B BÌNH LỤC – ĐỀ 1 - 2020

SECTION A : LISTENING (20 points)

Part I : Question 1 – 4
You will hear a woman booking a bicycle tour over the phone and fill in the missing words in the blank ( 8 points)
Example: Global Bicycle Tours

Tour name: River Valley tour.

Tour month: (1) ………..………………………….

Customer Name: (2)…………………………………Schmidt

Address: P. O. Box  (3)……………………………….

Manchester

Bicycle rental required? __Yes _☑_No

Dietary restrictions: (4)………………………………………….

Part 2: Question 5 -10 ( 12 points)

Choose the correct letters, A, B, or C.
5. What size deposit does the caller have to pay?
A. 5 percent B. 30 percent C. 50 percent
6. When does the deposit have to be paid?
A. Two weeks from now B. Four weeks from now C. Six weeks from now
7. How will the luggage be carried?
A. By bus B. By bicycle C. By van
Questions 8-10
Choose THREE letters, A-F.
Which THREE things should the caller take on the tour?
A. raincoat
B. spare tire
C. maps
D. water bottle
E. camera
F. Guide book
SECTION B: PHONETICS (10 points)
Part I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest. (5 points)
1. A. bound B. sound C. county D. poultry
2. A. examine B. determine C. valentine D. heroine
3. A. grapes B. chairs C. hats D. roofs
4. A. moon B. food C. good D. noodle
5. A. bother B. thoughtful C. geothermal D. breakthrough
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group. (5 points)
6. A. furnish B. reason C. promise D. tonight
7. A. specific B. coincide C. inventive D. regardless
8. A. adventure B. attendance C. opponent D. penalty
9. A. represent B. permanent C. continent D. Sentiment
10. A. cafeteria B. guarantee C. significant D. economics
Your answers:
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
 SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (80 points)
Part I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence. (20 points)
1. This concert mark nine years since the death of Trinh Cong Son, a prominent____________of modern VietNamese music
A. comedian B. actor C. contributor D. figure
2. As per study, handful of nuts daily can cut people’s________of coronary heart disease and cancer by nearly 22 per cent
A. chance B. luck C. opportunity D. risk
3. Only one of our gifted students ______to participate in the final competition.
A. chosen B. have been chosen C. has been chosen D. were choosing
4. The two fabrics of Velco stick together thanks ___________the hook on the surface and the loops on the other.
A. on B. at C. in D. to
5. You can access to the Internet , ______________a range of devices such as desktop or laptop computers, mobile phones,
and tables
A. out B. down C. with D. via
6. As a millionaire who liked to show off her wealth, Mrs. Smith paid ______ we asked.
A. four times much as B. four time as many as C. four times as much as D. four time much than
7. They ________ have seen the play last night as they went to a football match instead.
A. could B. must C. might D. can't
8. _______ has been a topic of continual geological research.
A. How the continents were formed B. The continents formed
C. If the continents formed D. How did the continents for
9. She should _____ in the garage when we come around, which would explain why she didn't hear the bell.
A. work B. be working C. have worked D. have been working
10. In Viet Nam, you shouldn’t___________at somebody’s house on the 1st day of the New Year unless you have been
invited by the house owner
A. show up B. get up C. put up D. go up
11. You should __________ a professional to check your house for earthquake damage.
A. have B. make C. take D. get
12. We _________ today and I got into trouble because I hadn't done it.
A. had checked our homew B. had our homework checked
C. were checked our homework D. have our homework checking
13. – “How lovely your pets are!” “ _________”
A. Thank you, it's nice of you to say so B. Really? They are
C. can you say that again D. I love them, too
14. Stephanie: "Oh, no! I left my book at home. Can I share yours?" Scotts: "_____"
A. Yes, I do too B. No, thanks C. Yes, sure! D. No, not at all!
15: By the end of 2030, people _______ on the Moon.
A. had lived B. lived C. will live D. will have lived
16: Everyone in the class missed….............question number 23 on the test.
A. his B. an C. the D. a
17: The more you work, _____ you’ll pass your exams.
A.good B. the best C. best D. the better
18: The teacher asked the boy why________ the exercises at home.
A. didn’t he do B. he hadn’t done C. he didn’t do D. he hadn’t done
19: _______ in Rome than he was kidnapped.
A. No sooner he arrived B. Had he no sooner arrived
C. No sooner had he arrived D. No sooner he had arrived
20. She went on crying, with her head sunk into a pillow, and cried and cried _______ the pillow was wet through.
A. until B. after C. before D. while
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Part II. Give the correct form of words in brackets. (20 points)
Marriage is an ancient _______________(21.religion) and legal practice celebrated around the world. Although the
reasons that people marry are similar in many places, wedding customs vary from country to country.
In many countries, it is _____________(22.custom) for the bride to wear a white dress as a symbol of
_______________(23.pure). In traditional Japanese wedding ceremonies, the bride wears a white kimono. The tradition of
wearing a special white dress only for the wedding ceremony started around 150 years ago. Before that, most women could
not afford to buy a dress that they would only wear once. Now, bridal dresses can be bought in a_____________( 24.vary) of
styles and fabrics, and many brides have their dress specially made. In different countries, colors of joys and happiness like
red or orange other than white are ___________(25.wear) by the bride or used as part of the wedding ceremony.
In many cultures, couples exchange rings, usually made of gold or silver, during the __________(26.marry) ceremony.
The circular shape of the ring is____________(27 symbol) of the couple’s eternal union. In Brazil, it is traditional to have the
rings___________(28. engrave), with the bride’s name on the groom’s ring, and vice versa.
With the continued___________________(29.nation) of the modern world, many wedding customs that originated in
one part of the world have been ________________(30.corporate) into marriage ceremonies in other countries. Today,
couples can choose from many of the world’s traditional customs to create their own special ceremony.
Your answers:
21. 26.
22. 27.
23. 28.
24. 29.
25. 30.
Part III: Mark the letter to show the underline part that needs correction in each of the following questions ( 10
points)
31. Alike other forms of energy, natural gas may be used to heat homes, cook
A B C
food, and even run automobiles.
D
32. The earth is the only planet with a large number of oxygen in its atmosphere.
A B C D
33. A five-thousand- dollars reward was offered for the capture of the escaped
A B C D
criminals.
34. That Marta’s been chosen as the most outstanding student on her campus make her
A B C
parents very happy .
D
35. In very early times, people around the fire were entertained by storytellers
A B C
with stories of heroes’ wonderful actions and victory
D
36. Visitors may realize that even though they can’t make their homes in Venice city,
A B
they can take away with them memories of their beauty.
C D
37. The news of the negotiations for a peace treaty between the two Presidents were received
A B
with mixed emotions by the citizens of both countries .
C D
38. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate
A B C
with the locals
D
39. The Girls Scouts, found by Juliette Gordon Low in 1912, has grown to a current
A B
membership of more than three million girls.
C D
40. Americans annually import more than $ 3 billion worthy of Italian clothing, jewelry,
A B C D
and shoes.

