Environmental Law

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which section empowers the Central Government to make rules relating to standards of
quality in relation to air, water and soil?
a) Section 4
b) Section 3
c) Section 5
d) Section 6
2. The court has accepted that development should not be at the cost of the environment and
vice versa in Indian Council for Enviro Legal Action v. UOI on the ground that:
a) Ecological Balance must be maintained.
b) Environment is common heritage of mankind.
c) Principle of intergenerational equity.
d) None of the above.
3. The term “environment Pollutant” has been defined in the Act includes:
a) Solid Liquid or gaseous substance present in concentration that is injurious to the
environment.
b) Hazardous substances that are responsible for pollution.
c) Takes into account air, water and noise pollution.
d) All of the above.
4. The EP Act is under which of the categories of legislations?
a) Welfare Legislation
b) Penal Legislation.
c) Remedial Legislation.
d) None of the above
5. Environmental Protection and improvement were explicitly incorporated into the Constitution
by the ……….. by inserting Articles 48-A and 51-A (g) in “Directive Principles of State Policy”
and “Fundamental Duties” respectively.
a) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
b) 35th Amendment Act, 1974
c) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
d) 45th Amendment Act, 1980
6. Under the Air Act, 1981 which body is empowered to set standard for ambient air quality?
a) Ministry of Home Affairs.
b) CPCB
c) Ministry of Forest and Environment.
d) State Ministry of Home Affairs.
7. Silence area comprises an area of not less than ……. meters around hospitals, educational
institutions and courts as per the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000.
a) 50
b) 100
c) 200
d) 250
8. As per the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, Rule 5 restricts the use of
loudspeaker or public address system ….. and …. except in closed premises.
a) 9 pm; 5 am
b) 10 pm; 5 am
c) 10 pm; 6 am
d) 11 pm; 7 pm
9. Every Board constituted under the Air Act, 1981 shall have:
a) Perpetual succession and common seal.
b) To sue and be sued.
c) Power to acquire & dispose of property and to contract.
d) All of the above.
10. As per Rule 2(b), the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 an area/zone
means all areas which fall in either of the four categories given in the schedule annexed to
the Rules. This does not include:
a) Commercial Area.
b) Residential Area
c) Silence zone
d) Industrial Area
11. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is authorized to look into matters of
environmental pollution. Where is this authority derived from?
a) Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986.
b) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
c) National Green Tribunal Act 2010
d) National Environment Tribunal Act, 1995
12. What was the objective of the passing of the National Green Tribunal Act 2010?
a) Consolidation of environmental laws in the country.
b) In order to confirm to the standards set out by the Vienna Convention.
c) In order to ensure conformity to the Rio Convention.
d) None of the above.
13. What is the object of the “polluter pays principle”?
a) Pure deterrents effect.
b) Retributive effect.
 c) Ensure that the victims of damage are compensated as well as that the degradation so
caused to the environment is mitigated.
d) None of the above.
14. Action was brought under Section 133 before the Magistrate seeking injunction restraining
a paper company from discharging effluents until it constructed a water treatment plant. Is
an injunction by Magistrate under this in excess of his powers?
a) No. All courts have the right to apply the doctrine of public trust.
b) No. based on the doctrine of implied power and strict enforcement of public welfare
legislation, courts have broad power.
c) Yes. Such an act of the company cannot be challenged.
d) Yes. The Magistrate does not have power to pass injunction order.
15. Stream as per Section 2(j), Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, does not
include:
a) River
b) Groundwater
c) A dry water course
d) Inland water (whether natural or artificial)
16. Which of the following is not included in the term “trade effluent” as defined in the Water
(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974?
a) Liquid or solid substance from an operation or process.
b) Liquid or solid substance from treatment and disposal system.
c) Gaseous or solid substance from an industry.
d) Domestic sewage.
17. Which of the following is the correct classification of forests under the Indian Forests Act,
1927?
a) Social forest, private forest, recorded forest
b) National park, wildlife sanctuary, biosphere reserves.
c) Reserved forest, village forest, protected forest
d) Tropical forest, wetlands, grasslands.
18. Which environmental legislation in India makes it mandatory to get the prior approval of
the Central Government for diversion of forests lands for non-forestry purposes?
a) Indian Forest Act, 1927
b) Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986.
c) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
d) The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition
of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
19. Who has proprietary rights over reserved forests?
a) Government of the State within whose territory the reserved forest falls.
b) Central Government.
 c) The local villagers, tribal and indigenous communities inhabiting near/in the reserved
forests.
d) All citizens of India.
20. Members or community of Scheduled Tribes who primarily reside in and who depend on
forests lands for bonafide livelihood needs are:
a) Land dwellers
b) Forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes
c) Benamidars
d) None of the above.
21. Settlements which have been established inside the forests by the Forest Department of
any State Government for forestry operations are:
a) Forestry areas
b) Gram areas
c) Forest villages
d) Habitat townships.
22. Which of the following are forest rights of the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes?
a) Right to hold and live in the forest land.
b) Right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce.
c) Community rights or entitlements such as right to fish, etc.
d) All of the above.
23. It is the duty of a holder of a forest right or Gram Sabha or village institution to:
a) Protect the wildlife, forest and biodiversity.
b) Ensure that the adjoining catchment areas, water sources and other ecological
sensitive areas are adequately protected.
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) and (b)
24. The killing of a [Sch.I, Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972] wild animal would be not allowed
when:
a) The Chief Wild Life Warden decides and in writing with reasons provides that the
animal has become dangerous to human life.
