ans. (a)
68. Under the provisions of section 198(6)
where an offence under section 676 of IPC
consists of sexual intercourse by a man with his
own wife, the wife being under……….. years of
age, no court shall take cognizance of the
offence if more than one year has elapsed from
the date of the commission of the offence:
(a) 13
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 18.
Ans. (d)
69. Payment of compensation to a victim is
provided under:
(a) section 356
(b) section 357
(c) section 357A
Ans. (c)
70. What is about position of Cr. P.C., when
former Chief Justices of India are alleged as
corrupted after their Retirement from Supreme
Court:
(a) Cr. P.C. can be applied with the offence to be
charged under IPC.
(b) Cr. P.C. can be applied with offence to be
charged under Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
(c) Cr. P.C. is silent about to be applied
(d) Cr. P.C. is meant for non-officials only.
Ans. (c)
71. In which of the following cases the Supreme
Court held that FIR was not substantive
evidence and could only be used to corroborate
its maker:
(a) Union of India v. A. Kumar, AIR 2010 SC 2735.
(b) C. Magesh v. State of Karnataka, AIR 2010 SC
2768.
(c) Anil Kumar v. B. S. Neelakanta, AIR 2010 SC
2715.
(d) Vijeta Gazra v. State, AIR 2010 SC 2712.
Ans. (b)
72. Read the following:
(1) F.I.R. is only a report about the commission of a
crime.
(2) F.I.R. in itself is a substantial evidence.
Of the above:
(a) (1) is true, but (2) is false
(b) (1) is false, but (2) is true
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true
(d) Both (1) and (2) are false.
Ans. (a)
73. ‘A’ is accused of theft on the occasion and
of causing grievous hurt on another occasion. A
must be:
(a) charged separately for theft and for causing
grievous hurt
(b) charged jointly for theft and causing grievous
hurt
(c) tried jointly for theft and for causing grievous
hurt
(d) charged jointly for theft and for causing
grievous hurt but tried separately for those two
offences.
Ans. (a)
74. What is the nature of a statement given in
NARCO Test:
(a) It is not an evidence
(b) It is a scientific evidence
(c) It is an oral evidence
(d) It is a circumstantial evidence.
Ans. (c)
75. Consider the following statement(s):
A police officer has the power to arrest any person
without an order from a Magistrate or warrant of
arrest, if he has reason to suspect his complicity in
a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment
which may extend to seven years, provided that he
is satisfied for reasons in writing that such arrest
is necessary
(1) to prevent such person from committing any
further offence.
(2) for proper investigation of the offence.
(3) to prevent such person from tampering with or
causing the evidence of the offence to disappear.
(4) to compel the absconding co-accused to
surrender.
Which of the statements given above are
correct:
(a) (1) and (2)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (1), (2) and (3)
(d) (1), (2), (3) and (4).
Ans. (c)
76. Who among the following is not entitled to
claim maintenance under Section 125, Cr P.
Code:
(a) Divorced wife so long as she does not marry
(b) Unmarried sister
(c) Adoptive mother
(d) Illegitimate minor child.
Ans. (b)
77. Which of the following is correct answer:
(i) Provisions of Cr. P.C. do not apply to the State of
Jammu and Kashmir.
(ii) All provisions of Cr. P.C. do not apply to the
State of Nagaland.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Only (i) is correct.
(b) Only (ii) is correct.
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect.
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
Ans. (d)
78. ‘G’, a 17 years old girl, was married to ‘H’.
‘H’ during the subsistence of the said marriage
entered into another marriage with ‘P’. The
court may take cognizance for the offence of
bigamy, if the complaint is brought by:
(a) her father, mother, brother, sister, son or
daughter or by her father’s or mother’s brother or
sister
(b) any other person related to her by blood,
marriage or adoption, with the leave of the court
(c) some other person on her behalf, with leave of
Court, but where there is a guardian appointed in
her respect, then only after such guardian has
been heard
(d) all these.
Ans. (d)
79. Under Cr. P.C. where two or more courts
have taken cognizance of the same offence and
question arises as to which of them ought to
try that offence, the question shall be decided
(i) by the Supreme Court
(ii) if the Courts are subordinate to the same High
Court by that High Court
(iii) if the Courts are not subordinate to the same
High Court, by the High Court within the local
limits of whose appellate criminal jurisdiction the
proceedings were first commenced
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Only (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) all are correct
(d) (i) and (iii) are correct
Ans. (b)
80. A High Court under its inherent powers
conferred under Section 482 of Cr. P.C. passes
the following orders:
(i) It quashes the F.I.R.
(ii) It quashes proceeding of case pending before a
criminal court
(iii) It expunges the derogatory remarks against a
member of subordinate court
Having in view the validity of above order
choose the correct answer given below:
(a) Only (i) as valid
(b) (i) and (ii) are both valid
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) all are valid
(d) (i) and (iii) are valid.
Ans. (c)
81. Consider the following statement and
choose the correct answer with the help of code
given below:
(i) Investigation is conducted by police officer
(ii) Magistrate cannot interfere in investigation
(iii) Investigation is a judicial proceeding
(iv) Investigation is not a judicial proceeding
Codes:
(a) (i) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans. (b)
82. In which case Supreme Court of India
directed the High Courts to exercise
jurisdiction under section 482 of Code of
Criminal Procedure:
(a) State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lai
(b) Adalat Prasad v. Navin Jindal
(c) Dinesh Dalmiya v. C.B.I.
(d) Dhananjay Chatterjee v. State of West Bengal.
Ans. (a)
83. In which of the following cases it was held
that a person has a right to protection under
Section 161(2) of Cr, P.C. against questions, the
answers of which would have a tendency to a
criminal charge:
(a) Nandini Satpathy v. PL Dani
(b) Gian Singh v. State
(c) Rupan Deol Bajaj v. K.P.S. Gill
(d) R.K. Dalmia v. Delhi Administration.
Ans. (a)
84. Which of the following statements is/are
true:
(a) Inquiry means every inquiry including a trial
conducted under the Code of Criminal Procedure
by a Magistrate or court
(b) Inquiry means every inquiry other than a trial
conducted under the Code of Criminal Procedure
by a Magistrate or court
(c) Investigation includes all the proceedings under
the Code of Criminal Procedure for the collection of
evidence conducted by a Magistrate
(d) All these.