Your answers:
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Part IV. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (20 points)
18,000 years ago, much of Europe lay (41)________(bury) beneath vast sheets of ice, hundreds of metres thick. Ever since
this astonishing fact (42)_______(discover) in the last century, scientists (43) ________(speculate) on the nature of the Ice
Age climate, and the circumstances that brought it to an end.
More recently, people (44) ________(wonder) if climatic changes could (45)________(take) place in our own time. During
the early 1970s there (46)_______(be) disastrous droughts in Africa, and frequent failures of Indian monsoon. In 1976,
Europe sweltered in the hottest summer for over a century, and (47)_______(experience) one of the worst droughts since
records began. Could such events as these be symptoms of a worldwide climatic shift?
Even small changes in climate that (48)________(occur) from time to time can have a highly damaging effect on
agriculture. With food reserves now (49)________ (stand) at only a few per cent of annual production, the world is
extremely vulnerable (50) ________(adverse) shifts in climate. It is therefore vitally important for us to understand how
climate changes take place.
Your answers:
41. 46.
42. 47.
43. 48.
44. 49.
45. 50.
Part V. Fill in the gap with ONE suitable word. (10 points)
Is your school just as you wanted it to be? Or are there things you and your classmates (51) ________ change, given the
opportunity? This is your chance to express your ideas about (52) ________ the ideal school is like. Our competition is open
to (53) ________ student between the ages of twelve and eighteen. You can enter (54) ________ an individual or your whole
class can work together on a team entry. Your entry can take any form – a piece of writing, a picture, or even architectural
plans. It is completely (55) ________ to you. What we are looking for is evidence (56) ________ originality, imagination
and, above (57) ________, the genuine views of young people.
By (58) ________ part in this, you will help in a study being carried out at a leading university. All work entered (59)
________ the competition will be kept at the university and used in research. Entries cannot be returned (60) ________ of
this. But it also means that, even if you do not win, your views will still be heard and will remain for future educationalists to
study.
Your answers:
51. 56.
52. 57.
53. 58.
54. 59.
55. 60.