b) The Chief Wild Life Warden decides and in writing with reasons provides that the
animal has become disabled beyond recovery.
c) The Chief Wild Life Warden decides and in writing with reasons provides that the
animal has become diseased as to be beyond recovery.
d) The Chief Wild Life Warden decides and in writing with reasons provides that the
animal has become dangerous to human property (including standing crops on any
land).
25. What does the term, “taxidermy” refer to in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972?
a) The biological specialty that deals with the grouping and naming of organisms is called
taxonomy.
 b) The curing, preparation or preservation of trophies.
c) The study and reconstruction of evolutionary relationships.
d) The whole or any part of any captive animal or wild animal, other than vermin, which
has been kept or preserved by any means, whether artificial or natural.
26. A permit may be granted to any person entitling him to hunt any wild animal (subject to
conditions) for the purposes not including:
a) Scientific research.
b) Translocation to alternative suitable habitat
c) Collection of specimens.
d) Population management by killing wild animals.
27. Who has the ownership right over a body of a dead wild animal?
a) Founder of the body.
b) State Government/Central Government.
c) The person who bred the animal.
d) The person who hunted down the animal.
28. A, a scientist devised an experimental study to cure cancer using white mice. The use of
mice by A for the purpose of experimentation is:
a) Lawful
b) Unlawful
c) Partially lawful
d) Partially unlawful
29. A, a trader and businessman is fond of collecting rare artifacts. With regards to which of
the following items would he not be penalized?
a) African ivory
b) Tail feathers of peacock
c) Deer antlers.
d) Shahtoosh shawl (woven with hairs of antelope)
30. Muslims kill goats on the eve of Bakrid, their religious festival. Such an act by a religious
community is:
a) Lawful as every human is free to kill any animal.
b) Lawful as it is prescribed by religion.
c) Unlawful as it may amount to inflicting cruelty on animals.
d) Unlawful as it may affect the population of such species.
31. What are the remedies available in case of an environmental damage arising out of
negligence?
a) Injunction – to stop the act from being continued.
b) Damages.
c) Compensation.
 d) All of the above may be granted depending upon the facts and circumstances of the
case.
32. Where does the CrPC provide powers to the Magistrate to bring forward an effective and
speedy remedy for preventing and controlling public nuisance of pollution of air, water
and noise?
a) Sections 148 to 152
b) Sections 93 to 97
c) Sections 284 to 286
d) Sections 133 to 144
33. The Civil Procedure Code (CPC) of India provides for right against nuisance in which
section?
a) Section 91
b) Section 92
c) Section 93
d) Section 94
34. The control of noise pollution can be effectively controlled under Section ……. IPC.
a) 268
b) 258
c) 264
d) 278
35. The objective of safeguarding of public health, safety and convenience by making those
acts which make the environment polluted or threatened the life of the people was
safeguarded in which Chapter of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)?
a) Chapter XV
b) Chapter XIV
c) Chapter IX
d) Chapter XX
36. Sustainable Development
a) Meets the need of the present without compromising with those of future generations.
b) Maintains a balance between social and economic development along with protection
of nature.
c) Is consistent with long term development and growth.
d) All of the above
37. Which of the following is the first declaration in the international environmental laws to
recognize the right to a healthy environment?
a) Rio Declaration
b) Stockholm Declaration
c) Earth Summit
d) None of the above.
38. The Rio Declaration is also known as-
a) Earth Summit
b) Global Investors Summit
c) Global Maritime Summit
d) None of the above
39. Which of the following principles is included in Rio Declaration?
a) Polluter Pays Principle
b) Precautionary Principle
c) None of the above
d) Both (a) and (b)
40. NGT was established under which Act?
a) National Environment Appellate Authority Act,1977
b) National Green Tribunal Act 2010
c) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
d) None of the above
41. When NGT did come into existence?
a) 08-10-2010
b) 18-10-2010
c) 28-10-2010
d) None of the above
42. Where is the principal place of sitting of NGT situated?
a) New- Delhi
b) Pune
c) Bhopal
d) Kolkata
43. Minimum days to appeal to Supreme Court against Tribunal’s order is:
a) 60 Days
b) 30 Days
c) 90 Days
d) 15 Days
44. NGT Act revoked which of the following Act?
a) The Water Cess Act, 1977
b) National Environment Appellate Authority Act, 1977
c) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
d) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
 45. Maximum tenure of office for Tribunal member is:
a) 5 years
b) 10 years
c) 15 years
d) 20 years
46. Which of the following is a judicial area of the NGT?
a) Settle Disputes
b) Relief, compensation and restitution.
c) Appellate jurisdiction.
d) All of the above.
47. Land pollution can be controlled by
a) Reduce, recycle and reuse.
b) Reduce the use of pesticides and fertilizers in agricultural activities.
c) Buy biodegradable products.
d) All of the above.
48. Which of the following rules are made under notification u/s. 6?
a) The Hazardous Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989
b) The Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical Rules, 1989.
c) The Bio-Medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998.
d) All of the above.
49. The first reserved forest of the India was
a) Satpura National Park
b) Annekal Reserved forest
c) Baikunthapur Forest
d) None of the above.
50. Who appoints the chief warden under the Wildlife Protection Act?
a) District Government
b) State Government
c) Central Government
d) None of the above
51. The provisions for environmental protection in the Directive Principles were made in:
a) 1976
b) 1950
c) 1982
d) 1960
52. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was:
a) Water Act, 1974
b) Air Act, 1981
 c) Environment Act, 1986
d) Forest Act, 1980
53. Penalty for Conservation of the provisions of the Forest Act, 1980 under:
a) Section 3A
b) Section 4A
c) Section 12A
d) Section 8A
54. Offences by the Authorities and Government Department in Forest Act, 1980 is under:
a) Section 5B
b) Section 5A
c) Section 3B
d) Section 8A
55. The power to declare an area as a sanctuary or national park of Central Government is
Wildlife (Protection) Act is under:
a) Section 38
b) Section 39
c) Section 18
d) Section 27
56. The Water Act contains:
a) 4 Chapters
b) 5 Chapters
c) 7 Chapters
d) 8 Chapters
57. The Water Act have:
a) 64 Sections
b) 68 Sections
c) 45 Sections
d) 62 Sections
58. The functions of Central Board are given under:
a) Section 16
b) Section 19
c) Section 25