Ans. (b)
85. ‘A’ faced trial for cheating ‘Z’ by
dishonestly inducing him to lend money by
knowingly pledging fake diamonds. ‘Z’ died
during trial and was survived by a son ‘X’. ‘X’
moved an application in the Trial Court to
compound the offence. Which of the following
is the correct legal preposition:
(a) ‘X’ is not competent to compound the offence
(b) On the death of complainant ‘Z’, the trial
proceedings shall abate
(c) Court cannot entertain such an application
after death of the complainant
(d) ‘X’ can compound the offence with the consent
of the Court.
Ans. (d)
86. Indicate the correct statement regarding
the rights of an arrestee.
A person arrested without warrant has the right
to:
(i) be informed of the particulars of the offence for
which he is arrested
(ii) have a relative or friend named by him to be
informed about his arrest
(iii) have an advocate of his choice remain present
throughout interrogation
(iv) be medically examined by a medical officer
Which of the statements given above are
correct:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
Ans. (d)
87. A criminal Court, at conclusion of trial, may
order:
(a) restoration of possession of immovable property
to the person who had been dispossessed
therefrom by use of criminal force or by criminal
intimidation by the person convicted
(b) the destruction of pornographic material in
respect of which conviction was recorded
(c) Both (1) and (2)
(d) neither (1) nor (2).
Ans. (c)
88. Period of limitation shall commence:
(a) from the date of the offence generally
(b) from the date of knowledge of the commission of
the offence if not known earlier
(c) from the date of establishment of the identity of
the accused if not known at the time of
commission of the offence
(d) all the above.
Ans. (d)
89. Court can condone the delay:
(a) under section 470 of Cr PC
(b) under section 471 of Cr PC
(c) under section 473 of Cr PC
(d) under section 472 of Cr PC.
Ans. (c)
90. In computing the period of limitation the
time during which:
(a) the accused avoided arrest by absconding has
to be excluded
(b) the accused remained absent from India has to
be excluded
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) only (a) is correct & (b) is incorrect.
Ans. (c)
91. The FIR can be quashed in the exercise of
inherent powers by:
(a) the Magistrate’s Court
(b) the Court of Session
(c) the High Court
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c).
Ans. (c)
92. Under the scheme of Cr. P.C. the inherent
powers vest in:
(a) the High Court
(b) the Court of Session
(c) the Court of District & Sessions Judge
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (a)
93. The inherent powers of the High Court are
contained in:
(a) section 462 of Cr PC
(b) section 472 of Cr PC
(c) section 482 of Cr PC
(d) section 492 of Cr PC
Ans. (c)
94. Once police records information report
(FIR), a copy of same should be given to
complainant under:
(d) section 156 of Cr PC
Ans. (b)
95. In which among the following cases the
Supreme Court held that High Court cannot
directly entertain bail application of POTA
accused without its refusal by special court:
(a) State of Gujarat v. Shalimbhai Abdul Gaffar
Shaikh
(b) State of Maharashtra v. S.K. Dhinde
(c) State of Gujarat v. Santosh Kumar
(d) State of Uttar Pradesh v. S.N. Srivastava.
Ans. (a)
96. The special court is:
(a) not subordinate to High Court
(b) is subordinate to High Court
(c) superior to High Court
(d) supplement to High Court.
Ans. (a)
97. In which of the following cases the
prosecution witness was prosecuted for perjury:
(a) Jessica Lal case (2007)
(b) Nitish Katara case (2007)
(c) Priyadarshni Mattoo case (2006)
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
98. The person seeking suspension of
conviction should specifically draw the
attention of the Appellate Court to the
consequences that may arise if the conviction
is not stayed as held by the Supreme Court in:
(a) Sheo Prasad Bhor v. State of Assam, AIR 2007
SC 918
(b) P.V. George v. State of Kerala, AIR 2007 SC
1034
(c) Navjot Singh Sidhu v. State of Punjab, AIR 2007
SC 1003
(d) Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India, (2006) 7 SCC 1
Ans. (c)
99. When the approver wilfully suppresses
material facts or gives false evidence:
(a) the court itself has inherent power to proceed
against Approver
(b) the court does not have inherent power to
proceed against Approver
(c) police can take action against him
(d) on the request of police, court take action
against Approver.
Ans. (a)
100. Any effort to settle disputes and claims by
applying pressure through criminal
prosecution:
(a) should depend upon the present criminal
system
(b) should depend upon the discretion of the court
(c) should be deprecated and discouraged
(d) should not be deprecated and discouraged.
Ans. (c)
101. If the police do not take action on
complaint in respect of cognizable offences, the
complainant:
(a) has right under section 190 of Cr PC to
complaint before local Magistrate
(b) has no right under section 190 of Cr PC to
complaint before local Magistrate
(c) has right under section 290 of the Cr PC to
complaint before Magistrate
(d) has right under section 390 of the Cr PC to
complaint before Magistrate.
Ans. (a)
102. Whether suspicion is:
(a) a substitute for proof of offence
(b) not a substitute for proof of offence
(c) a relevant factor for proof of offence
(d) not a dependent factor.
Ans. (b)
103. Inherent power of the court to order a
joint trial of cases is exercised when it appears
to the court:
(a) that some common question of law or fact
arises in both proceedings
(b) the right to relief claimed thereof is in respect of
the same transaction
(c) the right to relief claimed thereof arises out of
the same series of transactions
(d) all the above.
Ans. (d)
104. In which of the following cases it was held
that section 164 of Cr PC is required to be
strictly complied with:
(a) Babu Bhai Udesinh Parmar v. State of Gujarat,
AIR 2007 SC 420
(b) Rajesh Ranjan Yadav v. CBI, AIR 2007 SC 451
(c) Naveen Chandra v. State of Uttaranchal, AIR
2007 SC 363
(d) Amrit Singh v. State of Punjab, AIR 2007 SC
132.
Ans. (a)
105. In 2007 which High Court ordered ‘No
arrest of a woman before sunrise and after
sunset’:
(a) Delhi High Court
(b) Rajasthan High Court
(c) Allahabad High Court
(d) Bombay High Court.
Ans. (b)
106. Which section of the Cr PC provides that,
in no case the aggregate of consecutive
sentences passed against an accused shall
exceed 14 years:
(a) Section 31 of Cr PC
(b) Section 51 of Cr PC
(c) Section 34 of Cr PC
(d) Section 41 of Cr PC.
Ans. (a)
107. The procedure for trial before a Court of
Sessions is provided under sections:
(a) 260 to 265 Cr PC
(b) 238 to 250 Cr PC
(c) 251 to 259 Cr PC
(d) 225 to 237 Cr PC.
Ans. (d)
108. The offence committed under which
section of IPC is not compoundable under
section 320 of Cr PC:
(a) Section 352
(b) Section 353