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (40 POINTS)

Part I. Read the following passage and mark the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
( 10 points)
In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816 million pounds of
sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If (1)___ end to end, the empty cereal
boxes from one year’s consumption would stretch to the moon and back. One point three (1.3) million advertisements for
cereal are broadcast on American television every year at a(n) (2) ___ of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile
manufacturers spend more money on television advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal.
(3) ___ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some contain more than 50%
sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many cereals appear much healthier than they
really are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, lovely - you now have vitamin-fortified sugar!
Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how (4) ___ sugar appears on the ingredient list. Then check
the “Nutrition facts” panel.
There are actually only a small handful of national commercially-branded cereals that are made (5) ___ whole grains and
are sugar-free.
1: A. to lay B. laying C. lay D. laid
2: A. charge B. average C. cost D. expense
3: A. Most B. Furthermost C. Almost D. Mostly
4: A. tall B. large C. high D. many
5: A. by B. from C. at D. in
Your answers:
 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part II: Read the following passage, and mark the letter to indicate the correct answer( 20 points)
Since the world has become industrialized, there has been an increase in the number of animal species that have either
become extinct or have neared extinction. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now
number only about 2300 and by the year 2025, their population is estimated to be down to zero. What is alarming about the
case of the Belgan tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some
sources, are not interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is part of
what is causing the problem of extinction. Animals like the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are a valuable
part of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival, and the
survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in varios way. Some countries, in order to circumvent
the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They, then charge admission to help defray the costs of
maintaining the parks, they often must also depend on world organizations for support. With the money they get, they can
invest equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another solution that is an attempt to stem the tide of animal extinction is
an international boycott of products made from endangered species. This seems fairy effective, but will not by itself, prevent
animals from being hunted and killed.
6. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. the Bengal tiger B. international boycott
C. endangered species D. problem with industrialization
7. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “alarming” in the first paragraph?
A. dangerous B. serious C. gripping D. distressing
8. The word “callousness” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. indirectness B. independence C. incompetence D. Insensitivity
9. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast………………
A. a problem and a solution B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and a contrast D. a specific and general information
10. What does the word “this” in the first paragraph refer to ?
A. endangered species that are increasing
B. Bengal tigers that are decreasing
C. poachers who seek personal gratification
D. sources that may not be accurate
11. Where in the passage does the author discuss a cause of extinction?
A. Since the world…….down to zero.
B. What is alarming……personal gratification
C. Countries around…….for support
D. With the money…….endangered species
12. Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated” in the second paragraph?
A. set aside B. combined C.organized D. taken off
13. The word “defray” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the folowing?
A. lower B. raise
C. make a payment on D. make an investment toward
14. The author uses the phrase “stem the tide” in the second paragraph to mean………….
A. touch B. stop C. tax D. save
15. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. forgiving B. concerned C. vindictive D. surprised
Your answers:
6. 11.
7. 12.
8. 13.
9. 14.
10. 15.