d) Section 24
59. The functions of State Board are given under:
a) Section 16
b) Section 17
c) Section 21
d) Section 45
60. The Air Act contains:
a) 5 Chapters
b) 6 Chapters
c) 7 Chapters
d) 8 Chapters
61. The Air Act contains:
a) 56 Sections
b) 54 Sections
 c) 58 Sections
d) 62 Sections
62. Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in:
a) 1987
b) 1981
c) 1982
d) 2000
63. Resources like air, sea, water and the forests cannot be made a subject of private
ownership. This is the basic principle of Public Trust Doctrine and was discussed in
a) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath
b) Rural Litigation and Environment Kendra v. Union of India
c) Vellore Citizen’s Welfare Forum v. Union of India
d) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
64. For which special purpose a conditional permit for hunting and wild animal, cannot be
granted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act?
a) Preparation of snake venom for manufacturing of life saving drugs.
b) Collection of specimens for Zoos and museums.
c) Scientific research.
d) Research in traditional and established universities.
65. One of the following case is popularly known as “Doon Valley Case”:
a) Pathumna v. State of Kerala
b) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
c) Unni Krishnan v. State of A.P.
d) R.L.E.K v. State of U.P.
66. The Polluter Pays Principle has been incorporated in
a) Principle 15 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development.
b) Principle 27 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development.
c) Principle 8 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development.
d) Principle 16 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development.
67. Under which Article of the Constitution Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted?
a) Article 253
b) Article 258
c) Article 255
d) Article 254
68. The problem of the pollution of river Ganga by the inaction of the municipalities was brought
to light in which of the following case?
a) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. UOI
b) A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayudu
c) S. Jagannath v. UOI
d) M.C. Mehta v. UOI
69. Which one of the following cases related to Sariska Tiger Park?
a) Tarun Bharat Sangh v. UOI
b) Consumer Education and Research Society v. UOI
c) Pradeep Krishen v. UOI
d) Animal and Environmental Legal Defence Fund Case
 70. What is the period of notice required to be served upon the Central Government for filing a
criminal complaint by any person, under the provisions of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
a) Not less than 30 days
b) Not less than 60 days
c) Not less than 90 days
d) Not less than 120 days
71. Which one of the following cases is considered as ‘High Water-mark case in Forest
Protection’ decided by the Supreme Court?
a) Salebhai Mulla Mohmadali v. State of Gujarat.
b) T.N. GodavarmanTirumulkpad v. UOI.
c) Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh.
d) Narmada BachaoAndolan v. UOI.
72. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court discussed the development of the
precautionary principle?
a) A.P. pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayudu.
b) R.L.E.K v. State of U.P.
c) M.C. Mehta v. UOI (Ganga Water Pollution Case)
d) Olga Tellis case
73. The concept of Sustainable Development contains which of the following essentials?
a) The precautionary principle
b) The polluter pays principle
c) The doctrine of public trust
d) All the above
74. The Supreme Court observed that noise pollution cannot be tolerated, even if such noise was
a direct result of and was connected with religious activities in the case of
a) A.P. Pollution Control Boards v. Prof. M.V. Naidu
b) Church of God (Full Gospel) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association
c) K.M. Chinappa v. UOI
d) Narmada BachaoAndolan v. UOI
75. Which of these can be appointed as the Chairperson of NGT
a) A retired judge of Supreme Court
b) An environmentalist
c) A Chief Justice of High Court
d) Both (a) & (c)
76. The jurisdiction of the National Green Tribunal is provided in which section of the National
Green Tribunal Act, 2010
a) Section 5
b) Section 14
c) Section 15
d) Section 20
77. Any person aggrieved by the order of NGT can prefer an appeal within
a) 15 days
b) 30 days
c) 60 days
d) 90 days
 78. How many members constitute the Central Council under the Water (Prevention and Control
of Pollution) Act 1974, including its chairman and member secretary?
a) 13 members
b) 18 members
c) 11 members
d) Maximum 17 members
79. The Earth Summit was held in 1992 at
a) Montreal
b) Stockholm
c) Vienna
d) Rio de Janerio
80. ___________ does not contain the provisions relating to protection of environment.
a) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
b) The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c) The Indian Penal Code, 1860
d) Both (b) & (c)
81. Which of the following is a leading case on Public Nuisance
a) T.N. Godavarman v. UOI
b) Vellore Citizen’s Welfare Forum v. UOI
c) State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain
d) Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Virdichand
82. Under the Constitution of India “Forest” and “Protection of Wild animals and birds” comes
under the
a) State List
b) Union List
c) Concurrent List
d) None of the above
83. The ‘EIA’ is the abbreviated form of-
a) Environmental Impact Assessment
b) Environmental Implementation Arrangement
c) Environmental Impact Apparatus
d) Environmental Institute for Awareness
84. Section 2(e) of Environmental Act, 1986, defines
a) Environmental Pollutant
b) Handling
c) Environmental Pollution
d) Hazardous Substance
85. Which of the following Acts is popularly known as Umbrella Legislation?
a) The Water(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
b) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
c) The Factories Act, 1948
d) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
86. Hazardous Waste Management is governed by which of the following conventions?
a) Stockholm Convention
b) Rio Convention
c) Kyoto Protocol
 d) Basel Convention
87. In 2006 a major law relating to forest was enacted. The name of Act is:
a) The Forest Act
b) The Conservation of Forest Act
c) The Wildlife (Protection) Act
d) The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights)
Act
88. Section 38 (J) of the Wildlife (Protection) Act related to
a) Wild animals as government property
b) Prohibits hunting of wild animals
c) Recognition of zoos
d) Prohibition of teasing and molesting animals in zoo.
89. Which of the following statement is correct about the National Park?
a) Multipurpose protected areas to preserve genetic diversity in representative ecosystem.
b) A reserves area meant for preserving its natural vegetation, wildlife and natural beauty.
c) A reserved area meant for preservation and development of endangered species.
d) All of the above