(c) Section 354
(d) Section 355
Ans. (b)
109. When there is a dispute between two
courts relating to exercise of jurisdiction in a
criminal matter and said courts are under
subordination of different High Courts, the
matter shall be decided under section 186 of Cr
PC by the:
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court of the larger State
(c) High Court having more judges
(d) High Court within whose local limits of
appellate jurisdiction the proceeding first
commenced.
Ans. (d)
110. In which case it was held that: Identity of
victim is not to be disclosed even in judgment
of court:
(a) Shashikant v. CBI, AIR 2007 SC 351
(b) Dinesh v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 2006 SC
1267
(c) Naveen Chandra v. State of Uttaranchal, AIR
2007 SC 363
Ans. (b)
111. Within the meaning of section 311A of
Cr PC who among the following authorities has
power to order person to give specimen
signature or handwriting:
(a) Magistrate of First Class
(b) Magistrate of Second class
(c) Sessions Judge
(d) any Magistrate.
Ans. (a)
112. In-camera trial refers to:
(a) open trial
(b) trial broadcast on television with the help of
camera
(c) trial to which public and press are not allowed
(d) summary trial.
Ans. (c)
113. The “Directorate of Prosecution” the
provision added in the Cr PC by the Code of
Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005,
shall be established by:
(a) Central Government
(b) Each State Government
(c) CBI
(d) RAW
Ans. (b)
114. Within the meaning of section 144A of Cr
PC, who among the following authorities has
power to prohibit carrying arms in procession
or mass drill or mass training with arms:
(a) SDJM
(b) Munsiff
(c) District Magistrate
(d) Any Judicial Magistrate
Ans. (c)
115. “Plea Bargaining” a new chapter was added
in Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 by the
Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2005 (2 of 2006)
is contained in:
(a) Sections 265A to 265E
(b) Sections 265A to 265L
(c) Sections 265A to 265M
(d) Sections 265A to 265N
Ans. (b)
116. The Code of Criminal Procedure
(Amendment) Act, 2005 (25 of 2005) came into
force on:
(a) 22nd June, 2006
(b) 21st June, 2005
(c) 23rd June, 2006
(d) 23rd July, 2006
Ans. (c)
117. Chapter XXIA “Plea Bargaining”
(containing sections 265A to 265L) of Cr PC
came into force on:
(a) 5th July, 2006
(b) 16th April, 2006
(c) 23rd June, 2005
(d) 23rd June, 2006
Ans. (a)
118. Provision relating to plea bargaining
comes under which Chapter in Criminal
Procedure Code:
(a) XXI
(b) XXA
(c) VIIA
(d) XXIA
Ans. (d)
119. Irregularities which do not vitiate
proceedings have been stated in:
(d) section 486 of Cr PC.
Ans. (a)
120. The amount of fine which can be imposed
by a Magistrate of the First Class has been
enhanced by Criminal Procedure (Amendment)
Act, 2005 (25 of 2005) from Rs.5000 to:
(a) Rs.5000
(b) Rs.7000
(c) Rs.10000
Ans. (c)
121. The amount of fine which can be imposed
by a Magistrate of the Second Class has been
enhanced by Criminal Procedure (Amendment)
Act, 2005 (25 of 2005) from Rs.1000 to:
(a) Rs.3000
(b) Rs.5000
(c) Rs.7000
Ans. (b)
122. Which of the following statements is true:
(a) a woman can never be arrested after sunset and
before sunrise under the provisions of Cr. P.C.
(b) a woman can be arrested after sunset and
before sunrise only under exceptional
circumstances
(c) a woman can be arrested after sunset and
before sunrise only under exceptional
circumstances with the prior permission of
Judicial Magistrate of first class within whose
jurisdiction the offence is committed or the arrest
is to be made
Ans. (c)
123. Examination of person accused of rape by
medical practitioner as inserted by Criminal
Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 (25 of 2005)
has been provided under:
(a) section 50A
(b) section 53A
(c) section 54A
(d) section 54.
Ans. (b)
124. The section making it mandatory for the
police officer making arrest to inform about the
arrest and place where the arrested person is
being held to a nominated person as inserted by
Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 (25
of 2005) is:
(a) section 50A
(b) section 53A
(c) section 54A
(d) section 53B.
Ans. (a)
125. The section dealing with the medical
examination of the victim of rape as inserted by
of 2005) is:
(a) section 164A
(b) section 166A
(c) section 166B
(d) section 53A.
Ans. (a)
126. In case of special summons in cases of
petty offence under section 206, the amount of
fine specified is such summons has, in view of
of 2005) has been enhanced from Rs.100 to:
(a) Rs.200
(b) Rs.500
(c) Rs.1000
(d) Rs.2000.
Ans. (c)
127. Plea Bargaining inserted by Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act, 2005 (2 of 2006) does riot
apply in case of:
(a) offences affecting socio-economic conditions of
the country
(b) offences committed against woman
(c) offences against children below the age of
fourteen years
Ans. (d)
128. The judgement delivered by a court in
cases of plea bargaining is:
(a) final
(b) appealable and appeal lies to the High Court
(c) final and no appeal except SLP under Article
136 and writ petition under Articles 226 & 227 lies
(d) appeal lies directly to the Supreme Court.
Ans. (c)
CrPC Quiz 1
1.) A person aggrieved by a refusal to register an
FIR by the police station may send the report to
A.) Station House Officer
B.) Superintendent of Police
C.) Inspector
D.) Constable
2.) Ordinarily, a criminal investigation is
conducted by
A.) Inspector
B.) Superintendent of Police
C.) Constable-in-chief
D.) Officer in charge of a police station
3.) Which of these is incorrect about the first
information report?
A.) It may not be oral
B.) Copy of FIR must be given to the informant
C.) Copy of FIR must be given for free
D.) The format of the register for recording the FIR
should be as per directions of the State
government
4.) A and B have a dispute over the ownership of a
particular bag found in an auditorium. The dispute
changed into an altercation and A came to blows,
thus injuring B. The police intends to record an
FIR for voluntarily causing hurt and arrest A.
Which of these is true
A.) A cannot be charged because B was equally at
fault
B.) B must arrest a person and hand him over to
the police
C.) A may be arrested by the police without the
magistrate’s warrant
D.) A may be arrested by the police with a
magistrate’s warrant only
CrPC Quiz 2
1.) Unless he is produced before a Magistrate, an
arrested person cannot be detained by the police
for more than:
A.) 12 hours
B.) 24 hours
C.) 36 hours
D.) 48 hours
2.) If investigation cannot be completed in 24
hours, a magistrate can extend the detention of an
accused for a period not exceeding:
A.) 60 days
B.) 30 days
C.) 15 days
D.) 7 days
3.) Which of these cannot make an arrest as per
the provisions of the CrPC?
A.) Private person
B.) Judicial magistrate
C.) Executive magistrate
D.) Armed forces personnel
4.) When an arrest warrant is executed, the