Part III: Choose the item among A, B, C or D that best answers the question about the passage ( 10 points)
 Green land is the largest island in the world. It covers more than two million square kilometers. Imagine that a map of
Greenland is on top of a map of Europe and Africa. Greenland would stretch from London to the middle of the Sahara Desert.
Most of the island lies in the Artic Circle, and a huge sheet of ice covers 85 percent of it.
The ice sheet is more than 1,500 meters thick, and it never melts. Probably only rock lies under this ice, but no one knows
for sure. Along the coast, mountains rise from the sea. Huge pieces of ice, called glaciers, float in the sea between the
mountains. Some of them are as tall as ten – storey buildings.
Because Greenland is so cold, it is not very green. There are a few low trees in the southwest, but no real forests. In the
winter, snow covers everything. In the summer, very low plants cover the ground between the sea and the ice sheet.
The first people to live in Greenland were probably Eskimos who came from Canada anout 3,000 years ago. Norwegian
Vikings were the first Europeans to see the island. They came in 875, but they did not build towns and live there until 982. At
the same time. Another group of Eskimos came to Greenland from Alaska. In 1261, the people in Greenland decided to join
the country of Norway. Then, in 1380, Norway united with Denmark. This union ended in 1814, and Greenland stayed with
Denmark. Today this huge island is part of the kingdom of Denmark. Greenland is about fifty times as large as Denmark, but
Denmark has about ninety times as many people.
About 62,000 people live in Greenland. Most of them are part Eskimo and part Danish. They call themselves Greelanders
and speak Greenlandic language (which has many Danish words). Almost all of them live in towns and villages along the
southwestern coast because that is the wamest part of the island. Life in Green land is difficult because the weather is very
cold. Temperatures average -29.5 degrees Celsius in January, -10 degrees Celsius in July. It is dark 24 hours a day in the
winter, but in the summer the Sun shines all day and night. This is the time of the midnight Sun.
The island has very few natural resources. The people raise a few kinds of vegetables and sheep. The most important
industry is fishing. In southwest Greenland there are many fish staions and processing plants where fish are cleaned, dried,
salted, or frozen. Much of the processing fish is exported to other countries.
Life in Greenland is changing fast. For ceturies, people there had no communication with the rest of the world. They had
very traditional lives. Today Greenland is much more modern. Many changes are taking place, and some of them difficult for
the Greenlanders. It is not easy to move from a traditional life to a mordern life.
Today Greenland is important to the world because scientists study the weather there. They can tell when storms are
developing over the North Atlantic Ocean. This weather information is important because the North Atlantic is a busy
shipping area. Greenland welcomes scientists from many countries of the world. Together these scientists are making
important discoveries about how the weather on our planet is changing. Because of the work that scientists do in Greenland,
people all over the world are learning more about the weather and the environment.
16. Most of Greenland lies in…
A. north of the Arctic Circle B. Europe
C. Denmark D. the Sahara Desert.
17. The huge ice sheet covers……..
A. almost all of the area of Greenland
B. more than two- thirds of Greenland
C. from London to the northern part of the Sahara Desert.
D. Approximately 1.7 million square kilometers
18. The ice sheet……….
A. melts in the summer B. is three kilometers thick
C. is always there D. has a few green plants under it
19. What is the population of Denmark?
A. 6.2 million
B. About 5.6 million
C. It is fifty times the population of Greenland
D. Denmark has fifty times as many people as Norway does
20. When did the Norwegian Vikings first settle in Greenland?
A. In the ninth century.
B. In the tenth century
C. In 1261, when Greenland joined the country of Norway.
D. 3000 years ago.
21. Greenland ……….
A. is flat B. has warm winter
C. is rich in natural resources D. has mountain near the sea.
22. the first people to live in Greenland were….
A. Danes B. Norwegians C. Eskimos D. scientists
23. When the union of Norway and Denmark ended, Greenland ………….
A. joined the country of Norway.
B. choose to stay with the kingdom of Denmark
C. united with the Vikings
D. became independent.
24. Greenland is important to the world because ……..
A. scientists study the weather there B. a huge sheet of ice covers it
C. it is part if of Denmark D. It has many trees and natural resources
25. Which of the following is true of the people of Greenland?
A. All of them are in favor of a more modern Greenland.
B. They still don’t have much communication with the rest of the world.
C. All of them resist the changes that are taking place there.
D. Some of them find it difficult to adapt to mordern life
Your answers:
16. 21.
17. 22.
18. 23.
19. 24.
20. 25.
SECTION E: WRITING (50 points)
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it. (20 points)
1. The collision didn’t damaged my sar much.
Not a great ..................... ………………………………..
2. What has this axperience taught you?
What conclusion .........................................................
3.Tony’s very charming but I wouldn’t trust him.
Charming......................................................................
4. They believe that the robbers got into the bank through the roof.
The robbers..................................................................
5. I don’t think there will be any applicants for this post.( likelihood)
There is………………………………………………………
6. It was his over-confidence that led to his defeat in the Wimbledon final.
If ..................................................................................
7. “ Why don’t you buy a new coat?” – Mary said to her hussband.
Mary ………………………………… ............................
8. The company have been reviewing their recruitment policy for the last three months.
The company’s ...........................................................
9. Kate is the only real friend that Doris has.
Except.........................................................................
10. He decide to repair the things himself and not to take it back to the shop.
Rather.........................................................................
Part II. Writing a paragraph (30 points)
Eating balanced diet is the most important factor for a healthy life. To what extend do you agree?
Write a paragraph of about 200- 250 words to express your viewpoint on this idea.
THE END
B BÌNH LỤC – ĐỀ 2 - 2020
SECTION A: LISTENING (20 points)
Part 1: You will hear a radio interview with a man who works on an international Camp. For questions 1- 5, choose the
answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts.)
1. If you want to apply for the Camp, you must _____.
A. be a student
B. be at least 24 years old
C. speak more than one language
D. shows how you behave in a civilised society.
2. In a Camp tent, you can expect to __________
A. mix with other nationalities
B. share with five other people
C. know the other people
 D. approve of it in principle.
3. The Camp want people who are _____
A. good at cooking
B. good organizers
C. able to mix well
D. good at performing their tricks
4. As a Camp member, you should ___________
A. be a good singer
B. join in performances
C. be good at acting
D. have the ability to concentrate
5. The Camp fees must be paid ________
A. in dollars
B. by cheque
C. before the Camp starts
D. right at the Camp
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 2. You hear a radio interview in which the presenter, Terry Davis, is talking to Dr Elizabeth Jones, an expert on
climate. Listen to the interview and complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and/or A NUMBER. (10 pts.)
CLIMATE CHANGE
1. Climate refers to a ............................................................................ ; weather varies from day to day.
2. Scientists can now .............................................................................. , which helps future projections.
3. A lot of............................................ (e.g. coastal cities) are now more vulnerable to climate changes.
4. In the late 70s: new equipment was developed to calculate the ............................................................ .
There have been very small variations over last 20 years.
5. Most warming in 20th century was caused by increased emissions of ............................................... produced by humans.
6. Small temperature changes may cause ....................................................................... .
7. Evidence of change: melting glaciers, early springs, less snow on mountains, more
frequent ........................................................................... .
8. Oceans and forests absorb some carbon dioxide but burning fossil fuels produces .........................................................
9. It can take up to ......................................................... for carbon dioxide to be removed from atmosphere.
10. One study suggests emissions at a level of 450 parts per million will be necessary to
avoid .......................................................... .
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION B: PHONETICS (10 points)

