Multiple Choice Question

Law of Evidence (practice purpose)

Note: Questions have been prepared unit wise and the answer key of I, II &
III unit are in the last while answers of the IV unit are given with the
questions.

Unit I& II

1) As per section 3 of Indian Evidence Act 1872 facts means and includes
A) Anything, state of thing, or relation of things, capable of being perceived
by the senses.
B) Any mental condition of which any person is conscious
C) Both a and b
D) None of the above
2) Which is a document according to section the Evidence Act
A) Writing
B) Map
C) Photograph
D) All
3) Evidence includes
A) All statements made before court by witnesses
B) All documents and electronic records produced for inspection by court
C) Both a and b
D) None of the above
4) The term evidence under Evidence Act includes
A) documentary evidence
B) Oral evidence
C) Both a and b
D) None of the above
5) Facts which have occurred in the same transactions are relevant under
which sec of the Evidence Act.
A) Sec10
B) Sec 6
C) Sec 8
D) Not relevant
6) Facts in order to be relevant under sec 6 must have occurred
A) At the same time or place
B) At different time or place
C) Either a or b
D) Neither a nor b
7) Facts which are the occasion cause or effect of relevant fact or fact in
issue are relevant under which sec of Evidence act
A) Sec 5
B) Sec 6
C) Sec 7
D) Sec 8
8) Facts which constituted the state of things or opportunity for relevant fact
or fact in issue are relevant under which section of Evidence act
A) Sec 5
B) Sec 7
C) Sec 6
D) Sec 8
9) The theory of Last seen together is recognised by which section of
Evidence Act
A) Sec 7
B) Sec 5
C) Sec 6
D) Sec 8
10) The question is whether A murdered B. Marks on the ground,
produced by a struggle at or near the place where the murder was
committed are relevant under
A) Sec 7
B) Sec 8
C) Sec 9
D) Sec 10
11) Facts showing or constituting motive are relevant under which
section
A) Sec 7
B) Sec 8
C) Sec 9
D) Sec 10
12) Evidence of preparation of fact in issue or relevant fact is
admissible under which sec of Evidence Act
A) Sec 7
B) Sec 8
C) Sec 9
D) Sec 10
13) Evidence f the conduct of the part or agent is relevant under which
section of Evidence Act
A) Sec 7
B) Sec 9
C) Sec 8
D) Sec 10
14) Under sec 8 of the evidence act evidence of the following facts are
made relevant
A) Motive
B) Preparation
C) Conduct
D) All above
15) A is tried for the murder of B by poison. The fact that, before the
death of B. A procured poison similar to that which was administered to
B is relevant under which section
A) Sec 6
B) Sec 7
C) Sec 8
D) Sec 9
16) What facts are relevant under sec 9 of Evidence act
A) Explanatory or introductory to facts to fact in issue and relevant fact
B) Supporting or rebutting inference suggested by fact in issue and relevant
fact
C) Establish the identity of any person or thing
D) All the above
17) Evidence of Test Identification Parade is admissible under which
section of Evidence Act
A) Sec 7
B) Sec 8
C) Sec 9
D) Sec 11
18) Which fact is relevant under sec 9 of the Evidence Act
A) Facts which fix the time or place of fact in issue or relevant fact
B) Shows relation of parties by whom fact transacted
C) Neither a nor b
D) Both a and b
19) In which case it was said that things said or done while conspiracy
was afoot are relevant under sec 10
A) Mirza Akbar v. King Emperor
B) Badri Rai V State
C) Navjot Sandhu v. State NCT of Delhi
D) None of the above
20) Statement of a co -conspirator is relevant under section 10 of
Evidence act for the purpose of proving
A) Fact of conspiracy
B) Any person was party to conspiracy
C) Either a or b
D) Neither a nor b
21) Evidence of which fact is relevant under sec 11
A) Plea of alibi
B) Last seen theory
C) TIP
D) Res gestae
22) Under section 11 of Evidence Act what fact is relevant
A) Facts inconsistent with fact in issue or relevant fact
B) Fact supporting any inference suggested by fact in issue or relevant fact
C) Fact rebutting an inference suggested by fact in issue or relevant fact
D) All above
23) A statement suggesting any inference as to any fact in issue or
relevant fact is called
A) Admission
B) Confession
C) Res gestae
D) Conspiracy
24) Statement made by person to whom party to the suit has expressly
referred for information is relevant under which section of Evidence Act
A) Sec 17
B) Sec 18
C) Sec 19
D) Sec 20
25) According to sec 21 of Evidence Act what is relevant
A) Self -serving admissions
B) Self -harming admissions
C) Both a and b
D) Neither a nor b
26) Self- serving admissions can be proved
A) If they would be relevant between third person under sec 32
B) If they consist of statement of the existence of state of body or mind
C) If they are relevant otherwise than as admissions