90. Which of the following statement is correct about the Sanctuary?

a) Multipurpose protected areas to preserve genetic diversity in representative ecosystem.
b) A reserves area meant for preserving its natural vegetation, wildlife and natural beauty.
c) A reserved area meant for preservation and development of endangered species.
d) All of the above
91. The power to declare an area as a sanctuary or national park of central government in
Wildlife (Protection) Act is under:
a) Section 38
b) Section 39
c) Section 18
d) Section 27
92. In the Water Act the entire National Capital Territory of Delhi has been declared as water
pollution prevention control area under:
a) Section 21
b) Section 23
c) Section 19
d) Section 24
93. Which Section of the IPC, 1860 defines “Public Nuisance”
a) Section 268
b) Section 279
c) Section 290
d) Section 292
94. Which Section of the CrPC, 1973 provides for conditional order for removal of nuisance
a) Section 133
b) Section 144
c) Section 154
d) Section 124
95. Which Section of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 deals with a environmental offences
committed by the Government department
a) Section 16
b) Section 17
c) Section 18
d) None of the above
96. Central Pollution Control Board derives its power under which Act
 a) The Water (Prevention and Contol of Pollution) Act, 1974
b) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
c) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
d) All the above
97. Which case is popularly known as ‘Oleum Gas Leak Case’ :
a) Sriram Foods and Fertilizers Industries v. UOI
b) S.P. Gupta v. UOI
c) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath
d) Jagannath v. UOI
98. Under which Article of the Constitution the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess
Act, 1977 was enacted?
a) Article 253
b) Article 252
c) Article 255
d) Article 254
99. The Writs which are generally issued in the environmental matters by High Courts and
Supreme Court Under Article 226 and 32 respectively are:
a) Habeas Corpus and Prohibition
b) Mandamus and Prohibition
c) Quo-Warranto and Certiorari
d) All of the above
100. By the 44th amendment of 1978 of the Constitution of India the entries relating to Forest and
Protection of Wild Animals and Birds were transferred from state list to concurrent list
a) Incorrect Statement
b) Correct Statement
c) Partly correct statement
d) Partly wrong statement.