arrested person must be brought to the court
within the limits of whose jurisdiction the arrest is
made, if the court issuing the warrant is not
within:
A.) 30 kilometers from the place of arrest
B.) 20 kilometers from the place of arrest
C.) 10 kilometers from the place of arrest
D.) 5 kilometers from the place of arrest
5.) B was arrested for cheating in 2012 and had
escaped bail when he was granted one by the
court. He has been arrested again for forgery in
2013 and has applied for bail. Which of the
following is true?
A.) The two incidents distinct and the offences are
not related
B.) Court may refuse to release B on a bail
C.) Court must refuse to release B on bail
D.) B can claim bail as a right
6.) A person accused of non-bailable offence can be
granted bail by a magistrate’s court, unless:
A.) There are grounds for believing that he has
committed an offence punishable with death or life
imprisonment
B.) He a repeat offender – he is suspected to have
committed a cognizable offence and has previously
been convicted for having committed cognizable
offences
C.) He is a politically connected person or a public
officer
D.) Both a and b
7.) A magistrate’s court usually has the discretion
to grantbail in case of non-bailable offences, but
where the accused may have committed an offence
which carries punishment of life imprisonment or
death, or if he is a repeat offender in respect of a
cognizable offence, the court does not have
discretion and must refuse bail. There are
exceptions to this rule – that is, certain categories
of people can be granted bail even if they are likely
to have committed a serious offence or are repeat
offenders, Which of these is within the ambit of
such exceptions?
A.) Woman
B.) Sick or infirm person
C.) Person below 16 years of age
D.) All of the above
8.) An anticipatory bail may be granted by:
A.) Session court
B.) High Court
C.) Granted by (a) but subject to confirmation by
(b)
D.) Both (a) and (b)
9.) Special powers to direct bail of any accused on
certain conditions or to modify the conditions
already prescribed lie with which of the following?
A.) Sessions court
B.) Chief judicial magistrate
C.) Chief metropolitan magistrate
10.) In a case where a surety for an accused dies:
A.) His legal heirs become sureties
B.) Bail cannot be granted again
C.) Fresh surety is asked for, and on failure to
furnish fresh security, the court can consider it to
be a breach of the original order
D.) Bail continues subject to the daily presence of
the accused in the police station nearest to him
11.) Police cannot compel the attendance of any
person as a witness if he is under the age of:
A.) 15 years
B.) 16 years
C.) 16 years
D.) 18 years
12.) A confession during the course of an
investigation must be made before:
A.) Sessions judge
B.) Judicial/metropolitan magistrate
C.) Executive magistrate
D.) Superintendent of Police
13.) A person whose investigation cannot be
completed within 24 hours must be forwarded to a
Magistrate by an officer not below the rank of:
A.) Head constable
B.) Sub-inspector
C.) Inspector
D.) Superintendent of police
14.) In no case can a Magistrate authorize the
detention of the accused person in custody for
more than:
A.) 30 days
B.) 45 days
C.) 60 days
D.) 90 days
15.) The report forwarded to the magistrate by the
officer in charge after completion of investigation
does not contain:
A.) Any arrests made
B.) Persons who appear to know the facts
C.) Names of parties
D.) Punishment that must be meted out
16.) An inquest into suicide or death leading to a
suspicion of an offence is ordinarily conducted by:
A.) Officer in charge
B.) Executive magistrate
C.) Judicial magistrate of second class
D.) Judicial magistrate of first class/metropolitan
magistrate
17.) A medical examination of an accused can be
done at the request of a police officer not below the
rank of:
A.) Sub-inspector
B.) Inspector
C.) Superintendent of Police
D.) Senior Superintendent of Police
18.) Attendance of a person cannot be compelled
by:
A.) Summon
B.) Warrant
C.) Judicial pronouncement
D.) Proclamation and attachment
19.) A warrant may be executed:
A.) Within the jurisdiction of the court where the
magistrate issues the warrant
B.) Within the session division where the warrant
is issued
C.) Within the jurisdiction of the High Court under
whose jurisdiction warrant was issued
D.) At any place in India
20.) An attached property may be sold on non-
appearance of the proclaimed person at the
expiration of:
A.) 1 month
B.) 3 month
C.) 6 month
D.) 12 month
21.) An officer making a search pursuant to a
search warrant issued by a court must do it in the
presence of:
A.) 1 witness
B.) 2 witness
C.) 3 witness
D.) Owner of the property only
22.) Which of these is not true about a summon?
A.) It may be oral
B.) Must be in writing in duplicate
C.) Must be signed by a presiding officer of the
court
D.) Must bear the seal of the court
23.) If a summon is to be sent outside the
jurisdiction of the court, ordinarily the court serves
it by:
A.) Sending it to the court in that jurisdiction
B.) Sending it to the High Court which furthers
directs the summon to the concerned court
C.) Sending it to the concerned person directly
D.) Information provided above is insufficient
24.) A court issuing a warrant of arrest against an
accused may permit the officer executing the
warrant to release the accused if he furnishes a
bond with adequate sureties for appearance before
a court. For this purpose, the court makes an
endorsement on the warrant. Which of the
following is not required to be mentioned on the
endorsement:
A.) Number of sureties
B.) The amount required to be taken
C.) The manner of taking security
D.) The time when the accused must attend the
court
25.) A warrant may be executed in:
A.) The jurisdiction of the court issuing it only
B.) The jurisdiction of the High Court under which
the issuing court falls
C.) The jurisdiction of the courts where the
investigation, trial or complaint has taken place
D.) Anywhere in India
Answer Key for CrPC Quiz 2
1.) B 2.) C 3.) D 4.) A 5.) B 6.) D 7.) D 8.) D 9.) A
10.) C 11.) A 12.) B 13.) B 14.) C 15.) D 16.) B 17.)
A 18.) C 19.) D 20.) C 21.) B 22.) A 23.) A 24.) C
25.) D
CrPC Quiz 3
1.) Which of these courts cannot ordinarily take
cognizance of a case?
A.) Court of session
B.) Court of chief judicial magistrate
C.) Court of judicial magistrate of the first class
D.) Court of judicial magistrate of the second class
which is specially empowered to take cognizance
2.) A court cannot take cognizance of which of the
following offences except with the previous
sanction of the central or state government?
A.) Printing of counterfeited currency
B.) Improper use of scales and weights
C.) Statements conducing to public mischief
D.) Improper use of public property
3.) No cognizance may be taken for some offence
except upon a complaint made by the aggrieved