D) All above
27) Oral Admissions as to contents of document are relevant
A) If party is entitled to give secondary evidence of its contents
B) Genuineness of document is in question
C) Either a or b
D) Neither a nor b
28) Oral Admissions as to contents of electronic evidence are relevant
A) If party is entitled to give secondary evidence of its content
B) Genuineness of document is in question
C) Either a or b
D) Neither a nor b
29) In civil cases admissions can’t be proved
A) Made under express condition that evidence of it will not be given
B) Court from circumstances infer that there was agreement between parties
that evidence of it will not be given
C) Either a or b
D) Neither a nor b
30) A confession is irrelevant if it was made
A) Inducement
B) Threat
C) Promise
D) Any of the above
31) Confession made to a police officer is inadmissible by virtue of
which section of Evidence Act
A) Sec 24
B) Sec 25
C) Sec 26
D) Sec 27
32) Under Section 26 confession cant be proved if
A) Police officer
B) Any person in custody of police officer
C) Magistrate
D) Doctor
33) Sec 27 saves the following statement
A) Plea of alibi
B) Discovery statement
C) Confession
D) Res gestae
34) Under Sec 29 confession otherwise relevant does not become
irrelevant merely because it was given
A) Under promise of secrecy
B) In consequence of deception practised
C) When drunk
D) Any of the above
35) Confession of a co accused can be taken into consideration by the
court against other under which section of the Evidence act
A) Sec 29
B) Sec 30
C) Sec 31
D) None of the above
36) Confession made while the person was in custody of police is
relevant if it made in the presence of
A) Police officer
B) Magistrate
C) Doctor
D) Sarpanch
37) Which section of Evidence Act says that admissions are not
conclusive proof of the matters admitted.
A) Sec 28
B) Sec 30
C) Sec 31
D) Sec 32
38) Under section 32 of the Evidence Act statement of a person is
relevant if made by person
A) Who is dead
B) Cannot be found
C) Become incapable of giving evidence
D) Any of the above
39) Evidence of Dying Declaration is relevant under which section of
Evidence Act
A) Sec 31
B) Sec 32
C) Sec 33
D) Sec 34
40) Confession referred to under sec 24 of Evidence Act made after the
impression caused by such inducement, threat or promise is removed is
made relevant under which sec of Evidence Act
A) Sec 26
B) Sec 27
C) Sec 28
D) Sec 29
41) Which one is a landmark case on the admissibility of confessional
FIR
A) Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab
B) Aghnoo Nagesis v. State Of Bihar
C) Pulukuri Kottaya v. Emperor
D) None of the above
42) In which case the SC said that Dying Declaration can be the sole
basis of conviction
A) Khushal Rao v. State of Bombay
B) Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab
C) Pakala Narayan Swami v. King Emperor
D) None of the above
43) Which case is also known as Jain Hawala case
A) Veera Ibrahim v. State of Maharashtra
B) CBI v. V.C Shukla
C) Bodhraj v. State of J&K
D) None of the above
44) Which section of the Evidence Act says that court can ask from the
part proposing to prove a fact how that fact will be relevant.
A) Sec 135
B) Sec 136
C) Sec 165
D) None of the above
45) Which section of Evidence act says a that judge in order to obtain
proper proof of relevant facts may ask any question.
A) Sec 135
B) Sec 136
C) Sec 165
D) None of the above
46) Facts which enable the court to determine damages to be awarded
are made relevant under which sections of the Evidence Act
A) Sec 10
B) Sec 11
C) Sec 12
D) None of the above
47) When the question is as to the existence of any right or custom
what facts are relevant under section 13of Evidence Act
A) Any transaction in which such right or custom was created, recognised
modified etc
 B) Particular instances in which such right or custom was created,
recognised modified etc
C) Neither a nor b
D) Either a or b
48) Facts showing the existence of state of mind or of body or bodily
feeling are relevant under which section of the Evidence Act
A) Sec 12
B) Sec 13
C) Sec 14
D) Sec 15
49) A is accused of burning down his house in order to obtain money
for which it is insured. The fact that A lived in several houses
successively, each of which he insured, in each of which a fire occurred,
and after each of which fires A received payment from a different
insurance office, are relevant, as tending to show that the fires were not
accidental this fact is relevant under which section of Evidence Act
A) Sec 15
B) Sec 14
C) Sec 16
D) Not relevant
50) Evidence as to existence of course of business is relevant under
which section of Evidence Act
A) Sec 14
B) Sec 15
C) Sec 16
D) Sec 17
Unit -3
Q.1 Presumptions defined under sec…… of Indian evidence act