101. The world as World Environmental day is celebrated on:

a) December 1
b) June 5
c) November 14
d) August 15

102. The provisions for environmental protection in the constitution were made in:
a) 1976
b) 1950
c) 1982
d) 1960

103. The provisions of environmental protection in the constitution were made under:
a) Article 5-A
b) Article 21-B
c) Article 27-B (h)
d) Article 48-A and Article 51-A (g)

104. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was:
a) Water Act
b) Air Act
c) Environmental Act
d) Noise Pollution Rule

105. The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year:

a) 1986
b) 1974
 c) 1980
d) 1972

106. Penalty for conservation of the provisions of the Forest Act is under:
a) Section 3A
b) Section 4A
c) Section 12A
d) Section 8A

107. Offences by the Authorities and Government Department in Forest Act is under:
a) Section 5B
b) Section 5A
c) Section 3B
d) Section 8A

108. The Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in the year:

a) 1986
b) 1974
c) 1994
d) 1972

109.The power to declare an area as a sanctuary or national park of central Government is Wildlife
(Protection) Act is under:
a) Section 38
b) Section 39
c) Section 18
d) Section 27

110. The Wildlife (Protection) Act contains:

a) 7 Chapters and 66 Sections
b) 6 Chapters and 65 Sections
c) 5 Chapters and 64 Sections
d) 8 Chapters and 63 Sections

111. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year:
a) 1986
b) 1974
c) 1994
d) 1975

112. The functions of Central Board are given under:

a) Section 16
b) Section 19
c) Section 25
d) Section 24

113. The functions of State Board are given under:

a) Section 16
b) Section 17
c) Section 21
d) Section 45

114. Power to give directions are declared under:

a) Section 16
b) Section 17
c) Section 18
d) Section 25

115. In the Water Act the entire National Capital Territory of Delhi has been declared as water pollution
prevention control area under:
a) Section 21
b) Section 23
 c) Section 19
d) Section 24

116. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year:
a) 1981
b) 1996
c) 2000
d) 1974

117. Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in:
a) 1981
b) 1987
c) 1982
d) 2000

118. The Environmental (Protection) Act was enacted in the year:

a) 1986
b) 1992
c) 1984
d) 1974

119. The EPA consists:

a) 2 Chapters and 25 Sections
b) 4 Chapters and 26 Sections
c) 8 Chapters and 24 Sections
d) 7 Chapters and 21 Sections