person. Which of these is not such an offence?
A.) Marrying again during lifetime of husband or
wife
B.) Adultery
C.) Not providing maintenance to wife
D.) Defamation
4.) Special summons providing for pleading guilty
to the charge through the pleader and payment of
fine may be issued in relation to offences
punishable with a fine not exceeding:
A.) 100 rupees
B.) 500 rupees
C.) 1000 rupees
D.) 2000 rupees
5.) 1. The offence by a public servant of disobeying
a direction of the law with intent to cause injury to
any person u/s 166 IPC is:
1. Cognizable
2. Non-cognizable
III. Bailable
1. Non- bailable
A.) I, III
B.) II, IV
C.) II, III
D.) I, IV
6.) Which of these is true about the power of the
session court in taking cognizance of a case?
A.) No such power exists
B.) Inherent power to take cognizance rests with
the sessions court
C.) May take cognizance if the magistrate has
committed the case to it
D.) May take cognizance if the High Court has
permitted it to do so
7.) Additional and assistant sessions judges may
try a case which:
A.) Have been directed or committed to them by the
sessions judge
B.) Have been directed or committed to them by
the High Court
C.) The Additional and assistant sessions judges
have taken cognizance themselves
D.) Both a and b
8.) When a case appears before a magistrate and
he believes that it is exclusively triable by the
sessions court, he cannot:
A.) Try the case himself for reasons recorded for
doing so
B.) Remand the accused to custody
C.) Send the records of the case to the session
courts
D.) Notify the public prosecutor of such a case
9.) The offence of culpable homicide not amounting
to murder u/s 166 IPC is:
1. Cognizable
2. Non-cognizable
III. Bailable
1. Non- bailable
A.) I, III
B.) II, IV
C.) II, III
D.) I, IV
CrPC Quiz 4
1.) A is alleged to have committed an offence which
is punishable, but which is not identifiable by a
specific name under the law. What must the
charge for this offence mention?
A.) The name of the offence which bears closest
resemblance to the offence committed
B.) No name is necessary
C.) Description of the offence
D.) No charge can be made in this case
2.) A is accused to have committed an offence and
the nature and violated provisions of the law are
stated in the charge but the date and time are not
specified. This would result in:
A.) No effect on charge
B.) Alteration to be made before proceedings may
continue
C.) Dismissal of charge
D.) Fresh charge to be filed
3.) A charge is filed in a case pursuant to which
oral evidence is taken. Subsequently, the charge is
altered by the court for failure to include material
information. Which of the following is true?
A.) Evidence taken hitherto will continue to have
effect
B.) Such evidence should be taken again
C.) Proceedings should restart from the beginning
D.) Proceedings should be suspended
4.) A person may be charged together if in a year
he conducts:
A.) 3 offences of the same kind
B.) 4 offences of the same kind
C.) 5 offences of the same kind
D.) 6 offences of the same kind
5.) A breaks into B’s house by breaking his doors
and windows, kidnaps his child C for ransom and
kills C subsequently. Which of these offences may
be tried together?
1. Assault on B’s property
2. Kidnapping of C
III. Murder of C
A.) II and III
B.) I and III
C.) I and II
D.) I, II and III
6.) On finding that the case is not exclusively
triable by the sessions court, a Judge of such a
court:
A.) Must forward the case to the Chief Judicial
Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the first
class, who will be responsible for framing the
charge
B.) Must try the case himself
C.) May forward the case to the Chief Judicial
Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the first class
after framing a charge
D.) The CrPC is silent on this
7.) In a sessions trial, if an accused pleads guilty,
the Sessions Judge:
A.) Must convict and sentence him
B.) May convict him after recording the plea
C.) Forward the case to the Judicial Magistrate for
sentencing
D.) Forward the case to the High Court
8.) In an offence of defamation of public servants, if
the court discharges the accused, it may direct the
person by who alleged that the offence was
committed by the accused to show-cause why he
should not pay compensation. The direction
cannot be directed against:
A.) President
B.) Vice-president
C.) Governor
9.) A files a complaint alleging that B has
committed an offence. The magistrate finds that no
reasonable ground for the accusation exists. On
being ordered to pay compensation by the
magistrate, if A defaults on payment, he may be
subjected to:
A.) Simple imprisonment not exceeding 30 days
B.) Rigorous imprisonment not exceeding 30 days
C.) Simple imprisonment not exceeding 60 days
D.) Rigorous imprisonment not exceeding 60 days
10.) A complainant can withdraw his complaint at
any time until:
A.) Court takes cognizance of the case
B.) Charge is framed
C.) Arguments between prosecution and defence
begin
D.) Final order is passed
11.) A magistrate may convert a summons-trial to
warrant-trial if the offence is punishable with
imprisonment for a term exceeding:
A.) 6 months
B.) 4 months
C.) 2 months
D.) 1 months
12.) A case cannot be tried summarily by:
A.) Magistrate of the first class
B.) Sessions judge
C.) Chief judicial magistrate
D.) Metropolitan magistrate
13.) The maximum sentence of imprisonment that
may be given for a case triable summarily is:
A.) One month
B.) Two month
C.) Three month
D.) Six Months
14.) Which of these offences may not be tried
summarily:
A.) Theft of property which has value of less than
two hundred rupees
B.) Offence for which imprisonment exceeds two
years
C.) Insult with intent to provoke a breach of the
peace
D.) Criminal intimidation
15.) An accused who does not truthfully answer or
refused to answer questions put to him by the
court may be:
A.) Subjected to one-month imprisonment
B.) Subjected to a fine for one thousand rupees
C.) Subjected to one-month imprisonment and a
fine for one thousand rupees
D.) Cannot be liable to any punishment
16.) When an offender has been sentenced to
payment of a fine, the court cannot recover the fine
by:
A.) Issuing warrant for attachment of movable
property
B.) Issuing warrant for sale of movable property
C.) By publicly auctioning movable property
D.) Issue warrant to the District Collector for
realizing the amount as arrears of land revenue
17.) The place where any person may be liable to
be imprisoned or committed to custody is
determined by:
A.) High Court
B.) State government after consultation with the
High Court
C.) State government after consultation with the
central government
D.) State government
Answer Key for CrPC Quiz 4
1.) C 2.) A 3.) B 4.) A 5.) D 6.) C 7.) B 8.) D 9.) A
10.) D 11.) A 12.) B 13.) C 14.) D 15.) D 16.) C 17.)
D
THE CODE OF CRIMINAL PROCEDURE, 1973
1. Section 2 in Cr.P.C. defining “victim” as a