Ans. (a) sec.5

(b) sec. 7

(c)sec. 4

(d)sec.10

Q.2 The expression ‘Shall presume’ …… for the court to presume a fact.

Ans. (a) Declares

(b) Directs
 (c) Provides

(d) Provides & declares

Q.3 Production and effect of evidence given under chapter….. of IE act,1872

Ans. (a) Chapter VII

(b) Chapter IV

(c) Chapter V

(d) Chapter VII

Q. 4. Presumptions of death in case of absence of any person is given for ……..

years under the IE Act,1872

Ans. (a) 10 Years

(b)7 Years

(c)12 Years

(d) 30 Years

Q.5 Presumptions of ……..years is given for the fact that the person is alive.

Ans. (a) 7 years

(b) 15 years

(c) 18 years

(d)30 years

Q. 6‘Rule of estoppel’ is not a sword but a shield for defence under the I E Act

Ans. (a)True

(b)False

Q.7 Presumption in case of legitimacy of a child is given u/s. …… of IE Act,

1872.

Ans. (a) 114

 (b)111

(c)110

(d)112

Q.8 Presumption of legitimacy can be rebutted on the ground of ………. of the

husband.

Ans. (a) Presence

(b) Absence

(c) Non access

(d) either (a) or (b)

Q.9 Burden of proving the general exceptions of IPC is given under section
……. of the IE Act, 1872

Ans. (a) Sec 101

(b) Sec. 104

(c)Sec. 105

(d) Sec. 102

Q. 10. The basic test of onus of Proof is given under section…… of IE Act,
1872

Ans. (a) Sec. 104

(b)Sec. 102

(c) Sec. 106

(d) Sec.110

Q. 11 Burden to prove good faith is on the party who is ………. Of sec. 111 of
the IE Act, 1872

Ans. (a) In active confidence

(b) Not in active confidence

(c) In subordination
 (d) All of the above

Q. 12. Person who is in the possession of the property. He is considered as

…….of the property.

Ans. (a) Tenant

(b)Owner

(c) Neither (a) nor (b)

(d)Either (a) or (b)

Q. 13 Rule of best evidence is given for oral or documentary evidence.

Ans. (a) True

(b) False

Q.14 Sec.59 excludes content of document & electronic record for oral
evidence.

Ans. (a) True

(b) False

Q. 15. Sec. 61 enables for giving primary or secondary evidence in order to

prove content of document.

Ans. (a) True

(b) False

Q.16. Sec. 61 is not exhaustive but subjected to sec. 64 on the content of

document.

Ans. (a) True

(b)False

Q. 17. Definition of primary evidence is given under sec……. of Indian

Evidence Act, 1872

Ans. (a) Sec. 12

 (b) Sec. 63

(c) Sec. 62

(d) Sec. 64

Q. 18. Oral evidence must be ……… under sec. 60 of Indian evidence act

Ans. (a) Direct

(b)Indirect

(c) either (a) or (b)

(d)Neither (a) nor (b)

Q.19. Circumstances for giving secondary documents are given under sec. …….
of Indian Evidence act, 1872

Ans. (a) 65

(b) 61

(c) 64

(d) 63

Q. 20. The concept of privileged communications is given under …….

Ans. (a) Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(b) Law of contract Act, 1872

(c) Indian Penal Code, 1860

(d) Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

Q.21. The husband and wife can claim privileged communication ……. under
the Act

Ans. (a)During the subsistence of the marriage

(b) After dissolution of the marriage

(c) Either (a) or (b)

 (d) if communication was during the subsistence of marriage can be
claimed even after dissolution.

Q. 22. Husband and wife can waive their right of privileged communication by
….

Ans. (a) Their consent

(b) By the consent of representative in interest

(c) Both (a) & (b)

(d) By their relative’s consent

Q.23. Rule of estoppel is just a rule of procedure not a substantive right.