Part I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest. (5 points)
1. A. surgical B. surround C. surrender D. survival
2. A. stronger B. singer C. finger D. longer
3. A. bathing B. method C. bathroom D. width
4. A. beloved B. naked C. ploughed D. wicked
5. A. generation B. grateful C. educate D. grandparents
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 2. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group. (5 points)
1. A. representative B. satisfactory C. documentary D. deforestation
2. A. maintain B. infamous C. determine D. develop
3. A. channel B. comedy C. cartoon D. common
4. A. acupuncturist B. circulatory C. ineffectively D. vegetarian
5. A. oceanic B. argument C. temperature D. valuable
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (70 points)
Part I. Choose the best answer which best completes each sentence. (20 points)
1. The new school complex cost _____ the city council had budgeted for.
A. just twice as much as B. twice more by far than
C. twice much more than D. almost twice as much as
2. He will be sued for _____ of contract if he does not do what he promised.
A. fracture B. crack C. rupture D. breach
3. There are a lot of crooked people in big cities. If you don’t want to be cheated, you’ll need to keep your _____ about you.
A. mind B. wits C. head D. brain
4. Do you think paparazzi’s taking photos of celebrities is an _______ of privacy?
A. attack B. invasion C. intervention D. offence
5. He said that the plane had already left and that I_________ arrived an hour earlier.
A. must have B. had to C. should have D. was supposed to
6. Mrs. Collin has _________________ that she is unable to get a job.
A. such small education B. so little education
C. a such little education D. a so small education
7. ____________his advice, I would never have got a job.
A. Except B. But for C. Apart from D. As for
8. ________ the phone rang later that night did Ann remember the appointment.
A. No sooner B. Only C. Not until D. Just before
9. Like his mother, Viet is a ____ child who can talk openly to anyone.
A. social B. sociable C. generous D. critical
10. After marriage, Mrs. Hoa always keeps good ____ with her mother-in-law.
A. association B. relation C. friendship D. relationship
11. The scientists are working on a drug capable of the spread of cancerous cells.
A. arresting B. catching C. seizing D. grasping
12. The little boy took an instant liking to his babysitter .
A. upon their first meeting B. before he first met her
C. prior to their first meeting D. as soon as he meets her
13. “How was the game show last night?” - “____”
A. It showed at 8 o'clock.
B. Just talking about it.
C. I think it wasn't a good game.
D. Great. I gained more knowledge about biology.
14. Such _____ that ______ whenever it was on.
A. the popularity of the film was/ the streets were deserted
B. was the popularity of the film/ the streets were deserted
C. the popularity of the film was/ were the streets deserted
D. was the popularity of the film/ were the streets deserted
15. Schoolchildren shouldn't make fun of those who are intellectually _____ to them.
A. responsible B. familiar C. inferior D. essential
16: Joseph would never forget by his boss through no fault of his own.
A. criticizing B. being criticized C. to criticize D. to be criticized
Mark the letter to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
17. It is important to create a daily routine so as to improve your work-life balance today.
A. a situation in which two or more things are not treated the same
B. a state that things are of equal weight or force
C. a state that things are of importance
D. a situation that things change frequently in amount
18. The human respiratory system is a series of organs responsible for taking in oxygen and expelling carbon dioxide.
A. breathing out B. dismissing C. exhaling D. inhaling
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
19. Parents are recommended to collaborate with teachers in educating children.
A. part B. cooperate C. separate D. disagree
20. Humans will enjoy longer life expectancy when they are more conscious of what they eat and do.
A. aware of B. capable of C. responsible for D. suitable for
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Part II. Give the correct word form in each gap to complete the following passage. (20 points)
I hate hot weather because it usually makes me feel _________________ (COMFORT)
1. Jim cannot ever imagine living without music in his life. For him, music is not only an
________________________ but also a therapy. (INSPIRE)
2. Wolfgang Mozart, a gifted Austrian composer and pianist, has been considered one of the
most__________________________ figures in shaping classical music with his many masterpieces of operas, concertos,
symphonies and sonatas. (INFLUENCE)
3. The iPad, which is much more__________________than the laptop, has the same multi-touch interface as the iPod touch.
( PORT)
4. My sister always keeps far from shrimps. She is _______________to this food. (ALLERGY)
5. Thanks to eating healthy food, living in clean environment, Japanese people enjoy the highest life _______________in
the world. (EXPECT)
6. People must have ____ ______for the air pollution. (RESPONSIBLE)
7. I worry about the _______ effect that violent films may have on children. (destruct)
8. He suffered from constant __________ . (SLEEP)
9. You must realize that such _________ cannot be tolerated. (OBEY)
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Part III. Read the following mistake. Identify the mistakes and write their correct forms. (10 points)
Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. Achievement tests are designed to measure
acquiring skills and knowledge, particularly those that have been explicitness taught. The proficiency exams
required by few states for high school graduation are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and
measure a person’s ability to acquire new skills but knowledge. For example, vocation aptitude tests can
help you decide whether you would do better like a mechanic or musician. However, all mental tests are in
some sense achievement tests because they assumption some sort of past learning or experience with
certainly objects, words, or situations. The difference between achievement and aptitude tests is the degree
and intention use.
Your answers:
0. Traditional→ Traditionally
Your Answer:
Mistake Correction Mistake Correction