person who has suffered any loss or injury caused
by reason of the act or omission for which the
accused person has been charged includes
(a) victim’s guardian

(b) victim’s guardian or legal heir
(c) victim’s neighbour
(d) victim’s close friend.
2. According to section 41A(1) of Cr.P.C. the Police

Officer shall issue a notice directing the alleged
accused though he has committed a cognizable
offence, to appear before him or at such other
place as specified in notice in all the cases where
the arrest of a person is not required under the
(a) provisions of sub-section (1)(a) of section 41

(b) provisions of sub-section (1)(b) of section 41
(c) provisions of sub-section (1)(c) of section 41
(d) provisions of sub—section (1) of section 41
3. Within the meaning of provisions under section

41C(1) of the Criminal Procedure Code every State
Government shall establish a Police Control Room
(PCR) in
(a) every district

(b) State level only
(c) both district and at State level
(d) State Secretariat only.
4. Criminal Procedure Code which comes under

Concurrent List of Constitution of India is
(a) unduly rigid and does not make room for any
special law & procedure
(b) not unduly rigid and makes room for any
special law & procedure and generally I
gives precedence to such special law and
procedure
(c) not unduly rigid and makes room for any
special law 8:‘ procedure but generally gives
precedence to the law & procedure given under the
Code
(d) either (a) or (c).
5. What is true to Code of Criminal Procedure
(a) it is mainly, though not purely, an adjective or

procedural law
(b) there are also certain provisions which are
partly in the nature of substantive law
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
6. Which classification of offence comes under

Criminal Procedure Coder
(a) cognizable & non-cognizable

(b) bailable & non-bailable
(c) summons cases 8: warrant cases
(d) all the above.
7. Classification of offences given in the Code of

Criminal Procedure under
(a) section 320

(b) the lst Schedule
(c) the llnd Schedule
(d) section 482.
8. Cognizable offence under IPC has been defined
(a) under section 2(a) of Cr.P.C.

(b) under section 2(c) of Cr.P.C.
(c) under section 2(i) of Cr.P.C.
(d) under section 2(1) of Cr.P.C.
9. In a cognizable case under IPC, the police has

the
(a) authority to arrest a person without warrant

(b) authority to investigate the offence without
permission of the Magistrate
(c) both (a) &(b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
10. In a cognizable case under IPC, the police will

have all the powers to
(a) investigate except the power to arrest without

warrant V
(b) investigate including the power to arrest
without warrant
(c) investigate and arrest without warrant only
after seeking permission from the Magistrate
(d) investigate and arrest without warrant only
after informing the Magistrate having
jurisdiction to inquire into or try the offence.
11. A Magistrate has the power to direct the police

to investigate into an offence in IPC under
(a) section 156(1) of Cr PC

(b) section 156(2) of Cr PC
(c) section 156(3) of Cr PC
12. A Magistrate has the power under Cr. P.C. to

direct the police to investigate into
(a) a non-cognizable offence

(b) a cognizable offence
(c) only a non~cognizable offence, as in a
cognizable offence the police is under a duty to
investigate
(d) both (a) and (b).
13. In a non-cognizable case under IPC, the police

has the authority
(a) to investigate into the offence without order

given by the Magistrate but cannot arrest
the accused without warrant
(b) to investigate and even arrest the accused
without warrant
(c) neither to investigate without order of the
Magistrate nor can arrest the accused
without warrant
(d) cannot investigate without orders of the
Magistrate but can arrest without warrant.
14. Non-cognizable offence has been defined
(a) under section 2(a)