Ans. (a) True

(b) False

Q.24. Under sec. 116 tenant cannot deny the title of the landlord.

Ans. (a) During the continuance of the tenancy

(b) After the tenancy is over

(c) Both (a) & (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Q.25. Who can not be permitted to give evidence as to affairs of the state under
section 123 0f IE Act, 1872?

Ans. (a) Every person

(b)Any person

(c) No person

(d) Public officer

Q. 26 Who cannot be compelled to disclose the communication made in official

confidence as per sec. 124 of IE Act, 1872?

Ans. (a) Police officer

 (b)Any person

(c)Public officer

(d) Every person

Q.27. Competency of witness is given under sec…..of IE Act, 1872

Ans. (a)116

(b)118

(c)110

(d) 115

Q.28. Magistrate, police officer and ……..shall not be compelled to disclose

that whence they got the information of any offence u/s. 125 of IE Act, 1872

Ans. (a) Public officer

(b)Revenue officer

(c)Judges

(d)Civil servant

Q. 29. Protection regarding professional communication is given under sec…….

of IE Act, 1872

Ans. (a) 127

(b)129

(c)126

(d) 122

Q.30 Confidential communication with ……. cannot be taken as an evidence as

per the general rule of sec. 129 of IE Act, 1872

Ans. (a) Advocate

 (b) Barrister

(c) Legal Advisers

(d) Person

Q. 31 How many no. of witnesses are required for proving any fact in the case?

Ans. (a)3

(b)7

(c)16

(d)No particular no. is mentioned under IE Act, 1872

Q. 32 E- evidence are admissible U/S …… of IE Act, 1872

Ans. (a) 65

(b) 63

(c) 64

(d) 65-B

Q.33 Judge or Magistrate shall not be compelled to answer any question as to

his own conduct in court except….

Ans. (a) order of the superior court

(b) He is the witness of any occurrence

(c) either (a) or (b)

(d) Both (a) & (b)

Q.34 Husband and wife are the competent witness if ……

Ans. (a) They are prosecuting each other

(b) They are not prosecuting each other

(c) Either (a) or (b)

(d)Both (a) & (b)

Q. 35 Evidence regarding affairs of the state can be given with the permission
of the……. u/s. 123 of IE Act, 1872

Ans. (a)Police officer

(b) Government officer

(c) Officer at the head of the department

(d) State Government

Q. 36 Bailee has the right to deliver the goods other than the bailor as per the
explanation II of sec.117 of IE Act, 1872.

Ans. (a) True

(b) False

Q.37. Licensee cannot deny that licensor was having authority to grant license
at the time of the commencement of license under sec. …..of IE Act, 1872.

Ans. (a)118

(b)115

(c)117

(d)119

Q. 38 Privilege communication cannot be disclosed by clerks of the advocate

under sec. ….. of IE Act, 1872

Ans. (a) 112

(b)126

(c)127

(d) 129

Q. 39 It will be deemed to waive the right of privileged communication if

client himself volunteer for giving evidence.

Ans. (a) true

(b)false
 Q. 40. No privileged communication can be claimed If such communication
was made in furtherance of any illegal purpose by client.

Ans. (a) True

(b)False

Q.41 The definition of an expert is given U/S. …… of IE Act, 1872.

Ans. (a) 56

(b) 45

(c)23

(d)32

Q.42. What is the condition precedent for the applicability of sec. 45 of IE Act,
1872

Ans. (a) When court has to form an opinion

(b) When court is not required to form an opinion

(c) Both (a) & (b)

(d)Either (a) or (b)

Q.43. opinion of an acquaintance can be taken if any handwriting is in issue.

Ans. (a) Yes

(b)No

Q. 44. Opinion of a handwriting expert is relevant under sec…. of IE Act, 1872.

Ans. (a)34

(b)54

(c)46

(d)45
Q. 45. Opinion of a person who is having special means of knowledge can be
taken if issue is regarding any usage or tenets under section 49 of IE Act, 1872.

Ans. (a) True

(b) False

Q. 46 Grounds of opinion are relevant under sec…… of IE Act, 1872.

Ans. (a)53

(b)51

(c) 54

(d)45

Q.47 In case of electronic signature whose opinion is relevant?