120. The forest Rights Act (FRA),2006 intends to:

1. recognize marginal and tribal communities’s rights over forest lands over which they were traditionally
dependent.
2. Empower local self-governance
3. Towards Issue of poverty alleviation and pro-poor growth is paid heed to 
4. Towards Conservation and management of natural resources of India are highlighted and addressed by
the FRA
a) Only 1
b) Only 1 and 2
c) All of the Above
d) None of the Above
121. The EP Act is under which of the categories of legislations?
e) Welfare Legislation
f) Penal Legislation.
g) Remedial Legislation.
h) None of the above
122. Silence area comprises an area of not less than ……. meters around hospitals, educational institutions and
courts as per the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000.
e) 50
f) 100
g) 200
h) 250
123. Which of the following is the correct classification of forests under the Indian Forests Act, 1927?
e) Social forest, private forest, recorded forest
f) National park, wildlife sanctuary, biosphere reserves.
 g) Reserved forest, village forest, protected forest
h) Tropical forest, wetlands, grasslands.
124. The Civil Procedure Code (CPC) of India provides for right against nuisance in which section?
e) Section 91
f) Section 92
g) Section 93
h) Section 94
125. The Rio Declaration is also known as-
e) Earth Summit
f) Global Entrepreneur Summit
g) Global finance ministers Summit
h) None of the above
126. When NGT did come into existence?
e) 10-10-2010
f) 18-10-2010
g) 12-10-2010
h) None of the above
127. Minimum days to appeal to Supreme Court against Tribunal’s order is:
e) 30 Days
f) 45 Days
g) 90 Days
h) 12 Days
128. Which of the following rules are made under notification u/s. 6?
e) The Hazardous Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989
f) The Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical Rules, 1989.
g) The Bio-Medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998.
h) All of the above.
129. How many beaches in India got prestigious blue flag certification:
a) 9
b) 8
c) 7
d) 6
130. Who is known as Green Judge
a) Justice Kuldeep Singh
b) Justice Swatanter Kumar
c) Justice Madan Lokur
d) Justice Deepak Mishra
131. Who is the present chairperson of NGT
a) Justice Madan Lokur
b) Justice Deepak Mishra
c) Justice Swatanter Kumar
d) Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel
132. Who founded the UNEP and in which year?
 a) Maurice F. Strong in June 1972
b) Norman Barlaug in 1971
c) M.S. Swaminathan in 1970
d) Justice Kurien in 1969
133. In which international Declaration, the “Assimilative Capacity Principle” is referred
a) Stockholm Declaration
b) Rio Declaration
c) Paris Agreement
d) Montreal Protocol
134. Where is the headquarters of UNEP located?
a) Vienna
b) Geneva
c) Nairobi, Kenya
d) Netherland
135. Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR–RC) is a principle:
a) within the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
b) stockholmDeclarion
c) Rio Declaration
d) Agenda 21
136. Which Principle talks about the role of government as a trustee of natural resources?
a) Precautionary Principle
b) Polluter Pays Principle
c) Public Trust Doctrine
d) None of the Above
137. The composition of National Green Tribunal is given under
a) Section 4
b) Section 5
c) Section 6
d) Section 7
138. The Executive Director of the United Nations Environment Programme.
a) Inger Andersen 
b) Erik Solheim
c) Tedros Adhanom
d) None of the Above
139. NGT is
a) statutory authority
b) Judicial Authority
c) Quasi-judicial authority
d) None of the Above
140. Which Principle talks about scientific research & Development in environmental problems?
a) Principle 21
b) Principle 20
c) Principle 22
d) Principle 23
141. Resources like air, sea, water and the forests cannot be made a subject of private ownership. This is the
basic principle of Public Trust Doctrine and was discussed in
e) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath
f) Rural Litigation and Environment Kendra v. Union of India
g) Vellore Citizen’s Welfare Forum v. Union of India
h) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
142. Citizen Suit Provision is given under
a) Air Act
 b) Water Act
c) Environment Protection Act
d) All of the Above
143. The ‘Polluter Pays Principle’ was for the first time, applied and defined in the case of
a) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India AIR 1987 SC 1086
b) Indian Council of Enviro Legal Action v. Union of India 1996(3) SCC 212
c) M. C. Mehta vs Kamal Nath &Ors(1997)1SCC388
d) Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum vs. Union of India 1996(5) SCC 647

144. What is the object of the “polluter pays principle”?

e) Pure deterrents effect.
f) Retributive effect.
g) Ensure that the victims of damage are compensated as well as that the degradation so caused to the
environment is mitigated.
h) All of the above.

145. Which of the following is/are have been provided for in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?
1. National Parks
2. Wildlife Sanctuaries
3. Biosphere Reserves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

146. The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer aims to control the
production and use of :
1. Dichloromethane
2. CFCs
3. HFCs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3

147. “Hazardous Substance” is defined in Environment Protection Act under:

a) Section 2 (a)
b) Section 2 (c)
c) Section 2 (e)
d) Section 2 (d)
148. Section 15 provides for Penalties for contravention of the provisions of the Act as well as the Rules, Orders
and Directions. Whoever fails to comply with or contravenes any of the provisions, rules, orders or directions of
this Act:
a) shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years or with fine which
may extend to one lakh rupees, or with both.
b) shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to six years or with fine which may
extend to two lakh rupees, or with both.
c) shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years or with fine which
may extend to three lakh rupees, or with both.
d) shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to four years or with fine which may
extend to four lakh rupees, or with both.
149. What does the term, “taxidermy” refer to in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972?
 a) The biological specialty that deals with the grouping and naming of organisms is called taxonomy.

b) The curing, preparation or preservation of trophies.

c) The study and reconstruction of evolutionary relationships.
d) The whole or any part of any captive animal or wild animal, other than vermin, which has been kept or
preserved by any means, whether artificial or natural.

150. The UNEP has a few focus areas, in which they prioritise work. They are:
a. Climate change
b. Disasters and conflicts
c. Environmental governance
d. All of the above

151.The Wildlife Protection Act was Introduced in Which Year?

a) 1972
b) 1977
c) 1988
d) 1998
152. What Is the Most Abundant Greenhouse Gas In The Atmosphere?
A. Methane
B. Nitrogen Dioxide
C. Water Vapor
D. Carbon Dioxide
153. Environment Impact Assessment Is Mandatory In Which Of The Indian Legislation?
A. Wildlife Protection Act
B. Environment Protection Act
C. Air (prevention and control of pollution) Act
D. Water (prevention and control of pollution) Act