(b) under section 2(c)
(c) under section 2(i)
(d) under section 2(1).
15. A case which includes cognizable offences and
non-cognizable offences is
(a) a cognizable ease but requires sanction of the

Magistrate for investigation into the
noncognizable part under section 155(2) of Cr PC
(b) a cognizable case and as such the investigation
of the case does not require any sanction of the
Magistrate under section 155(2) of Cr ‘PC
(c) a non-cognizable case and as such the
investigation of the case requires sanction of
the Magistrate under section 155(2) of Cr PC
(d) a non-cognizable case but does not require
sanction of the Magistrate under section
155(2) of Cr PC
16. In a non-cognizable case, the accused
(a) can object to the grant of permission under

section 155(2) of Cr PC as a matter of right
(b) can object to the grant of permission under
section 155(2) of Cr PC with the I leave of
the Magistrate K
(c) can object to the grant of permission under
section 155(2) of_ Cr PC with the leave of the High
Court if
(d) has no right to participate in the proceedings
and cannot object to the grant of permission under
section 155(2) of Cr PC
17. Under the Scheme of Criminal Procedure non-

cognizable offences are
(a) public wrongs

(b) private wrongs
(c) both public and private wrongs
18. A Magistrate has the power to direct the police

to investigate in respect of an offence
(a) under the Indian Penal Code

(b) under any local or special law
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) only (a) and not (b).
19. Leave to investigate into ya non-cognizable

offence can be granted by a
(a) Magistrate in any part of India

(b) Magistrate in any part of the State t
(c) Magistrate having jurisdiction to try the case
20. In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a

matter of right
(a) by the police officer
(b) by the court
(c) both by the police officer & the court
21. In a bailable offence
(a) conditions can be imposed while granting bail

by the police officer
(b) conditions can be imposed while granting bail
by the court
(c) no condition can be imposed while granting bail
by the police officer or by the court
(d) only mild conditions can be imposed by the
court only.
22. Warrant case has been defined under section

2(x) of Cr PC as a case relating to an
offence punishable with death, imprisonment for
life or imprisonment for a term .
(a) exceeding three years

(b) exceeding two years
(c) exceeding one year
(d) exceeding one year but less than two years.
23. Classification of summons case AND warrant

case
(a) is useful to determine the trial procedure to be

adopted
(b) is useful to determine the investigation
procedure to be adopted
(c) is useful to decide the question of issuance of
process to the accused
(d) (a) & (c) are correct.
24. Complaint, as provided under section 2(d) of

Cr PC
(a) can be in writing only

(b) can be oral
(c) either in writing or oral
(d) can be by gestures.
25. Complaint as provided under section 2(d) of Cr

PC
(a) can be to a police officer
(b) can be to a Magistrate
(c) both (a) 8: (b)
(d) must necessarily to be a Magistrate only.
26. Complaint may relate to
(a) a cognizable offence

(b) a non-cognizable offence
(c) both (a) & (b) are correct
(d) must be for a non-cognizable offence as the
police has no power to investigate such an offence.
27. In respect of investigation as provided under

section 2(h) of Cr PC, which of the following is
incorrect
(a) investigation can be conducted by a police

officer
(b) investigation can be conducted by any person
so authorised by a Magistrate
(c) investigation can be conducted by a Magistrate
himself
(d) both (a) & (b).
28. When a complaint is presented to a

Magistrate, and the Magistrate proceeds to
examine the complainant & the witnesses
(a) the Magistrate is conducting investigation

(b) the Magistrate is conducting an inquiry
(c) Magistrate is conducting a trial
(d) both (b) & (c).
29. The word Magistrate mentioned in section
156(3) of Cr PC means
(a) a Judicial Magistrate

(b) a Special Executive Magistrate
(c) an Executive Magistrate
30. A Metropolitan Magistrate, has the power to

pass sentence, as provided under section 29 of Cr
PC
(a) any sentence authorized by law except a

sentence of death, or
(b) imprisonment for life or of imprisonment for a
term exceeding seven years
(c) imprisonment for a term not exceeding three
years and fine not exceeding Rs. 10,000
(d) imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year
and fine not exceeding Rs. 1,000.
31. A Metropolitan Magistrate can award sentence

of imprisonment -in default of payment of fine
(a) equal to the term of imprisonment which he is

competent to inflict as substantive
punishment
(b) not exceeding half of the term of imprisonment
which he is competent to inflict as
substantive sentence
(c) not exceeding one-third of the term of
imprisonment which he is competent to inflict
as substantive sentence
(d) not exceeding one-fourth of the term of
imprisonment which he is competent to inflict as
substantive sentence.
32. The imprisonment in default of fine
(a) shall be in addition to a substantive sentence

maximum awardable under section 29
without any specific order
(b) shall be in addition to a substantive sentence
only when a specific order to that effect is passed.
(c) shall not be in addition to the substantive
sentence awardable by the Magistrate
(d) shall be in addition to the substantive sentence
awardable but subject (to the upper limit for
substantive sentence prescribed under section 29.
33. In cases of consecutive sentence on conviction

of several offences at one trial by a Metropolitan
Magistrate the aggregate punishment
(a) shall not exceed twice the amount of

punishment which the Magistrate is competent
to inflict for a single offence
(b) shall not exceed the amount of punishment
which the Magistrate is competent to inflict for a
single offence as prescribed under section 29 of Cr
PC
(c) shall not exceed three times the amount of
punishment which the Magistrate .is competent to
inflict for a single offence
(d) Shall not exceed 14 years.
34. Classification of compoundable & non-

compoundable offences has been provided under
(a) lst Schedule
(b) Ilnd Schedule
35. Offences other than those mentioned in

section 320 of Cr PC are
(a) not compoundable’