Ans. (a) An Expert

(b) Certifying authority

(c) Public person

(d) Government authority

Q.48. Evidence from forensic science is admissible under sec. …. of IEA

Ans. (a) 35

(b)60

(c)55

(d)45

Q. 49. Evidence is a means and proof is the end evidence under Law of
Evidence.

Ans. (a) True

(b) False

Q.50 Indian Evidence Act deals with the relevancy of ……

Ans. (a) Liability

(b)Responsibility

(c) Duty

(d)Facts

Unit IV
1. Examination of witnesses in criminal cases through video conferencing is:
(a) permissible
(b) impermissible
(c) permissible at the option of the witness
(d) permissible at the option of the accused.
Ans. (a)

2. The evidence unearthed by the sniffer dog falls under:

(a) oral evidence
(b) documentary evidence
(c) hearsay evidence
(d) scientific evidence
Ans. (d)

3. It is a well-settled law that the rule of prudence requires that the evidence of an
accomplice should ordinarily be corroborated by some other evidence. It was held
by Supreme Court in:
(a) Francis Stanly v. Intelligence Officer, AIR 2007 SC 794
(b) Youaraj Rai v. Chander Bahadur Karki, AIR 2007 SC 561
(c) Kamla Devi v. Khushal Kunwar, AIR 2007 SC 663
(d) Bablu v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 2006 SC 115
Ans. (a)

4. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act was amended by the Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act, 2005:
(a) section 154
(b) section 118
(c) section 32
(d) section 90A
Ans. (a)

5. During the cross examination of the witness as to previous statements made

before the police almost all contradictions or omissions were brought on record,
which were portions from the statements made before the police that were not
deposed before the court. Which of the following statements will apply to the
case?
A. The credibility of the witness has been impeached under section 148 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
B. The credibility of the witness has been impeached under section 145 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
C. The credibility of the witness has not been impeached because the
contradictions were not as contemplated under section 145 of the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872
D. The credibility of the witness has not been impeached because the protection
under section 154 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 will apply
Ans. C

6. Under section 145 of Evidence Act, a witness may be cross-examined as to

previous statement in writing:
(a) without proving the same and without showing the same to the witness
(b) only after proving the same, may be without showing the same to the witness
(c) without proving the same but only after showing the same to the witness
(d) only after proving the same & showing the same to the witness.
Ans. (a)

7. Under section 145 of Evidence Act, a witness may be contradicted as to

previous statement in writing:
(a) without proving the same and without showing the same to the witness
(b) without proving the same but only after showing the same to the witness
(c) after proving the same may be before showing the same to the witness
(d) after proving the same & showing the same to the witness.
Ans. (b)

8. The provision “hostile witness” is provided under section of Indian Evidence

Act:
(a) section 155
(b) section 133
(c) section 154
(d) section 145.
Ans. (c)

9. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with when
leading questions may not be asked?
A. Section 139
B. Section 145
C. Section 140
D. Section 142
Ans: D

10. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
testimony to facts stated in document mentioned in Section 159?
A. Section 156
B. Section 160
C. Section 157
D. Section 160
Ans: B

11. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
evidence as to matters in writing?
A. Section 139
B. Section 144
C. Section 155
D. Section 163
Ans. B

12. A Child witness below the age of____________ cannot give evidence in
the Indian Courts.
A. 15 years
B. 12 years
C. 10 years
D. There is no such limit
Ans. D
13. When witness is to be compelled to answer, which of the following section of
the Indian Evidence Act comes into operation?
A. Section 147

B. Section 128

C. Section 169

D. Section 163

Ans: A

14. What essential change was made in section 154 of the Indian Evidence Act,
1872 vide Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005:
(a) two statements sought to be contradicted in addition should be drawn to
previous statement
(b) the party is entitled to rely on any part of the evidence of the witness to whom
he has called to put any question to him, which might be put in cross-examination
by the adverse party
(c) corroborating a witness by questioning him on surrounding circumstances
(d) former statement of witness may be proved to corroborate later testimony as
to same fact.
Ans. (b)

15. Which of the following questions is proper under section 148 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872?
A. If the imputation refers to matters remote in time
B. If the imputation refers to such matters that its truth does not affect the
credibility of the witness
C. If they are of such nature that the truth of the imputations touches the
credibility of the witness
D. If there is great disproportion between the importance of the imputation and
the importance of the evidence
Ans. C
16. A person summoned to produce a document-
A. Does not become a witness in the case unless he is called as a witness
B. Automatically becomes a witness in the case
C. Automatically becomes an hostile witness in the case
D. Can be cross examined without being called as a witness
Ans. A