154. What Does Three Mile Island Refers To-

a. Water Pollution
b. Radio-Active Pollution
c. Air Pollution
d. Soil Pollution

155. Which Section Of The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 Provides For Remedy In Case Of
Environment Emergency –
a. Section 144
b. Section 133
c. Section 143
d. Section 123

156. The Provisions For Environmental Protection In The Constitution Were Made In:
(A) 1976
(B) 1950
(C) 1982
(D) 1960
157. The Provisions Of Environmental Protection In The Constitution Were Made Under:
(A) Article 5-A
(B) Article 21-B
(C) Article 27-B (H)
(D) Article 48-A And Article 51-A (G)
158. The Forest (Conservation) Act Was Enacted In The Year:
(A) 1986
(B) 1974
(C) 1980
(D) 1972
159. Constitution Of The Central Board Under Water Act Is Done By:
A. State Government
B.Central Government
C. Local Authority
D.Collector

160. NGT Stands For:

A. National Green Tree
B. National Green Taxes
C. National Green Tribunal
D. National Great Tribunal

161. Power To Take Samples Of Effluents And Procedure To Be Followed In Connection Therewith
Is Given Under Which Section Of The Water Act?
A. Section 29
B. Section 21
C. Section 11
D. Section 16

162. Does NGT Apply To The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 ?

A. Yes
B. No
C. May Be
D. In Certain Cases Only

163. Under Section 28 Of The Water Act, Any Person Aggrieved By An Order Made By The State
Board Under Section 25, Section 26 Or Section 27 May, Within How Many Days Prefer An Appeal
To Appellate Authority:
A. 30 Days
B. 15 Days
C. 3 Months
D. 6 Months

164. Who Has The Power To Establish NGT Under Section 3 Of The National Green Tribunal Act?
A. Central Government
B. State Government
C. District Authority
D. Local Authority

165. Under Section 14, No Application For Adjudication Of Disputes Be Entertained By The Tribunal
Unless It Is Filed Within How Many Days:
A. 15 Days
B. 30 Days
C. 3 Months
D. 6 Months

166. The Decision Of The NGT Is Appealable To Which Court?

A. Supreme Court
B. High Court
C. Trial Court
D. Only A

167. Which Legislation Is Not Mentioned Under Schedule I of The NGT:

A. The Water (Prevention And Control Of Pollution) Act, 1974
B. The Air (Prevention And Control Of Pollution) Act, 1981
C. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
D. The Biological Diversity Act. 2002

168. Air Pollutant” Includes :

A. Solid,
B. Liquid
C. Gaseous Substance 2[(Including Noise)]
D. All Of The Above

169. Can The Reports Of Analysts Under Air Act Be Used As Evidence In Any Proceeding Under This
Act.
A. Yes
B. No
C. May Be
D. Can’t Say

170.Which One Of The Following Is Known As “Earth Summit ?

(A) United Nations Framework Convention On Climate Change.
(B) United Nations Conference On Environment And Development.
(C) Convention On Biological Diversity
(D) None Of These