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Part IV. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10 points)
1. The ship was bound ……………..Japan when it ran into typhoon.
2. I turned ……………..at the meeting but the others didn’t come.
3. Inside your passport, you should write the name of your next……………..kin.
4. We walked out of the room ……………..tiptoe, so as not to disturb the sleeping baby.
5. I hate people who give………………the end of a film that you haven’t seen.
6. Everyone approved of the scheme but when we asked for volunteers they all hung …………………
7. Queen Victoria reigned ……………..Britain and Ireland for over sixty years.
8. His business is growing so fast that he must take …………………more workers.
9. Her uncle was given the award ………………recognition of his services to the factory.
10. John has grown …………………his habit of playing truant.
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Part V. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (10 points)
1. Had we known your new address, we (come)..................to see you.
2. By the time you come here again, this palace (build)…………..
3. His personal problems seem (distract)……………. him from his work lately.
4. I don’t know why you .................................. (always - make) noise in class, Tom.
5. It was urgent that she (leave)................................at once.
6. (Bite)………………..twice, the postman refused to deliver our letters unless we chained our dog up.
7. No sooner the announcement .............. (make) than everyone started complaining.
8. More than twenty miners are reported (kill) ……………………. in the accident.
9. Mr. Johnson is a devoted doctor. He doesn’t mind (call) ……………. when he is having meals.
10. In the past few decades, people ( destroy) …………….. thousands of hectas of forest.
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (50 POINTS)
Part I. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following passage. (20 points)
Every night, almost one billion people go to bed hungry. How can we feed all these (1) ____ people? Farmers all over the
world have to content with weather, insects, and natural disasters, which are capable of (2) ____ crops and ruining years of
hard work. And the population is set to rise to nine billion by 2050. Here are four possible solutions.
GM crops
Proponents of genetically modified crops (GM crops) claim that they will hugely (3) ____ food production. Scientists have
developed drought-resistant and disease-resistant crops, more productive crops, and crops with increased vitamins. Anti-GM
protesters worry (4) ____ health risks and damage to other plants that grow near the GM crops.
Vertical farming
Another answer could be to grow food in buildings. (5) ____ of vertical farming are suggesting we construct multistory,
climate-controlled farm buildings in the heart of our cities. One indoor hectare of land would be (6) ____ to above five
hectares outdoors, so we could grow year-round crops that would easily feed whole cities. Opponents point to the cost, the
increased energy used and the effect on farmers.
Eat less meat. Others say the solution lies not in new technologies, but in eating less meat. It takes about seven kilos of corn
to produce one kilo of beef. That quality of corn will keep more people (7) ____ than that quality of beef. But this is a
message the world doesn't want to hear. Meat consumption is rising steeply.
Increase aid
Rich countries have far more food than they need and waste vast amount of it - 6.7 million tons a year in the UK (8) ____.
We can afford to send surplus food to people (9) ____ need it. We could also simply give more money to developing
countries, (10) ____ they can buy food. Critics say that this makes people dependent on rich countries and is only a short-
term solution.
1. A. undernourished B. unhealthy C. unbelievable D. undeniable
2. A. wasting B. destroying C. killing D. harvesting
3. A. strengthen B. rise C. increase D. enlarge
4. A. about B. to C. with D. on
5. A. Promoters B. Advocates C. Champion D. Spokesmen
6. A. same B. parallel C. alike D. equivalent
7. A. alive B. lively C. vital D. active
8. A. lonesome B. lone C. lonely D. alone
9. A. whom B. which C. who D. what
10. A. because B. but C. so D. since
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part II. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (20 points)
 ITV stands by The X Factor despite lowest ever viewing figures
Show is falling short of former glories and Strictly Come Dancing, but bosses are pleased with its appeal to younger
viewers
ITV is standing by The X Factor despite the current series of the singing competition delivering its lowest ever
viewing figures.
Bosses at ITV and Simon Cowell, whose entertainment company Syco is behind The X Factor, are understood to be
pleased with the number of younger viewers that the show has attracted and the impact the acts have had in the iTunes
download chart.
ITV and Syco are only in the first year of a three-year contract to broadcast The X Factor. The show has already
started advertising next year's auditions.
The X Factor's overnight viewing figures hit an all-time low during the present series. A live episode on Sunday 5
November generated the lowest ever viewing figures since it launched in 2004 - 4.3 million average overnight viewers -
a stark contrast to the 10 million viewers who watched Strictly Come Dancing on the same night and the 17.2 million
who tuned in to see painter Matt Cardie win the final of The X Factor in 2010, which was the programme's peak.
However, The X Factor's figures improve when viewing on catch-up services and repeats are taken into account
and ITV said it had beaten strictly for viewers between the ages of 16 and 34 on eight out of 10 weekends when they
both aired.
Furthermore, 34 songs performed by acts on The X Factor have made the top 100 of the iTunes download chart and 10
have made the top 10, eight of which were original songs.
(Text retrieved from https://www.theguardian.com/tv-and-radio/2017/dec/01/itv-stands-by-x-factor-despite-lowest-
viewing-figures)
1. The current X Factor series .
A. had more viewers than Strictly Come Dancing
B. drew the lowest number of viewers ever throughout all the series
C. reached the peak of viewing figures
D. had less viewers than Strictly Come Dancing
2. The phrase 'standing by' in the passage could be best replaced by which of the following words?
A. finishing B. supporting C. buying D. selling
3. Why are bosses of the X Factor are pleased?