17. Which of the following statements hold true for examination in chief of a
witness?
A. The leading questions can be used
B. It must only relate to relevant facts
C. It must only relate to the fact in question
D. All of these
Ans. B

18. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the
production of documents and translation of documents?
A. Section 156
B. Section 159
C. Section 157
D. Section 162
Ans. D

19. Which of the following provides for definition of witness

A. Section 118
B. Section 119
C. Section 120
D. None of the Above
ANS: D

20. If a witness is asked whether he has been previously convicted of any crime
and denies it, evidence may be given of his previous conviction under which of
the following section:
A. Section 154
B. Section 143
C. Section 153
D. None of the Above
Ans: C

21. A is indicted for the murder of B. C says that B, when dying declared that A
had given B the wound of which he died. Evidence is offered to show that, on a
previous occasion, C said that the wound was not given by A or in his presence.
a. evidence is admissible
b. evidence is inadmissible
c. depends on discretion of the Court
d. None of the above
Ans: A

22. In which of the following cases did the court held that a party who produces
witnesses in court produces them as witnesses of truth; and simply because
portions of their statements are not favourable to the party producing them, they
cannot be condemned as biased witnesses?
A. Gyasuddin Khan v. State of Bihar, AIR 2004 SC 201, para 12 : 2004 CrLJ 395
B. Lekhraj v. State of Gujarat, AIR 1998 SC 242 : 1998 CrLJ 396.
C. Gulabchand Ganbhiramal v. Kudilal Govindram, AIR 1959 MP 151 : 1961
CrLJ 55 (FB).
D. Siddiqua v. Narcotics Control Bureau, 2007 CrLJ 1471, 1480 (para 17) (Del).
Ans. C

23. As per Section 155 of the IEA, The credit of a witness may be impeached in
the following ways by the adverse party, or with the consent of the Court, by the
party who calls him—

(a) By evidence
(b) By proof that witness has been bribed
(c) By proof of inconsistency of former statements
(d) All of the above

24. Which of the following section provides for refreshing memory:

(a) Section 159 of Evidence Act
(b) section 161 of Evidence Act
(c) section 162 of Evidence Act
(d) section 153 of Evidence Act.
Ans (a)

25. A leading question has been defined as a question suggesting the answer
which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive, under:
(a) section 140 of Evidence Act
(b) section 141 of Evidence Act
(c) section 142 of Evidence Act
(d) section 143 of Evidence Act.
Ans. (b)

26. During examination in chief or re-examination:

(a) leading questions cannot be asked under any circumstances
(b) leading questions on certain matters can be asked without the permission of
the court, as a matter of right
(c) leading question on certain matter can be asked only with the permission of
the court
(d) only (a) and not (b) or (c).
Ans. (c)

27. Section 132 of the Indian Evidence Act does not apply to a statement made
by a person during an investigation under:
A. Section 159 Cr. P.C
B. Section 161 Cr. P.C
C. Section 163 Cr. P.C
D. Section 166 Cr. P.C
Ans. B

28. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act does not apply to
interrogations by a Customs Officer exercising power under Section 171 -A of
the Sea Customs Act?
A. Section 131
B. Section 132
C. Section 133
D. Section 134
Ans: B
29. Section 130, Indian Evidence Act protects a witness, who is not a party to
the suit in which he is called, from producing?
A. Title-deeds to any property

B. Any document in virtue of which he holds any property as pledgee or

mortgagee

C. Any document the production of which might tend to criminate him, unless
he has agreed in writing to produce such document

D. All of them

Ans: D

30. The Privy Council held that the combined result of Sections 133 read with
illustration (b) to Section 114 of Evidence Act is that the Courts have evolved, as
a rule of prudence, the requirement that it would be unsafe to convict an accused
solely based on uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice. The evidence of an
accomplice must point to the involvement of a particular accused.
(a) Bhuboni Sahu v The King
(b) Sarwan Singh v. State of Punjab
(c) C.R Mehta v. State of Maharashtra
(d)Lachi ram v. State of Punjab
Ans. (a)

31. Section 162 of Cr PC:

(a) controls section 157 of Evidence Act
(b) controls section 156 of Evidence Act
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. (a)