171. The Air (Prevention And Control Of Pollution) Act, 1981 Shall Have Precedence Over Other
Laws And Therefore, The Provisions Of The Act Shall Have Effect Despite The Inconsistency With
The Provisions Of Any Other Enactment- However It Is Subject To
(A) The Mines Act, 1952
(B) Atomic Energy Act, 1962
(C) The Factories Act, 1948
(D) None Of The Above
172.  Which Of The Following Is Popularly Known As “Forest Conservation Case”?
(A) Environment Awareness Forum Vs- State Of J & K, 1999 1 Scc 210
(B) T-NGodavarmanThirumulkPadv. Union Of India, 1997 2 SCC 267
(C) M-C- Mehta V. Union Of India, 1992 1 SCC 358
(D) Tata Engineering & Locomotive Co- Ltd V. State Of Bihar, 2000 5 SCC 346
173. Taj Trapezium Case Is Between
(A) Indian Council For Enviro- Legal Action V. Union Of India, 1996 3 SCC 212
(B) Ramji Patel V.NagarikUpbhokta Marg DarshakManch, 2000 3 SCC 29
(C) Vineet Kumar Mathur Vs- Union Of India, 1996 7 SCC 714
(D) M-C- Mehta V. Union Of India, 1997 2 SCC 353
174. The Increased Noise Level Can Cause Loss Of Hearing And Irreversible Changes In Nervous
System- Mention The Safe Noise Level Fixed By The World Health Organisation-
(A) 80 Decibels
(B) 90 Decibels
(C) 60 Decibels
(D) 45 Decibels
175.The Central Or State Board Under The Water (Prevention And Control Of Pollution) Act, 1974
Is Required To Meet At Least
(A) Every One Month
(B) Every Two Months
(C) Every Three Months
(D) Every Six Months
176. The “Precautionary Principle” And The “Polluter Pays Principle” Are Part Of The
Environmental Law Of Our Country-
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partly True And Partly False
(D) None
177. One Of The Following Is The First Major Environmental Protection Act To Be Promulgated In
India?
A) Environmental Act
B) Air Act
C) Water Act
D) None Of The Above
178. The Term "Environment Pollutant" Has Been Defined In The Act Includes:
A) Solid, Liquid Or Gaseous Substance Present In Concentration That Is Injurious To The
Environment.
B) Hazardous Substances That Are Responsible For Pollution.
C) Takes Into Account Air, Water And Noise Pollution.
D) All Of The Above
179. Section 7 Of The Environment Protection Act Directs That Persons Carrying On Any Industry
Shall Not Discharge Any Environmental Pollutants In Excess Of Standards Prescribed By
A) SPCB
B) CPCB
C) State Government
D) Central Government
180. Which Section Defines "Environment" Under The Act?
A) Section 2(A)
B) Section 2(B)
C) Section 2(C)
D) Section 2 (D)
181. Which One Of The Following Is The Apex Organization In The Country In The Field Of
Pollution Control?
A) Water Pollution Control Board
B) State Pollution Control Board
C) Central Pollution Control Board
D) Air Pollution Control Board
182. Who Appoints The Chairman Of The Central Pollution Control Board?
A) Central Government
B) State Government
C) Governor Of The State
D) President Of India
183. In Which Unit Sound Is Measured?
A) Kilometer
B) Pascal
C) Kilogram
D) Decibel
184.Which One Of The Following Movement Was Carried Out For The Conservation Of Forests
And The Environment?
A) Forest Movement
B) Ganga Action Plan
C) Tehri Andolan
D) Chipko Andolan
185. Right to Health is included under which Article:
A.Article 21
B.Article 14
C.Article 15
D. Article 32
186. Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in:
(A) 1981
(B) 1987
(C) 1982
(D) 2000
187. What is the name of the first landmark judgment on environment in India?
A. Rural Litigation & entitlement kendra, Dehradun v. State of U.P
B. M.C Mehta v. Union of India
C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D. M.C Mehta v. Kamalnath
188. When did the Stockholm Declaration take effect?
A. 1970
B. 1972
C. 1980
D. 1982
189. What is the full form of CRZ?
A.Coastal Zone regulation
B.Coastal Regulation Zone
C. Coastal rights zone
D.Coastal Release zone
190. How many Principles are given under Stockholm Declaration?
A.27
B.26
C. 25
D.28
191. Which principle of Rio Declaration on Environment and Development, adopts the
precautionary approach?
A.Principle 15
B.Principle 16
C.Principle 12
D. Principle 18
192. In which of the cases, the Supreme Court applied the doctrine of Public Trust that the state
as a trustee of all natural resources is under a legal duty to protect the natural resources. These
natural resources are meant for public use and cannot be converted into private ownership?
a) M.C Mehta v. Union of India ( Ganga Water pollution case)
b) M.C Mehta v. Kamalnath
c) M.C Mehta v. Union of India ( CNG vehicle case)
d) Church of GOD (full gospel) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association
193. In which of the following cases, Supreme Court discussed the development of the
precautionary principle?
a) A.P Pollution Control Board v. M.V.Nayadu
b) Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of U.P
c) M.C Mehta v. Union of India(Ganga water pollution case)
d) Olga Tellis case
194. In which of the following cases, Supreme Court directed closing down of Shrimp industries in
coastal regulation zone?
a) S.Jagannath v. Union of India
b) Vellore Citizens welfare forum v. Union of India
c) M.C Mehta v. Union of India
d) Church of GOD (full gospel) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association
195. In which of the following cases, Supreme Court directed to close down the limestone
quarrying operations ?
a) All India Council for Enviro-legal Action v. Union of India
b) Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of U.P
c) Vellore Citizens welfare forum v. Union of India
d) M.C Mehta v. Union of India
196. Which of the following case is related to SariskaTiger Reserve?
a) Tarun Bhagat Sangh v. Union of India
b) Consumer Education and research society v. Union of India
c) All India Council for Enviro-legal Action v. Union of India
d) M.C Mehta v. Union of India
197. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the Environment Protection Act was
enacted?
a) Article 253
b) Article 255
c) Article 32
d) Article 256
198. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India have been mostly used by the
Supreme Court to protect Environment?
a) Article 32
b) Article 21
c) Article 21 and Article 32
d) None of the above
199. which of the following cases is considered to be the ‘high water mark case’ in forest
conservation decided by the Supreme Court?
a) Narmada BachaoAndolan v. Union of India
b) Samatha v. Union of India
c) M C Mehta v. Union of India
d) T.N. Godavarman v. Union of India
200. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the provision regarding duty of the state ‘to
protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forest and wildlife ‘ exist?
a) Article 21
b) Article 51 (g)
c) Article 48-A
d) none of the above