(b) Compoundable with the permission of the court
(c) Compoundable by the Court of Sessions
(d) Compoundable by the High Court.
36. Arrest means
(a) every compulsion or physical restraint

(b) total restraint and complete deprivation of
liberty
(c) both (a) & (b)
37. A warrant of arrest is a command
(a) must be a Written order

(b) signed, sealed & issued by a Magistrate
(c) addressed to a police officer
38. A person can be arrested without warrant
(a) for securing attendance of accused at trial

(b) as a preventive or precautionary measure
(c) for obtaining correct name & address
(d) all the above.
39. Which of the following is correct

(a) Magistrate cannot arrest a person
(b) a private person cannot arrest a person
(c) a police officer can arrest a person
(d) both (a) & (b).
40. It is mandatory for a police officer to inform

the person arrested, the grounds of arrest and
right of bail if the offence is not non-bailable,
under
41. A police officer arresting a person may carry

out the personal search after compliance of ..
(a) under section 50 of Cr PC

(b) under section 51 of Cr PC
(c) under section 54 of Cr PC
(d) under section 56 of Cr PC.
42. Section 54 of Cr PC provides for
(a) medical examination of the accused at the

request of the police officer
(b) medical examination of the accused at the
request of the accused
(c) both (a) & (b)
43. It is mandatory to produce the person arrested

before the Magistrate, within 24 hours
of his arrest, under
44. A proclamation under section 82 of Cr PC can

be issued against a person against whom a
warrant has been issued. Thus a proclamation can
be issued against
(a) accused offender

(b) a surety
(c) a witness
(d) all the above.
45. A proclamation requiring a person to appear

must be published giving
(a) not less than 30 days time to the person

concerned
(b) not less than 10 days time to the person
concerned
(c) not less than 20 days time to the person
concerned
(d) not less than 15 days time to the person
concerned.
46. Attachment of the property of the person

absconding
(a) can only be issued after publication of the

proclamation under section 82 of Cr PC
(b) can be issued before publication of – the
proclamation under section 82 of Cr PC
(c) can be issued simultaneously with the issue of
proclamation under section’82 of Cr PC
(d) all the above.
47. Period of limitation for filing claims &

objections to the attachment of any property
attached under section 83 of Cr PC, by any person
other than the proclaimed person, as
provided under section 84 of Cr PC
(a) within three months of attachment

(b) within six months of attachment
(c) within one year of attachment
(d) within two months of attachment.
48. Period of limitation for filing a suit to establish

the right over the property attached, by a person
other than the person proclaimed, who has filed
claims & objection to attachment, is
(a) three months from the date of disallowing the

claim
(b) six months from the date of disallowing the
claim
(c) one year from the date of disallowing the claim
(d) three years from the date of disallowing the
claim.
49. If the person proclaimed appears within the

period specified in the proclamation, the property
attached
(a) shall not be released from attachment

(b) shall be released from attachment
(c) shall be forfeited
(d) both (a) & (c).
50. If the proclaimed person does not appear
within the time specified in the proclamation, the
property under attachment
(a) shall not be sold until expiry of six months from

the date of attachment
(b) shall not be sold until any claim or objection
under section 84 have been disposed of
(c) both (a) 8: (b)
POSSIBLE ANSWERS
1 B
2 D
3 C
4 B
5 C
6 D
7 B
8B
9C
10 B
11 C
12 D
13 C
14 D
15 B
16 D
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 C
21 C
22 B
23 D
24 C
25 D
26 C
27 C
28 D
29 A
30 C
31 D
32 A
33 A
34 C
35 A
36 B
37 D
38 D
39 C
40 B
41 B
42 B
43 B
44 D
45 A
46 C
47 D
48 C
49 B 97
50 C

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Multiple Choice Questions

Subject: Cr.P.C. (LLB III)

1] Under the provisions of the Code of Criminal

2] Under the provisions of the Code of Criminal

3] The plea of “not guilty” is __________ by Code of

4] Summary case is triable by?

6] Search during an investigation can be

7] _______ Section of the Code of Criminal

8] The power to direct investigation under section

10] The term “Police Officer” does not include?

11] Under Section 357 of the Code of Criminal

12] In cases of plea bargaining, the judgment

13] Plea Bargaining is inserted by which of the

14] Section 164A of Code of Criminal Procedure,

15] In-Camera trial refers to?

17] A copy of the First Information Report should

18] The First Information Report can be quashed

19] Who among the following is not entitled to

20] The NARCO Test is?

1. For granting pardon under section 306 of the

THE CODE OF CRIMINAL PROCEDURE, 1973

1. Section 2 in Cr.P.C. defining “victim” as a

(a) victim’s guardian

2. According to section 41A(1) of Cr.P.C. the Police

(a) provisions of sub-section (1)(a) of section 41

3. Within the meaning of provisions under section

(a) every district

4. Criminal Procedure Code which comes under

5. What is true to Code of Criminal Procedure

(a) it is mainly, though not purely, an adjective or

6. Which classification of offence comes under

(a) cognizable & non-cognizable

7. Classification of offences given in the Code of

(a) section 320

(a) under section 2(a) of Cr.P.C.

9. In a cognizable case under IPC, the police has

(a) authority to arrest a person without warrant

10. In a cognizable case under IPC, the police will

(a) investigate except the power to arrest without

11. A Magistrate has the power to direct the police

(a) section 156(1) of Cr PC

12. A Magistrate has the power under Cr. P.C. to

(a) a non-cognizable offence

13. In a non-cognizable case under IPC, the police

(a) to investigate into the offence without order

14. Non-cognizable offence has been defined

(a) under section 2(a)

(a) a cognizable ease but requires sanction of the

16. In a non-cognizable case, the accused

(a) can object to the grant of permission under

17. Under the Scheme of Criminal Procedure non-

(a) public wrongs

18. A Magistrate has the power to direct the police

(a) under the Indian Penal Code

19. Leave to investigate into ya non-cognizable

(a) Magistrate in any part of India

20. In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a