32. Court questions can be put by virtue of:

(a) section 164 of Evidence Act
(b) section 165 of Evidence Act
(c) section 166 of Evidence Act
(d) section 167 of Evidence Act.
Ans. (b)

33. Court question under section 165 of Evidence Act can be put to:
(a) any witness
(b) any party
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. (c)

34. To an answer to a court question, the adverse party:

(a) has a right to cross-examination as a matter of right
(b) has a right to cross-examine only with the permission of the court
(c) has no right to cross-examine the witness
(d) either (a) or (c).
Ans. (b)

35. The right to cross-examine on an answer to court question is available:

(a) to the adverse party only
(b) to the party calling the witness only
(c) to either of the parties if the answer is adverse to either of the parties
(d) only (a) and not (b).
Ans. (c)

36. Delhi High Court issued guidelines for the protection of witness in:
(a) Neelam Katara case (2003)
(b) Naina Sahni case (2007)
(c) Uphaar Cinema case (2005)
(d) Parliament attack case (2006).
Ans. (a)

37. “Relationship is not a factor to affect credibility of a witness” held by the

Supreme Court in:
(a) S. Sudershan Reddy v. State of Andhra Pradesh, AIR 2006 SC 2716
(b) Syed Ibrahim v. State of Andhra Pradesh, AIR 2004 SC 2596
(c) Renuka Bai v. State of Maharashtra, AIR 2006 SC 3056
(d) Minu Kumari v. State of Bihar, AIR 2006 SC 130
Ans. (a)
38. In which case the Supreme Court held that material evidence and not the
number of witnesses has to be taken note to ascertain the truth of the allegations
made:
(a) Surendra Prasad Tiwari v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 2005 SC 125
(b) Syed Ibrahim v. State of Andhra Pradesh, AIR 2006 SC 2908
(c) Rajinder v. State of Haryana, AIR 2006 SC 21
(d) Jagdish Murav v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 2007 SC 35
Ans. (b)

39. Objections as to the admissibility of a document in evidence:

(a) can be made at any state during the trial
(b) can be made at the first opportunity when the document is tendered in
evidence
(c) can be raised for the first time in appeal
(d) all the above.
Ans. (b)

40. A party/person who calls the witness can be permitted to cross-examine the
witness so called by him, as provided:
(a) under section 152 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 153 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 154 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 155 of Evidence Act.
Ans. (c)
ANSWER KEY Unit 1 & II

1) C
2) D
3) C
4) C
5) B
6) C
7) C
8) B
9) A
10) A
11) B
12) B
13) C
14) D
15) C
16) D
17) C
18) D
19) A
20) C
21) A
22) D
23) A
24) D
25) B
26) D
27) C
28) B
29) C
30) D
31) B
32) B
33) B
34) D
35) B
 36) B
37) C
38) D
39) B
40) C
41) B
42) A
43) B
44) B
45) C
46) C
47) D
48) C
49) A
50) C

Answer key Unit III

Ans. 1 (c)

Ans.2 (a)

Ans.3 (d)

Ans.4(b)

Ans.5 (d)

Ans.6 (a)

Ans.7 (d)

Ans 8 (c)

Ans 9 (c)

Ans.10 (b)

Ans. 11 (a)

Ans. 12 (b)

Ans. 13 (a)
Ans. 14 (a)

Ans. 15 (a)

Ans.16 (a)

Ans. 17 (c)

Ans. 18 (a)

Ans. 19 (a)

Ans. 20 (a)

Ans. 21 (d)

Ans. 22 (c)

Ans. 23 (a)

Ans. 24 (a)

Ans. 25 (c)

Ans. 26 (c)

Ans. 27 (b)

Ans. 28(b)

Ans. 29 (c)

Ans. 30 (c)

Ans. 31 (d)

Ans. 32 (d)

Ans. 33 (d)

Ans. 34 (a)

Ans. 35 (c)

Ans. 36 (a)

Ans. 37(c)
Ans. 38(c)

Ans. 39 (b)

Ans. 40 (a)

Ans. 41 (b)

Ans. 42 (a)

Ans. 43 (a)

Ans. 44 (d)

Ans. 45(a)

Ans. 46 (b)

Ans. 47 (b)

Ans. 48 (d)

Ans. 49 (a)

Ans. 50 (d)

Prepared by:

Dr. Sushila Sharma

Ms. Lovleen Sharma

Ms. Rajni Kheria

Compiled by:

Dr. Sushila Sharma