A. Because the influence its act have on the iTunes download charts
B. Because it has attracted quite a number of young viewers
C. Because the influence its act have on the iTunes download charts and it has attracted quite a number of young
viewers
D. Because it is only for entertainment
4. How many more years are ITV and Syco supposed to broadcast The X Factor?
A. one B. two C. three D. four
5. How many people watched Strictly Come Dancing on a live episode on 5 November?
A. 4.3 million B. 17.2 million C. 10 million D. 16 million
6. The word 'stark' in the passage is closest in meaning to which of the following words?
A. sharp B. slight C. loose D. tight
7. In which year did the X Factor witness the highest number of viewers?
A. 2004 B. 2010 C. 2017 D. 2019
8. Who was Matt Cardie?
A. Judge on the X Factor
B. Winner of Strictly Come Dancing 2010
C. Champion of the X Factor 2010
D. Boss at ITV
9. The X Factor had beaten Strictly Come Dancing for viewers of what age on 8 out of 10 weekends of their airing?
A. 8 -10 B. 16-34 C. 1 – 34 D. 1-16
10. How many songs performed by X Factor acts have made the top 100 of the iTunes download charts?
A. 8 B. 10 C. 34 D. 16
Your answers:
 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part III. Read the following article and do the tasks that follow. (10 points)
A. The holiday season has always been a cause for celebration around the world. The opportunity to take a break from work,
be frivolous, go on holiday, meet family and friends – all good reasons to look forward to the holidays with enthusiasm and
anticipation. Or at least that is what we are led to believe.
B. Research carried out in America suggests that these feelings of euphoria may be somewhat misplaced. A study recently
carried out by New York University Child Study Centre has concluded that one in three people of varying ages suffer
‘holiday blues’ to varying extents, from a mild feeling of sadness to severe, sometimes even suicidal, depression. The effects
can manifest themselves in many ways, such as an inability to sleep or sleeping too much, overeating or undereating,
headaches or drinking too much. The report also concluded that not only are there a number of complex causes that can
trigger such depression (psychological and biological), there are an equal number of opinions as to the best solution.
C. According to Dr Frank Pittman, a leading family psychiatrist, the most significant cause for holiday depression actually
stems from our concerns about our family. During the holiday season, families meet, often for the first time since the last
holiday season, and try to make these reunions ‘perfect’. In fact, says Pittman, we count on the holidays to compensate for the
rest of the year. He himself comments that ‘I wanted to make up to the family for not having been a good enough father and
uncle all year’. However, such good intentions are often thwarted by old family arguments, feelings of not being appreciated
or being used, all of which result in holiday stress. It seems that the idyllic picture of our family we wish to build in our minds
cannot be sustained in reality.
D.  Although Pittman holds family to be the source of much of the problem, others point to a more general social context.
Gift shopping, for example, does not help reduce tensions – crowded shops, long queues, the pressure of choosing just the
right present – all of these things contribute to a feeling of stress and anxiety. On the other end of the scale, there are those
without family who experience a sense of extreme loneliness and isolation throughout this period, often spending the long
holidays alone. Any feelings of inadequacy they may harbour throughout the year can often become unbearable at a time
when friends are unavailable and enjoying an apparently cosy break with their loved ones. In fact, such is the extreme nature
of this isolation that many organisations have been established to offer some help and support to those who feel most alone
over what should be the ‘festive’ season.
E. Others, however, argue that more scientific explanations carry an equal weight in explaining holiday blues. Seasonal
Affective Disorder, or SAD as it is more commonly known, is also held responsible for winter depression. A natural reaction
to falling levels of sunlight, the pineal gland secretes the hormone melatonin, which has the effect of slowing the body down.
When days get shorter, more of the hormone is released causing sufferers to become lethargic and miserable. From being
industrious people with plenty of energy, SAD sufferers find themselves increasingly weary and unable to sustain any
prolonged activity, a situation which often leads to depression. In addition, for many people this has a major impact not only
on their personal life but also on their professional life, as employers often see this lack of productivity in terms of laziness or
unwillingness to work. As a result, SAD has been linked directly to the high rate of suicide in a number of Scandinavian
countries during winter months, when there are often a few hours of sunlight a day.
F. The good news for SAD sufferers is that there is a cure, and as far as many medical cures go this is relatively simple. As
the cause is lack of bright light, the treatment is to be in bright light every day. This can obviously be achieved by staying in a
brightly lit climate, explaining why skiing holidays are so popular as they allow people to get plenty of sunlight as well as
providing a stimulating activity. Another method is by using light therapy, in which patients sit in front of a lamp which acts
in the same way as sunlight. To be more specific, the light should be about as bright as early morning sunshine, and the user
should allow the light to reach the eyes for anything up to one hour a day in order to alleviate the symptoms. There are a
number of companies currently manufacturing these lights as a health aid and they are even being prescribed by some
doctors. In addition, they can be bought at considerably less than the cost of a holiday.
G. Whatever fundamental reason underpins holiday depression, it seems reasonable to argue that the phenomenon does
indeed exist. Voluntary support services, offering counseling services to those who need the unbiased and friendly voice of a
stranger to help them work through their unhappiness report a significant increased demand for their services during holiday
periods such as Christmas and the New Year

Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B–F from the list below. Use each heading once only.
List of Headings
I. Family cures VI. Avoiding stress
II. Addressing the problem VII. Manifestations of depression
III. Impact of personality VIII. Depression in children
IV. Psychological factors IX. Pressures of the holiday period
V. Biological factors
1. Paragraph B: ………………
2. Paragraph C: ………………
3. Paragraph D: ………………
4. Paragraph E: ………………
5. Paragraph F: ………………
SECTION E: WRITING (50 points)
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10
points)
1. Without your advice, I would never have made a good investment.
If it hadn’t ...........................................................................................................................
2. I had only just put the phone down when the boss rang back.
 Hardly ……………………………………………………………………………………
3. “I never used bad language,” she said.
 She denied ………………………………………………………………………………
4. Keeping calm is the secret of passing your driving test
 As long as......................................................................................................
5. You should not lock this door for any reason when the building is open to the public.
 Under no…………………………………………………………………………
Part 2: Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as the given one. Using the given word in
brackets. Do not change the word. (10 points)
1. You can use my bike until next Friday if you keep it clean (CONDITION)
 ..............................................................................................................................................
2. Graham spends all his time doing research. (DEVOTED)
 ………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. The train is 5 minutes late in leaving. (DUE)
 …………………………………………………………………………………………
4. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (likelihood)
 ………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately. (SO)
 ……………………………………………………………………….…………………
Part 3: (30 points)
Facebook dominates many people’s life, especially students’. It can have negative effects on their study and physical
development.
Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Write a paragraph of 180- 200 words to express your opinion.